Neuropsychology EPPP Test Questions
A substance that stimulates or mimics the effects of a neurotransmitter is referred to as: Select one: A. agonistic B. antagonistic C. cholinergic D. dopaminergic
Correct Answer is: A An agonist or agonistic drug is one that facilitates the effects of a neurotransmitter. An antagonist blocks or inhibits the effects of a neurotransmitter. Cholinergic refers to synaptic transmission that is mediated by the release of acetylcholine. Dopaminergic refers to synaptic transmission mediated by the release of dopamine.
Which of the following refers to an inability to perform complex or skilled movements not due to paralysis, sensory impairment, or a lack of comprehension? Select one: A. apraxia B. anomia C. alexia D. agnosia
Correct Answer is: A Apraxia refers to is an inability to perform complex or skilled movements that is not due to paralysis, sensory impairment, or a lack of comprehension. Anomia* refers to an inability to recall the names of familiar objects, attributes, or actions. Alexia* refers to a reading impairment due to brain injury. Agnosia* refers to an inability to recognize familiar objects (visual agnosia) or sounds (auditory agnosia) (* incorrect options).
Benzodiazepines such as alprazolam and diazepam function as A. GABA agonists. B. GABA antagonists C. serotonin agonists. D. serotonin antagonists.
Correct Answer is: A Benzodiazepines are a class of anti-anxiety drugs that include alprazolam (brand name Xanax), diazepam (Valium), Flunitrazepam (Rohypnol), and Lorazepam (Ativan). Benzodiazepines act by enhancing the effects of the neurotransmitter GABA. A drug that increases the effects of a particular neurotransmitter is called an agonist for that transmitter. GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter; i.e., it inhibits neurons from firing and therefore has a general quieting effect on the brain.
Wernicke's, Broca's and conduction aphasia share which of the following difficulties? A. repeating what is said B. word prosody C. reception Incorrect D. expression
Correct Answer is: A Difficulty repeating words just spoken and recalling the name of familiar objects are characteristic of all three disorders. Conduction aphasia is due to damage to the nerve fibers that connect Broca's to Wernicke's area and the most typical result is difficulty repeating what one has heard. Wernicke's, or receptive aphasia, primarily affects comprehension which results in impairment in spoken and written language, and anomia or problems recalling words. Broca's aphasia is characterized by difficulty expressing language, including difficulty repeating what is said.
Which of the following neurotransmitters is most frequently associated with movement? A. Dopamine B. Serotonin C. Norepinephrine D. Endorphins
Correct Answer is: A Dopamine plays a key role in movement. For example, in Parkinson's Disease, dopamine-secreting cells in the substantia nigra die - causing the nigra to no longer transmit dopamine to the striatum - which controls various muscular activities such as walking and balance. Norepinephrine is mostly related to arousal, wakefulness, and learning. Serotonin affects mood, eating, and sleep onset and endorphins inhibit the transmission of pain.
The statement "I am sad because I cry" is most consistent with the A. James-Lange theory of emotion B. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion C. two-factor theory of emotion D. Lazarus cognitive appraisal theory of emotion
Correct Answer is: A The James-Lange theory states that emotions are the perceptions of bodily changes, either physiological changes such as increases in heart rate and muscle tension, or actual behavioral changes. In other words, the bodily/behavioral changes precede the emotion, rather than the other way around. The Cannon-Bard theory states that physiological changes are caused by emotions, the opposite of the James-Lange theory. Two-factor theory states that emotions are caused by interpretation of physical arousal; interpretation does not play the same role in the James-Lange theory. And Lazarus' cognitive appraisal theory focuses on the role of cognitive appraisal in emotion; it divides the appraisal process into three stages: primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, and re-appraisal.
The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test is useful for the detection of damage to the: A. frontal lobe B. temporal lobe C. hippocampus D. corpus callosum
Correct Answer is: A The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST) is used primarily to assess perseveration and abstract reasoning. However, it has also been found to be a useful measure of executive (frontal lobe) functioning and in discriminating between frontal and non-frontal lesions. Subjects must sort 64 cards using different strategies, for example, by color, form (triangle, star, star, and circle) or number of items on the cards.
Damage to the hippocampus causes: A. Amnesia B. Pseudodementia C. Weight loss D. Tremors.
Correct Answer is: A The hippocampus appears to be responsible for memory consolidation or the transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory. Bilateral destruction of the hippocampus, amygdala and medial temporal lobes produces a severe permanent anterograde amnesia.
Parkinson's disease is characterized by degeneration of neurons in which of the following brain areas? A. substantia nigra B. basal ganglia C. hypothalamus D. thalamus
Correct Answer is: A The substantia nigra (which literally means "black substance") is a brain region, located in the brain stem, just above the spinal cord, that produces dopamine, a neurotransmitter involved in the control of movement. Parkinson's Disease involves degeneration of neural cells in this region, resulting in an overall loss of dopamine in the brain and deficits in movement control. Resulting symptoms include slowed movements, tremor, and rigidity. Note that the basal ganglia is also involved in Parkinson's disease. Neurons in the substantia nigra project directly to areas of the basal ganglia, which contains neural circuits that regulate movement. Degeneration of the substantia nigra leads to dopamine deficits in the basal ganglia, which inhibits its communication with the thalamus, which in turn results in deficits in communication between the thalamus and the motor cortex. However, basal ganglia is not the correct answer to this question because, in Parkinson's disease, even though the basal ganglia area suffers from dopamine deficits, its neurons remain intact.
