neuro endo ch 14 student questions
Which of the following statements about nerve regeneration is false? A. Cut nerves sometimes recover fully, whereas crushed nerves often form connective tissue scars that block or slow regenerating axonal branches. B. The closer the injury is to the cell body of the nerve, the greater the chances that the nerve cell will die and not regenerate. C. This process is limited to myelinated fibers and generally occurs only in the PNS. D. Nerve regeneration depends on many factors, such as location of the injury, type of injury, the inflammatory responses, and the process of scarring.
A. Cut nerves sometimes recover fully, whereas crushed nerves often form connective tissue scars that block or slow regenerating axonal branches. Rationale: Crushed nerves sometimes recover fully, whereas cut nerves often form connective tissue scars that block or slow regenerating axonal branches. Citation: Pg 445 last paragraph
______ conduction is fast and occurs in myelinated neurons. A. Direct B. Secondary C. Saltatory D. Haslhoff Conduction
Answer C Rationale: Saltatory conductions refers to the rapid conduction that takes place at the nodes of ranvier between neurilemmas Citation: Ch. 14, page 443, 8th paragraph
Question The Wernicke area is responsible for: A. Somatic sensory input B. Programming motor movements C. Reception and interpretation of speech D. None of the above
Answer C. Reception and interpretation of speech Rationale: Citation: Page 452 2nd column, 3 Paragraph
Question Cerebrospinal fluid analysis is most often performed at lumbar region of the spinal column by drawing CSF from the epidural space. A. True B. False
Answer False Rationale: CSF is drawn from the subarachnoid space not the epidural space Citation: pg. 476
Question Destruction of upper motor neurons usually results in: A. initial paralysis followed within days or weeks by partial recovery. B. permanent paralysis. C. initial paralysis followed by complete recovery. D. weak but intact motor function.
Answer Initial paralysis followed within days or weeks by partial recovery. Rationale: Destruction of upper motor neurons usually results in initial paralysis followed within days or weeks by partial recovery, whereas destruction of the lower motor neurons often leads to permanent paralysis. Citation: CH. 14, pg. 458, 1st paragraph
Question Which of the following is TRUE regarding lower motor neurons: A. are found only in the brain. B. do not extend into the peripheral nervous system. C. are responsible for direct influence on muscles. D. destruction will result in partial paralysis.
Answer are responsible for direct influence on muscles. Rationale: LMN's are cranial and spinal efferent neurons. They are responsible for direct influence on muscles. Their cell bodies lie in the gray matter of the spinal cord, but their processes extend into the PNS. Destruction of a LMN will result in permanent paralysis. Citation: CH. 14, pg. 458, 1st paragraph.
Cell bodies in the PNS are usually found in groups called _____ or ______. A. nuclei or fascicle complexes B. ganglia or plexuses C. nuclei or ganglia D. ganglia or nodes of Chewbacca
Answer B Rationale: Cell bodies in the PNS are known as ganglia or plexuses, they may be used synonymously. Citation: Ch 14 page 443, 6th paragraph
Question Which of following tests is useful for detecting and localizing that initiate seizure activity A. Myelography B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) C. Electroencepahlography (EEG) D. Evoked Potentials
Answer Electroencephalography Rationale: This test is especially useful in detecting and localizing foci that initiate seziure activity. Citation: pg. 476
Question The nuclei of cranial nerves V and VIII are located in the pons. True or False
Answer True Rationale: Citation: Page 455 second to last paragraph, last sentence
Question An injury in the cerebral cortex will cause deficits on the contralateral side of the body due to the pyramidal decussation? True or False
Answer True Rationale: Citation: Pg 454 diagram
Question: Functionally there are three types of neurons: (1) sensory (afferent, mostly pseudounipolar), (2) associational (interneurons, multipolar), what is the third neuron type, the direction of transmission, and typical configuration? a. Motor (efferent, multipolar) b. Motor (afferent, unipolar) c. Multipolar ( interneurons, unipolar) d. Motor (interneurons, pseudounipolar)
Answer (A) Motor (efferent, multipolar) Rationale: Pg 444, 2nd paragraph. There are three types of neurons (1) sensory (afferent, mostly pseudounipolar), (2) associational (interneurons, multipolar), and (3) motor (efferent, multipolar). Citation: pg 444 2nd paragraph
Question The white matter under the cerebral cortex is made of A. Myelinated nerve fibers B. Mixed myelinated and unmyelinated fibers C. Unmyelinated nerve fibers D. Receives, intergrates, store and transmit information
