NCA - Test #5 - PrepU - (Chap 56, 57, 58, 59, 63, 64)

b) Sensorineural

A 50-year-old client is concerned about his hearing loss. In your interview before seeing the audiologist for his hearing examination, you discuss the potential causes of hearing loss. He questions which type of loss can be caused by frequent ear infections. What is your response? a) Conductive b) Sensorineural c) Tinnitus d) Exposure

a) "You'll need to use the drops for the rest of your life to control the glaucoma."

A 52-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a follow-up examination after being diagnosed with glaucoma. The client states, "I'm hoping that I don't have to use these drops for very long." Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? a) "You'll need to use the drops for the rest of your life to control the glaucoma." b) "These drops are just the first step to make sure that your vision doesn't get worse." c) "If the drops don't work, surgery may be needed to cure your condition." d) "Most clients need to use the drops for only about a few months."

c) Optic nerve

A 63-year-old client has developed diabetic retinopathy and is seeing the physician regularly to prevent further loss of sight. From where do the nerve cells of the retina extend? a) Trigeminal nerve b) Trochlear nerve c) Optic nerve d) Oculomotor nerve

a) To prevent vision loss

A client accidentally splashes chemicals into one eye. The nurse knows that eye irrigation with plain tap water should begin immediately and continue for 15 to 20 minutes. What is the primary purpose of this first-aid treatment? a) To prevent vision loss b) To hasten formation of scar tissue c) To eliminate the need for medical care d) To serve as a stopgap measure until help arrives

b) Ishihara

A client comes to the eye clinic for a routine check-up. The client tells the nurse they think they are color blind. What screening test does the nurse know will be performed on this client to assess for color-blindness? a) Snellen b) Ishihara c) Rosenbaum d) Jaeger

b) Instillation of mineral oil

A client comes to the walk-in clinic complaining of a "bug in my ear." What action should be taken when there is an insect in the ear? a) Instillation of hot water b) Instillation of mineral oil c) Use of a small forceps d) Instillation of carbamide peroxide

b) demonstrate eyedrop instillation.

A client has just been diagnosed with early glaucoma. During a teaching session, the nurse should: a) assess the client's visual acuity. b) demonstrate eyedrop instillation. c) provide instructions on eye patching. d) teach about intraocular lens cleaning.

a) 25 mm Hg

A client has undergone tonometry to evaluate for possible glaucoma. Which result would the nurse record as abnormal? a) 25 mm Hg b) 20 mm Hg c) 10 mm Hg d) 15 mm Hg

d) The client may experience difficulty seeing in the dark.

A client is prescribed pilocarpine. When preparing the client's teaching plan about this drug, which of the following would the nurse integrate? a) The client may experience a dry mouth and nose. b) The client's pupils will most likely be dilated. c) It acts to decrease aqueous humor production. d) The client may experience difficulty seeing in the dark.

d) Use a hair dryer set on high to dry the ear canal after swimming.

A client who is a competitive swimmer is diagnosed with swimmer's ear (otitis externa). Which instruction would be least appropriate for the nurse to include when teaching the client about this condition? a) Instill alcohol drops into the external ear after swimming. b) Avoid scratching or exposing the ear to scratching or trauma. c) Wear ear plugs when swimming, showering, or washing the hair. d) Use a hair dryer set on high to dry the ear canal after swimming.

c) Abacavir

A client with AIDS develops cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis. Which of the following would the nurse expect as the drug least likely to be prescribed? a) Ganciclovir b) Foscarnet c) Abacavir d) Cidofovir

c) increased intraocular pressure (IOP)

A client with an inflammatory ophthalmic disorder has been receiving repeated courses of a corticosteroid ointment, one-half inch in the lower conjunctival sac four times a day as directed. The client reports a headache and blurred vision. The nurse suspects that these symptoms represent: a) expected drug effects that should diminish over time. b) common adverse reactions to corticosteroid therapy. c) increased intraocular pressure (IOP). d) incorrect ointment application.

b) perimetry test

A client with multiple sclerosis is being seen by a neuroophthalmologist for her routine eye exam. The nurse explains to the client that during the examination, she will be asked to fix her gaze on a stationary point while an object is moved from a point on the side, where it can't be seen, toward the center. The client will indicate when she can see the object. The nurse further explains that the test being performed is called a ________. a) color vision test b) perimetry test c) slit-lamp examination d) retinal angiography

c) Blurred or cloudy visual image

A client, diagnosed with a cataract, comes into the clinic. What assessments should the nurse observe in this client? a) A swollen lacrimal caruncle b) Inability to produce sufficient tears c) Blurred or cloudy visual image d) A burning sensation and the sensation of an object in the eye

d) Loss of accommodative power in the lens.

A nurse conducted a history and physical for a newly admitted patient who states, "My arms are too short. I have to hold my book at a distance to read." The nurse knows that the patient is most likely experiencing: a) Shrinkage of the vitreous body. b) Decreased eye muscle tone. c) Opacity in the lens. d) Loss of accommodative power in the lens.

d) Ptosis

A nurse in a primary care office is getting a client ready for an examination with a health care provider. While talking to the client, she notices that her left upper eyelid is drooping. She records on the client's record that she observed which of the following? a) Nystagmus b) Proptosis c) Ptolemy d) Ptosis

a) "Are you able to raise both eyebrows?"

A nurse is performing an eye examination. Which of the following questions would not be included in the examination? a) "Are you able to raise both eyebrows?" b) "What medications are you taking?" c) "Have you experienced blurred, double, or distorted vision?" d) "Do any family members have any eye conditions?"

b) Stand about 1 to 2 feet away from the ear to be tested.

A nurse is preparing to perform the whisper test to assess a client's gross auditory acuity. Which of the following would be most appropriate for the nurse to do? a) Have the client use a finger to occlude the ear to be tested. b) Stand about 1 to 2 feet away from the ear to be tested. c) Speak a phrase in a low normal tone of voice. d) Stand at a position diagonal to the client.

a) Instill a few drops of warmed mineral oil to cover the insect.

A nurse practitioner in an emergency room receives a telephone call from a mother whose 4-year-old child has a mosquito stuck in his external ear canal. Which of the following is the best information the nurse could give the mother? a) Instill a few drops of warmed mineral oil to cover the insect. b) Use an aural suction cup to pull out the insect. c) Insert a cotton-tipped applicator (e.g., Q-tip) to trap the insect and slowly pull the applicator backward. d) Irrigate the ear canal with warm water to flush out the insect.

d) A mucopurulent ocular discharge

A patient comes to the clinic with a suspected eye infection. The nurse recognizes that the patient most likely has conjunctivitis, as evidenced by what symptom? a) Blurred vision b) Severe pain c) Elevated IOP d) A mucopurulent ocular discharge

b) Antifibrinolytics

A patient has been diagnosed with hyphema. Which of the following medication classifications stabilizes clot formation at the site of hemorrhage? a) Corticosteroids b) Antifibrinolytics c) Diuretics d) Antiplatelets

d) Explain the therapeutic effect and expected outcome of the medication.

A patient has been prescribed eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. At the yearly follow-up appointment, the patient tells the nurse that she has stopped using the medication because her vision did not improve. Which of the following is the appropriate action to be taken by the nurse? a) Administer the medication immediately. b) Talk with the doctor about switching to a different glaucoma medication. c) Refer the patient to the ED. d) Explain the therapeutic effect and expected outcome of the medication.

b) "Prescriptions of this medication are generally not given because it can cause corneal problems."

A patient is diagnosed with a corneal abrasion and the nurse has administered proparacaine hydrochloride (Ophthaine 0.5%) per orders to assess visual acuity. The patient requests a prescription for this medication because it completely took away the pain. What is the best response by the nurse? a) "I will let the doctor know." b) "Prescriptions of this medication are generally not given because it can cause corneal problems." c) "It is standard for the doctor to write a prescription for this medication." d) "Usually we will send you home with this bottle and written instructions for administering the medication."

d) Listening skills

A patient is participating in aural rehabilitation. The nurse understands that this type of training emphasizes which of the following? a) Social skills b) Functional skills c) Occupational skills d) Listening skills

d) BUN and creatinine

A patient is to have an angiography done using fluorescein as a contrast agent to determine if the patient has macular edema. What laboratory work should the nurse monitor prior to the angiography? a) AST and ALT b) Hemoglobin and hematocrit c) Platelet count d) BUN and creatinine

d) Macular degeneration

An older adult patient has noticed a significant amount of vision loss in the last few years. What does the nurse recognize as the most common cause of visual loss in older adults? a) Ocular trauma b) Retinal vascular disease c) Uveitis d) Macular degeneration

b) Myopia

Assessment of visual acuity reveals that the client has blurred vision when looking at distant objects but no difficulty seeing near objects. The nurse documents this as which of the following? a) Emmetropia b) Myopia c) Hyperopia d) Astigmatism

c) Audiologist

Audiometry is testing that measures hearing acuity precisely. Who does the nurse know can perform audiometric testing? a) Hearing aide salesperson b) School nurse c) Audiologist d) Office nurse

c) "It means corrective lenses are required."

Following an ophthalmologic exam, an anxious client asks the nurse, "How serious is a refraction error?" Which of the following is the best response from the nurse? a) "Simple surgery can fix this problem." b) "It is nothing serious." c) "It means corrective lenses are required." d) "This is normal for anyone your age."

b) Aspirin

High doses of which of the following medications can produce bilateral tinnitus? a) Dramamine b) Aspirin c) Promethazine d) Antivert

c) Jennifer's eyeballs are shorter than normal.

Jennifer Higgins, a 42-year-old flight attendant, is being seen at the ophthalmic group where you practice nursing. Jennifer was given a diagnosis of hyperopia, and she is wondering if there is a physical condition that has caused her vision changes. In explaining hyperopia, what do you indicate is the cause of Jennifer's vision changes? a) Jennifer has irregularly shaped corneas. b) Jennifer has unequal curvatures in her cornea. c) Jennifer's eyeballs are shorter than normal. d) Jennifer's eyeballs are longer than normal.

c) To ensure correct application of antibiotic ointment, gently drag tip of tube along lower lid while squeezing ointment on to lid.

Marshall Dunbar, a 7-year-old second grader, is being seen by the pediatric ophthalmologist due to a recent skateboarding accident that resulted in trauma to his right cornea and he is now at risk of developing an infection. Of the following nursing interventions, which one would be contraindicated for a client at risk for infection? a) Change gauze eye bandages using aseptic technique. b) Wash hands before examining the eyes or performing any procedure about the face. c) To ensure correct application of antibiotic ointment, gently drag tip of tube along lower lid while squeezing ointment on to lid. d) Do not use a container of ophthalmic medication for anyone other than the client.

a) The appearance of tiny, yellow spots in the field of vision.

Prior to an eye exam for possible macular degeneration, the nurse completes a history of symptoms. The nurse is aware that a diagnostic sign of age-related dry macular degeneration is: a) The appearance of tiny, yellow spots in the field of vision. b) The abrupt onset of symptoms. c) Reporting that letters in words appear broken. d) Reporting that a straight line appears crooked.

a) Intraocular pressure 15 mm Hg

The client with chronic open-angle glaucoma is receiving timolol (Timoptic) eye drops. Which evaluation finding would indicate to the nurse the treatment is working? a) Intraocular pressure 15 mm Hg b) Reduced peripheral vision c) Halos around lights d) Decrease in nausea and vomiting

c) The client leans forward and turns the head.

The nurse is assessing a client for objective symptoms of hearing difficulties. Which symptom leads the nurse to take alternate measures to ensure client understanding of teaching? a) The client interrupts by asking the nurse to repeat instruction. b) The client quietly reads the instructional literature. c) The client leans forward and turns the head. d) The client is quiet and responds appropriately.

c) The power of the lens to accommodate will be decreased.

The nurse is assessing an older client's vision. The nurse integrates knowledge of which of the following during the assessment? a) Increased fat will be around the orbit. b) The skin around the eyes will be more elastic. c) The power of the lens to accommodate will be decreased. d) The depth of the eyeball will be increased, leading to myopia.

c) Determine if the patient can count fingers.

The nurse is assessing visual acuity via a Snellen chart. The patient states he cannot read the letter at the top of the chart. What action should the nurse do next? a) Obtain a tumbling "E" chart to assess visual acuity. b) Document the findings. c) Determine if the patient can count fingers. d) Complete an internal eye examination.

a) Ophthalmoscope

The nurse is assisting the eye surgeon in completing an examination of the eye. Which piece of equipment would the nurse provide to the physician to examine the fundus and interior of the eye? a) Ophthalmoscope b) Amsler grid c) Tonometer d) Retinoscope

b) Conductive

The nurse is caring for a client experiencing hearing loss. The nurse uses the otoscope to assess the ear canal and tympanic membrane and notes a significant accumulation of cerumen. Which documentation of hearing loss type would be most accurate? a) Central b) Conductive c) Sensorineural d) Mixed

b) Meclizine (Antivert)

The nurse is caring for a patient with Ménière's disease who is hospitalized with severe vertigo. What medication does the nurse anticipate administering to shorten the attack? a) Furosemide (Lasix) b) Meclizine (Antivert) c) Cortisporin otic solution d) Gentamicin (Garamycin) intravenously

b) Changes in accommodation

The nurse is caring for geriatric clients stating that they are prescribed reading glasses. Some individuals state needing assistance with seeing writing far away, and others need assistance with closer vision. The nurse is correct to understand that the aging visual changes relate to which of the following? a) Changes in central vision b) Changes in accommodation c) Changes in the visual field d) Changes in refraction

a) Applies gentle pressure bilaterally on the bridge of the nose to the inner canthus of each eye

The nurse is demonstrating how to perform punctal occlusion. Which of the following activities does the nurse perform? a) Applies gentle pressure bilaterally on the bridge of the nose to the inner canthus of each eye b) Applies gentle pressure to the upper eyelid to keep the lid open while telling the patient to gaze upward c) Firmly applies pressure to the upper and lower eyelids at outer edges to keep eyelids in approximation d) Holds down the lower lid of the eye by applying pressure on the eyeball and the cheekbone

a) Limit foods that are high in sodium.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with Meniere's disease and identifies a nursing diagnosis of excess fluid volume related to fluid retention in the inner ear. Which intervention would be most appropriate to include in the plan of care? a) Limit foods that are high in sodium. b) Administer prescribed antihistamine. c) Restrict high-potassium foods. d) Encourage intake of caffeinated fluids.

d) Patient will experience no falls due to balance disorder.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient with severe vertigo. What expected outcome statement would be a priority for this patient? a) Patient will take medications as prescribed. b) Patient will perform exercises as prescribed. c) Patient will have decreased fear and anxiety. d) Patient will experience no falls due to balance disorder.

b) To reduce the production of fluid in the inner ear

The nurse is doing discharge teaching with a client newly diagnosed with Ménière's disease. Why would the nurse advise a low-sodium diet to this client? a) To minimize the risk of a tumor that involves the vestibulocochlear nerve b) To reduce the production of fluid in the inner ear c) To reduce the magnitude of the hearing deficit d) To minimize the adverse effects of drug therapy

a) Beta-blockers d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors e) Alpha-adrenergic agonists

The nurse is educating a patient with glaucoma about medications. What medications will the nurse educate the patient about that decrease aqueous production? (Select all that apply.) a) Beta-blockers b) Calcium channel blockers c) Miotics d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors e) Alpha-adrenergic agonists

b) The nurse would anticipate the client identifying numbers and shapes.

The nurse is evaluating the client while taking the color vision test. Which response would the nurse anticipate when caring for a client with normal color vision? a) The nurse would anticipate responding to the color names in the pictures. b) The nurse would anticipate the client identifying numbers and shapes. c) The nurse would anticipate no differentiation in between colors. d) The nurse would anticipate a cross-eyed appearance.

c) Marked blurring of vision

The nurse is performing an assessment of the visual fields for a patient with glaucoma. When assessing the visual fields in acute glaucoma, what would the nurse expect to find? a) Clear cornea b) Constricted pupil c) Marked blurring of vision d) Watery ocular discharge

b) "To detect corneal abrasions, a slit lamp is used."

The nurse is precepting a nursing student when a new client comes to the eye clinic. The client explains that they think they have a corneal abrasion. The nurse should explain what to the student nurse? a) "To detect corneal abrasions, ultrasonography is used." b) "To detect corneal abrasions, a slit lamp is used." c) "To detect corneal abrasions, retinal angiography is used." d) "To detect corneal abrasions, an opthalmoscope is used."

c) Face the client when speaking directly to him.

The nurse is providing care to a client who has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of an infection. The client is visually impaired. Which of the following would be most appropriate for the nurse to do when interacting with the client? a) Touch the client before identifying himself or herself. b) Avoid using the terms "see" or "look." c) Face the client when speaking directly to him. d) Talk to the client in a loud tone of voice.

a) Beta-blockers

The patient with glaucoma is usually started on the lowest dose of medication. Which of the following is the preferred initial topical medication? a) Beta-blockers b) Prostaglandins c) Alpha-agonists d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

c) NSAIDS

To avoid the side effects of corticosteroids which medication classification is used as an alternative to treating inflammatory conditions of the eyes? a) Cycloplegics b) Miotics c) NSAIDS d) Mydriatics

c) Serous otitis media

What kind of otitis media is a pathogen-free fluid behind the tympanic membrane, resulting from irritation associated with respiratory allergies and enlarged adenoids? a) Sterile otitis media b) Purulent otitis media c) Serous otitis media d) Infectious otitis media

b) Client pulls the tissue near the cheek downward to instill medication.

What patient activity indicates to the nurse that a patient understands how to correctly instill ophthalmic medications? a) Client rubs the eye after administering medication. b) Client pulls the tissue near the cheek downward to instill medication. c) Client allows the tip of the container to touch the eyelid while administering the medication. d) Client wipes the lids and lashes prior to instillation in a direction toward the nose with moistened, soft gauze.

d) light flashes and floaters in front of the eye.