"Just noticeable differences" are: Select one: A. psychologically equal intervals. B. physically equal intervals. C. psychologically and physically equal intervals. D. psychologically and physically unequal intervals.
Correct Answer is: A A just noticeable difference (or difference threshold) is the smallest physical difference between two stimuli that can be recognized as a difference. Although just noticeable differences are considered to represent psychologically equal units, their corresponding physical differences are unequal. For example, a just noticeable difference for 10 pounds might be the addition of 1 pound, while the just noticeable difference for 100 pounds might be the addition of 10 pounds.
Following a stroke involving the MCA (middle cerebral artery), an elderly man experiences weakness and loss of sensation in his left arm and leg. In addition, he exhibits Select one: A. left visual field loss. B. Wernicke's aphasia. C. left-right disorientation. D. finger agnosia.
Correct Answer is: A Because this man's symptoms involve the left side of his body, this indicates that the stroke affected the right side of his brain. Depending on the location of the brain damage, the man may also be experiencing left visual field loss, anosognosia (denial of deficits), and left-sided neglect. The symptoms listed in the incorrect answers are caused by damage to the left side of the brain.
Impressive aphasia is to Wernicke's area as what type of aphasia is to Broca's area. Select one: A. expressive B. global C. sensory D. receptive
Correct Answer is: A Both expressive aphasia and motor aphasia are alternative names for Broca's aphasia. Global aphasia is due to damage to several regions of the brain including the cortex and basal ganglia. These two options ("sensory" and "receptive") and impressive are all alternative names for Wernicke's aphasia.
Bupropion is a form of antidepressant known as a ______. Select one: A. NDRI B. NRI C. MAOI D. SSRI
Correct Answer is: A Bupropion (also known as Wellbutrin and Zyban) is a norepinephrine dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI) prescribed for depression, smoking cessation and, off-label, for distractability due to ADHD. Side effects include abdominal pain, constipation, decrease in appetite, dizziness, dry mouth, increased sweating, nausea, trembling, difficulty sleeping, unusual dreams and may induce pre-existing seizures or psychosis. NRIs include selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (e.g., Strattera, a non-stimulant used for the treatment of ADHD), and work by blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine. Common side effects include decreased appetite, dizziness, fatigue, and irritability, and, in adults, sexual dysfunction and menstrual cramps.
Chronic pain treatment with tricyclic antidepressants is most effective for: Select one: A. neuropathic pain and headaches B. neuropathic and musculoskeletal pain C. headaches and musculoskeletal pain D. neuropathic pain, headaches and musculoskeletal pain
Correct Answer is: A Chronic pain research estimates 50-90% of patients can be expected to achieve at least 50% pain relief with antidepressants, with others achieving less pain relief. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline (Elavil), have been found to be most effective particularly if the pain is neuropathic (pain in a numb area, burning or shooting pain) or one of the headache syndromes. SSRI antidepressants have also been found to be effective at preventing headaches, including migraines, but are considered less effective. It is theorized these medications may reduce migraines by affecting the level of serotonin and other brain chemicals. Individuals do not have to have depression to take and benefit from these drugs. A therapeutic trial of antidepressants may follow the failure of conventional analgesics or be used in addition to conventional analgesics. This can be particularly effective in cancer patients who have pain at multiple pain sites, some nociceptive and some neuropathic.
Disinhibition, indifference, and jocularity are most likely caused by damage to the: Select one: A. right frontal lobe B. left frontal lobe C. corpus callosum D. left parietal lobe
Correct Answer is: A Disinhibition/impulsiveness, happy indifference, and jocularity frequently result from damage to the right frontal lobe. Damage to the left frontal lobe most often results in reduced speech, depression, and apathy.
Methylphenidate has which of the following effects on neurotransmitters in the brain? Select one: A. It increases dopamine availability. B. It decreases dopamine availability. C. It increases serotonin availability. D. It decreases serotonin availability.
Correct Answer is: A Methylphenidate (brand name Ritalin) is used to treat Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) and is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor. This means that it increases the availability of norepinephrine and dopamine in brain synapses. Researchers believe that increased dopamine activity is behind the drug's effectiveness in treating ADHD. Dopamine is believed to be involved in the motivational process and increased levels of this neurotransmitter may improve attention and decrease distractibility.
Tumors, head injuries, viral infection, vascular or other neurological disorders that damage the medial temporal region of the brain affect: Select one: A. retrograde and anterograde memory B. retrograde memory and general intellectual abilities C. anterograde memory and general intellectual abilities D. retrograde and anterograde memory and general intellectual abilities
Correct Answer is: A Neurological disorders that damage the medial temporal region can cause organic amnesia. In organic amnesia, anterograde amnesia (an impaired ability to form new permanent memories) is often the outstanding cognitive impairment, though retrograde amnesia (impairment of memory for events that occurred before the onset of amnesia) can also occur. Despite the severe impairment in new learning ability, general intellectual or language abilities and short-term memory are generally intact.
Some potential side effects of Propranolol (Inderal) are: Select one: A. depression and bradycardia B. mania and tachycardia C. tremor and tachycardia D. anxiety and bradycardia
Correct Answer is: A Propranolol (Inderal) is a beta-blocker which is often used to treat hypertension, migraine, and essential tremors. However, it is also useful in reducing the physical symptoms of anxiety. Side effects of Inderal include bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypotension, fatigue, sexual dysfunction, and depression.