Answer A. Myelinated nerve fibers Rationale: Citation: Page 452 1st column, 1st paragraph
Question If a drug is classified as a quaternary ammonium, it is less lipid-soluble and therefore does not cross the blood-brain barrier easily. Which type of cells are assumed to be imperative in forming and maintaining the patency of the blood brain barrier? A. Astrocytes B. Schwann Cells C. Ependymal cells D. Microglia
Answer A. Astrocytes Rationale: Astrocytes are believed to be an essential component in blood-brain barrier formation Citation: p. 446, table 14-1
Question This imaging test can be useful in detecting the integrity of the blood-brain barrier. A.Brain scan B.MRI C.CT D.Cerebral angiography
Answer A. Brain scan Rationale:The brain scan images radionuclide substances that have been introduced to the bloodstream, increased uptake by brain tissue indicates a disruption in the blood-brain barrier. MRI and CT look more at structures, angiography looks at the blood flow to the brain but not across the blood-brain barrier. Citation:p 475, last paragraph, "For example, visualization of tissue uptake of the radioactive agent provides an indication of blood-brain barrier integrity"
Question: Occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery may affect which cerebral lobe(s)? A. Occipital and temporal B. Frontal C. Occipital and parietal D. Parietal
Answer A. Occipital or temporal lobes Rationale: The posterior cerebral artery supplies blood to the deincephalon, temporal lobe and occipital lobe. Citation: Chp 14., p 464 anatomical picture. reinstated on p. 463.
Question The primary motor control area is located along: A. Precentral gyrus B. Longitudinal fissure C. Frontal lobe D. Cerebellum
Answer A. Precentral gyrus Rationale: "The primary motor area is located along the precentral gyrus forming the primary voluntary motor area." Citation: Chapter 14, 452, Diagram 451
Question Stimulation of __________ nerve in the GI tract INCREASES peristalsis and secretion, as well as relaxation of sphincters? A. Vagus (cranial nerve X) B. Glossopharyngeal (cranial nerve IX) C. Spinal Accessory (cranial nerve XI) D. Hypoglossal (cranial nerve XII)
Answer A. Vagus (cranial nerve X) Rationale: McCance, ch14, pg 470, 2nd paragraph under 'functions of the autonomic nervous system': Stimulation of the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) in the GI tract increases peristalsis and secretion, as well as relaxation of sphincters. Citation:
Question 1. Decreased glucose level in CSF ( <40 mg/dl) may indicate A. Acute bacterial meningitis B. Diabetes C. Guillain-Barre D. Dehydration
Answer Acute bacterial meningitis Rationale: low level of Glucose in CSF analysis indicates Acute bacterial meningitis, tuberculosis meningitis or meningeal carcinomatosis Citation: McCance Ch14 pg 477
Question Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Beta 1 receptors facilitate increased heart rate and contractility as well as the release of renin from the kidneys. B. Norepinephrine stimulates alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1, and beta 2 at every receptor site. C. Epinephrine stimulates alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1, and beta 2 at every receptor site. D. Most of the alpha-adrenergic receptors on effector organs belong to the alpha 1 class.
Answer B Rationale: NE stimulates all alpha and beta 1 receptors and only CERTAIN beta 2 receptors. The primary response from NE is the stimulation of alpha 1 receptors that cause vasoconstriction. Citation: P 469, 2nd column.
Question: Which statement is false in regards to NT and/or neuromodulator substances? A. NE may exhibit both an excitatory and inhibitory effect postsynaptic B. Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) are hyperpolarized C. GABA postsynaptic in the brain and presynaptic inhibition in the SC D. Dopamine NT originate in the substantia nigra
Answer B Rationale:EPSPs are depolarized Citation: Pg.448
Question Broca's area is located in which area of the brain? A. Parietal lobe B. Inferior frontal gyrus C. Precentral gyrus D. Central Sulcus
Answer B Inferior frontal gyrus Rationale: "The Broca's speech area is rostral to the inferior frontal gyrus." Citation: Chapter 14 Pg. 452 and diagram pg 451
Question You are playing xbox, and you notice that you are not as good as you use to be. You also notice that you are 90 years old and that your great grandchildren are better than you despite less experience. What is a (are) possible explanation(s) for this phenomenon? A. An increase in brain weight and size. B. A progressive slowing of neurologic function. C. A slowing of the electrical conduction in the wiring of the xbox console. D. All of the above.