When obtaining the health history from a client with retinal detachment, a nurse expects the client to report: a) frequent episodes of double vision. b) headaches, nausea, and redness of the eyes. c) a recent driving accident while changing lanes. d) light flashes and floaters in front of the eye.

c) 20/50-3

When undergoing testing of visual acuity with a Snellen chart, the client can read the line labeled 20/50 but misses three letters on the line. The nurse documents this finding as which of the following? a) 20/50 b) 20/20 + 30 c) 20/50-3 d) 20/20/50

c) Educate the patient on using the call light for assistance with ambulation.

Which action by the nurse has the highest priority when caring for a patient diagnosed with vertigo? a) Administer antivertiginous medication as ordered. b) Encourage the patient to stare straight ahead, focusing on one object. c) Educate the patient on using the call light for assistance with ambulation. d) Encourage the patient to keep his or her eyes open.

d) "My eyelids were stuck together this morning."

Which client statement would lead the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing bacterial conjunctivitis? a) "It feels like there is something stuck in my eye." b) "My eyes feel like they are on fire." c) "My eyes hurt when I'm in the bright sunlight." d) "My eyelids were stuck together this morning."

c) Risk for injury related to vertigo

Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for a client admitted for evaluation for Ménière's disease? a) Acute pain related to vertigo b) Risk for deficient fluid volume related to vomiting c) Risk for injury related to vertigo d) Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to nausea and vomiting

c) Cerebellum

Which of the following brain structures is responsible for equilibrium? a) Brainstem b) Thalamus c) Cerebellum d) Hypothalamus

d) Refractive surgery is an elective cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea.

Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding refractive surgery? a) Refractive surgery may be performed on patients with an abnormal corneal structure as long as they have a stable refractive error. b) Refractive surgery may be performed on all patients, even if they have underlying health conditions. c) Refractive surgery will alter the normal aging of the eye. d) Refractive surgery is an elective cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea.

b) Nystagmus

Which of the following is an involuntary rhythmic movement of the eyes that is also associated with vestibular dysfunction? a) Tinnitus b) Nystagmus c) Vertigo d) Presbycusis

c) Glaucoma

Which of the following is the leading cause of blindness in the United States? a) Retinal detachment b) Cataracts c) Glaucoma d) Macular degeneration

c) Cornea

Which of the following is the main refracting surface of the eye? a) Iris b) Conjunctiva c) Cornea d) Pupil

b) Assessing and obtaining an accurate baseline of the function and the structure of the eyes c) Assuring that the client receives eye care to preserve his or her eye function and prevent further visual loss

Which of the following is the role of the nurse toward a client who is undergoing an eye examination and tests? Select all that apply. a) Advising the client on the diet and the exercise regimen to be followed b) Assessing and obtaining an accurate baseline of the function and the structure of the eyes c) Assuring that the client receives eye care to preserve his or her eye function and prevent further visual loss d) Determining if further action is warranted

d) Ensuring that the patient receives eye care to preserve his or her eye function and prevent further visual loss

Which of the following is the role of the nurse toward a patient who is to undergo eye examinations and tests? a) Determining if further action is warranted b) Conducting various tests to determine the function and the structure of the eyes c) Advising the patient on the diet and exercise regimen to be followed d) Ensuring that the patient receives eye care to preserve his or her eye function and prevent further visual loss

d) Papilledema

Which of the following is the term for swelling of the optic disc due to increased IOP? a) Photophobia b) Ptosis c) Chemosis d) Papilledema

a) Vertigo

Which of the following manifestations is most problematic for the patient diagnosed with Ménière's disease? a) Vertigo b) Hearing loss c) Diaphoresis d) Tinnitus

b) Cholinergics

Which of the following medication classifications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? a) Alpha-adrenergic agonists b) Cholinergics c) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors d) Beta blockers

d) Beta blockers

Which of the following medications decreases the production of aqueous humor? a) Mydriatics b) Sympathomimetics c) Miotics d) Beta blockers

a) Check the extraocular muscles by instructing the client to keep his or her head still when following an object.

Which of the following nursing intervention should be included during the assessment of a client with an eye disorder? a) Check the extraocular muscles by instructing the client to keep his or her head still when following an object. b) Instruct the client to stare at the central fixation spot on an Amsler grid and report if he or she sees any distortion of the squares. c) Use a tonometer to indent or flatten the surface of the eye. d) Examine the retina with a direct ophthalmoscope.

d) A full feeling in the ear

Which of the following preattack symptoms may a patient with Meniere's disease report prior to an attack? a) Nystagmus b) Photosensitivity c) Low blood pressure d) A full feeling in the ear

d) Have the patient sit in a wheelchair when moving.

Which of the following precautions should the nurse take when a patient is at risk of injury secondary to vertigo and probable imbalance? a) Restrict the patient from looking at one place. b) Allow the patient to move the head slowly. c) Recommend that the patient keep his or her eyes closed. d) Have the patient sit in a wheelchair when moving.

b) Laser-assisted stromal in situ keratomileusis (LASIK)

Which of the following surgical procedures involves flattening the anterior curvature of the cornea by removing a stromal lamella layer? a) Keratoplasty b) Laser-assisted stromal in situ keratomileusis (LASIK) c) Photorefractive keratectomy (PRK) d) Keratoconus

b) Lacrimal

A 15-year-old baseball player was fielding a ground ball when it bounced and struck him in the left eye, leaving a large ecchymosis and edema. In your client education, after applying an ice pack, you explain to the client the functions of the various structures of the eye. What glands, contained in the eyelids, produce tears? a) Sweat b) Lacrimal c) Sebaceous d) Olfactory

a) "When was your last period?"

A 15-year-old high student reports to the school nurse with complaints of cramping, nausea, diarrhea, and backache. Which of the following assessment questions by the nurse is most appropriate in this situation? a) "When was your last period?" b) "Do you experience burning with urination?" c) "Tell me if you are sexually active." d) "When was your last flu shot?"

d) Take nonprescription preparations.

A client comes to the walk-in clinic complaining of an earache. The cause is found to be impacted cerumen. The client asks the nurse what they can do at home to soften hardened cerumen. What should the nurse recommend to a client to soften hardened cerumen? a) Increase intake of beta-carotene. b) Avoid harsh sunlight. c) Increase intake of red meat. d) Take nonprescription preparations.

d) Use of radioactive seeds implanted into the prostate

A client diagnosed with prostate cancer is to receive brachytherapy. Which of the following would the nurse include when discussing this therapy with the client? a) Need for daily treatments over a 7- to 8-week period b) Use of probes inserted using ultrasound to freeze the tissue c) Surgical castration to decrease the level of circulating testosterone d) Use of radioactive seeds implanted into the prostate

c) It calls for a biopsy as soon as possible.

A client has a routine Papanicolaou (Pap) test during a yearly gynecologic examination. The result reveals a class V finding. What should the nurse tell the client about this finding? a) It calls for a repeat Pap test in 6 weeks. b) It's normal and requires no action. c) It calls for a biopsy as soon as possible. d) It calls for a repeat Pap test in 3 months.

d) Amsler grid

A client has been referred to an ophthalmologist for suspected macular degeneration. The nurse knows to prepare what test for the physician to give the client? a) Visual field b) Slit lamp c) Ishihara polychromatic plates d) Amsler grid

a) Ensuring that the client has a full bladder

A client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound as a follow up to her pelvic examination. Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate? a) Ensuring that the client has a full bladder b) Checking that it has been 5 days since the end of her menses c) Giving the client a mild sedative before the procedure d) Administering laxatives and an enema prior to the procedure

d) cryptorchidism.

A client is undergoing a diagnostic workup for suspected testicular cancer. When obtaining the client's history, the nurse checks for known risk factors for this type of cancer. Testicular cancer has been linked to: a) testosterone therapy during childhood. b) sexually transmitted disease. c) early onset of puberty. d) cryptorchidism.

a) "My sexual partner will also need to be treated."

A client undergoing treatment for vaginitis is also counseled about measures to prevent its recurrence. Which of the following statements tells the nurse that the client effectively understands the prevention protocol? a) "My sexual partner will also need to be treated." b) "I will void immediately after intercourse." c) "I will always douche immediately after intercourse." d) "I shall insert a vaginal suppository after intercourse."

b) Improved acne control c) Reduced incidence of benign breast disease d) Decreased risk of anemia e) Reduced risk of ovarian cancer

A nurse who will be working at a health fair is preparing a presentation on reproductive health and contraception. Which of the following would the nurse expect to include as advantages of combined hormonal contraception? Select all that apply. a) Decreased risk of gallbladder disease b) Improved acne control c) Reduced incidence of benign breast disease d) Decreased risk of anemia e) Reduced risk of ovarian cancer

c) Trichomonas vaginalis

A patient has been diagnosed with a vaginal infection and received a prescription for metronidazole (Flagyl). The nurse knows that this is the recommended treatment for a vaginal infection caused by what organism? a) Streptococcus b) Candida albicans c) Trichomonas vaginalis d) Escherichia coli

d) Wide excision

A patient has been diagnosed with an invasive vulvar malignancy. What primary treatment for invasive vulvar malignancy will the nurse prepare the patient for? a) Laser vaporization b) Chemotherapy creams c) Radiation d) Wide excision

c) Chlamydia trachomatis

A patient has been diagnosed with bacterial conjunctivitis that was sexually transmitted. The nurse informs the patient that the isolated organism is which of the following? a) Streptococcus pneumonia b) Haemophilus influenzae c) Chlamydia trachomatis d) Staphylococcus aureus

d) A cystocele

A patient reports to the nurse that she has a sense of pelvic pressure and urinary problems such as incontinence, frequency, and urgency. The problem has gotten much worse since the birth of her third child. What does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing? a) A urinary tract infection b) An enterocele c) A rectocele d) A cystocele

b) continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution.

A triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter is inserted for continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate. In addition to balloon inflation, the functions of the three lumens include: a) intermittent flow of irrigation solution and prevention of hemorrhage. b) continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution. c) intermittent inflow and continuous outflow of irrigation solution. d) continuous inflow and intermittent outflow of irrigation solution.

a) A 30-year-old pregnant woman with diabetes

Which of the following clients would be at greatest risk for the development of vaginitis? a) A 30-year-old pregnant woman with diabetes b) A 25-year-old woman who douches infrequently c) A 38-year-old woman receiving antibiotics for a sinus infection d) A 45-year-old woman who has not yet undergone menopause

c) Objects are moving around him or her d) Misperception of motion e) Spinning sensation

Which of the following describes vertigo? Select all that apply. a) Fainting b) Syncope c) Objects are moving around him or her d) Misperception of motion e) Spinning sensation

a) Endometrial ablation

Which of the following diagnostic tests is used for severe bleeding that is unresponsive to other therapies? a) Endometrial ablation b) Endometrial biopsy c) Laparoscopy d) Dilation and curettage (D & C)

d) Cystocele

Which of the following is a downward displacement of the bladder toward the vaginal orifice? a) Vulvodynia b) Fistula c) Rectocele d) Cystocele

b) Menorrhagia

Which of the following is a term used to describe excessive menstrual bleeding? a) Amenorrhea b) Menorrhagia c) Dysmenorrhea d) Metrorrhagia

b) Tissue biopsy

Which of the following is the only definitive way to diagnose testicular cancer? a) Computed tomography of abdomen b) Tissue biopsy c) Ultrasound d) Lactate dehydrogenase levels

d) Perimenopause

Which of the following is the period of transition from normal periods to the complete cessation of menses for 1 year? a) Menarche b) Menstruation c) Menopause d) Perimenopause

b) How to perform a testicular self-examination.

Which of the following should nurses teach all men, especially those who have had cryptorchidism? a) Need to undergo a baseline and follow up lymph node biopsies. b) How to perform a testicular self-examination. c) Importance of regular monitoring of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels. d) Need for blood tests to measure serum acid phosphatase levels.

b) Keep lid margins clean

Which of the following should the nurse recommend to a patient with blepharitis? a) Incision and drainage b) Keep lid margins clean c) Warm soaks of the area d) Sleeping with the face parallel to the floor

d) "This test measures peripheral vision and detects gaps in the visual field."

The nurse is giving a visual field examination to a 55-year-old male client. The client asks what this test is for. What would be the nurse's best answer? a) "This test measures visual acuity." b) "This test measures how well your eyes move." c) "This test is to see how well your eyes are aging." d) "This test measures peripheral vision and detects gaps in the visual field."

c) Removing the cerumen by means of a cotton tip applicator

The nurse is instructing the client with dried cerumen blocking the ear canal on potential methods to reduce symptoms. Which at home methods of cerumen removal is discouraged? a) Using warm glycerin or mineral oil to soften the cerumen b) Instilling 1 to 2 drops of half-strength peroxide in the ear c) Removing the cerumen by means of a cotton tip applicator d) Irrigating the ear with warm water and a rubber-bulb syringe

c) Vaginal bleeding

The nurse is interviewing a postmenopausal client during an annual gynecologic exam. Which assessment finding presents the greatest concern in the care of this client? a) Urinary stress incontinence b) Positive for human papillomavirus (HPV) c) Vaginal bleeding d) Use of pessary

a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however, hearing impairment does not generally occur.

Which of the following statements describes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however, hearing impairment does not generally occur. b) BPPV is caused by tympanic membrane infection. c) The onset of BPPV is gradual. d) BPPV is stimulated by the use of certain medication such as acetaminophen.

d) Vesicovaginal fistula

Which of the following terms describes an opening between the bladder and the vagina? a) Cystocele b) Rectovaginal fistula c) Rectocele d) Vesicovaginal fistula

b) It may dislodge the prosthesis.

You are doing discharge teaching with a client after a stapedectomy. Why would it be important for you to advise the client to refrain from blowing the nose? a) It may cause sudden headaches. b) It may dislodge the prosthesis. c) It may cause vertigo. d) It may cause excessive drainage.

c) Nonmobile mass with irregular edges

A client tells the nurse that she has found a painless lump in her right breast during her monthly self-examination. Which assessment finding would strongly suggest that this client's lump is cancerous? a) Nonpalpable right axillary lymph nodes b) Eversion of the right nipple and mobile mass c) Nonmobile mass with irregular edges d) Mobile mass that is soft and easily delineated

d) Ossicles

Nursing students are reviewing the structure and function of the ears in preparation for class the next day. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they describe which of the following as a middle ear structure? a) Organ of Corti b) Auricle c) Membranous labyrinth d) Ossicles

c) should continue to perform breast self-examination on her right breast.

On discharge, a client who underwent left modified radical mastectomy expresses relief that "the cancer" has been treated. When discussing this issue with the client, the nurse should stress that she: a) is lucky that the cancer was caught in time. b) should schedule a follow-up appointment in 6 months. c) should continue to perform breast self-examination on her right breast. d) will have irregular menses.

b) Tamoxifen

Students are reviewing information about the use of adjuvant hormonal therapy for breast cancer. They demonstrate understanding of this information when they identify which of the following as an example of a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)? a) Exemestane b) Tamoxifen c) Anastrozole d) Letrozole

b) In the midline of the client's skull or in the center of the forehead

The client is having a Weber test. During a Weber test, where should the tuning fork be placed? a) Near the external meatus of each ear b) In the midline of the client's skull or in the center of the forehead c) On the mastoid process behind the ear d) Under the bridge of the nose

c) Vestibular

The clinical manifestations of motion sickness are caused by an overstimulation in what system? a) Cochlear b) Cardiovascular c) Vestibular d) Gastrointestinal

c) Histologic exam of tissue

The diagnosis of prostate cancer is confirmed by which of the following? a) Computed tomography b) Magnetic resonance imaging c) Histologic exam of tissue d) Bone scan

c) Fatigue.

The nurse advises a patient scheduled for external beam radiation that side effects are minimal and usually well tolerated. The most common and annoying side effect is: a) Erythema in the inframammary fold. b) Breast edema. c) Fatigue. d) Breast fibrosis.

a) Leukorrhea and irregular vaginal bleeding or spotting

The nurse in the gynecology clinic is interviewing a patient who informs the nurse that her mother and aunt had carcinoma of the cervix. What does the nurse recognize are two chief symptoms of early carcinoma that the patient should be questioned about? a) Leukorrhea and irregular vaginal bleeding or spotting b) Dyspareunia and foul-smelling vaginal discharge c) "Strawberry" spots and menorrhagia d) Leukoplakia and metrorrhagia

a) Are in a monogamous relationship.

The nurse instructs a female client about contraceptive options. The nurse explains that the intrauterine device (IUD) is a good contraceptive option for women who: a) Are in a monogamous relationship. b) Desire short-term use of a contraceptive. c) Have a history of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). d) Have had a history of ectopic pregnancies.

b) A 25-year-old male with a history of cryptorchidism

Which client would the nurse identify as being at highest risk for the development of testicular cancer? a) A 75-year-old white male with erectile dysfunction b) A 25-year-old male with a history of cryptorchidism c) A 45-year-old white male with a history of hypertension d) A 39-year-old African American male who is HIV-negative

c) A 36-year-old Caucasian American who is HIV positive

Which client would the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for testicular cancer? a) A 50-year-old Hispanic American who works in a textile factory b) A 20-year-old African American who was exposed to diethylstilbesterol prenatally c) A 36-year-old Caucasian American who is HIV positive d) A 45-year-old Asian American with an enlarged prostate

b) Endometrial biopsy

Which diagnostic is indicated for postmenopausal bleeding? a) Ultrasound b) Endometrial biopsy c) CT d) MRI

c) Endometrial biopsy

Which diagnostic is indicated for postmenopausal bleeding? a) Ultrasound b) MRI c) Endometrial biopsy d) CT

a) Medication use

Which nursing assessment finding is most significant in determining the plan of care in a client with erectile dysfunction? a) Medication use b) Undescended testicle c) Age d) Sexual history

c) "Would you like to void at this time?"