The Sickness Impact Profile is used to: Select one: A. assess the impact of disease on physical and emotional functioning B. assess emotional reactions to chronic illness C. diagnose physical illnesses D. diagnose personality disorders
Correct Answer is: A The Sickness Impact Profile (SIP) is one of the most comprehensive quality of life measures available. It is used to assess the impact of disease on both physical and emotional functioning. Its focus is on behavioral measures of daily living such as sleep, eating, social interactions, and emotional behaviors. Contrary to this option "assess emotional reactions to chronic illness," however, it is not used to assess emotional or other subjective reactions to illness.
A person is experiencing sweating, tremors, insomnia, and bizarre visual hallucinations. This may be due to Select one: A. Anabolic steroid use B. Benzodiazepine withdrawal C. Hyperthyroidism D. Cushing's Syndrome
Correct Answer is: B Withdrawal from benzodiazepine can result in sweating, tremors, insomnia, anxiety, and in some cases, transient hallucinations. Anabolic steroid use can produce acne, edema, mood lability, and aggressiveness. Hyperthyroidism can exhibit some of the same symptoms as benzodiazepine withdrawal, such as anxiety and insomnia, but can also cause chest pain and tachycardia, weight loss, decreased libido and mood lability.
Which of the following is most likely to occur as a result of a lesion in the medial hypothalamus? A. outbursts of aggressive behavior B. indifference and apathy C. receptive aphasia D. deficits in recent long-term memory
Correct Answer is: A The hypothalamus is associated with regulating the release of hormones from the pituitary and other endocrine glands, maintaining the body's homeostasis, and mediating aggressive responses. In particular, lesions in the medial hypothalamus have been associated with outbursts of rage and aggressive behavior. Indifference and apathy are the likely consequences of lesions in certain areas in the right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex. Damage to the dominant temporal lobe, including the Wernicke's area, causes receptive aphasia. Lesions or damage to the thalamus, hippocampus or prefrontal cortex have been linked to memory loss.
Damage to the prefrontal cortex is most likely to impair: Select one: A. working memory B. long-term memory C. language comprehension D. motor functioning
Correct Answer is: A The prefrontal cortex has been associated with many functions including decision-making, attention, planning, and most recently, working memory.
Tricyclic antidepressants, as compared to MAO inhibitors, Select one: A. are more effective in the treatment of the vegetative symptoms of depression. B. are more effective in the treatment of atypical depressions. C. are less effective in the treatment of panic disorder. D. are associated with a greater range of dangerous side effects.
Correct Answer is: A The tricyclic antidepressants include imipramine, clomimpramine, and amitriptyline. In the treatment of depression, they are most effective in relieving vegetative symptoms such as appetitive, sleep, and motor disturbances. By contrast, the MAO inhibitors are more effective in the treatment of atypical depressions.
The occipital lobe is to the temporal lobe as Select one: A. vision is to hearing. B. receptive language is to expressive language. C. vision is to touch. D. hearing is to smell.
Correct Answer is: A The visual cortex, which is responsible for visual perception, recognition, and memory, is located in the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex. The auditory cortex, which is involved in the mediation of auditory sensation and perception, is located in the temporal lobe.
Which of the following neurotransmitters is most associated with Tourette's Disorder? A. serotonin B. dopamine C. GABA D. acetylcholine
Correct Answer is: B Although the research findings are mixed, most studies have focused on the role of dopamine in Tourette's Disorder. Antipsychotic medications such as Haloperidol (Haldol) are often used to control the tics in Tourette's Disorder by affecting the dopamine level. The findings suggest that either an excess of dopamine or an increased sensitivity of dopamine receptors is related to Tourette's. However, other studies have also linked serotonin and norepinephrine to the disorder.
Which is the most common anticholinergic side-effect? A. Light tremor B. Blurred vision C. Diarrhea D. Weight loss
Correct Answer is: B Anticholinergic effects may be either central or peripheral. Central side effects are cerebral and include impaired concentration, confusion, attention deficit, and memory impairment. Peripheral side effects include dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, bowel obstruction, dilated pupils, blurred vision, increased heart rate, and decreased sweating. Light tremor and diarrhea are not associated side-effects, and while dry mouth may affect appetite and result in weight loss, it is not considered an anticholinergic side-effect either.
Which of the following medications would MOST likely cause confusion? A. fluoxetine B. amitriptyline C. sertraline D. paroxetine
Correct Answer is: B Compared to the SSRIs, the tricyclics are much more likely to cause anticholinergic effects. Confusion is one of several possible anticholinergic effects. Other anticholinergic effects include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention and tachycardia. The only anticholinergic listed in this question is amitriptyline. The other three choices are SSRIs: fluoxetine (Prozac), sertraline (Zoloft), and paroxetine (Paxil).
Lashley's ____________________ predicts that, if certain parts of the cortex are damaged, other parts may assume the functions of the damaged parts. A. principle of mass action B. principle of equipotentiality C. law of effect D. all-or-none principle
Correct Answer is: B Karl Lashley's research on the function of the brain in relation to behavior developed two main principles as a result of his research. The principle of equipotentiality states that certain small areas of the brain can take on the function of larger, related areas that have been destroyed and the principle of mass action, which states that in many types of learning the cerebral cortex acts as a whole. Thorndike's law of effect states that feedback either reward or punishment will automatically strengthen or weaken responses. The all-or-none principle states that the strength of response to a stimulus is not dependent on the strength of the stimulus.