Answer B. Rationale: Major structural changes with aging include a decrease in number of neurons and a decrease in brain weight and size. Deposition of lipofuscin and the presence of senile plaques, multiple neurofibrillary tangles, and Lewy bodies are common cellular changes with aging. A progressive slowing of neurologic function occurs with advancing age. Citation:p. 478, section of Aging and the Nervous System.
Question: Which of the following places the protective layers of the brain in the correct order? A. Epidural space, Dura mater, Subdural space, Pia mater, Subarachniod space, Arachnoid mater B. Epidural space, Dura mater, Subdural space, Arachnoid, Subarachniod space, Pia mater C. Epidural space, Dura mater, Subarachdoid space, Arachnoid, Subdural space, Pia mater D. Subdural space, Dura mater, Epidural space, Arachnoid, Subarachniod space, Pia mater
Answer B. Epidural space, Dura mater, Subdural space, Arachnoid, Subarachniod space, Pia mater Rationale:The correct order is: Epidural space, Dura mater, Subdural space, Arachnoid, Subarachnoid space, Pia mater. Citation: Ch 14, p.460, Figure 14-15
Question If a nerve is cut, it can only repair itself if it is ________ . Additionally, the _________ must remain intact in order to form a 'tunnel' to thread the axon through. A. myelinated; endoneurium B. myelinated; neurilemma C. myelinated; cell body D. unmyelinated; endoneurium
Answer B. myelinated; neurilemma Rationale: 'When cut, a damaged motor axon can regrow to it's distal connection only if the neurilemma remains intact.' Citation: p. 446, figure 14-4
Question Cholinergic effects (nicotine and muscarinic receptors) lead to a ______ in renin secretion by the kidneys. A. Increase B. Decrease C. Has no effect on D. Renin is not secreted by the kidneys
Answer C Rationale: Cholinergics have no effect on renin secretion by the kidneys. Adrenergic effects, however, include a decrease in renin secretion with stimulation of alpha 1 and an increase in renin secretion with stimulation of beta 1. Citation: Page 472 Table 14-7
Question Action potentials in the presynaptic neuron cause the synaptic vesicles to release their neurotransmitter/s through the plasma membrane into the space between the neurons. This space is referred to as: A. motor end plate B.postsynaptic cell C.synaptic cleft D.oligodendroglia
Answer C Rationale: Neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor sites on the plasma membrane of the postsynaptic neuron Citation: Chapter 14, page 447, 2nd paragraph
Question This scan uses CT imaging to detect positive electrons from radioactive substances that are either injected into the bloodstream or inhaled. A.Magnetic resonance imaging B.Magnetic resonance angiography C.Positron-emission tomography D.Roentgenograms
Answer C. Positron-emission tomography Rationale:Positron-emission tomography or PET scans use CT imaging to detect the emission of positive electrons from radioactive substances. Citation: p475, paragraph 3, first sentence
Question T/F Which of the following statements is not true concerning the cells of the Nervous System? A. Neuroglial cells provide support to the CNS and makes up approximately half of the total brain and spinal cord volume. B.The neuron is specialized to transmit and recieve electrical and chemical impulses. C. The neuron is further divided into 3 basic types of cell configuration: unipolar, pseudounipolar, and multipolar. D. A myelin sheath around selected axons forms an insulation that allows quicker nerve impulse conduction, referred to as Saltatory Conduction.
Answer C. The neuron is further divided into 3 basic types of cell configuration: unipolar, pseudounipolar, and multipolar. Rationale: The neuron is further divided into 4 basic types of cell configuration: 1.) unipolar, 2.) pseudounipolar, 3.) bipolar, and 4.) multipolar. Citation: McCance Ch. 14 pg 477, Paragraph #3 of the Summary Review.
Question Adrenergic effects on the liver via stimulation of alpha 1 and beta 2 include: A. Glycogenolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Glycogen synthesis D. A and B
Answer D Rationale: Adrenergic effects on the liver via stimulation of alpha 1 and beta 2 include glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. Glycogen synthesis is a cholinergic effect. Citation: Page 472 Table 14-7
Question During your preoperative evaluation, you notice that your patient is on Metoprolol. Which of the following is an unexpected medication response? A. The patient has a heart rate of 60 bpm. B.The patient's blood pressure is 110/72. C.The patient will have an increased diastolic filling time. D. The EKG shows Mobitz II.