Which nursing question is essential when caring for a client prior to a pelvic examination? a) "Would you like to have assistance to get in position for the exam?" b) "Are you sexually active?" c) "Would you like to void at this time?" d) "Do you have any sexually transmitted diseases?"

c) Place ear plugs into the ears before swimming

Which nursing suggestion would be most helpful to the client with recurrent otitis externa? a) Avoid lying on the side of the affected ear b) Use a cotton applicator to ensure that the ear canal is dry. c) Place ear plugs into the ears before swimming d) Flush the ear with hydrogen peroxide

b) Syphilis

Which of the following STDs appears to accelerate in HIV-positive patients? a) Gonorrhea b) Syphilis c) Trichomoniasis d) Herpes

a) Plasma testosterone levels decrease.

Which of the following are age-related changes affecting the male reproductive system? a) Plasma testosterone levels decrease. b) Patency increases. c) Testes become soft. d) Prostate secretion increases.

b) Suction c) Irrigation e) Instrumentation

Which of the following are methods of removing foreign bodies from the ear? Select all that apply. a) Stapedotomy b) Suction c) Irrigation d) Stapedectomy e) Instrumentation

d) Bleeding

Which of the following are the earliest and the most common symptom of endometrial cancer? a) Symptoms of pressure on the bladder b) Pain c) Loss of weight d) Bleeding

b) Dilation and curettage (D & C)

Which of the following diagnostic tests is used as a therapeutic measure for incomplete miscarriage? a) Endometrial ablation b) Dilation and curettage (D & C) c) Laparoscopy d) Endometrial biopsy

b) Menorrhagia

Which of the following is the main cause of anemia in a patient with active uterine leiomyoma? a) Pressure of the fibroid on the pelvic veins b) Menorrhagia c) Poor intake of foods containing iron d) Hemolysis

c) Metronidazole

Which of the following is the preferred medication for bacterial vaginosis? a) Terazol b) Gyne-Lotrimin c) Metronidazole d) Monistat

d) Cone biopsy (Conization)

Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Cryotherapy b) Perineorrhaphy c) Colporrhaphy d) Cone biopsy (Conization)

a) Cryotherapy

Which of the following terms is used to describe destruction of tissue by freezing? a) Cryotherapy b) Conization c) Colporrhaphy d) Perineorrhaphy

d) Modified radical mastectomy

Which of the following terms is used to describe removal of the breast tissue and an axillary lymph node dissection leaving muscular structure intact as surgical treatment of breast cancer? a) Segmental mastectomy b) Radical mastectomy c) Total mastectomy d) Modified radical mastectomy

a) Mastalgia

Which of the following terms refers to breast pain? a) Mastalgia b) Mammoplasty c) Mastitis d) Gynecomastia

a) Rinne's

Which of the following tests use a tuning fork between two positions to assess hearing? a) Rinne's b) Whisper c) Weber's d) Watch tick

a) Romberg test

Which of the following tests would be used to determine an inner ear dysfunction? a) Romberg test b) Acoustic reflex testing c) Pure-tone testing d) Tympanometry

d) Pain

Which of the following would be an inaccurate clinical manifestation of a retinal detachment? a) Cobwebs b) Sudden onset of a greater number of floaters c) Bright flashing lights d) Pain

c) Manual pressure

Which of the following would be an incorrect method for removing foreign bodies from the ear? a) Instrumentation b) Suction c) Manual pressure d) Irrigation

d) Multiparity

Which of the following would be inconsistent as a risk factor for breast cancer? a) Late menopause b) Increased age c) Family history of breast cancer d) Multiparity

c) Age of menarche

Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to include to ensure a thorough baseline history related to the reproductive system? a) Exercise and fitness routine b) Cultural history c) Age of menarche d) Nutritional history

d) Using a reliable method of contraception for several weeks.

Which of the following would be most important to include in a teaching plan for a client who has had a vasectomy? a) Taking a prescribed opioid analgesic for pain relief. b) Applying warm compresses to the scrotum for the first 24 hours. c) Resuming sexual activity in 24 to 48 hours. d) Using a reliable method of contraception for several weeks.

c) Digital rectal examination

Which of the following would the nurse expect to be done to assess the size of the prostate? a) Transillumination b) Bladder percussion c) Digital rectal examination d) Pelvic examination

b) Long-term follow-up

Which one of the following options is available to women with an increased risk of developing breast cancer? a) Radiation prevention b) Long-term follow-up c) Unilateral prophylactic mastectomy d) Chemotherapy

d) Macula

Which part of the retina is responsible for central vision? a) Fundus b) Sclera c) Optic disk d) Macula

b) Eustachian tube

Which portion of the middle ear equalizes pressure? a) Ossicles b) Eustachian tube c) Cochlea d) Auricle

c) Tympanic membrane

Which portion of the middle ear equalizes pressure? a) Ossicles b) Cochlea c) Tympanic membrane d) Auricle

b) Hemangioma

Which type of benign tumor of the eyelids is characterized by superficial, vascular capillary lesions that are strawberry red in color? a) Molluscum contagiosum b) Hemangioma c) Milia d) Xanthelasma

c) Excisional

Which type of biopsy would the nurse tell the patient is a usual procedure for any palpable breast mass found on mammography? a) Tru-Cut core b) Incisional c) Excisional d) Stereotactic

b) Assist the client to pump the breasts to remove breast milk.

A female client is diagnosed with breast abscess. She would like to continue to breast-feed her newborn. Which of the following would be most appropriate in this situation? a) Reduce the frequency of removing and reapplying the dressings. b) Assist the client to pump the breasts to remove breast milk. c) Instruct the client to wear a tight-fitting bra. d) Encourage the client to include protein content in the diet.

b) Bulging of the bladder into the vagina

Assessment of a client reveals evidence of a cystocele. The nurse interprets this as which of the following? a) Herniation of the rectum into the vagina b) Bulging of the bladder into the vagina c) Protrusion of intestinal wall into the vagina d) Downward displacement of the cervix

d) Prostate

Which of the following cancers rank second as the cause of death in American men? a) Skin b) Testicular c) Penis d) Prostate

a) conductive hearing loss.

Audiometry confirms a client's chronic progressive hearing loss. Further investigation reveals ankylosis of the stapes in the oval window, a condition that prevents sound transmission. This type of hearing loss is called: a) conductive hearing loss. b) sensorineural hearing loss. c) fluctuating hearing loss. d) functional hearing loss.

b) conductive hearing loss.

Audiometry confirms a client's chronic progressive hearing loss. Further investigation reveals ankylosis of the stapes in the oval window, a condition that prevents sound transmission. This type of hearing loss is called: a) fluctuating hearing loss. b) conductive hearing loss. c) sensorineural hearing loss. d) functional hearing loss.

a) Arterial bleed

Bright red bleeding following prostate surgery indicates which of the following? a) Arterial bleed b) Venous bleed c) Disseminated intravascular coagulation d) Thrombocytopenia

c) hip pain.

Clinical manifestations related to metastasis from prostate cancer include a) polyuria. b) thrombocytopenia. c) hip pain. d) weight gain.

a) "I will avoid having sexual relations until I see the doctor again."

Cone biopsy is a term used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells. Which of the following statements made by the patient demonstrates that the patient undergoing a cone biopsy understands the discharge instructions? a) "I will avoid having sexual relations until I see the doctor again." b) "I will need to use a menstrual pad to capture the moisture as my cervix unfreezes." c) "I require a repeat conization in 2 weeks after the edema subsides." d) "I will use a sitz bath to relieve pain caused by the sutures."

c) A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin

During a breast examination, which finding most strongly suggests that a client has breast cancer? a) Slight asymmetry of the breasts b) Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle c) A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin d) Bloody discharge from the nipple

b) facial nerve paralysis.

If untreated, squamous cell carcinoma of the external ear can spread through the temporal bone causing a) nystagmus. b) facial nerve paralysis. c) diplopia. d) motor impairment.

a) 2

In which stage of breast development does breast budding occur? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1

d) All would be included in the discussion.

Kara Carpenter is a 54-year-old woman who just had a left radical mastectomy. The nurse caring for her is providing information on complications that may arise due to removing the axillary lymph nodes. Which of the following would not be included? a) Reduced range of motion b) Infection c) Tissue necrosis d) All would be included in the discussion.

a) Administer cream at bedtime high into vaginal canal.

Makayla is being seen at the local community-based clinic where you practice nursing. Her healthcare provider has diagnosed Makayla with candidiasis and prescribed clotrimazole cream once daily for 7 days. You are providing education on how to administer the prescribed treatment. Which of the following techniques will Makayla use to administer this medication? a) Administer cream at bedtime high into vaginal canal. b) Administer cream in the morning or after daily shower at the opening of vaginal canal. c) Administer cream outside of vagina once daily at bedtime. d) Administer cream three times daily high into vaginal canal.

c) Alpha-adrenergic blocker

Medical management of BPH includes pharmacologic therapy. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect the health care provider to prescribe for this diagnosis? a) Diuretic b) Analgesic c) Alpha-adrenergic blocker d) Antispasmodic

c) Dyspareunia

Menopause marks the end of a woman's reproductive capacity. Which of the following is a common complaint that may be due to a cystocele? a) Irregular menses b) Decreased pH of the vagina c) Dyspareunia d) Atrophic vaginitis

c) Serum follicle-stimulating hormone

The nurse is caring for a client who states having an irregular menstrual period. Which diagnostic test provides information of the body's ability to ovulate? a) Serum luteinizing hormone b) Thyroid level c) Serum follicle-stimulating hormone d) Estrogen level

d) Spermicide

Nursing students are reviewing information about natural family planning methods in preparation for a quiz the next day. The students demonstrate a need for additional study when they identify which of the following as an example? a) Symptothermal method b) Calendar method c) Basal body temperature d) Spermicide

a) Increased labial thickness

Nursing students are reviewing information about the age-related changes in the reproductive system and their effects. The students demonstrate a need for additional study when they identify which of the following as an expected change? a) Increased labial thickness b) Decreased vaginal lubrication c) Decreased bone formation d) Increased vaginal pH

d) Validate client's feelings of discomfort.

When caring for a client status post ear surgery, what is an important aspect of nursing care? a) Assess social support. b) Feed small frequent meals to minimize nausea. c) Fit for a hearing aid. d) Validate client's feelings of discomfort.

d) Recurrence within 2 years of the original diagnosis

On a follow-up visit, the patient is informed that her breast cancer has recurred. The nurse knows which of the following situations places the patient at risk for developing bone metastases? a) Aggressive treatment, including surgery, radiation, and hormonal therapy b) No maternal family history of breast cancer c) Previous therapeutic response to chemotherapy d) Recurrence within 2 years of the original diagnosis

b) Progesterone

Ovulation occurs midway between days 17 and 22 (usually at day 14) in a normal 28-day menstrual cycle. Conception occurs during ovulation. If an egg is fertilized, this hormone will continue to be produced to protect the egg until the placenta takes over. Which of the following is the correct hormone? a) Luteinizing hormone b) Progesterone c) Estrogen d) Follicle-stimulation

d) Candida albicans

Samantha Velasquez, a 24-year-old preschool teacher, is being seen by the physician in the primary care group where you practice nursing. Over the past 2 months, she has been receiving treatment for multiple ear infections and tonsillitis. She reports a curdy white vaginal discharge and burning with urination. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms? a) Trichomonas vaginalis b) Gardnerella vaginalis c) None of the above d) Candida albicans

c) Lymphedema

Sentinel lymph node mapping is done to validate the lack of lymph node metastasis. Which of the following complications does this technique help avoid? a) Breast cancer b) Fibroadenoma c) Lymphedema d) Mastalgia

a) Inform the physician immediately.

Several days before admission, a client reports finding a small lump in the left breast near the nipple. What should the nurse tell the client to do? a) Inform the physician immediately. b) Squeeze the nipple to check for drainage. c) Put a heating pad on the area to reduce inflammation. d) Check the area after the next menses.

c) Testes

Students preparing for a test are reviewing the structure and function of the male reproductive system. They demonstrate understading of the material when they identify which of the following as the site of spermatogenesis? a) Vas deferens b) Prostate gland c) Testes d) Seminal vesicles

d) The lump is round and movable.

The client arrives at a public health clinic worried that she has breast cancer since finding a lump in her breast. When assessing the breast, which assessment finding is characteristic of fibrocystic disease? a) Nipple retractions are noted. b) One breast is larger than the other. c) The lump is firm and nonmovable. d) The lump is round and movable.

d) Family history of breast cancer

The client is asking if there is a pill that can be ordered to control the symptoms of menopause. Which assessment finding is most important in determining nursing care in association with hormone replacement therapy? a) Presence of kyphosis b) Symptoms of hot flashes c) History of osteoporosis d) Family history of breast cancer

d) Tissue biopsy

The client states to the nurse that he is very anxious about having prostate cancer ever since his prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test came back elevated. The client asks, "Which diagnostic test produces definitive results if cancer is present?" The nurse is most correct to state which of the following? a) Tumor marker studies b) Digital rectal exam c) Transrectal ultrasonography d) Tissue biopsy

a) The eighth cranial nerve

The nurse is caring for a client with symptoms of ototoxicity from amino glycoside administration. On which structure does the medication produce the ototoxic effect? a) The eighth cranial nerve b) The cochlear nerve c) The tympanic membrane d) The auditory canal

c) Inspection of the external genitalia

The examiner is preparing to perform a pelvic examination. Which of the following would be done first? a) Bimanual palpation b) Specimen collection for a Pap smear c) Inspection of the external genitalia d) Inspection of the cervix

b) Labia majora and minora

The expert nurse is assisting a novice nurse insert a Foley catheter. The novice nurse has tried unsuccessfully to insert the catheter, and the expert nurse is providing verbal guidance while spreading which area to reveal the urethral opening? a) Fourchette b) Labia majora and minora c) Meatus d) Clitoris

d) Luteinizing hormone.

The menstrual cycle is dependent on the interplay among a number of hormones. The hormone(s) responsible for stimulation of progesterone is (are): a) Follicle-stimulating hormone. b) Androgens c) Estradiol d) Luteinizing hormone.

a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age

The nurse recognizes which of the following statements as accurately reflecting a risk factor for breast cancer? a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age b) Multiparity c) Onset of menses before 14 years of age d) No alcohol consumption

a) III

The upper eyelid normally covers the uppermost portion of the iris and is innervated by which cranial nerve? a) III b) IV c) I d) II

c) Malodorous, gray vaginal discharge

Typical clinical manifestations of bacterial vaginosis (BV) include which of the following? a) Yellow vaginal discharge b) Frothy, white vaginal discharge c) Malodorous, gray vaginal discharge d) Thick, white adherent discharge

b) "I need to use the pads of three fingers to apply pressure when checking each breast."

Which statement demonstrates that a client has understood instructions about breast self-examination? a) "I don't need to check the nipple area of the breast or under my arm." b) "I need to use the pads of three fingers to apply pressure when checking each breast." c) "I should perform the exam on the first day of my menstrual period." d) "I should move the palm of my hand around the breast in a diagonal fashion."

c) node negative, tumor size 1.2 cm

Your patient is receiving adjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer. Which of the following is most likely her node status and tumor size? a) node negative, tumor size 0.5 cm b) node negative, tumor size 0.2 cm c) node negative, tumor size 1.2 cm d) node negative, tumor size 0.3 cm

c) Tissue expansion

he physician's office for which procedure completed before the surgery can be done? a) Fluid drainage b) Incisional alignment c) Tissue expansion d) Pain control

c) Vulvar pruritus.

A nurse who works in a gynecologist's office frequently cares for patients who are diagnosed with vulvovaginal candidiasis. The nurse should teach the patients how to manage and treat the most common symptom of: a) Dyspareunia. b) Dysuria. c) Vulvar pruritus. d) Vaginal pain.

b) Tamoxifen

A nurse who works in an oncology practice prepares patients for the side effects of adjuvant hormonal therapy to treat breast cancer. Which of the following is the hormonal agent that has an increased risk of pulmonary embolism and deep vein thrombosis? a) Letrozole b) Tamoxifen c) Exemestane d) Anastrozole

a) Inner ear

A client complains of vertigo. The nurse anticipates that the client may have a problem with which portion of the ear? a) Inner ear b) Middle ear c) External ear d) Tympanic membrane

a) Cottage cheese-like discharge

A client reports experiencing vulvar pruritus. Which assessment factor may indicate that the client has an infection caused by Candida albicans? a) Cottage cheese-like discharge b) Yellow-green discharge c) Discharge with a fishy odor d) Gray-white discharge

d) "These are normal, manageable symptoms of menopause."

A client reports loss of interest in sexual relations and discomfort during intercourse. Which is the best response by the nurse? a) "Don't worry, every woman goes through this." b) "Hormone replacement therapy can resolve your symptoms." c) "You need to discuss this with your spouse." d) "These are normal, manageable symptoms of menopause."

d) Assessing the vital signs and oxygen saturation levels.

A client returns to the recovery room following a mastectomy. An initial postoperative assessment is performed by the nurse. What is the nurse's priority assessment? a) Checking level of pain first upon the clients return from the operating room. b) Checking for urinary retention and the need to void. c) Checking the dressing, drain, and amount of drainage. d) Assessing the vital signs and oxygen saturation levels.

c) Toxic shock syndrome

A 12-year-old adolescent is being seen in the primary care office where you practice nursing. She has just had her first menses, and you are advising her on how to use a tampon. Your instructions include using the least absorbent tampon and to change tampons frequently, at least every 4 to 6 hours. Which of the following conditions are you most likely trying to prevent? a) Pelvic inflammatory disease b) Vaginitis c) Toxic shock syndrome d) Cervicitis

d) The test is used to detect early cancer of the cervix and to determine estrogen activity as it relates to menopause or endocrine abnormalities.

A 21-year-old female is talking with a nurse at her gynecologist's office. She is scheduled to have her first Pap test and she asks the nurse why she needs to have this test done. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a) The test is used to detect early cancer of the cervix and to determine progesterone activity as it relates to menopause or endocrine abnormalities. b) The test is used to detect early cancer of the ovaries and to determine progesterone activity as it relates to menopause or endocrine abnormalities. c) The test is used to detect early cancer of the vagina and to determine estrogen activity as it relates to menopause or endocrine abnormalities. d) The test is used to detect early cancer of the cervix and to determine estrogen activity as it relates to menopause or endocrine abnormalities.

b) Limit douching.