The mesencephalon does not contain which of the following? A. substantia nigra B. hypothalamus C. inferior colliculus D. superior colliculus
Correct Answer is: B The area of the brain referred to as the "midbrain" is also known as the mesencephalon and is divided into two regions: the tectum and the tegmentum. The substantia nigra is located in the tegmentum and is part of the brain's sensorimotor system. The inferior colliculus is part of the tectum and is involved in audition. The superior colliculus is also part of the tectum and mediates vision. The hypothalamus is located in the diencephalon. The diencephalon and the telencephalon make up the forebrain.
The concept of long-term potentiation is most closely related to Select one: A. sleep. B. memory and learning. C. hunger and thirst. D. sensory perception.
Correct Answer is: B The term long-term potentiation refers to a facilitation or increase in synaptic efficiency that is long lasting (i.e., hours to days). Long-term potentiation was first discovered in the hippocampus and seems to have the most concrete applications to the processes of learning and memory. It has been theorized that learning, through stimulation of certain hippocampal neurons, results in long-term potentiation and thereby facilitates those neurons' receptivity to further stimulation.
Beta blockers, naltrexone, and naloxone work at a receptor site by: A. facilitating the action of a neurotransmitter at the site. B. exerting the opposite effect of a neurotransmitter. C. blocking a neurotransmitter's access to the site. D. mimicking the effect of a neurotransmitter.
Correct Answer is: C At a receptor site, an antagonist works by binding to the site and thereby blocking the neurotransmitter's access to the site and reducing its ability to affect the cell's activity. Beta blockers, naltrexone, and naloxone act as antagonists.
A split-brain patient is shown a picture of an object to his left visual field then told to pick the object out from behind a screen. Which of the following will the patient will be able to do? A. pick the object with either hand B. pick the object with only his left hand C. pick the object with only his right hand D. able to say what the object was however unable to pick it with either hand
Correct Answer is: B The visual information about the object crosses in the patient's optic chiasm and ends up in the right hemisphere so when the person is asked to pick out the object he will be able to correctly pick out the object because touch information from the left hand crosses over to the right hemisphere.
Deficits in prospective memory is most likely due to damage to which of the following? A. basal ganglia B. prefrontal cortex C. corpus callosum D. parietal lobe
Correct Answer is: B You were probably unfamiliar with the concept of prospective memory, but you may have been able to guess correctly through the process of elimination. Prospective memory refers to the ability to remember to perform an action at a particular point in the future. For instance, remembering to take cookies out of the oven in 15 minutes. It is not entirely clear which part of the brain is involved in prospective memory, but it has been hypothesized that the prefrontal cortex is most likely involved since it relates to executive functioning. It has also been suggested that the medial temporal area may play a role. The basal ganglia controls voluntary movement. The corpus callosum is a bundle of nerve fibers connecting the right and left hemispheres. The parietal lobe controls somatosensory functions.
Anticholinergic effects include all of the following EXCEPT: Select one: A. constipation B. diarrhea C. blurred vision D. dizziness
Correct Answer is: B Anticholinergic (side) effects occur as a result of interference with acetylcholine in the brain and peripheral nervous system. Tricyclic antidepressants and antipsychotics often have anticholinergic effects which include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, dizziness, urinary retention, tachycardia, and confusion.
Which type of brain waves predominate when a person is awake, alert, and actively processing information? Select one: A. alpha B. beta C. delta D. theta
Correct Answer is: B Brain wave activity is typically described in terms of the following frequency bands, in order from lowest to highest wave repetition per second: delta, theta, alpha, and beta (some researchers also classify higher frequency beta waves as gamma waves). Beta waves are associated with alert wakefulness. They predominate when one's eyes are open and the brain is actively processing information. Alpha waves predominate in states of relaxed wakefulness when the person is not actively processing information; they have also been linked to creative problem solving. Theta waves predominate in the state between wakefulness and sleep, and delta waves predominate during deep sleep.
Head trauma causing damage to the temporal lobes is most likely to produce deficits in Select one: A. procedural memory. B. episodic memory. C. semantic memory. D. implicit memory.
Correct Answer is: B Damage to the temporal lobe produces deficits in declarative memory with episodic memory being affected more than semantic memory. Procedural memory is left relatively undisturbed as is implicit memory.
The statement "I'm afraid because I run" would be supported by the theory of Select one: A. Cannon and Bard B. James and Lange C. Yerkes and Dodson D. Miller and Dollard
Correct Answer is: B Historically, two competing theories of emotion have been the Cannon and Bard theory and the James and Lange theory. Cannon and Bard* proposed that emotions and thoughts occur more or less simultaneously. William James in America and Lange in Europe had a different idea. They contended that we first observe our behavior and then we make an attribution of that behavior in terms of some emotion. Therefore, the notion that if we observe ourselves running we must have felt afraid is most consistent with the James and Lange theory. Yerkes and Dodson* are known for identifying the inverted "U" relationship between arousal and performance. Miller and Dollard* are known for a few theories including the frustration-aggression hypothesis, which proposed that frustration always precedes aggression (* incorrect options).
The probability of a parent with Huntington's Chorea passing the disorder on to an offspring is: Select one: A. 25% in female or male offspring B. 50% in female or male offspring C. increased if the offspring is female D. increased if the offspring is male
Correct Answer is: B Huntington's Chorea is a dominant, autosomal disorder. Individuals with autosomal dominant diseases have a 50% chance of passing the mutant gene, and therefore the disorder, onto each of their children. Most dominant traits are due to genes located on the autosomes (the non-sex chromosomes). An autosomal dominant trait typically affects males and females with equal likelihood and similar severity. Although Huntington's usually does not manifest until mid-life, research indicates some variability, with the most severe cases showing up as early as two years of age, and on the other hand, some individuals remain symptomless until age 60. Research shows that the symptoms generally emerge earlier and become worse with each passing generation. Diagnosed by genetic testing, there is presently no cure although medication is used to control affective and motor symptoms.