Answer D Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta blocker. If a drug blocks beta 1, you would see a decrease in HR which will increase the diastolic filling time. The blood pressure will also decrease. The EKG showing Mobitz II is an abnormal response and a pacemaker should be placed as it could turn into complete heart block. Citation: P 469, 2nd column
Question Which of these statements is INCORRECT regarding cellular changes with aging: A. senile plaques are found in the interstitial spaces of the cerebral cortex and are associated with tissue degeneration B. an increase of intracellular lipofucin is seen C. the effects of neuronal cell loss are not consistent with deteriorating mental function of the individual D. all of these statements are correct
Answer D Rationale: Practically all cell types within the CNS reflects specific responses to aging. Although neuronal cell loss is a general feature of aging, the effects are not consistent with deteriorating mental function or age of the individual. Lipofucin, a yellow-brown fatty pigment is found to be deposited intracellularly in increased amounts with age. Controversy still exists concerning whether increasing intracellular quantities of lipofucin in aging brains and neuropathologic conditions cause these changes leading to cell death...Senile plaques (areas of nerve degeneration) are found in the interstitial spaces of the cerebral cortex associated with tissue degeneration Citation: Page 471 second column under the heading Cellular Changes with Aging
Question What adrenergic receptor(s) are responsible for an increase in heart rate, contractility, conduction velocity, propagation velocity, and automaticity in the heart? A. Alpha 1 B. Beta 1 C. Beta 2 D. Beta 1 & Beta 2 E. Alpha 1, Beta 1, & Beta 2
Answer D Rationale: The B1 & B2 receptors are responsible for increasing heart rate, contractility, conduction velocity, propagation velocity, and automaticity of the heart. Cholinergic stimulation would have an opposing response. There are no alpha receptors in cardiac tissue. Citation: Table 14-7 pg. 472
Question Neurons that conduct nerve impulses toward the synapse are known as: A. postsynaptic neurons B. microglia C. astrocytes D.presynaptic neurons
Answer D Rationale: toward the synapse=presynaptic/away from synapse=postsynaptic Citation: Ch 14, page 447, 1st paragraph
Question Stimulation of the B2 adrenergic receptors in the bronchial muscle of the lungs will have the adrenergic effect of: A. Contraction B. Melatonin synthesis C. Inhibition of lipolysis D. Relaxation
Answer D Rationale: The adrenergic response by stimulation of the B2 receptors of the bronchial muscle in in the lungs is relaxation. The cholinergic effect is contraction. Citation: Table 14-7 pg. 472
Question: In the PNS, the following is true: A. There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves. B. Nerves are considered to be 'mixed' containing both sensory and motor neurons C. Individual fibers are arranged into bundles called fascicles. D. All are true.
Answer D. All are true Rationale: Citation: p. 465 right side of page 1st 3 paragraphs
What type of cells form myelin sheath in the PNS? A. Astrocytes B. Ependymal cells C. Parietal cells D. Schwann cells
Answer D. Schwann cells Rationale: Schwann cells form myelin sheath in the PNS, and oligodedrocytes form myelin sheath in the CNS. Citation: p. 446, table 14-1
Question TRUE OR FALSE: Age related (as the patient gets older) STRUCTURAL changes in the CNS are primarily related to an increase in the number of neurons
Answer FALSE Rationale: The CNS demonstrates many structural changes during the aging process. The primary mechanism responsible for most of these structural changes is a DECREASE in the number of neurons. Citation: page 471, first column, last paragraph
Question Neuroglia ("nerve glue") comprise the general classification of cells that support the neurons of the PNS.
Answer False Rationale: Neuroglia (nerve glue) comprise the general classification of cells that support the neurons of the CNS. Pg 444 3rd paragraph
Question T/F Presence of scant amount of RBCs in CSF is normal
Answer False Rationale: RBC in CSF is abnormal Citation: McCance Ch14 pg 477
Question T/F The main function of the parasympathetic nervous system is to respond to stress by mobilizing energy stores and prepare the body to defend itself.
Answer False Rationale: The ANS is responsible for the maintenance of a steady-state in the internal environment. Two opposing systems make up the ANS: (1) the sympathetic nervous system responds to stress by mobilizing energy stores and prepares the body to defend itself, and (2) the parasympathetic nervous system conserves energy and the body's resources. Citation: p. 478, section of the Autonomic Nervous System
True or False: Because of the sensitive nature of neurons, an action potential response always occurs to any stimulus regardless of strength.