A 23-year-old client is being seen for the second time in 3 months because of vaginal discharge and itching. What would you expect the physician to recommend to the client to prevent this disorder from recurring? a) Limit intercourse. b) Limit douching. c) Limit tub baths. d) Limit soaps with fragrance.

c) Antibiotics

A 24-year-old client is being seen by the physician in the primary care group where you practice nursing. Over the past 2 months, the client has been receiving treatment for multiple ear infections and tonsillitis. She reports vaginal discharge and itching at this appointment. What would you expect to be the cause of her vaginitis? a) Regulated diabetes b) Increased estrogen c) Antibiotics d) Infrequent douching

d) Symptoms may be accelerated by pregnancy.

A 24-year-old female client is diagnosed with otosclerosis. Which teaching is most accurate? a) Females otosclerosis is linked with infertility. b) Medications can interfere with birth control pills. c) Menstrual periods may be longer and more severe. d) Symptoms may be accelerated by pregnancy.

d) Retroversion

Upon examination, the nurse practitioner notes a backward positioning of the patient's uterus. How would the nurse document this finding? a) Retroflexion b) Anteflexion c) Anteversion d) Retroversion

b) "Describe any abdominal pain you may be experiencing." d) "Have you noticed any episodes of chest pain?" e) "Tell me about the last time you had leg pain."

A 25-year-old sales manager with a financial firm reports to the health care unit with high stress levels and a BP reading of 130/80 mm Hg. She admits that her life has been stressful as she is unable to meet sales targets and is going through a financial crisis. She suffers from frequent headaches and blurred vision. She currently uses a cervical ring for contraception. Which of the following additional assessment questions related to the patient's choice of contraception does the nurse need to ask? Select all that apply. a) "When was your last self-breast exam?" b) "Describe any abdominal pain you may be experiencing." c) "When was your last bowel movement?" d) "Have you noticed any episodes of chest pain?" e) "Tell me about the last time you had leg pain."

c) First week after menstruation.

A 28-year-old woman is learning about breast self-examination. The nurse teaches the woman that the best time of each month to examine her breasts is during the: a) Week that ovulation occurs. b) Week that menstruation occurs. c) First week after menstruation. d) Week before menstruation occurs.

d) Sensorineural

A 3-year-old client with severe hearing loss is being seen by an audiologist. Understandably, the client's mother is quite concerned about her child's future independence because of his impaired hearing. During your education session, the client asks which type of hearing loss is usually irreversible. What is your response? a) Noise exposure b) Tinnitus c) Conductive d) Sensorineural

d) "Most cysts are benign in younger women, but it's good to have it checked out."

A 32-year-old client has been diagnosed with an ovarian cyst and asks the nurse, "Should I be worried about cancer?" Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? a) "Ovarian cysts are just that, cysts and not a cause for concern." b) "Ovarian cysts can be malignant but this is a rare occurrence." c) "Since you don't have any symptoms, the chances of having cancer are really remote." d) "Most cysts are benign in younger women, but it's good to have it checked out."

d) Cyclical hormonal changes

A 32-year-old client is concerned with the lumps that have developed in her breasts and is fearful of cancer. She reports variability in the size of the lumps. What could be causing her condition? a) Caffeine b) Nicotine c) Progesterone d) Cyclical hormonal changes

b) Chemoprevention

A 33-year-old female patient with three children has had a follow-up mammogram following an abnormal BSE. Mammogram findings reveal an incidental microscopic abnormal tissue growth in the left breast lobules. The physician orders tamoxifen (Soltamox) for the patient. The nurse understands that the physician is implementing which of the following primary prevention modalities to treat this patient? a) Long-term surveillance b) Chemoprevention c) Radiation therapy d) Prophylactic mastectomy

b) Cervical cap

A 35-year-old African American who is a regular smoker visits the health care unit with sustained elevated blood levels and is diagnosed with essential hypertension. She is also diabetic. Which of the following contraceptive methods is best for this patient? a) Menotropins (Repronex) therapy b) Cervical cap c) NuvaRing placement d) Clomiphene (Clomid) therapy

c) Ductal

A 37-year-old client has been diagnosed with breast cancer and is awaiting the cytology results of her biopsy. During your client education session, you discuss the possible types of breast malignancies. Which is the most common type? a) Inflammatory b) Medullary c) Ductal d) Infiltrating lobular

a) Digital mammography is advantageous for women with dense breasts because evidence of abnormalities may be more evident using this technique.

A 40-year-old female is scheduled to have her baseline mammogram. Prior to the exam, she asks the nurse in her gynecologist's office several questions that she has about mammography. Which of the following statements will the nurse tell the woman to best explain mammography? a) Digital mammography is advantageous for women with dense breasts because evidence of abnormalities may be more evident using this technique. b) A mammogram is performed to differentiate fluid-filled cysts from other types of breast lesions. c) Conventional mammography is done to diagnose breast cancer. d) A mammogram is performed to determine if a breast lesion is malignant.

b) Concerns regarding the cancer and how the surgery will affect her.

A 43-year-old client is a single parent and has been admitted for a left mastectomy after confirmation of cancer from a node biopsy. She has a daughter who is 12 years old. What are primary issues for the nurse to discuss with this client? a) History of breast cancer in the family. b) Concerns regarding the cancer and how the surgery will affect her. c) Effect of surgery on the family's coping abilities. d) How body image changes will affect her sexual relationships.

a) All options are correct.

A 48-year-old client with challenging menopausal symptoms is visiting the OB-GYN practice where you practice nursing. She has discussed treatment options with the physician and now has some questions that she would like to further discuss with you. The client includes in her questioning, "What are the potential risks of hormone replacement therapy?" Which of the following is the best answer? a) All options are correct. b) Stroke (CVA) c) Heart disease d) Breast cancer

d) Finasteride (Proscar)

A 48-year-old man recently diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), reports taking Serenoa repens (saw palmetto berry). The nurse needs to intervene if the physician orders which of the following treatments? a) Terazosin (Hytrin) b) Ketoconazole (Nizoral) c) Sipuleucel-T (Provenge) d) Finasteride (Proscar)

b) All options are correct.

A 51-year-old client is being seen by an urologist for perineal pain, low back pain, fever lasting 5 days, and painful urination. The physician confirms a diagnosis of prostatitis and orders treatment. During your client education session, which of the following recommendations do you make? a) Complete the prescribed antibiotic treatment. b) All options are correct. c) Regularly drain the gland. d) Avoid caffeine.

c) "The clinical breast evaluation will be completed with annual gynecologic examination."

A 52-year-old client asks the nurse how she is to remember when to schedule her clinical breast examination. Which response by the nurse is most correct? a) "The office staff can schedule your clinical breast examination twice a year." b) "You can complete the examination at home and report if you found anything abnormal." c) "The clinical breast evaluation will be completed with annual gynecologic examination." d) "The diagnostic center will send you a reminder card to complete the annual examination."

a) A painless mass in the breast, most often in the upper outer quadrant

A 54-year-old woman presents to her healthcare provider's office where you practice nursing. She is very concerned that she might have breast cancer, especially after caring for her sister that recently died from the disease. Included in your discussion is the primary and most common sign of breast cancer. Which of the following would meet this criterion? a) A painless mass in the breast, most often in the upper outer quadrant b) A painless mass in the breast, most often in the lower quadrant near the nipple c) A painful mass in the breast, most often in the upper outer quadrant d) A painful mass in the breast, most often in the lower quadrant near the nipple

b) Circumcision

A 57-year-old client is being seen at the free clinic where you practice nursing. He has an edematous glans penis, pain, and an extremely constricted foreskin. What treatment would you expect the physician to prescribe? a) Scrotal support b) Circumcision c) Increased hygienic measures d) Narcotic analgesics

b) Orchiectomy

A 59-year-old African American male has opted for the hormonal androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) to treat his prostate cancer. Which of the following surgical procedures is the patient most likely to undergo? a) Hydrocelectomy b) Orchiectomy c) Circumcision d) Vasectomy

b) One in eight

A 67-year-old client underwent a lumpectomy for a breast lesion that was determined to be malignant. What is the likelihood of a woman developing breast cancer? a) One in 20 b) One in eight c) One in 10 d) One in five

a) All options are correct.

A 67-year-old client underwent a lumpectomy for a breast lesion that was determined to be malignant. Which of the following are factors in the client's history that may have increased her risk of breast cancer? a) All options are correct. b) Not giving birth c) Increased age d) Obesity

a) The one he will use

A 72-year-old client has a lengthy history of progressive hearing loss. The client is very forthright about his condition, and the nurse wants to develop a communication strategy for his hospital stay. Which of the following communication strategies has proven to be the most effective? a) The one he will use b) Signing c) Speech reading d) Writing

a) Prepare the client for surgery

A client comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden sharp testicular pain. Further examination reveals torsion of the spermatic cord. Which of the following would the nurse expect to do next? a) Prepare the client for surgery b) Prepare the client for circumcision c) Apply a dressing over the scrotum d) Apply a scrotal support

b) The lump is irregularly shaped.

A client comes to the clinic for a routine evaluation. During the physical examination, the nurse palpates the client's breast and finds a small lump. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect possible breast cancer? a) The lump is soft. b) The lump is irregularly shaped. c) The client reports tenderness during the palpation. d) The lump is mobile.

b) Testicular torsion

A client comes to the emergency department reporting severe testicular pain that started about 1 hour ago. Examination reveals a thickened spermatic cord, an elevated testis, and testicular tenderness. The nurse would interpret these findings to suggest which of the following? a) Epididymitis b) Testicular torsion c) Orchitis d) Testicular cancer

c) Mineral oil

A client comes to the emergency department, reporting that a bee has flown into his ear and is stuck. The client reports a significant amount of pain. Which of the following would be most appropriate to use to remove the bee? a) Irrigation b) Tweezers c) Mineral oil d) Hair pin

d) Timing of symptoms in relation to the menstrual cycle

A client complains of having tender and painful breasts, often feeling multiple lumps within her breast tissue. The nurse would need to gather additional information about which of the following? a) Alcohol and caffeine consumption b) Bathing frequency and living surroundings c) Client's workplace in relation to the surroundings d) Timing of symptoms in relation to the menstrual cycle

a) "I need to use an electric shaver when shaving my right armpit."

A client has had a right modified radical mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection. The nurse is teaching the client about measures to reduce the risk of complications. The client demonstrates understanding of the instructions when she states which of the following? a) "I need to use an electric shaver when shaving my right armpit." b) "Anytime I need blood drawn, they should get the sample from my right arm." c) "I should tell my manucurist that it is okay to trim the cuticles on my right hand." d) "I can lift with my right arm objects that weigh as much as 15 pounds."

b) Bladder dysfunction

A client has undergone a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oopherectomy as treatment for endometrial cancer. When providing postoperative care to this client the nurse would be alert for signs and symptoms of which of the following? a) Leukopenia b) Bladder dysfunction c) Clotting deficiencies d) Neurotoxicity

c) Encouraging coughing and deep breathing exercises

A client has undergone a transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous (TRAM) flap procedure for breast reconstruction immediately following a mastectomy. Which of the following would be most appropriate to include in the client's postoperative plan of care? a) Maintaining the client in the supine position b) Inspecting the breast site for expected mottling c) Encouraging coughing and deep breathing exercises d) Monitoring the single incisional site at the breast

d) "I'm going to be able to hear normally again."

A client is being prepared for a cochlear implant. Which client statement would alert the nurse to the need for additional teaching? a) "I'll be able to hear medium and loud sounds for once." b) "I'll have a small incision behind my ear." c) "I'll wear an external transmitter and microphone." d) "I'm going to be able to hear normally again."

a) Mammogram

A client is considering breast augmentation. Which of the following would the nurse recommend to the client to ensure that there are no malignancies? a) Mammogram b) Mastopexy c) Breast biopsy d) Ultrasound

b) Leave the room and notify the radiation therapy department immediately.

A client is in isolation after receiving an internal radioactive implant to treat cancer. Two hours later, the nurse discovers the implant in the bed linens. What should the nurse do first? a) Stay in the room and call for help. b) Leave the room and notify the radiation therapy department immediately. c) Put the implant back in place, using forceps and a shield for self-protection, and call for help. d) Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead-lined container.

b) Evaluating patency of the drainage lumen

A client is ordered continuous bladder irrigation at a rate of 60 gtt/minute. The nurse hangs a 2 L bag of sterile solution with tubing on a three-legged I.V. pole. She then attaches the tubing to the client's three-way urinary catheter, adjusts the flow rate, and leaves the room. Which important procedural step did the nurse fail to follow? a) Collecting a urine specimen before beginning irrigation b) Evaluating patency of the drainage lumen c) Attaching the infusion set to an infusion pump d) Counter-balancing the I.V. pole

d) Headaches

A client is prescribed a combination hormonal contraceptive. The nurse would instruct the client to report which of the following immediately? a) Nausea b) Mood changes c) Difficulty hearing d) Headaches

c) Weight gain

A client is prescribed androgen therapy. Which of the following would the nurse explain as a possible adverse effect? a) Decreased libido b) Areolar pigmentation c) Weight gain d) Severe bleeding from the vagina

a) "The drug interferes with testosterone, which causes the prostate to shrink in size."

A client is prescribed dutasteride (Avodart) as part of treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). When teaching the client about this drug, the nurse integrates knowledge of the drug's action. Which statement best reflects this? a) "The drug interferes with testosterone, which causes the prostate to shrink in size." b) "The drug causes the smooth muscles of the bladder to relax so urine will flow more easily." c) "The drug restores the balance of the normal microorganisms found in the bladder to improve urine flow." d) "The drug causes nitrous oxide to be released, leading to increased blood flow and urination."

c) Gynecomastia

A client is receiving leuprolide as part of his treatment for prostate cancer. The nurse would be alert for which of the following as a possible adverse effect? a) Nipple retraction b) Reports of increased libido c) Gynecomastia d) Muscle overgrowth

a) Arrange for audiograms twice a week.

A client is receiving long-term intravenous therapy with gentamicin for a chronic wound infection. Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to ensure? a) Arrange for audiograms twice a week. b) Assess intravenous access site daily. c) Monitor complete blood counts every other day. d) Obtain specimens for wound cultures daily.

b) "The surgeon is going to insert a scope through my urethra to remove a portion of the gland."

A client is scheduled for a transurethral rescection of the prostate (TURP). Which statement demonstrates that the expected outcome of "client demonstrates understanding of the surgical procedure and aftercare" has been met? a) "I'll have a small incision on my lower abdomen after the procedure." b) "The surgeon is going to insert a scope through my urethra to remove a portion of the gland." c) "The surgeon is going to remove the entire prostate gland." d) "I'll have to stay in the hospital for about 3 to 4 days after the surgery."

c) Use sterile technique when irrigating the catheter.

A client underwent a transurethral resection of the prostate gland 24 hours ago and is on continuous bladder irrigation. Which nursing intervention is appropriate? a) Prepare to remove the catheter. b) Restrict fluids to prevent the client's bladder from becoming distended. c) Use sterile technique when irrigating the catheter. d) Tell the client to try to urinate around the catheter to remove blood clots.

c) Escherichia coli

A client who comes to the clinic complaining of perineal pain, dysuria, and fever is diagnosed with prostatitis. The nurse understands that which of the following organisms would be the most likely cause? a) Staphylococcus b) Streptococcus c) Escherichia coli d) Paramyxovirus

a) Client has cerumen in the ear.

A client who has been fitted with a hearing aid comes for a follow-up evaluation. During the visit, the client states, "I've noticed that I still don't seem to hear well enough. The hearing aid doesn't seem to make the sounds louder." Which of the following might the nurse determine as the possible cause? a) Client has cerumen in the ear. b) Ear mold is loose. c) The mold is not properly fitted. d) The client has an ear infection.

d) "Do you feel like you're ready to look at your incision now?"

A client who has had a left total mastectomy is about to view her surgical site for the first time. Which of the following would be most appropriate for the nurse to say? a) "Did you have reconstructive surgery when they removed your breast?" b) "You need to look at the incision so you can heal emotionally." c) "Don't be afraid. Everybody feels the same way." d) "Do you feel like you're ready to look at your incision now?"

c) Breast tenderness

A client with Stage IV prostate cancer is to receive hormone therapy. The nurse would inform the client about possible adverse effects including which of the following? a) Increased libido b) Deepening of voice c) Breast tenderness d) Enhanced potency

c) "Don't fly in an airplane, climb to high altitudes, make sudden movements, or expose yourself to loud sounds for 30 days."

A client with a conductive hearing disorder caused by ankylosis of the stapes in the oval window undergoes a stapedectomy to remove the stapes and replace the impaired bone with a prosthesis. After the stapedectomy, the nurse should provide which client instruction? a) "Shampoo your hair every day for 10 days to help prevent ear infection." b) "Try to ambulate independently after about 24 hours." c) "Don't fly in an airplane, climb to high altitudes, make sudden movements, or expose yourself to loud sounds for 30 days." d) "Lie in bed with your head elevated, and refrain from blowing your nose for 24 hours."

c) Erosion of penile or urethral tissue

A client with a penile implant is to be informed about the possible complications after discharge. Which of the following are complications that occur due to a midsized implant, pressure, or friction of the implanted cylinders? a) Erosion of scrotal, bowel, or bladder tissue b) Migration of the cylinders, pump, and reservoir c) Erosion of penile or urethral tissue d) Malfunction of the device

c) Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)

A client with benign prostatic hyperplasia doesn't respond to medical treatment and is admitted to the facility for prostate gland removal. Before providing preoperative and postoperative instructions to the client, the nurse asks the surgeon which prostatectomy procedure will be done. What is the most widely used procedure for prostate gland removal? a) Retropubic prostatectomy b) Suprapubic prostatectomy c) Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) d) Transurethral laser incision of the prostate

b) They lower the level of estrogen in the body blocking the tumor's ability to use it.