In most patients, the earliest signs of Huntington's disease are Select one: A. apathy and disorientation to time and place. B. depression and forgetfulness. C. athetosis and chorea. D. slowed movements and resting tremor.
Correct Answer is: B In Huntington's disease, personality and cognitive changes often precede motor symptoms. Athetosis and chorea are characteristic of this disorder but are late-appearing. Slowed movements and resting tremor are characteristic of Parkinson's disease.
Korsakoff's Syndrome is characterized by: Select one: A. anterograde amnesia without retrograde amnesia. B. anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia that involves a temporal gradient in which remote events are recalled better than recent events. C. anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia that involves a temporal gradient in which recent events are recalled better than remote events. D. anterograde amnesia and "flat" retrograde amnesia in which deficits in remote and recent memory are about the same.
Correct Answer is: B Korsakoff's Syndrome involves both anterograde and retrograde amnesia. The retrograde amnesia usually affects recent long-term memories more than remote memories (i.e., the person can recall events from early childhood but not from the last decade or two).
An infant has a slowed heart rate while sleeping. The infant has A. apnea. B. SIDS. C. bradycardia. D. tachycardia.
Correct Answer is: C Bradycardia means a slow heart rate. Apnea means difficulty breathing while sleeping. SIDS stands for Sudden Infant Death Syndrome. Tachycardia refers to rapid heart rate.
A unilateral throbbing headache that is aggravated by light, sound, or any movement is characterized as a: Select one: A. cluster headache B. migraine headache C. tension headache D. sinus headache
Correct Answer is: B Migraine headaches are typically unilateral, that is, felt on one side of the head and are typically throbbing in nature. Migraines are also frequently accompanied by sensitivity to light, sound, and movement, and may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. cluster headache Cluster headaches are characterized by severe pain usually behind one eye and typically last for a few minutes to several hours and reoccur at the same time each day for several weeks, until the cluster period is over. tension headache Tension headaches are described as a constant, dull, pain on both sides of the head. They are typically accompanied by tension in the head or neck muscles and begin slowly and gradually. sinus headache Sinus headaches are usually located in the mid-facial area and are described as a dull ache often accompanied by nasal congestion.
Brain imaging techniques have identified abnormalities in which areas among people with Tourette Syndrome, Autistic Disorder, and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder? Select one: A. frontal lobes and thalamus B. frontal lobes and basal ganglia C. parietal lobes and amygdala D. parietal lobes and thalamus
Correct Answer is: B Research has consistently implicated pathology in the basal ganglia and frontal lobes in all three disorders.
Research on sleep patterns in the elderly have generally found that compared to young adults they have: Select one: A. decreased non-REM sleep in stages 3 and 4, and increased absolute amounts of REM B. increased non-REM sleep in stages 1 and 2, and decreased absolute amounts of REM C. increased non-REM sleep in stage 4, and decreased absolute amounts of REM D. the same amounts of REM and non-REM sleep, but it is distributed around the clock, with less sleep at night and naps during the day.
Correct Answer is: B Research has shown that in the elderly, the absolute amount of REM sleep decreases and there is an increased amount of non-REM sleep in stages 1 and 2 (lighter sleep) along with decreased amounts of non-REM sleep in stage four (deeper sleep). the same amounts of REM and non-REM sleep, but it is distributed around the clock, with less sleep at night and naps during the day. This choice is partly correct, in that their sleep does tend to be more distributed around the clock, but the amounts of REM and non-REM are still altered.
The cingulate cortex is most associated with: Select one: A. spatial memory B. emotions and motivation C. somatosensory processing D. balance and posture
Correct Answer is: B The cingulate cortex is part of the limbic system and is believed to play an excitatory role in emotions and in motivating behaviors. It's also known as the satisfaction center - mediating feelings of satisfaction following eating and sex.
The hypnagogic state refers to: Select one: A. the transition state of semiconsciousness between sleeping and waking B. the transition state of semiconsciousness between being awake and falling asleep C. a condition in which someone about to fall asleep, or just upon awaking, realizes that s/he is unable to move, or speak, or cry out D. a condition in which there is a sudden loss of partial or complete muscle tone during excitement or arousal
Correct Answer is: B The hypnagogic state is that state between being awake and falling asleep. the transition state of semiconsciousness between sleeping and waking The hypnopompic state is between sleeping and waking. Various sensory experiences such as auditory, visual, kinesthetic and tactile hallucinations are experienced by some during these states. a condition in which someone about to fall asleep, or just upon awaking, realizes that s/he is unable to move, or speak, or cry out Sleep paralysis is a condition in which someone, about to drop off to sleep, or just upon waking from sleep realizes that s/he is unable to move, or speak, or cry out. Like the previous two states, this may last from a few seconds to several minutes. Sleep paralysis with hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations is commonly reported as an experience of a "sensed" presence accompanied by fear. Sleep paralysis most often has an adolescent onset and is often thought to be associated with narcolepsy. a condition in which there is a sudden loss of partial or complete muscle tone during excitement or arousal Narcolepsy is a condition in which people are overcome with irresistible sleep attacks that occur unpredictably. Another distinguishing feature of the condition is cataplexy, a sudden loss of partial or complete muscle tone during excitement or arousal Although conscious during a cataplectic episode, individuals may experience hallucinations during prolonged attacks and subsequently fall asleep.