Answer False Rationale: The action potential only occurs when the stimulus is strong enough to raise membrane potential sufficiently. If the stimulus is too weak, the membrane remains unexcited. Citation: p. 446, paragraph 1
Question: T/F The vertebral column is composed of 33 vertebrae: 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 fused sacral, and 4 fused coccygeal. A. T B. F C. D.
Answer True Rationale: Citation: Pg 461 under Vertebral
Question:Chemical synapses operate in one direction due to the NT normally stored on side of the synaptic cleft and the receptor sites on the other side. A.True B.False
Answer True Rationale:Since this is true, action potentials are transmitted along a multineuronal pathway in one direction Citation:Pg.448
Question Approximately how much cardiac output does the brain receive? A. 7-12% B. 15-20 % C. 22-25 % D. 27-30%
Answer- B. 15-20% Rationale: The brain receives 15-20% of total cardiac output Citation: pg 449 under CNS: Brain and in Chp 14 notes slide 35
Question True or False - A single EPSP usually can NOT induce a neuron's action potential and the propagation of the nerve impulse.
Answer-True Rationale:A single EPSP usually can NOT induce a neuron's action potential and the propagation of the nerve impulse. It usually depends in the number and frequency of potentials, known as summation. Citation: Pg 449 1 paragraph and chp 14 notes slide 31
Question: The spinal cord is divided into sections that correspond to paired nerves. Which response is INCORRECT regarding the nerves of the spinal cord? A. There are 7 cervical nerves B. There are 8 cervical nerves C. There are 5 lumbar nerves D. There are 5 sacral nerves
Answer: (A) There are 7 cervical nerves Rationale: Remember, there are 8 cervical nerves but only 7 cervical vertebrae. There are also 12 thoracic nerves, 5 lumbar nerves, 5 sacral nerves and 1 coccygeal nerve. Citation: Chapter 14, page 456, 2nd paragraph
Question: At what level does the spinal cord end in the human adult and what is it's name? A. T12-L1, the Conus Medullaris B. L4-L5, the Conus Medullaris C. L2-L3, the Cauda Equina D. L1-L2, the Conus Medullaris
Answer: (D) L1-L2, the Conus Medullaris Rationale: The spinal cord ends in the adult at L1-L2 termed the Conus Medullaris for it's cone shaped appearance. Citation: Chapter 14, page 456, 1st paragraph
Question In regards to aging, all of the following are true except? A. Number of neurons increases B. Deposition of lipofusin and senile plaque develops C. Lewy bodies are common cellular changes D.Progressive slowing of neurologic function
Answer: A Rationale:The number of neurons decreases with age Citation: pg 478 under Aging and the Nervous System
Question: Which neurotransmitter is not an amino acid? A. Histamine B. Glutamate C. Aspartate D. GABA
Answer: A. Histamine Rationale: Histamine is not an amino acid, it is a monoamine. GABA, glutamate, and aspartate are amino acids. Citation: Chapter 14, Page 448
Question: All of the following are true of neurotransmitters and neuromodulators except: A. Glycine is a postsynaptic inhibitory neurotransmitter that has local effects with receptors that are inhibited by Strychnine. B. Nitric oxide is an inhibitory neuropeptide that is located in the thyroid gland, intramural plexus and nerves to the sacrum. Blocking its production may cause cardiac damage. C. Endorphins and Enkelphins are inhibitory neuropeptides that are distrubuted in the CNS and PNS with receptors that are bound by Morphine and Heroin to block the release of Substance P. D. Substance P is an excitatory neuropeptide that is associated with pain and is blocked by Morphine to decrease pain.
Answer: B Rationale: Nitric oxide is an excitatory neurotransmitter that is locted in the brain, spinal cord, adrenal gland, intramural plexus and nerves to the penis. Blocking its production may prevent stroke damage while stimulation its release is used to treat impotence. Citation: Chapt 14, page 449. Table 14-2. Neurotransmitters and Neuromodulator Substances.
Question: Which of the following is not a characteristic of the brain? A. It receives approximately 15% - 20% of total cardiac output. B. Its major divisions are the midbrain, medulla oblongata and cerebellum. C. It is pinkish gray and weighs 3 pounds. D The brainstem consists of the midbrain, medulla oblongata and pons .