A client with breast cancer is scheduled to undergo chemotherapy with aromatase inhibitors. Which of the following best reflects the rationale for using this group of drugs? a) They stimulate the immune system to attack a protein common in many tumors. b) They lower the level of estrogen in the body blocking the tumor's ability to use it. c) They attach to endogenous protein receptors to slow the growth of cancerous cells. d) They block progesterone-dependent tumors from growing.

c) "You may experience headache and some flushing with this drug."

A client with erectile dysfunction is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following would the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client? a) "The effects of this medication usually last for up to 48 hours." b) "You need to take this medication throughout the day to be effective." c) "You may experience headache and some flushing with this drug." d) "Your blood glucose level might increase when you take this drug."

b) Underinflation or bulging of the cylinders during inflation

A client with erectile dysfunction who had a penile implant inserted has been taught how to identify malfunction of the device. Which of the following if stated by the client as indicative of malfunction would indicate to the nurse that the client has understood the teaching? a) Migration of the cylinders, pump, or reservoir from their intended location b) Underinflation or bulging of the cylinders during inflation c) Erosion of penile or urethral tissue d) Erosion of scrotal, bowel, or bladder tissue

a) Take sitz baths frequently

A client with vaginitis complains of itching and burning of the perineum. Which suggestion would be most appropriate to relieve the client's symptoms? a) Take sitz baths frequently b) Use a pure vinegar douche daily. c) Use skin protectants containing zinc oxide. d) Avoid yogurt with active lactobacilli cultures.

c) Human papillomavirus infection at age 32

A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining the client, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client's history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer? a) Pregnancy complicated with eclampsia at age 27 b) Onset of sporadic sexual activity at age 17 c) Human papillomavirus infection at age 32 d) Spontaneous abortion at age 19

a) an expected effect of the radiation therapy.

A client, who had intracavity radiation treatment for cervical cancer 1 month earlier, reports small amounts of vaginal bleeding. This finding most likely represents: a) an expected effect of the radiation therapy. b) infection secondary to a change in vaginal flora. c) recurrence of the carcinoma. d) development of a rectovaginal fistula.

d) "Symptoms of endometriosis are increased during normal menstrual cycle."

A client, who wishes to preserve childbearing, asks the nurse to explain how taking oral contraceptives will work in the management of endometriosis. Which is the best response by the nurse? a) "Endometriosis is usually cured with surgical menopause." b) "Contraceptives will allow blood to be diverted to the peritoneal cavity." c) "Trapping blood causes less pain or discomfort for clients with endometriosis." d) "Symptoms of endometriosis are increased during normal menstrual cycle."

c) This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.

A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client? a) The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time she and her partner have sexual intercourse. b) The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can't be transmitted during oral sex. c) This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually. d) The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days.

d) Infection

A female patient comes to the clinic with the complaint that she is having a greenish-colored discharge from the nipple and the breast feels warm to touch. What does the nurse suspect these symptoms may indicate? a) Blocked lymph duct b) Cancer c) A ruptured cyst d) Infection

c) To prevent the onset of vaginal carcinoma in the patient's daughter

A female patient, who is 24 years of age, delivers a healthy female infant. Incidentally, the patient was given diethylstilbestrol (DES) during her pregnancy. It is important that the nurse stresses frequent gynecological examinations of patient's daughter when she reaches a certain age due to which of the following concerns? a) To ensure regularized menstruation cycles in patient's daughter b) To ensure that the patient's daughter has a complication-free pregnancy c) To prevent the onset of vaginal carcinoma in the patient's daughter d) To prevent the onset of vulvar cancer in the patient's daughter

d) A primary function of the female breast is to produce milk.

A group of students are reviewing material in preparation for a test on the male and female breasts. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify which of the following? a) Progesterone is primarily responsible for the growth of breast tissue. b) Striated muscle in the nipples contract causing them to become erect. c) The breasts contain a limited supply of blood vessels. d) A primary function of the female breast is to produce milk.

b) Upper outer

A group of students are reviewing the anatomy and physiology of the breasts. The students demonstrate understanding of breast structure when they identify the tail of Spence as an extension of which quadrant? a) Upper inner b) Upper outer c) Lower outer d) Lower inner

b) Vagina

A group of students are reviewing the female reproductive system in preparation for a test. Which of the following if identified by the students as an internal structure indicates successful learning? a) Labia majora b) Vagina c) Vulva d) Mon pubis

d) Lupron

A health care provider prescribed a luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonist to suppress testicular androgen and treat prostate cancer. Which of the following is the primary drug of choice? a) Casodex b) Nilandron c) Eulexin d) Lupron

b) Decreasing the endocrine production of androgen.

A health care provider prescribes ketoconazole (Nizoral), a second-line hormonal agent for the treatment of prostatic cancer. The nurse explained to the patient that this drug acts by: a) Decreasing the level of circulating plasma testosterone. b) Decreasing the endocrine production of androgen. c) Interrupting the conversion of dihydrotestosterone (DHT). d) Suppressing androgenic stimuli to the prostate.

c) Decreasing the endocrine production of androgen.

A health care provider prescribes ketoconazole (Nizoral), a second-line hormonal agent for the treatment of prostatic cancer. The nurse explained to the patient that this drug acts by: a) Decreasing the level of circulating plasma testosterone. b) Interrupting the conversion of dihydrotestosterone (DHT). c) Decreasing the endocrine production of androgen. d) Suppressing androgenic stimuli to the prostate.

c) And the nipple-areola complex along with the axillary node dissection.

A health care provider recommends that a patient with breast cancer undergo a modified radical mastectomy. The nurse explains that this procedure involves removal of the entire breast: a) And the nipple-areola complex without lymph node removal. b) While preserving the nipple-areola complex. c) And the nipple-areola complex along with the axillary node dissection. d) Along with lymph nodes and the underlying pectoralis major and minor muscles.

d) 18 million/mL

A male client has undergone a semen analysis for evaluation of fertility. The nurse understands that a sperm count of which of the following would suggest infertility? a) 50 million/mL b) 100 million /mL c) 75 million/mL d) 18 million/mL

c) Aural tenderness

A mother brings her daughter to the clinic for an evaluation because the child is complaining of ear pain. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect that the child is experiencing otitis externa and not otitis media? a) Ear drainage b) Bulging eardrum c) Aural tenderness d) Fever

c) External auditory canal erythema

A nures is performing an otoscopic examination on a client. Which finding would the nurse document as abnormal? a) Manubrium superior to the umbo b) Tympanic membrane pearly gray c) External auditory canal erythema d) Umbo in the center of the tympanic membrane

d) 40 dB in the range of 500 to 2,000 Hz.

A nurse is asked to assess a patient's need for a hearing aid. The nurse knows that a general guideline to determine need would be a hearing loss of: a) 30 dB in the range of 400 to 1,500 Hz. b) 10 dB in the range of 200 to 1,000 Hz. c) 20 dB in the range of 300 to 1,000 Hz. d) 40 dB in the range of 500 to 2,000 Hz.

c) Refer the client to the American Cancer Society's Reach for Recovery program or another support program.

A nurse is caring for a client who has just had a modified radical mastectomy with immediate reconstruction. She's in her 30s and has two young children. Although she's worried about her future, she seems to be adjusting well to her diagnosis. What should the nurse do to support her coping? a) Recommend that the client remain cheerful for the sake of her children. b) Tell the client's spouse or partner to be supportive while she recovers. c) Refer the client to the American Cancer Society's Reach for Recovery program or another support program. d) Encourage the client to proceed with the next phase of treatment.

b) Spontaneous nipple discharge c) Nipple retraction with position changes d) Pitting of the breast skin e) Prominent venous pattern

A nurse is examining a client's breasts. Which of the following would alert the nurse to a possible problem? Select all that apply. a) Right breast slightly larger than left b) Spontaneous nipple discharge c) Nipple retraction with position changes d) Pitting of the breast skin e) Prominent venous pattern

d) "I should do this exam at least once a week."

A nurse is instructing a client in testicular self-examination. Which client statement indicates the need for additional teaching? a) "It's normal for one testis to be larger than the other." b) "A good place to do this is when I'm showering." c) "My thumb goes on top and my index and middle fingers go under the testis." d) "I should do this exam at least once a week."

d) "Tell me more about your fears and concerns."

A nurse is meeting with a woman scheduled to have a modified radical mastectomy to remove an aggressive breast tumor. The woman tells the nurse that she agreed to have the surgery before considering alternative options. Which of the following statements is the nurse's best response? a) "You might want to consider a less invasive surgical procedure." b) "If I were you, I would consider a second opinion." c) "You have a very competent surgeon and you should move forward as planned." d) "Tell me more about your fears and concerns."

a) Age of first ejaculate

A nurse is obtaining a 40-year-old male's health history before performing a physical examination. Which of the following information would most likely not be obtained? a) Age of first ejaculate b) Contraceptive practices c) Premature ejaculation or other concerns of a sexual nature d) Pain during sexual intercourse

b) Reports of dyspareunia

A nurse is obtaining health history from a young adult woman. Which of the following would alert the nurse to a possible problem? a) Mucus-like vaginal discharge b) Reports of dyspareunia c) Age of 13 years at menarche d) Menstrual cycle averaging 28 to 29 days

d) Acute pain related to inflammation

A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with otitis externa. Based on the typical assessment findings, which of the following would the nurse most likely identify as the priority nursing diagnosis? a) Risk for infection related to drainage from the ear canal b) Disturbed sensory perception: auditory related to sensorineural hearing loss. c) Hyperthermia related to elevated temperature secondary to infection d) Acute pain related to inflammation

b) Rise in follicle-stimulating hormone secretion d) Increasing estrogen secretion

A nurse is preparing a presentation for a health class. The participants will be high-school girls, and the topic will be the menstrual cycle. Which events would the nurse need to incorporate into the presentation as occurring during the proliferative phase? Select all that apply. a) Progesterone secretion by the corpus luteum b) Rise in follicle-stimulating hormone secretion c) Ovulation d) Increasing estrogen secretion e) Peaked thickening of the endometrium

a) Maintaining an ideal weight

A nurse is preparing a presentation for a health fair about preventing breast cancer. Which of the following would the nurse include? a) Maintaining an ideal weight b) Delaying childbearing until after age 30 c) Increasing the intake of caffeinated drinks d) Opting for estrogen only replacement therapy during menopause

b) Loss of testicular firmness c) Thickening of the seminiferous tubules e) Decrease in sexual energy level

A nurse is preparing a presentation for a local senior citizen group about age-related changes in the body systems. Which of the following would the nurse include as associated with the male reproductive system? Select all that apply. a) Shrinkage of the prostate gland b) Loss of testicular firmness c) Thickening of the seminiferous tubules d) Enlargement of the testes e) Decrease in sexual energy level

b) yearly starting at age 40.

A nurse is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American Cancer Society recommends that women get mammograms: a) after the birth of the first child and every 2 years thereafter. b) yearly starting at age 40. c) every 3 years between ages 20 and 40 and annually thereafter. d) after the first menstrual period and annually thereafter.

b) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

A nurse is providing care to a client who was just admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. When reviewing the client's history, which of the following would the nurse identify as a major risk factor for this client? a) Use of in vitro fertilization b) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) c) Combined hormonal contraceptive use d) Habitual abortions

b) First full-term pregnancy at age 34 years

A nurse is reviewing a client's history for possible risk factors associated with breast cancer. Which of the following would the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk? a) One of three living children born prematurely b) First full-term pregnancy at age 34 years c) Menarche at age 14 years d) Menopause at age 50 years

a) Erythromycin

A nurse is reviewing a client's medication history. Which drug would the nurse identify as placing the client at risk for ototoxicity. a) Erythromycin b) Penicillin c) Digoxin d) Hydrochlorothiazide

a) Age at first pregnancy

A nurse is reviewing a female patient's history, which includes the following information: Age at menarche: 14 years Cesarean delivery: 2 pregnancies Age at first pregnancy: 35 years Alcohol use: approximately 1 to 2 glasses of wine/month The nurse identifies which of the following as a possible risk factor for developing breast cancer? a) Age at first pregnancy b) Age at menarche c) Alcohol use d) Cesarean deliveries

Patient A: 10 dB

A nurse is reviewing the medical records of several patients who have had audiometric testing performed. The results showing the loss in decibels (dB) are as follows: Patient A: 10 dB Patient B: 15 dB Patient C: 28 dB Patient D: 44 dB Which patient would the nurse identify as having normal hearing? a) Patient C b) Patient B c) Patient A d) Patient D

d) fine needle aspiration.

A nurse is teaching a client who suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the client that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by: a) breast self-examination. b) mammography. c) chest X-ray. d) fine needle aspiration.

d) Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer.

A nurse is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which point is appropriate to make? a) Testicular cancer is more common in older men. b) Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males. c) Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose. d) Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer.

b) Constant achy hip discomfort

A nurse is working in an oncology treatment center. Which of the following clinical manifestations when reported by a patient would the nurse know may be related to metastasis from prostate cancer? a) Large amounts of dilute urine when voiding b) Constant achy hip discomfort c) Weight gain of 3 pounds in 1 month d) Frequent nighttime urination

d) Chronic pelvic pain.

A nurse practitioner examines a patient suspected of having endometriosis. The nurse knows that although a definitive diagnosis could not be made without diagnostic treating (transvaginal ultrasound), the most frequent symptom is: a) Dysuria. b) Dyspareunia. c) Low back pain. d) Chronic pelvic pain.

b) Diethylstilbestrol

A nurse practitioner is conducting a history and physical on a 42-year-old woman. One of the questions asked of someone in this age group is the type of medications that the patient's mother took during her pregnancy. The nurse is assessing for a past history of ______ use. a) Immunosuppressive agents b) Diethylstilbestrol c) Cancer drugs d) Antibiotics

c) Sounds travel through the external and middle ears.

A nursing instructor is preparing a class on air and bone conduction of sound. When describing the transmission of sounds by air conduction, which of the following would the instructor include? a) Vibrations bypass the tympanic membrane to reach the inner ear. b) Vibration of the tympanic membrane diverts sound away from the ossicles. c) Sounds travel through the external and middle ears. d) It is a less efficient pathway for sound.

c) Mifepristone (RU-486, Mifeprex) is used only in early pregnancy to terminate a pregnancy nonsurgically.

A patient asks the nurse if there are any available nonsurgical options to terminate a pregnancy if she is only 2 weeks pregnant. What information should the nurse provide to the patient about a medication that blocks progesterone? a) Clomiphene (Clomid) is used only in early pregnancy to terminate a pregnancy nonsurgically. b) Birth control pills can be used to terminate the pregnancy. c) Mifepristone (RU-486, Mifeprex) is used only in early pregnancy to terminate a pregnancy nonsurgically. d) Methotrexate is used only in early pregnancy to terminate a pregnancy nonsurgically.

c) Tissue from the lining of the uterus has implanted in areas outside the uterus.

A patient diagnosed with endometriosis asks for an explanation of the disease. What should the nurse explain to the patient? a) She has developed an infection in the lining of her uterus. b) The lining of the uterus is thicker than usual, causing heavy bleeding and cramping. c) Tissue from the lining of the uterus has implanted in areas outside the uterus. d) The lining of the uterus is too thin because endometrial tissue has implanted outside the uterus.

d) Discontinue the irrigations.

A patient experiences hypotension, lethargy, and muscle spasms while receiving bladder irrigations after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). What is the first action the nurse should take? a) Prepare the patient for an ECG. b) Increase the rate of the IV fluids. c) Administer a unit of packed red blood cells. d) Discontinue the irrigations.

c) Donor insemination or adoption

A patient expresses concerns about future reproduction after a surgery to correct the cancer of the testes and for whom treatment has proceeded without collecting and storing sperm. Which of the following alternatives should a nurse suggest to the patient? a) Suggest the use of Viagra b) Undertake herbal alternatives c) Donor insemination or adoption d) Reversal of surgery

b) Yellow-green

A patient has been diagnosed with a Trichomoniasis vaginal infection. The nurse would expect which color of discharge? a) White, curd-like b) Yellow-green c) White d) Gray

a) Avoiding IV drug use c) Avoiding unprotected sexual intercourse d) Avoiding multiple partners for sexual intercourse

A patient has been diagnosed with genital herpes. Knowing patient education is an essential part of nursing care of the patient with a genital herpes infection, the nurse plans to include which of the following methods to minimize HIV transmission? Select all that apply. a) Avoiding IV drug use b) Avoiding HPV vaccinations c) Avoiding unprotected sexual intercourse d) Avoiding multiple partners for sexual intercourse e) Avoiding physical contact with others in crowded places

a) Back pain.

A patient has been prescribed an oral medication for the treatment of ED. The three most common drugs are slightly different in dosage, use, and side effects. As part of health teaching, the nurse knows to tell the patient that Cialis has a unique side effect which is: a) Back pain. b) Headaches c) Skin flushing. d) Nasal congestion.

d) See her gynecologist to remove and clean the pessary at regular intervals.

A patient has had a pessary inserted for long-term treatment of a prolapsed uterus. As part of the teaching plan, what should the nurse advise the patient to do? a) Keep the insertion site clean and dry. b) Avoid climbing stairs as much as possible. c) Avoid sexual intercourse. d) See her gynecologist to remove and clean the pessary at regular intervals.

b) The patient has developed a hematoma.

A patient has had a total mastectomy 12 hours ago and the nurse is assessing the surgical wound. The nurse observes ecchymosis, swelling, and tightness around the wound, and the patient states that it is painful. What does the nurse suspect has occurred? a) The patient has developed an infection. b) The patient has developed a hematoma. c) The patient has developed a cyst. d) The patient has developed lymphedema.

d) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

A patient is admitted to the health care center with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 and reports irregular menstrual cycles and feeling tired all the time. The nurse suspects the patient's symptoms to be which of the following conditions? a) Endometriosis b) Cancer of the cervix c) Bacterial vaginosis d) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

b) Avoid foods and liquids with diuretic action or that increase prostatic secretions.