The part of the brain that is compromised in Parkinson's Disease is the Select one: A. basal ganglia. B. substantia nigra. C. hypothalamus. D. frontal lobe.
Correct Answer is: B The substantia nigra is a group of neurons that is part of the extrapyramidal motor system. Parkinson's disease, which is characterized by tremors and other disorders of voluntary movement, is caused by degeneration of substantia nigra neurons. When substantia nigra neurons degenerate, the amount of dopamine they provide to neurons in the basal ganglia (also part of the extrapyramidal motor system) is reduced. In other words, basal ganglia neurons are also involved in Parkinson's disease -- the disease occurs when they get a lower than normal quantity of dopamine. Thus, if substantia nigra were not a choice, the basal ganglia would be the best answer. Note, however, that, unlike substantia nigra neurons, basal ganglia neurons remain intact in Parkinson's disease.
A patient with right hemisphere damage is most likely to respond to jokes with which of the following reactions? Select one: A. indifference B. indifference or exaggerated jocularity C. frustration and irritation D. rage
Correct Answer is: B The two hemispheres appear to have different functions in terms of emotions - the left hemisphere governs positive emotions, while the right hemisphere governs negative ones. Consequently, damage to the right hemisphere can produce apathy or undue cheerfulness, which may be reflected in the individual's response to humor.
An elderly man is not able to recognize familiar faces. For example, he doesn't recognize family members until they speak. This condition is referred to as Select one: A. visual agnosia. B. prosopagnosia. C. topographagnosia. D. Capgras' syndrome.
Correct Answer is: B This condition is known as prosopagnosia, which refers specifically to the inability to recognize familiar faces. Visual agnosia is a more general term and refers to the inability to recognize familiar objects by sight. Topograpagnosia involves deficits in spatial ("route-finding") ability; and Capgras' syndrome is the belief that a familiar person has been replaced by an imposter who has an identical or similar appearance.
Which of the following is an endogenous opiate? A. dopamine B. catecholamine C. endorphins Correct D. heroin
Correct Answer is: C Endorphins are endogenous (produced inside the body) peptides which activate opiate receptors in the brain and block the release of Substance P, which results in decreased perception of pain. The term "endorphin" is an abbreviation of "endogenous morphine". The only other opiate listed in the choices is heroin which is derived from the opium poppy - an exogenous substance.
Symptoms of memory impairment, faulty judgment, and impaired concentration would most likely result from lesions to the: A. frontal lobe. B. parietal lobe. C. temporal lobe. D. occipital lobe.
Correct Answer is: C Faulty judgment and problems in concentration could be either frontal lobe- or temporal lobe-related. However, since memory impairment is included in this question, the best answer is the temporal lobe. The subcortical nuclei implicated in memory lie under the temporal lobes. The parietal lobe is responsible for orientation in space. The occipital lobe is where vision is mediated.
Huntington's Disease is most associated with decreased amounts of: A. dopamine B. epinephrine C. GABA D. norepinephrine
Correct Answer is: C Huntington's Disease is believed to begin when cells within the striatum (caudate and putamen) of the basal ganglia begin to be destroyed. The striatum is responsible for producing GABA, which regulates the levels of dopamine in the brain through an inhibitory process. The death of the striatum cells causes decreased amounts of GABA which leads to an overproduction of dopamine and results in chorea (uncontrollable and irregular muscle movements, especially of the arms, legs, and face).
Use of which of the following strategies is most likely to increase a person's level of chronic pain? A. biofeedback B. active coping C. passive coping D. cognitive-behavioral therapy
Correct Answer is: C Several studies have found that passive coping strategies (e.g., depending on others, restricting social activities, use of medication for immediate pain relief) result in an increase in subjective pain among chronic pain patients. Conversely, helping patients reduce the frequency of passive coping strategies is believed to result in decreased pain. Active coping strategies (e.g., staying busy or active, distracting attention from the pain), as well as biofeedback and cognitive-behavioral therapy, have most often been found to decrease pain.
The area of the brain that regulates the sleep/wake cycle is the: Select one: A. basal ganglia. B. thalamus. C. hypothalamus. D. limbic system.
Correct Answer is: C The hypothalamus contains the suprachiasmic nucleus (SCN) which controls the circadian rhythms via the pineal gland. The basal ganglia controls voluntary movement. The thalamus is the central relay station. And the limbic system, which includes the amygdala, septum, and hippocampus mediates the emotional components of behavior.
Methylphenidate (Ritalin) administered to children with ADHD is most likely to result in which of the following side effects: A. hyperactivity B. dizziness C. loss of appetite D. increase in blood pressure
Correct Answer is: C The most common side effects associated with Methylphenidate (Ritalin) use in children with ADHD are loss of appetite, abdominal pain, insomnia, and tachycardia. A number of other side effects can also occur, but are less common, such as headache, dizziness, drowsiness, increase or decrease in blood pressure, and toxic psychosis. In many cases, the side effects can be alleviated by reducing the dosage.
An MRI of a patient in the early stages of Huntington's disease would indicate: A. no abnormalities. B. overactivity in the temporal lobes. C. reduced volume of the basal ganglia. D. reduced volume of the ventricles.
Correct Answer is: C To answer this question, you need to know that Huntington's disease is due to degeneration in several areas of the brain including the basal ganglia and that damage can often be detected by an MRI or other brain imaging technique even before the person exhibits symptoms.
Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by: A. receptive problems and non fluent speech B. expressive problems and non fluent speech C. receptive problems and fluent speech D. expressive problems and fluent speech
Correct Answer is: C Wernicke's area, in the temporal lobe of the brain, is involved with language comprehension and lesions in the temporal lobe may produce Wernicke's aphasia. Wernicke's aphasia, also known as sensory, receptive and impressive aphasia, is associated with impaired comprehension of language, fluent aphasia (clear speech that makes little or no sense), and dysnomia (inability to name objects).
According to research on sex-role determinants, the characteristic that is most related to genetics as opposed to socialization is: Select one: A. sociability. B. dependency. C. aggression. D. anxiety.
Correct Answer is: C Almost all empirical studies show that very few abilities that distinguish males from females are biologically determined. That is, developmental psychologists tell us that the things we see typically as feminine and things we see typically as masculine are defined and developed through socialization. There are however a couple of characteristics that seem to transcend socialization. From the four possibilities listed here, aggression is the one that we feel is more related to hormones than to learning. Boys are just more active and have higher aggressive drives than girls do.
Brain damage to the _____________ frequently results in loss of social inhibitions and ignoring rules of polite conduct. Select one: A. hypothalamus B. striate cortex C. prefrontal cortex D. temporal lobe
Correct Answer is: C An individual making impulsive statements or other types of problems with response inhibition is more from the result of damage to the frontal lobes. Specifically, disinhibition, impulsiveness, happy indifference, and jocularity frequently result from damage to the right frontal lobe. In comparison, damage to the left frontal lobe most often results in reduced speech, depression, and apathy. striate cortex The striate cortex is associated with the initial, and more rudimentary, steps of visual processing. temporal lobe Problems with auditory perception, changes in sexuality, and severe anterograde amnesia are examples of behaviors that have been linked to temporal lobe damage.
A post-menopausal woman is most likely to find that her reduced level of estrogen has Select one: A. decreased her ability to become sexually aroused. B. reduced her overall interest in sex. C. made intercourse uncomfortable. D. made it easier to achieve orgasm.
Correct Answer is: C Because of its effects on vaginal tissues, a lower estrogen level can cause discomfort during intercourse. However, it is not associated with changes in other aspects of sexual functioning including interest, arousal, or drive. **Estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) and hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has the side effect of changes in libido
Consuming foods containing tyramine while taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor would most likely result in: Select one: A. depression B. hypotension C. hypertension D. no adverse reactions
Correct Answer is: C Eating foods containing tyramine while taking MAOIs is likely to cause a hypertensive crisis, that is, a severe rise in blood pressure. The person may also experience headache, diaphoresis (perspiration), and palpitations. On rare occasions the combination has caused cardiac failure and cerebral hemorrhage. Some of the foods that must be avoided while taking MAOIs include: beer and wine, aged cheese, beef or chicken liver, orange pulp, pickled or smoked meats, packaged soups, and yeast vitamin supplements.
The antidepressant medication in Emsam, the first skin (transdermal) patch for the treatment for major depression disorder in adults, is: Select one: A. duloxetine. B. escitalopram. C. selegiline. D. fluvoxamine.
Correct Answer is: C Emsam is a transdermal formulation of selegiline, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) antidepressant. A new patch is applied to the torso, thigh or upper arm each day, allowing the selegiline to be absorbed into the bloodstream over a 24-hour period. An advantage of this MAOI is that at the lowest dose of the patch there are not any dietary restrictions. However higher doses of the patch pose the same dietary risks and require the same dietary restrictions as with oral MAOIs approved for treating major depression. Selegiline is also approved for treatment of some symptoms of Parkinson's disease. Duloxetine (Cymbalta) is a selective serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SSNRI) approved for the treatment of major depressive disorder (MDD) and peripheral neuropathic pain associated with diabetic neuropathy (DN). Escitalopram (Lexapro) and fluvoxamine (Luvox) are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).
Acalculia, agraphia, difficulty distinguishing right from left, and finger agnosia are characteristic of Select one: A. Ganser's Syndrome B. Wernicke's Aphasia C. Gertsmann's Syndrome D. Kluver-Bucy Syndrome
Correct Answer is: C Gerstmann's syndrome is characterized by the symptoms listed in the question. It has been attributed to lesions of the parietal lobe, and it is sometimes observed in stroke victims.
Indifference and apathy are the likely consequences of lesions in the: Select one: A. thalamus, hippocampus, or prefrontal cortex. B. dominant temporal lobe. C. right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex. D. medial hypothalamus.
Correct Answer is: C Indifference and apathy are the likely consequences of lesions in certain areas in the right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex. thalamus, hippocampus, or prefrontal cortex. Lesions or damage to the thalamus, hippocampus or prefrontal cortex have been linked to memory loss. dominant temporal lobe. Damage to the dominant temporal lobe, including the Wernicke's area, causes receptive aphasia. medial hypothalamus. The hypothalamus is associated with regulating the release of hormones from the pituitary and other endocrine glands, maintaining the body's homeostasis, and mediating aggressive responses. In particular, lesions in the medial hypothalamus have been associated with outbursts of rage and aggressive behavior.
The experience of REM-rebound occurs most often when Select one: A. barbiturates are used chronically B. a person begins using sedatives. C. the use of sedatives is discontinued. D. alcohol is substituted for barbiturates.
Correct Answer is: C Most drugs suppress REM sleep. When REM sleep is suppressed, a sudden rebound effect occurs soon after the removal of the suppressing agent.