Answer: B Rationale: The major divisions of the brain based on embryonic origin are the forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain. Citation: Chapt 14, page 449-450. CNS: The Brain
Question: What is the proper sequence of CSF flow? A. Third ventricle, fourth ventricle, lateral ventricle B.Lateral Ventricles, third ventricle, fourth ventricle C. Interventricular foramen, lateral ventricle, third ventricle D. Lateral apertures, pontine cisterns, fourth ventricle
Answer: B Lateral Ventricle, third ventricle, fourth ventricle Rationale: Citation: Pg 461- 3rd paragraph under CSF sub-heading
Question Which of the following is NOT true? A.The substancia nigra is part of the basal ganglia B.The Substancia nigra synthesizes serotonin, which is a pre-cursor to norepinephrine C.Dysfunction of the substancia nigra is associated with Parkinson Disease D.The substancia nigra and red nucleus make up the Tegmentum of the midbrain.
Answer: B. Rationale:"The inferior-most portion of the basal ganglia is the substancia nigra, which synthesizes DOPAMINE, a neurotransmitter and precursor to norepinephrine. It's dysfunction is associated with Parkinson disease." The tegmentum contains the red nucleus and substancia nigra Citation: Page 455, Column 1, under midbrain, paragraph 1-2
Question: When using a pen light to assess a patients pupillary reaction to light what cranial nerve is being tested? A. Optic B. Oculomotor C. Trochlear D. Abducens
Answer: B. Oculomotor Rationale: Oculomotor (CN III) is tested by examining pupillary reflex with a penlight. Citation: pg. 468 Table 14-6 under "How Tested" for oculomotor.
Question: Helical CT angiography is used to detect the following A.hemothorax B.Brain tumors C.aneurysms D.possible fractures not detected on X-ray
Answer: C Rationale: It is used to detect aneurysms and ruptured aneurysms Citation:Pg 474 column 2 paragraph 2
Question: A peripheral nerve contains all of the following except: A. Blood Vessels B. Fascicles C. Lacrimals D. Perineuria
Answer: C Rationale: Lacrimals is a made up term Citation: pg 466, the illustration in figure C shows a peripheral nerve containing endoneuria, perineuria, fascicles, and blood vessels.
Question: Preganglionic sympathetic neurons that innervate the adrenal medulla travel along what nerve pathway? A. paravertebral ganglia B. collateral ganglia C. splanchnic nerves D. lumbar plexus
Answer: C Rationale: Nerve transmission via splanchnic nerves to the adrenal gland is unique because preganglionic neurons do not synapse before reaching the gland Citation: pg 467, 2nd column, 1/2 way down.
Question: Along with the epithalmus, thalamus and suthalamus, the hypothalamus is part of the diencephalon and has 2 general functions. Which of the following is not one of them? A. maintenance of internal environments B. implementation of behavioral patterns C. coordination of activities between the two cerebral hemispheres
Answer: C Rationale: The corpus callosum, part of the telencephalon coordinates the two hemispheres Citation: chapter 14, page 452
Which one is NOT paired correctly? A. Frontal lobe-anterior fossa B. Temporal lobe- middle fossa C. Cerebellum - temporal fossa
Answer: C Rationale: The frontal lobe lies in the anterior fossa; temporal lobes and the base of the diencephalon lie in the middle fossa (temporal fossa); and the cerebellum lies in the posterior fossa. These terms are commonly used anatomic landmarks to describe the location of intracranial lesions Citation: CH 14, pg 459 (2nd paragraph under protective structures)
Question All the following make up the brainstem EXCEPT A. midbrain B. medulla oblongata C. hypothalamus D. pons
Answer: C Rationale: The midbrain, medulla oblongata, and pons make up the brainstem. The hypothalamus is part of the diencephalon. Citation: Ch. 14, pg. 450
Question: The Limbic system is involved with regulation of all of the following except: A. emotional and behavioral states B. feeding behavior C. temperature regulation D. sense of smell
Answer: C - Temperature regulation Rationale: temperature regulation is controlled by the hypothalamus Citation: chapter 14, pg 453
Question Which of the following is NOT true? A. Damage to the cerebellum is characterized by ipsilateral loss of equilibrium, balance, and motor coordination. B.The cerebellum is responsible for maintaining balance, posture, and muscle synergy. C.The pons is not important for control of respiration. D.The medulla oblongata controls reflex activities such as heart rate, respirations, blood pressure, coughing, sneezing, swallowing, and vomiting.