A patient is being treated for prostatitis and the nurse is providing education about the treatment. What should the nurse include in the education of this patient? a) Take several cool baths during the day to alleviate discomfort. b) Avoid foods and liquids with diuretic action or that increase prostatic secretions. c) Be sure to take the 3-day course of antifungal medication. d) Force fluids to prevent urine from backing up and distending the bladder.

d) Flushing the lids, conjunctiva, and cornea with tap water or normal saline

A patient is brought into the emergency department with chemical burns to both eyes. What is the priority action of the nurse for this patient's care? a) Cleansing the conjunctiva with a small cotton-tipped applicator b) Applying hot compresses at 15-minute intervals c) Administering local anesthetics and antibacterial drops for 24 to 36 hours d) Flushing the lids, conjunctiva, and cornea with tap water or normal saline

d) Progestin-only

A patient is diagnosed with hypertension. In addition, the patient reports skin discoloration, weight gain, and nausea. Which of the following contraceptive preparations would the nurse practitioner recommend for this patient? a) Biphasic b) Monophasic c) Triphasic d) Progestin-only

b) It grows within the wall of the uterine muscle.

A patient is diagnosed with the most common type of uterine fibroid, an intramural fibroid. The nurse includes which of the following information in teaching the patient about this type of fibroid? a) It lies underneath the outermost layer of the uterus. b) It grows within the wall of the uterine muscle. c) It grows below the inner uterine surface. d) It arises from inside or outside the surface of the uterine muscle.

c) Take a deep breath and exhale when the physician inserts a gloved finger into the rectum.

A patient is having a DRE in the physician's office and the nurse is to assist in the examination. What can the nurse instruct the client to do to decrease the discomfort from the exam? a) When bending over the examining table, point the feet outward to decrease the discomfort. b) Take a deep breath and hold it when the physician inserts a gloved finger into the rectum. c) Take a deep breath and exhale when the physician inserts a gloved finger into the rectum. d) Inform the patient that the examination is not uncomfortable and will be over in a short period of time.

b) Excisional biopsy

A patient is having a biopsy that will remove the entire mass, plus a margin of surrounding tissue. What type of biopsy will be documented on the operative permit? a) Ultrasound-guided core biopsy b) Excisional biopsy c) Core biopsy d) Incisional biopsy

c) The mass may be cystic and was ruptured when the needle was inserted.

A patient is having a fine-needle biopsy (FNB) for a mass in the left breast. When the needle is inserted and the mass is no longer palpable, what does the nurse know has most likely occurred? a) The mass is not palpable because it is an inflammatory lesion. b) The mass has been absorbed into the tissues of the breast. c) The mass may be cystic and was ruptured when the needle was inserted. d) The mass may not have been located correctly.

d) Do not leave the constricting band in place for longer than 1 hour to avoid penile injury.

A patient is planning to use a negative-pressure (vacuum) device to maintain and sustain an erection. What should the nurse caution the patient about with the use of this device? a) Watch for the development of infection. b) Do not use the device while taking nitrates. c) Watch for erosion of the prosthesis through the skin. d) Do not leave the constricting band in place for longer than 1 hour to avoid penile injury.

a) "The radiation can cause some skin breakdown towards the end of treatment in the axillary folds."

A patient is scheduled to receive radiation therapy for 6 weeks after her lumpectomy. The patient states she is worried about the side effects of the radiation. What can the nurse inform her about the side effects of the radiation? a) "The radiation can cause some skin breakdown towards the end of treatment in the axillary folds." b) "The radiation can make you very nauseated, but something will be given for nausea." c) "The radiation can cause musculoskeletal fatigue and you may not be able to continue to work while receiving the radiation." d) "The radiation can cause you to lose your hair, but you can wear a wig or scarves."

a) Prostate biopsy

A patient is suspected to have prostate cancer related to observed clinical symptoms. What definitive test can the nurse assist with to confirm a diagnosis of prostate cancer? a) Prostate biopsy b) Cystoscopy c) PSA d) DRE

b) Urethral strictures are more frequent for TURP than with nontransurethral procedures.

A patient is to undergo a TURP for BPH. Which of the following is accurate with regard to a TURP? a) A TURP causes erectile dysfunction. b) Urethral strictures are more frequent for TURP than with nontransurethral procedures. c) There is no danger of retrograde ejaculation. d) It is done on an outpatient basis.

d) Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

A patient is told that she has a common form of breast cancer where the tumor arises from the duct system and invades the surrounding tissues, often forming a solid irregular mass. What type of cancer does the nurse prepare to discuss with the patient? a) Mucinous carcinoma b) Medullary carcinoma c) Infiltrating lobular carcinoma d) Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

d) The nurse should ask the patient to keep a diet diary.

A patient is undergoing treatment for prostate cancer. He has chemotherapy sessions regularly. However, of late he is showing symptoms of food allergy and loss of appetite. He has lost considerable weight due to this. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing task in this situation? a) The nurse must administer serotonin blockers. b) The nurse should include fruits in the patient's diet. c) The nurse should ensure greater fluid intake. d) The nurse should ask the patient to keep a diet diary.

b) Antidepressants d) Oral contraceptives e) Analgesics

A patient reports intermittent pelvic pain that does not appear to have a predictable occurrence. She recalls these episodes began approximately 8 months ago. Following months of physical and diagnostic tests, the physician diagnoses the patient with chronic pelvic pain. Which of the following choices should be used as possible treatment options? Select all that apply. a) Estrogen replacement b) Antidepressants c) Corticosteroids d) Oral contraceptives e) Analgesics

c) An ear mold loosens or wears out.

A patient visited a health clinic with a complaint that her hearing aid was making a whistling noise. The nurse is aware that this hearing aid problem occurs frequently when the: a) Batteries die. b) Excess cerumen in the ear causes an obstruction. c) An ear mold loosens or wears out. d) Wires became disconnected.

c) The presence of halos around lights

A patient visits a clinic for an eye examination. He describes his visual changes and mentions a specific diagnostic clinical sign of glaucoma. What is that clinical sign? a) Pain associated with a purulent discharge b) A significant loss of central vision c) The presence of halos around lights d) Diminished acuity

d) "We will reschedule your examination when you have finished menstruating."

A patient who is scheduled for a gynecologic examination and Pap smear informs the nurse that she just began her menstrual cycle. What is the best response by the nurse? a) "We will do the test and take into consideration that you are menstruating." b) "We will proceed with the examination and reschedule your Pap smear for next week." c) "This will have no bearing on your test today." d) "We will reschedule your examination when you have finished menstruating."

a) Vulvovaginal candidiasis

A patient with HIV has recently completed a 7-day regimen of use of antibiotics. She reports vaginal itching and irritation. In addition, the patient has a white, cottage cheese-like vaginal discharge. Which of the following is the patient most likely suffering? a) Vulvovaginal candidiasis b) Trichomonas vaginalis c) Bacterial vaginosis d) Human papillomavirus (HPV)

c) Cryotherapy.

A patient with an abnormal Pap test has a colposcopy. The test indicates small areas of mild to moderate dysplasia. The nurse advises the patient that the next procedure that should be done is a: a) Cervical biopsy. b) Cone biopsy. c) Cryotherapy. d) Loop electrosurgical excision.

a) Oxybutynin (Ditropan)

A patient with an indwelling catheter after a radical prostatectomy is having bladder spasms. What medication prescribed by the physician can the nurse administer to help alleviate the discomfort? a) Oxybutynin (Ditropan) b) Cephalexin (Keflex) c) Tadalafil (Cialis) d) Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)

c) Withhold caffeine and alcohol 48 hours before the test.

A patient with vertigo is scheduled to have an electronystagmography in 2 weeks. What will the nurse instruct the patient to do prior to the test? a) Withhold blood pressure medication 24 hours before the test. b) Do not eat or drink anything 12 hours before testing. c) Withhold caffeine and alcohol 48 hours before the test. d) Withhold vestibular suppressants 48 hours before the test.

b) Candida infection

A woman comes to the clinic complaining of vaginal itching and a discharge. Inspection reveals a thick curdlike white discharge. The nurse suspects which of the following? a) Trichomonas infection b) Candida infection c) Bacterial vaginosis d) Atrophic vaginitis

b) Maintaining bedrest in the semi-Fowler's position

A woman comes to the emergency department reporting vaginal discharge and pelvic pain that increases with urination. The client also reports nausea and vomiting, headache, and anorexia. A pelvic examination reveals cervical motion tenderness. The client is diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and is admitted. Which of the following would be most appropriate to include in this client's plan of care? a) Inserting an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter b) Maintaining bedrest in the semi-Fowler's position c) Applying cool compresses to the abdomen d) Instituting airborne infection control precautions

b) Cervical cancer

A woman in her late thirties has been having unusually heavy menstrual periods combined with occasional urine and stool leakage over the last few weeks. On further enquiry, she reveals that she also has postcoital pain and bleeding. To which of the following diagnoses do you think the investigations are most likely to lead? a) Hodgkin's disease b) Cervical cancer c) Cancer of the urinary tract d) Colorectal cancer

b) Schedule a colposcopy within a month.

A woman receives news that her Pap test results indicate atypical squamous cells. She is at high-risk for HPV because of her habit of frequent, unprotected sex with multiple partners. When the woman calls her provider, she is advised to do which of the following? a) Treat her infection immediately and then have the Pap test repeated in a year. b) Schedule a colposcopy within a month. c) Have an immediate colposcopy and prepare for possible cervical surgery. d) Wait 3 months and then have the Pap test repeated.

a) Bartholin glands.

A woman visits her primary health care provider with a complaint of pain and swelling in the vaginal area. The pain is present when she sits and walks; intercourse is painful. The nurse prepares the patient for an examination. The nurse and health care provider suspect that the patient may have an inflammation or infection of the: a) Bartholin glands. b) Urethra. c) Cervix. d) Skene glands.

a) A hysteroscopic resection of myomas

A woman who has been trying to conceive is diagnosed with fibroid tumors of the uterus and is scheduled to have a procedure using a laser through a hysteroscope passed through the cervix. What type of procedure will the nurse prepare the patient for? a) A hysteroscopic resection of myomas b) Laparoscopic myomectomy c) Laparoscopic cryomyolysis d) Laparoscopic myolysis

a) Try to decrease or stop smoking. c) Avoid caffeine-containing food and drink. d) Engage in regular weight-bearing exercise. e) Take a calcium supplement daily.

A young adult woman comes to the clinic for a routine physical examination. During the assessment, the woman asks the nurse about what she can do to reduce her risk for osteoporosis because "My mother has it." Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to suggest? Select all that apply. a) Try to decrease or stop smoking. b) Eat foods high in fiber. c) Avoid caffeine-containing food and drink. d) Engage in regular weight-bearing exercise. e) Take a calcium supplement daily.

c) Infertility

A young client presenting at the health clinic with fever and mucopurulent vaginal drainage is diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Which long-term affect is of greatest concern in the care of this client? a) Chronic pelvic inflammatory disease b) Ascending infection c) Infertility d) Pelvic pain

b) Ossicles

Nursing students are reviewing the structure and function of the ears in preparation for class the next day. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they describe which of the following as a middle ear structure? a) Auricle b) Ossicles c) Organ of Corti d) Membranous labyrinth

a) "Keep the sponge in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse."

After discussing the various methods of contraception with a nurse, a client decides on the contraceptive sponge as her method of choice. Which of the following would the nurse include in the teaching plan for the client about this contraceptive method? a) "Keep the sponge in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse." b) "You can use this at any time, even when you are menstruating." c) "Clean the sponge with mild soap and water after using it." d) "You need to have the sponge fitted before using it."

c) "I should avoid pulling or pushing any object that weighs more than 15 lbs."

After surgery for removal of cataract, a client is being discharged, and the nurse has completed discharge instruction. Which client statement indicates that the outcome of the teaching plan has been met? a) "I need to keep the eye patch on for about a week after surgery." b) "Dots or flashing lights in my vision are to be expected for the first few days." c) "I should avoid pulling or pushing any object that weighs more than 15 lbs." d) "I need to wear sunglasses for the first 3 to 4 days even when I'm inside."

a) Cryptorchidism

After teaching a group of student about structural abnormalities of the male reproductive system, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as an example? a) Cryptorchidism b) Erectile dysfunction c) Priaprism d) Prostatitis

b) Erectile dysfunction may be due to testosterone insufficiency.

After teaching a group of students about erectile dysfunction, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as true? a) Erectile dysfunction is unrelated to anxiety or depression. b) Erectile dysfunction may be due to testosterone insufficiency. c) Erectile dysfunction rarely occurs in clients with diabetes mellitus. d) Erectile dysfunction is primarily a normal response to aging.

c) Breast symmetry

After teaching a group of students about the signs and symptoms of breast cancer, the instructor determines that additional teaching is needed when the group identifies which of the following? a) Nipple retraction b) Peau d'orange skin c) Breast symmetry d) Painless mass

d) "I should avoid fluids like coffee and tea."

After teaching about self-care measures to a client who has been diagnosed with prostatitis, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the client states which of the following? a) "I'll take the antibiotic until all the symptoms are gone." b) "If I have discomfort, a cool shower will give me relief." c) "I need to make sure that I drink lots of fluid." d) "I should avoid fluids like coffee and tea."

b) Impotence.

All prostatectomies include the risk of damage to the pudendal nerve. Therefore, postoperatively, the nurse assesses for: a) Permanent perineal numbness. b) Impotence. c) Increased frequency of urination. d) A urinary tract infection.

a) Low-dose androgens

Amy Patterson, a 50-year-old teacher, is visiting the OB-GYN practice where you practice nursing with complaints associated with menopause. After discussing treatment options with her healthcare provider, she meets with you to further discuss her treatment concerns. Which of the following is a likely recommendation to increase her interest in sexual activity? a) Low-dose androgens b) Antidepressants c) Herbal aphrodisiacs d) Bisphosphates

b) All options are correct.

An 80-year-old client is being seen by the urologist because of erectile dysfunction. This client has a history of hypertension and heart disease. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of his erectile dysfunction? a) Atherosclerosis b) All options are correct. c) Hypertension medication d) Depression

a) Presbyopia

An aging client is brought to the eye clinic by the son. The son states he has seen his parent holding reading materials at an increasing distance to focus properly. What age-related changes does this indicate? a) Presbyopia b) Macular degeneration c) Myopia d) Cataract

b) Nipple erythema

An early sign of Paget's disease includes which of the following? a) Fever b) Nipple erythema c) Increased pulse d) Thickening of areola

d) "Astigmatism means that the cornea of the eye is shaped differently than the cornea in most eyes."

An eight-grade boy tells the school nurse that the eye doctor told him he had astigmatism and that meant his eyeball wasn't shaped right. The boy says he went home and looked in the mirror and both eyes looked just alike. What is the school nurse's best response? a) "Astigmatism means that the eye is shaped more like an olive than most eyes." b) "Astigmatism means that the lens of the eye is more of an oval shape than the lens in most eyes." c) "Astigmatism means that the inside of the eye is shaped differently than the inside of most eyes." d) "Astigmatism means that the cornea of the eye is shaped differently than the cornea in most eyes."

a) "I will remove and clean it every day."

An elderly client, who can void only while standing and pushing upward on the vagina, is ordered a pessary. Which comment from the client indicates a need for further teaching about this device? a) "I will remove and clean it every day." b) "I should report any foul odor or drainage." c) "I should have greater ease of emptying my bladder." d) "I will report any signs of irritation or bleeding."

a) Scrotum

As a grade school nurse, you speak to the sixth grade boys regarding their physical maturation and body changes during puberty. In your student education sessions, you discuss male anatomy and the appropriate titles and functions of each structure. Which structure is involved in keeping the testes at the necessary temperature to ensure sperm production? a) Scrotum b) Testicles c) Shaft d) Epididymis

a) Prepuce

As a grade school nurse, you speak to the sixth grade boys regarding their physical maturation and body changes during puberty. In your student education sessions, you discuss the procedure of circumcision and how it is viewed by different ethnicities. Which external reproductive structure is removed by circumcision? a) Prepuce b) All options are correct. c) Glans d) Corpora cavernosa

b) External female genitalia

As a grade school nurse, you speak to the sixth grade girls regarding their physical maturation and body changes during puberty. In your student education sessions, you discuss female anatomy and the appropriate names and functions of each structure. Which of the following structures is referred to as the vulva? a) Clitoris b) External female genitalia c) Vagina d) Mons pubis

d) Asymmetrical breast tissue

As a school nurse at a middle school, part of your role is to complete health education classes for the students. Included in one of your discussions are common disorders that affect breast tissue. Which of the following symptoms is not evident in a breast disorder? a) Breast mass b) Breast tenderness c) Nipple discharge d) Asymmetrical breast tissue

c) Seborrheic dermatitis

The nurse is examining the area behind the patient's auricle and sees a flaky scaliness. What disorder does the nurse suspect the patient has? a) Tophi b) Sebaceous cysts c) Seborrheic dermatitis d) Acute external otitis

a) Fishy smelling watery discharge

Culture of client's vaginal discharge reveals Gardnerella vaginalis. Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess? a) Fishy smelling watery discharge b) Foul foamy discharge c) Yellowish white discharge d) Thick curdy white discharge

d) Develop screening and educational programs.

How can breast cancer prevention programs best serve at-risk women from lower socioeconomic backgrounds? a) Increase access to health care. b) Provide access to health insurance. c) Increase support services. d) Develop screening and educational programs.

a) Wear gloves and protective clothing to avoid any injuries.

During a follow-up visit, a female client who underwent a mastectomy asks the nurse if she can work in her backyard or at least do some household work. Which suggestion would be most appropriate? a) Wear gloves and protective clothing to avoid any injuries. b) Avoid household chores for at least 6 to 9 months. c) Avoid working in the garden or yard altogether. d) Increase the frequency of follow-up visits if she does works.

d) Trichomonas

During an internal vaginal examination, the nurse practitioner notes a frothy and malodorous discharge. The nurse suspects the odor is caused by which bacteria? a) Candida b) Pseudomonas c) Escherichia coli d) Trichomonas

c) Trichomonas

During an internal vaginal examination, the nurse practitioner notes a frothy and malodorous discharge. What bacteria does the practitioner suspect is causing this disorder? a) Eschar b) Escherichia coli c) Trichomonas d) Candida

d) Mucopurulent ocular discharge

During assessment of the eyes, the nurse noted __________, a diagnostic sign of a mild case of bacterial conjunctivitis. a) Blurred vision b) Severe pain c) Elevated intraocular pressure d) Mucopurulent ocular discharge

c) Brachytherapy

During consultations with the oncologist, a patient with cervical cancer is informed that radioactive materials will be inserted in the area of her tumor. She has to undergo these sessions over a period of 3 weeks. Which of the following methods of cancer treatment is being described here? a) Antineoplastic therapy b) Needle aspiration biopsy c) Brachytherapy d) Chemotherapy

c) Performing digital rectal examination

During physical examination of the male reproductive system, which method would best provide the nurse information about the prostate for size as well as evidence of tumor? a) Using a scrotal radiography b) Inspecting the size of the scrotum c) Performing digital rectal examination d) Using transillumination

c) Red blood cells

Erythropoietin growth factor increases production of which of the following? a) Platelets b) Plasma c) Red blood cells d) White blood cells

b) "The cancer has not spread."

Following a colposcopy, the confirmation of in situ carcinoma of the cervix has been determined. Which comment by the client indicates an appropriate understanding of the diagnosis? a) "I can wait until I have finished having babies to seek treatment." b) "The cancer has not spread." c) "I will not need any further treatment." d) "I will need surgery and chemotherapy to increase my odds for survival."

d) Prevention of wound complications

Following a radical vulvectomy, the nurse is preparing the client for discharge to home. Which care intervention would be considered the priority for this client? a) Alterations for sexual function b) Relieving edema to lower extremities c) Care of colostomy site d) Prevention of wound complications

d) Painful swelling

Following morning hygiene of an elderly client, the nurse is unable to replace the retracted foreskin of the penis. Which is the most likely outcome? a) Nausea and vomiting b) Unclean glans c) Erection of the penis d) Painful swelling

a) Dramamine

Health teaching for a patient who suffers from motion sickness would include recommending the use of which one of the following over-the-counter drugs? a) Dramamine b) Ephedrine c) Phenergan d) Scopolamine

b) Makes sounds louder

Hearing aids help with which of the following problems? a) Improves understanding of speech b) Makes sounds louder c) Improves communication skills d) Improves discrimination of words

a) Gross swelling

Hematoma and seroma formation are complications of breast surgery. Which of the following is the indicator that should be reported to the surgeon? a) Gross swelling b) Pain at the site c) Tightness of the skin d) Bruising of the skin

b) Hot flashes

Hormone therapy decreases the risk of which of the following? a) Heart attack b) Hot flashes c) Stroke d) Blood clots

a) Assess catheter tubing.

Immediately following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), which is the best method to determine if active bleeding is occurring? a) Assess catheter tubing. b) Assess blood in catheter collection bag. c) Assess blood pressure and pulse. d) Assess hemoglobin and hematocrit.

d) Magnesium

In educating a patient with PMS about changing her dietary practices, what would the nurse recommend that she increase her intake of? a) Zinc b) Iron c) Vitamin D d) Magnesium

c) Progesterone by the corpus luteum beginning to decrease

In the menstrual cycle, every month the female reproductive system generates an ovum. When the ovum is not fertilized, production of which of the following leads to menstruation? a) Another ovum which begins immediately b) Estrogen by the corpus luteum begins to decrease c) Progesterone by the corpus luteum beginning to decrease d) Follicle stimulating hormone by the anterior pituitary

a) Hyperopia

Leslie Waterman, a 57-year-old corrections officer, is being seen at the ophthalmic group where you practice nursing. Leslie is concerned about his vision changes because recently, he has started to see distance much more clearly than nearby sights. What is the term used to describe his visual condition? a) Hyperopia b) Astigmatism c) Myopia d) Emmetropia

a) decreased GI activity.

Loud, persistent noise has been found to cause all of the following symptoms except a) decreased GI activity. b) constriction of peripheral blood vessels. c) increased heart rate. d) increased blood pressure.

a) Constriction of peripheral blood vessels d) Increased heart rate e) Increased blood pressure

Loud, persistent noise has been found to have which of the following effects on the body? Select all that apply. a) Constriction of peripheral blood vessels b) Dilation of peripheral blood vessels c) Decreased gastrointestinal motility d) Increased heart rate e) Increased blood pressure

b) Increased blood pressure

Loud, persistent noise has what effect on the body? a) Decreased heart rate b) Increased blood pressure c) Dilation of peripheral blood vessels d) Decreased gastrointestinal activity

c) Retinal detachment

Megan McKenna is a 43-year-old woman who tripped on a toy in her home, fell, and hit her head on the corner of a table. Shortly after her accident, she arrives at the ED, unable to see out of her left eye. She tells the nurse caring for her that her symptoms began with seeing spots or moving particles in her field of vision but she didn't think anything was wrong because she wasn't having any pain in her eye. Now, she is very upset that her vision will not return. What is the most likely cause of Ms. McKenna's symptoms? a) Angle-closure glaucoma b) Eye trauma c) Retinal detachment d) Chalazion

d) A 52-year-old man in good health

Several male clients are scheduled to come to the clinic for an annual physical examination. The nurse would expect to prepare which client for a digital rectal examination (DRE)? a) A 48-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes b) A 40-year-old man with a history of asthma c) A 34-year-old man with a history of hypertension d) A 52-year-old man in good health

d) It may result from a neoplasm blocking lymphatic drainage, giving the skin an orange-peel appearance, a classic sign of advanced breast cancer.

The nurse is assessing an older adult female who has not seen her physician in 2 years. The nurse is assisting the patient into a gown and notices that the patient has edema and pitting of the skin on the right breast. What does the nurse understand is the significance of this finding? a) This finding is not uncommon and is significant only when of recent origin. b) It may result from inflammation due to mastitis while the patient is breastfeeding. c) This finding is most likely related to benign cysts of the breast in the nipple area. d) It may result from a neoplasm blocking lymphatic drainage, giving the skin an orange-peel appearance, a classic sign of advanced breast cancer.

a) Increased blood supply required by a tumor

The nurse is assessing the breast of a female patient and observes a prominent venous pattern on the left breast. What does the nurse understand that this can be indicative of? a) Increased blood supply required by a tumor b) Thrombus formation c) Infection d) Ulceration of the nipple

b) Impaired facial movement and numbness and tingling

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with an acoustic neuroma. Which assessment finding does the nurse anticipate when receiving shift report that is not related to hearing? a) Difficulty swallowing b) Impaired facial movement and numbness and tingling c) Inability to smell scents d) Stroke like symptoms with bilateral facial droop

b) Administer an enema prior to arrival.

The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a transrectal ultrasonography. Which instruction is essential in obtaining an accurate test? a) Administer a low-dose sedative prior to arrival. b) Administer an enema prior to arrival. c) Avoids fluids after midnight. d) Empty the bladder prior to the exam.

c) Information regarding wigs from the American Cancer Society

The nurse is caring for a client who is beginning doxorubicin (Adriamycin) therapy for breast cancer. When preparing the client for probable side effects, which would the nurse include? a) Information about blood donation from the American Red Cross b) Information regarding high caloric meals from a dietician c) Information regarding wigs from the American Cancer Society d) Information regarding depression from a mental health association

a) The procedure removes all cancer from the body.

The nurse is caring for a client who is ordered a sentinel lymph node biopsy. The physician explained the procedure and desired outcome. Which statement, made by the client, indicates a need for further instruction? a) The procedure removes all cancer from the body. b) The procedure allows for an understanding of the spread of cancer cells. c) The procedure includes minimal surrounding tissue damage. d) The procedure allows for conservation of breast tissue.

b) Enlargement of the arm or hand

The nurse is caring for a client with breast cancer and removal of axillary lymph nodes. Which assessment finding is documented and brought to the physician's attention as potential lymphedema? a) Fluid accumulation under in the axilla b) Enlargement of the arm or hand c) Drainage from the areola d) A reddened area around the breast

b) Do not lift objects greater than 15 lb

The nurse is caring for a group of breast cancer survivors post mastectomy. Which teaching point should the nurse include? a) When using cream, be careful to avoid the affected breast b) Do not lift objects greater than 15 lb c) Sleep on the affected side d) Wear tight-fitting shirts

a) Drainage tube secured to the inner thigh b) Reports of the urge to void from the patient c) Large amounts of amber-colored urine in the drainage bag

The nurse is caring for a patient who had a 1-day postoperative transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following assessment findings does the nurse expect? Select all that apply. a) Drainage tube secured to the inner thigh b) Reports of the urge to void from the patient c) Large amounts of amber-colored urine in the drainage bag d) Rounded swelling above the pubis e) Increasing pulse rate and diaphoresis

c) A client with stage IV cancer receiving palliative care

The nurse is caring for four clients in an oncology unit. Following report on diagnosis and treatment, which client would the nurse identify as having the most life-threatening diagnosis? a) A client with an estrogen receptor-positive tumor receiving oral chemotherapy b) A client receiving chemotherapy and radiation with a low blood count c) A client with stage IV cancer receiving palliative care d) A client diagnosed with a stage one tumor with no lymph node involvement

a) "Mammograms can detect cysts or tumors too small to palpate."

The nurse is completing community education when asked by a client without health insurance why a mammogram is needed if the women are completing breast self-examinations at home. The nurse is most correct to respond stating which of the following? a) "Mammograms can detect cysts or tumors too small to palpate." b) "Mammograms are just better." c) "Mammograms provide a reassurance that the breast is free of cancer." d) "Mammograms provide a baseline that shows changes in breast tissue."

b) Others disapprove

The nurse is completing the admission history for a client who is admitted for a reduction mammoplasty. Which of the following client statements is uncommon when explaining the rationale for the procedure? a) Low self-esteem b) Others disapprove c) Skin irritation d) Back pain

b) "Are you taking any hormone replacement therapy?"

The nurse is conducting a health history when the client states that her last menstrual period was 6 months ago. Upon further questioning, the client also states that symptoms of hot flashes and mood fluctuations. Which question should the nurse ask next? a) "Do you feel like hurting yourself?" b) "Are you taking any hormone replacement therapy?" c) "When was your first menstrual period?" d) "Are you finished having children?"

a) "It should begin in adolescence."

The nurse is demonstrating the technique for performing a testicular self examination (TSE) to a group of men for a company health fair. One of the men asks the nurse at what age a man should begin performing TSE. What is the best answer by the nurse? a) "It should begin in adolescence." b) "It should begin in men over age 50." c) "It should begin at age 40." d) "It should be performed in high-risk males over age 30."

a) 40

The nurse is discussing mammography with a female patient at the clinic. The patient asks at what age she should begin getting yearly mammograms. What answer should the nurse provide to the patient? a) 40 b) 35 c) 50 d) 55

b) Calcium

The nurse is discussing nutritional needs for a postmenopausal patient. What dietary increase should the nurse recommend to the patient? a) Salt b) Calcium c) Vitamin K d) Iron

d) Breast self-awareness

The nurse is educating a group of women at the YMCA about breast cancer. What does the nurse understand is the current trend that should be focused on rather than BSE? a) Mammography every year b) Ultrasound with mammography c) Hormone replacement d) Breast self-awareness

a) After a warm bath or shower

The nurse is educating a patient about performing testicular self-examination (TSE). The nurse informs the patient that the best time to perform the exam is when? a) After a warm bath or shower b) After exercise c) In the morning when arising d) At bedtime

b) Angina with nitrate use

The nurse is obtaining a health history from a 58-year-old client stating that he is having difficulty obtaining an erection during sexual activity. The client asks how an "erectile medication" works and if there are any side effects to the medication. The nurse explains the action of the medication and directions for use and warns of which side effect related to the client's history? a) Arthritis with corticosteroid use b) Angina with nitrate use c) Chronic pain with narcotic use d) Asthma with beta-adrenergic inhaler use

d) Antihypertensives

The nurse is obtaining a history from a male client who states having difficulty achieving and sustaining an erection. When reviewing the medication history, which medication classification does the nurse anticipate? a) Antibiotics b) Bronchodilators c) Cardiac dysrhythmics d) Antihypertensives

a) Ibuprofen

The nurse is obtaining a medication history from a client who is reporting erectile dysfunction. Which medication would the nurse identify as being least likely to contribute to the client's condition? a) Ibuprofen b) Methyldopa c) Spironolactone d) Cimetidine

b) Air-conducted sound heard longer than bone-conducted sound

The nurse is performing the Rinne test on a client with a sensorineural hearing loss. Which of the following would the nurse expect? a) Air-conducted sound louder than bone-conducted sound b) Air-conducted sound heard longer than bone-conducted sound c) Hearing of the sound better in the affected ear d) Sound described as being centered in the middle of the head

b) "It helps make you more comfortable and the exam easier."

The nurse is preparing a client for a pelvic examination. The client asks the nurse, "Why do I need to urinate and empty my bladder?" Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? a) "A full bladder interferes with getting a specimen for a Pap smear." b) "It helps make you more comfortable and the exam easier." c) "We want to make sure that you don't have an infection." d) "Emptying your bladder allows us to obtain a urine sample for testing."

b) Running the speculum under warm tap water

The nurse is preparing a client for a pelvic examination. Which of the following would be most appropriate to promote client comfort when the speculum is inserted? a) Inserting the speculum into the anterior portion of the introitus b) Running the speculum under warm tap water c) Applying a water-soluble lubricant to the speculum d) Tightening the set-screw of the thumb rest

a) Administering antibiotic to cleanse the bowel

The nurse is preparing a client for repair of a rectovaginal fistula. Which of the following would the nurse include? a) Administering antibiotic to cleanse the bowel b) Exposing the area to heat lamp therapy to reduce excoriation c) Providing a high fiber diet to stimulate bowel elimination d) Performing regular douching to keep the area clean

c) Performing perineal exercises frequently throughout the day

The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client who has had a prostatectomy. Which of the following would be appropriate to include? a) Engaging in strenuous exercise to strengthen abdominal muscles b) Waiting to urinate for 5 to 10 minutes after feeling the initial urge c) Performing perineal exercises frequently throughout the day d) Using a bearing down motion to promote complete bladder emptying when voiding

a) High-fat diet

The nurse is preparing a presentation for a local community group about prostate cancer and possible dietary risk factors. Which of the following would the nurse most likely include? a) High-fat diet b) High-iron c) High-calorie d) High fiber

b) Performing douching with a dilute vinegar solution twice a day

The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client with a vulvovaginal infection. Which of the following would be least appropriate for the nurse to include? a) Refraining from unprotected sexual intercourse with partners b) Performing douching with a dilute vinegar solution twice a day c) Wearing cotton underwear that is loose-fitting and allows for air flow d) Maintaining a reclining position for 30 minutes after inserting vaginal medication

b) Lithotomy position

The nurse is preparing the female client for a pelvic examination. In which position will the nurse assist the client? a) Trendelenburg's position b) Lithotomy position c) Lateral recumbent d) Supine position

c) Light yellow and clear

The nurse is providing care to a client who has had a transurethral resection of the prostate. The client has a three-way catheter drainage system in place for continuous bladder irrigation. The nurse anticipates that the catheter may be removed when the urine appears as which of the following? a) Reddish-pink with numerous clots b) Light pink with few red streaks c) Light yellow and clear d) Dark amber with copious mucous

c) Annual breast and pelvic examinations are important for all women 21 years of age or older and for those who are sexually active, regardless of age.

The nurse is providing information at the local YMCA about screenings for breast and cervical cancer. The nurse should inform young women that they should begin their screenings at what time? a) Annual breast and pelvic examinations should begin when a woman becomes sexually active. b) Annual breast and pelvic examinations should begin at age 14 years old. c) Annual breast and pelvic examinations are important for all women 21 years of age or older and for those who are sexually active, regardless of age. d) Annual breast and pelvic examinations should be performed when a woman begins taking birth control.

d) Ensure privacy when discussing sensitive or embarrassing sexual issues.

The nurse is providing preoperative care to a client who is to undergo a radical prostatectomy for prostate cancer. The client's plan of care includes the nursing diagnosis of "anxiety related to surgery and its outcome." Which of the following would be most appropriate for the nurse to do? a) Allow the client to assume a passive role in the preparation. b) Inform the client that risk of recurrence is decreased with this type of surgery. c) Tell the client that prostate cancer is very curable if caught early. d) Ensure privacy when discussing sensitive or embarrassing sexual issues.

d) In the testes within the scrotum

The nurse is relating health education to male students when asked where sperm is actually made. Which location is most correct? a) Sperm are present from birth. b) In the male reproductive system c) In the seminiferous tubules d) In the testes within the scrotum

b) New onset of anemia being treated with iron supplements

The nurse is reviewing the history of a client with erectile dysfunction. Which of the following would the nurse least likely identify as contributing to the client's condition? a) History of depression treated with fluoxetine b) New onset of anemia being treated with iron supplements c) Use of metoprolol for treating hypertension d) History of type 2 diabetes mellitus for 10 years

d) Nulliparity

The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client diagnosed with uterine cancer. Which of the following, if noted, would the nurse identify as a risk factor? a) Exposure to diethylstilbesterol (DES) b) Early age at first sexual intercourse c) Vitamin deficiencies d) Nulliparity

c) 9

The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has been diagnosed with prostate cancer. The nurse notes that the Gleason score was used to grade the cancer. Which total score would the nurse interpret as indicating a highly aggressive cancer? a) 3 b) 7 c) 9 d) 5

a) Migraine headaches with visual auras

The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has come to the clinic for contraception. The nurse determines that hormonal contraceptives would be inappropriate based on the client's history of which of the following? a) Migraine headaches with visual auras b) Severe acne c) Controlled hypertension d) An irregular menstrual cycle

a) "These drops are cold from being on the window seal."