Answer: C. Rationale:"The pons IS an important center for the control of respiration." Citation: P.455, 2nd column, paragraphs 2,3, & 4:
Question: Which of the following cranial nerves is a mixed nerve and provides both sensory and motor function? A. Olfactory B. Optic C. Facial D. Vestibulocochlear
Answer: C. Facial Rationale: The facial nerve is a mixed nerve and has both motor and sensory functions. Citation: pg. 468 Table 14-6 under "Function" for CN VII
Question: Occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery may affect which cerebral lobe(s)? A. Occipital and temporal lobes B. Temporal lobe C. Frontal and parietal lobes D. Temporal and parietal lobes
Answer: C. Frontal or parietal lobes Rationale: The anterior cerebral artery supplies blood to both the superior surface of the frontal and parietal lobes. Citation: Picture of arterial occlusion anatomy. chp 14. p. 464. reinstated on p. 463 in arterial systems supplying the brain
Question: Neurons originating in this part of the brain are mostly associated with the neurotransmitter dopamine? A. Thalamus B. Hippocampus C. Substantia nigra D. Cerebellum
Answer: C. Substantia nigra Rationale: Dopamine is associated with neurons originating in the substantia nigra. Citation: Chapter 14, Page 448, Table 14-2
Question: The Brain receives approximately 20% of Cardiac output. This blood flow is primarily regulated by _____ within the CNS. A. Carbon Dioxide B. Bicarb C. Oxygen D. N20
Answer: Carbon Dioxide Rationale: Citation: pg 462, Header: Blood Supply, "Carbon dioxide serves as a primary regulator for blood flow of the CNS"
Question: A two neuron system consisting of preganglionic (myelinated) neurons and postganglionic (unmyelinated) neurons describes what component of the nervous system? A. Sensory of ANS B. CNS C. Somatic NS D. Motor of ANS
Answer: D Rationale: Citation: pg 467, 1st paragraph under ANS heading. "The motor component of the ANS is a two neuron system consisting of preganglionic and postganglionic neurons.
Question :Afferent pathways transmit information from peripheral receptors and eventually terminate in which area/areas? A.Cerebral cortex B. Cerebellar cortex C. Both cerebral and cerebellar cortexes D. All answers are correct
Answer: D All answers correct Rationale: Afferent pathways transmit information from peripheral receptors and eventually terminate in the cerebral or cerebellar cortex or both. Citation: Chapter 14, page 457, paragraph 2
Question :The afferent neuron is a _______________ neuron, with its cell body in the ____________ganglion A. Unipolar; sensory-motor B. Bipolar; motor C. Multipolar; sensory-motor D. Pseudounipolar; sensory
Answer: D pseudounipolar ; sensory Rationale: The afferent neuron is a pseudounipolar neuron, with its cell body in the sensory ganglion Citation: Chapter 14 page. 457 paragraph 1
Question: Which cranial nerve(s) are PURELY sensory? A. Olfactory Nerve B. Vestibulocochlear Nerve C. Optic Nerve D. All of the above
Answer: D- all of the above Rationale: Olfactory, Optic, and Vestibulocochlear Nerves are purely sensory. All other nerves are either motor or mixed Citation: pg 468- table 14-6 "The Cranial Nerves"- under function.
Question While assessing your patient's airway, you ask him to stick out his tongue in order to examine the oropharynx (mallampati). You notice that tongue deviates from midline and determine that the patient may have an abnormality in which cranial nerve? A. Facial B. Glossopharyngeal C. Vagus D. Hypoglossal
Answer: D- hypoglossal Rationale: Hypoglossal nerve fibers arise from the medulla and extend to the TONGUE. Testing this CN is done by asking subject to stick tongue out and note any position abnormalities Citation: pg 468 table 14-6- under CN XII- how to test.
Question: Which vessel is NOT part of the arterial blood supply to the brain? A. Anterior Cerebral Artery B. Middle Cerebral Artery C. Posterior Cerebral Artery D. Anterior Spinal Artery
Answer: D. Rationale: Citation: p. 463, table 14-5
Question 1. Which division of the nervous system does NOT correlate with its proper category? A. CNS (structural) B. Somatic (functional) C. Peripheral Nervous System (structural) D. ANS (structural)
Answer: D. ANS (structural) Rationale: The divisions of the nervous system have been categorized as either structural (CNS and PNS) or functional (somatic and ANS). Citation: McCance Ch. 14 pg 477, Paragraph #1 of Summary Review
Question In the PNS, nerves arising from the thoracic area branch out and form plexuses. True or false?