The nurse is supervising a family member who instilling ear drops into the client's ear. Which of the following statements, made by the family member, would require further nursing instruction? a) "These drops are cold from being on the window seal." b) "Turn your head to the side so I can put these drops in." c) "Let me put this cotton ball in your ear because I put the drop in." d) "I squeeze the dropper to put a drop of medicine in the ear."

d) Suspiciousness

The nurse is talking to a family member of a hearing-impaired patient and the patient states, "I know you are talking about me. You are just whispering so that I will not hear what you are saying." What does the nurse recognize this statement indicates? a) Insecurity b) False pride c) Indecision d) Suspiciousness

a) "The best time to do it is once a month after I take my warm morning shower."

The nurse is teaching a young adult male how to perform testicular self-examination (TSE). The nurse determines that the client has understood the instructions when he states which of the following? a) "The best time to do it is once a month after I take my warm morning shower." b) "If the top and back of the testicle feels cordlike, I'll call my physician." c) "I should roll the testis in a circular pattern around the palm of my hand." d) "I'll use my right hand to check the left testicle and the left hand to check the right one."

c) The nurse would stand laterally to the client, opposite side to where the physician is standing.

The nurse is working in the emergency department when a physician asks for help as the client is performing a Romberg test. In which position would the nurse stand to be most helpful? a) The nurse would stand between the client and physician. b) The nurse would stand across the room but in direct alignment from the client. c) The nurse would stand laterally to the client, opposite side to where the physician is standing. d) The nurse would stand directly in front of the client.

b) Uterine prolapse c) Vulvar dystrophy d) Thickening and stiffness of the vaginal wall e) Vaginal dryness

The nurse practitioner performing a physical assessment on an 80-year-old woman is looking for which of the following functional changes in the reproductive system? Select all that apply. a) Tightening of the pelvic musculature b) Uterine prolapse c) Vulvar dystrophy d) Thickening and stiffness of the vaginal wall e) Vaginal dryness

c) In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies delivered vaginally may become infected with the virus.

The nurse providing education regarding sexually transmitted diseases. Which of the following statements regarding herpes virus 2 (herpes genitalis) is accurate? a) The virus is very difficult to kill. b) Transmission of the virus requires sexual contact. c) In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies delivered vaginally may become infected with the virus. d) Usually, the virus is killed at room temperature by drying.

d) June, 2 days post-abdominal surgery reports chest discomfort. June's vital signs are temperature, 99.4°F, pulse 98, respirations 12, and blood pressure 140/86.

The nurse reports to work an evening shift on the postsurgical unit. Based on the following information received at report, which of the following patients does the nurse need to see first? a) Joan, 2 days post vaginal reconstructive surgery reports vaginal bleeding. Joan's vital signs are temperature 100.2°F, pulse 90, respirations 20, blood pressure 128/76. b) Mary, 1-day post robotic-assisted laparoscopic surgery reporting sharp chest pain. Mary's vital signs are temperature 99.2°F, pulse 82, respirations 18, and blood pressure 114/72. c) Donna, 1-day post cryosurgery reporting vaginal drainage. Donna's vital signs are temperature 98.2°F, pulse 86, respirations 20, blood pressure, 136/ 80. d) June, 2 days post-abdominal surgery reports chest discomfort. June's vital signs are temperature, 99.4°F, pulse 98, respirations 12, and blood pressure 140/86.

a) Halos and glare

The nurse should monitor for which of the following manifestations in a patient who has undergone LASIK? a) Halos and glare b) Cataract formation c) Sty formation d) Excessive tearing

c) Coolness and mottling of a newly constructed breast site

The nurse working on a woman's cancer treatment floor performs nursing assessments on her assigned patients. It is most important for the nurse to report which of the following assessment findings? a) Temperature of 99.2°F, pulse 72, respirations 18, blood pressure 130/80 b) Small amount of bloody drainage on surgical dressing 12 hours postoperatively c) Coolness and mottling of a newly constructed breast site d) Immediate postoperative reports of throat tenderness

b) ADLs

The nurse, caring for a client with Ménière's disease, needs to assist with what when the client is experiencing an attack? a) Sleeping b) ADLs c) Coughing d) URIs

b) prostatism.

The obstructive and irritative symptom complex caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy is termed a) prostatitis. b) prostatism. c) prostaglandin. d) prostatectomy.

b) >21 mm Hg.

The ophthalmologist tells a patient that he has increased intraocular pressure (IOP). The nurse understands that increased pressure, resulting from optic nerve damage, is indicated by a reading of: a) 11 to 20 mm Hg. b) >21 mm Hg. c) 6 to 10 mm Hg. d) 0 to 5 mm Hg.

d) Relieve urinary symptoms

The physician orders an alpha-adrenergic blocker for a client with benign prostatic hypertrophy. The nurse understands that this drug acts to achieve which of the following? a) Slow the prostatic enlargement b) Prevent urinary tract infections c) Block testosterone conversion d) Relieve urinary symptoms

d) NSAID use

Veronica, a 17-year-old high school student, has a history of dysmenorrhea. During her monthly menses, she experiences incapacitating cramping and passes large clots. Veronica's primary care physician explains to her and her mother that he will initiate conservative treatment. What interventions would you expect the physician to recommend? a) Oral hypoglycemia agents b) Corticosteroid use c) Ultrasonography d) NSAID use

a) Macula b) Optic disk d) Retinal vessels

Viewed through the pupil, the landmarks of the retina are which of the following? Select all that apply. a) Macula b) Optic disk c) Pupil d) Retinal vessels e) Iris

a) Warm perineal irrigations b) Sitz baths c) Cornstarch for chafed inner thighs

What interventions for the relief of pain and discomfort can the nurse educate the patient with a vulvovaginal infection about using? (Select all that apply.) a) Warm perineal irrigations b) Sitz baths c) Cornstarch for chafed inner thighs d) A vaginal douche e) Cold compresses to the vagina

b) Organ of Corti

What is located in the cochlea of the inner ear? a) Labyrinth b) Organ of Corti c) Vestibulocochlear nerve d) Semicircular canals

b) Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly.

What should a male client older than age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer? a) Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels checked yearly. b) Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly. c) Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 50. d) Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years.

d) Doxycycline (Vibramycin) for 1 week

When a female patient reports profuse purulent discharge, dysuria, and bleeding, the advance practice nurse is most likely to prescribe which of the following medications to treat this condition? a) Tinidazole (Tindamax) one time for each partner b) Metronidazole (Flagyl), administered orally twice a day for 1 week c) Terconazole (Terazol) cream inserted into the vagina at bedtime d) Doxycycline (Vibramycin) for 1 week

d) Increased effort to void

When assessing a client with benign prostatic hypertrophy, which of the following would the nurse expect the client to report as the initial complaint? a) Narrowing of urinary stream b) Nocturia c) Dark brown urine d) Increased effort to void

d) Fallopian tube

When describing the process of fertilization, the nurse would explain that it normally occurs in which structure? a) Vagina b) Endometrium c) Cervix d) Fallopian tube

d) The number of sexual partners

When developing an educational program for a group of adolescents about sexually transmitted infections (STIs), what should the nurse inform the group about the single greatest risk factor for contracting an STI? a) The number of times the person has contact with a partner b) Where the patient lives c) The type of contraception used d) The number of sexual partners

c) Upper respiratory infections

When discussing diseases of the middle ear, the nursing instructor distinguishes the different types of otitis media. What generally causes purulent otitis media? a) Irritation associated with respiratory allergies and enlarged adenoids b) Bronchial tree c) Upper respiratory infections d) Outer ear

b) The prepuce

When instructing clients at a prenatal class, the nurse is most correct to state which medical name as being removed during circumcision? a) The glans b) The prepuce c) The shaft d) The corpora cavernosa

b) 7 to 10 days

When preparing a teaching plan for a client diagnosed with otitis externa, the nurse instructs the client to avoid any water sport for which duration? a) 10 to 14 days b) 7 to 10 days c) 5 to 7 days d) 3 to 5 days

b) Rectocele

When the nurse places the patient in the stirrups for a pelvic exam she observes a bulge caused by rectal cavity protrusion. What does the nurse know this protrusion is called? a) Hemorrhoids b) Rectocele c) Uterine prolapse d) Cystocele

d) Family planning

Which assessment finding will most likely influence the treatment regime selected by a client with endometriosis? a) Presence of pain b) Dysmenorrhea c) Presence of chocolate cyst d) Family planning

d) Use of nitrates

Which assessment finding would create the greatest risk to a client ordered a phosphodiesterase (PDE5) inhibitor such as sildenafil (Viagra)? a) Type 2 diabetes b) Use of diuretics c) History of hypertension d) Use of nitrates

a) Wheat toast, apple slices, broiled chicken breast, and steamed carrots

Which of the following dinner selections demonstrates an understanding of nutritional therapy used by women to decrease the signs and symptoms of menopause? a) Wheat toast, apple slices, broiled chicken breast, and steamed carrots b) White toast, apple sauce, grilled chicken, and glazed carrots c) Corn chips, grapes, lean meat, and baked beans d) Saltine crackers, fruit cocktail, lima beans, and meatloaf

c) Women who are obese

Which of the following groups of patients is at high risk of developing breast cancer? a) Women who do not consume alcohol b) Women who consume a low-fat, low-calorie diet c) Women who are obese d) Women that have sex with multiple partners

c) Saw palmetto

Which of the following herbal remedies is used to treat symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)? a) Green tea b) Gingko c) Saw palmetto d) Garlic

d) Use a reliable method of contraception until the physician ensures that sperm are no longer present.

Which of the following instructions regarding future sexual activity should a nurse give a patient with a vasectomy? a) Administer a mild analgesic before any sexual activity. b) Sexual activity can resume after 3 weeks. c) Expect some bruising and incisional soreness after every sexual activity for the first 2 days. d) Use a reliable method of contraception until the physician ensures that sperm are no longer present.

a) Drink at least 1 quart of water an hour before the test.

Which of the following instructions would be appropriate to include when preparing a woman for an abdominal ultrasound? a) Drink at least 1 quart of water an hour before the test. b) Empty the bladder immediately before the test. c) Refrain from douching for at least 1 week before the test. d) Restrict solid food intake for 2 hours before the test.

b) Brachytherapy

Which of the following involves implantation of interstitial radioactive seeds under anesthesia to treat prostate cancer? a) Hormone therapy b) Brachytherapy c) Teletherapy d) Chemotherapy

d) Firm, hard, embedded in surrounding tissue

Which of the following is a characteristic of a breast cancer mass? a) Symmetrical mass b) Occurs as disseminated masses c) Tender upon palpation d) Firm, hard, embedded in surrounding tissue

b) Have regular prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels tested and repeat lymph node biopsies.

Which of the following is a component of the patient teaching that helps the nurse assist a patient following treatment for cancer of the prostate gland to manage and minimize the possibility of a recurrence of the primary cancer or metastasis? a) Undertake pelvic floor retraining exercises. b) Have regular prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels tested and repeat lymph node biopsies. c) Avoid sexual intercourse for at least 2 years. d) Avoid strenuous exercises, especially lifting.

b) All of the above

Which of the following is a reason why ovarian cancer is largely considered to be a lethal cancer of the female reproductive system? a) Tumors present with nonspecific symptoms b) All of the above c) Tumors are typically far advanced and inoperable by the time they are diagnosed. d) There is no effective screening test.

b) Its side effects include headache, flushing, and dizziness.

Which of the following is accurate regarding sildenafil (Viagra)? a) The medication should be taken right before intercourse. b) Its side effects include headache, flushing, and dizziness. c) It can be taken twice daily for increased effect. d) There does not need to be sexual stimulation to produce an erection.

b) Decreased ovulation

Which of the following is an age-related functional change of the female reproductive system? a) Decreased pH of vagina b) Decreased ovulation c) Increased vaginal lubrication d) Hormone level stability

a) Pruritus with genital burning

Which of the following is an early symptom of vulvar cancer? a) Pruritus with genital burning b) Fever accompanied by chills c) Severe abdominal pain d) Dyspareunia

b) Hemorrhagic shock

Which of the following is an immediate danger after a prostate surgery? a) Sexual dysfunction b) Hemorrhagic shock c) Deep vein thrombosis d) Catheter obstruction

d) Radical prostatectomy

Which of the following is considered first-line treatment for prostate cancer? a) Cryosurgery b) Radiation c) Hormonal therapy d) Radical prostatectomy

c) Conductive hearing loss may occur.

Which of the following is consistent with acute otitis media? a) It is a relatively uncommon childhood infection. b) It is usually caused by a fungal infection. c) Conductive hearing loss may occur. d) The infection usually lasts more than 6 weeks.

c) Presbycusis

Which of the following is hearing loss associated with degenerative changes? a) Strabismus b) Myopia c) Presbycusis d) Presbyopia

a) Can reveal a hydrocele

Which of the following is inconsistent with a digital rectal examination? a) Can reveal a hydrocele b) Recommended for men greater than 40 years of age c) Enables examiner to assess size, shape, and consistency of prostate gland d) Assists in screening for cancer of prostate gland

a) Enterocele

Which of the following is the descent of the small intestine into the vaginal vault? a) Enterocele b) Uterine prolapse c) Cystocele d) Rectocele

d) It affects women of reproductive age.

Which of the following is true regarding endometriosis? a) Its cause is not linked to infertility. b) Extensive endometriosis causes many symptoms. c) It is a malignant lesion similar to those lining the uterus. d) It affects women of reproductive age.

b) Increases the risk for venous thromboembolism

Which of the following is true regarding hormonal contraception? a) Fetal anomalies are a concern b) Increases the risk for venous thromboembolism c) Increases the risk of uterine cancer d) Increases the risk of benign breast cancer

b) Hematuria

Which of the following may result if prostate cancer invades the urethra or bladder? a) Hip pain b) Hematuria c) Backache d) Rectal discomfort

a) Beta blockers b) Antipsychotics c) Antifungals d) Antispasmodics e) Antiseizure agents

Which of the following medication classifications are associated with erectile dysfunction? Select all that apply. a) Beta blockers b) Antipsychotics c) Antifungals d) Antispasmodics e) Antiseizure agents

b) Mumps at age 15 years

Which of the following nursing assessment findings would be most significant in determining sterility in a male client? a) Recurrent urinary tract infections (UTI) b) Mumps at age 15 years c) Uncircumcised penis d) Multiple sex partners

d) Caucasian American

Which of the following patient populations have the highest risk for developing testicular cancer? a) Asian American b) Mexican American c) African American d) Caucasian American

d) A 21-year-old woman reporting sharp colicky abdominal pain, menstrual spotting, and dizziness

Which of the following patients in the ED should the advance nurse practitioner treat first? a) A 48-year-old woman presenting with irregular menses, breast tenderness, and profuse sweating b) A 32-year-old woman with bloating, headache, and reported depression c) A 19-year-old woman with vaginal irritation, malodorous, copious frothy/yellow-green discharge d) A 21-year-old woman reporting sharp colicky abdominal pain, menstrual spotting, and dizziness

d) Sims'

Which of the following positions may be utilized for a patient who is unable to maintain the supine lithotomy position? a) Semi-Fowler's b) Trendelenburg c) Prone d) Sims'

a) Ensure immunizations against infectious diseases such as mumps.

Which of the following recommendations would a nurse advocate during infancy and childhood to help reduce potential adult complications such as orchitis? a) Ensure immunizations against infectious diseases such as mumps. b) Urge the limited intake of foods and fluids containing caffeine. c) Engage in activities and exercises that minimize heavy lifting. d) Encourage the consumption of foods that are rich in fat and starch.

d) Take prescribed antibiotics

Which of the following should be included as part of the home care instructions for a patient with epididymitis and orchitis? a) Undertake lifting exercises b) Resume sexual intercourse c) Apply ice to area after scrotal swelling subsides d) Take prescribed antibiotics

a) Only one tablet per day of the prescribed dose should be taken.

Which of the following should be included in the teaching plan for a patient prescribed Viagra? a) Only one tablet per day of the prescribed dose should be taken. b) It will result in erection formation. c) It will restore sex drive. d) It should be taken immediately before intercourse.

c) "What questions do you have related to your sexual health?"

Which of the following statements made by the nurse demonstrates effective communication techniques when initiating a discussion about sex with a 25-year-old female patient? a) "Why didn't you start annual Pap-test at an earlier age?" b) "Do you know how to properly apply a male condom?" c) "What questions do you have related to your sexual health?" d) "Have you had sex with more than one partner?"

a) To facilitate pelvic drainage and to minimize the upward extension of infection

While caring for a client who is being treated for severe pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), the nurse insists on keeping her in a semisitting position. What would be the best possible reason for the nurse's advice? a) To facilitate pelvic drainage and to minimize the upward extension of infection b) To prevent movement as it increases pain c) To prevent nosocomial infections to other clients d) To facilitate easy distraction of the client

c) Performing hand hygiene when entering the room

While caring for a patient who is being treated for severe pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which of the following nursing actions minimizes transmission of infection? a) Keeping the patient in a sitting position b) Strictly adhering to the no visitation policy c) Performing hand hygiene when entering the room d) Implementing reverse isolation precautions

a) Cervical cancer

While obtaining the history, a client reports that her mother was treated with diethylstilbestrol (DES) during her pregnancy. The nurse determines that this client is at risk for which of the following? a) Cervical cancer b) Vulvar cancer c) Breast cancer d) Endometrial cancer

d) A progressive, bilateral loss of hearing

You are teaching a class on diseases of the ear. What would you teach the class is the most characteristic symptom of otosclerosis? a) The client describing a history of having had a recent upper respiratory infection b) The client being distressed in the mornings c) A red and swollen ear drum d) A progressive, bilateral loss of hearing