Answer: FALSE! Rationale: Thoracic nerves do not form plexuses, rather they pass through intercostal spaces and innervate regions of the thorax. Citation: p 465 3rd paragraph last sentence
Question: True or False: The Glossopharyngeal nerve is cranial nerve X.
Answer: False Rationale: The Vagus nerve is cranial nerve X. Glossopharyngeal nerve is cranial nerve IX. Citation: pg 466
Question: Computed tomography (CT) is not able to demonstrate fine distinctions in densities of various tissues A. True B. False
Answer: False Rationale: ct IS able to show fine distinction in tissue density Citation:Pg 474 column 2 paragraph 2
Question: Which of the following is FALSE concerning the subarachnoid space? A. CSF is found in this space. B. It lies bewteen the arachnoid and the pia meter. C. Signs of a hemorrhage in this space include neck stiffness and low back pain. D. Hemorrhage in this space is often caused by fall injuries.
Answer: Hemorrhage in this space is often caused by fall injuries. Rationale: The subarachnoid space contains CSF. It lies between the arachnoid and the pia mater. Signs of a subarachnoid hemorrhage include neck stiffness and low back pain. Citation: Reference: Chapter 14, Page 460, last paragraph on left column
T/F: The meninges contain the dura mater, arachnoid, and pia mater.
Answer: TRUE Rationale: Surrounding the brain and spinal cord are three protective membranes: the dura mater, the arachnoid, and the pia mater. Collectively they are called the meninges. Citation: CH 14, pg 459 (1st paragraph under meninges)
Question: Spinal cord derives its blood supply from branches off the vertebral arteries and various regions of aorta? A. True B. False C. D.
Answer: True Rationale: Citation: p. 463, first statement in Spinal Cord section
Question: The brain receives its arterial supply from two systems: the internal carotid arteries and the vertebral arteries. A. True B. False
Answer: True Rationale: Citation: pg 462, Header: Blood Supply "The Brain derives its arterial supply from two systems: the internal carotids and the vertebral arteries."
Question T/F The blood supply to the spinal cord originates from the vertebral arteries and branches arising from the aorta.
Answer: True Rationale: Citation:Pg. 478 Under Central Nervous System # 10
Question T/F The reticular formation together with the cerebral cortex is referred to as the reticular activating system.
Answer: True Rationale: The reticular formation in conjunction with the cerebral cortex is referred to as the reticular activating system. Citation: Ch. 14, pg. 450
Neuroglia are 5 to 10 times more numerous than neurons. Which of the following statements about these cells is true? A. Ependymal cells fill the spaces between neurons and surround blood vessels in the CNS. B. Schwann cells function to deposit myelin within the CNS. C. Astrocytes line the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)-filled cavities of the CNS. D. Microglia remove debris (phagocytosis) in the CNS.
D. Microglia remove debris (phagocytosis) in the CNS. Rationale: Astrocytes fill the spaces between neurons and surround blood vessels in the CNS. Oligodendrocytes function to deposit myelin within the CNS. (CNS counterpart of the Schwann cells). Ependymal cells line the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)-filled cavities of the CNS. Microglia remove debris (phagocytosis) in the CNS. Citation: Pg 445 1st paragraph
True or False The nervous system is a network composed of complex structures that only transmits electrical signals between the body's many organs and tissues and the brain.
False Rationale: The nervous system is a network composed of complex structures that transmits electrical and chemical signals between the body's many organs and tissues and the brain. Citation: Chapter 14, page 442, 1st paragraph
True or False The central nervous system (CNS) consists of the brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves.
False Rationale: The CNS consists of the brain and spinal cord, the cranial nerves are part of the peripheral nervous system. Citation: Chapter 14, page 442, 2nd paragraph
Sympathetic activation of metabolic effects increases the release of epinephrine, which results in all of the following EXCEPT? a. All the above are correct b. Increased blood sugar c. Increased lactic acid d. Release of free fatty acids
answer A- all of the above
Question True or false: The 2 divisions of the Autonomic Nervous System (the parasympathetic and sympathetic) frequently cause opposite responses (i.e. they oppose each other).
answer: TRUE Rationale: McCance, ch14, pg 470, 1st paragraph under 'functions of the autonomic nervous system': The two divisions (parasympathetic and sympathetic) frequently cause opposite responses. Citation:
Sympathetic activation of peripheral vasoconstriction results in cardiac output being shifted to where? a. Skin b. Skeletal Muscles c. Stomach d. GI
answer: skeletal muscles