Which of the following medications would be most effective in the treatment of premature ejaculation? Select one: A. lithium B. risperidone C. fluoxetine D. bupropion
Correct Answer is: C One of the side effects of SSRI antidepressants is delayed ejaculation. This side effect has been used to benefit those with premature ejaculation. Although the FDA has yet to approve any drug for the treatment of premature ejaculation, several studies have found that even extremely low doses of SSRIs can prolong ejaculation by at least 5 to 10 minutes. Many physicians have, therefore, begun recommending SSRIs for this purpose, either on a daily basis, or four hours before intercourse. In this question, fluoxetine (Prozac) is the best choice because it is the only SSRI listed. The only other antidepressant choice in this question is bupropion (Welbutrin), which is an atypical antidepressant known for not causing the same sexual side effects as the SSRIs. In fact, there is some evidence that bupropion increases sexual responsiveness.
The sensation of tingling, pricking, or numbness of an individual's skin, more generally known as the feeling of "pins and needles" or a limb "falling asleep" is referred to as: Select one: A. neuroglycopenia B. hemiparesis C. paresthesia D. hyperglycemia
Correct Answer is: C Paresthesia may be transient or chronic. Transient paresthesia of the hands and feet are common symptoms of hyperventilation syndrome, panic attacks or pressure on a nerve that inhibits or stimulates its function. Chronic paresthesia indicates a problem with the functioning of neurons which may be the result of poor circulation in the limbs, vitamin deficiency or malnutrition, metabolic disorders like diabetes and hypothyroidism, nerve irritation from tissue inflammation, rheumatoid arthritis, carpal tunnel syndrome, muscle cramps as a result of anxiety or excessive stress, poor posture, heavy lifting, or physical trauma or direct damage to the nerves. Chronic paresthesia may also be symptomatic of serious conditions, such as autoimmune disorders (e.g., multiple sclerosis or lupus erythematosus) and herpes zoster or shingles. Neuroglycopenia* refers to a shortage of glucose in the brain, usually due to hypoglycemia, which affects brain functioning and behavior and can cause permanent brain damage if prolonged. Hemiparesis* is weakness on one side of the body (versus hemiplegia, or total paralysis of the leg, arm, and trunk on the same side of the body). Hyperglycemia*, or high blood sugar, is a condition in which an excessive amount of glucose circulates in the blood
A spinal cord injury is most often diagnosed using: Select one: A. PET or SPECT and CPAP B. CPAP and X-ray C. MRI or CT and X-ray D. X-ray and actigraphy
Correct Answer is: C Spinal cord injuries are typically diagnosed with an X-ray and either an MRI or CT. The initial assessment is often through the use of an X-ray to identify fractures or other injuries to the spine. Then an MRI or CT is employed to gain injury information on the soft tissues of the spine. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is used for the treatment for sleep apnea and actigraphy is used to monitor body movement such as in the assessment of sleep disorders.
For the treatment of Bulimia Nervosa, medications that ____________ would be most effective. A. decrease glutamate levels B. increase glutamate levels C. decrease serotonin levels D. increase serotonin levels
Correct Answer is: D Bulimia Nervosa has been associated with lower-than-normal levels of serotonin and treatment with medications that increase serotonin levels, like SSRIs, has been found to be useful.
Your client has been injured in a car wreck and now reports that he has "lost his sense of touch." At what level has the spinal injury most likely occurred? Select one: A. L1 B. S1 to S3 C. C8 to T1 D. T2 to T3
Correct Answer is: C T1 is the first level of the thoracic spinal cord and innervates the hand and arm. C8 innerverates the ring and little fingers. L1 refers to the lumbar region which contains nerves that affect to hip, thigh, and leg. S1 to S3 is referring to the sacral region which innerverates parts of the foot and leg. T2 to T3 is referring to the lower thoracic region which innervates the trunk. It would be good to know that the spinal cord is divided into four regions: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral.
Recent research suggests that the lack of impulse control and poor judgment associated with adolescence are due to incomplete development in which area of the brain? Select one: A. basal ganglia B. cerebellum C. prefrontal cortex D. ventromedial part of the temporal lobe
Correct Answer is: C The higher-order or executive cognitive functions include the capacity to control impulses, make decisions, goals or plans and to determine how to complete those decisions and plans. The prefrontal cortex is part of the frontal lobe and is associated with executive functioning. basal ganglia The basal ganglia are involved in motor control. cerebellum The cerebellum controls coordination, balance and posture. ventromedial part of the temporal lobe The ventromedial part of the temporal lobe is associated with memory and is one of the first areas to be affected by Alzheimer's dementia.
Mental imaging or visualization, in the absence of external visual stimulation, is believed to be most associated with the: Select one: A. basal ganglia B. frontal lobe C. hippocampus D. parietal lobe
Correct Answer is: C The medial temporal lobe (limbic system) contains the hippocampus, amygdala, and other structures which have recently been associated with the ability to generate mental images
Excluding the olfactory nerves, sensory afferent nerves run through which part of the brain? Select one: A. caudate nucleus B. cerebellum C. thalamus D. cingulate gyrus
Correct Answer is: C The thalamus acts as a "relay station" for all the senses except smell. That is, it receives impulses from the senses and then transmits the information to other parts of the brain. Olfactory information is projected to various parts of the limbic system.
If shown a word, a patient who has suffered brain damage only reads the right half of the word; she fails to eat the food on the left side of their plate and if asked to copy a picture, she only copies the right half. This patient seems to be suffering from: Select one: A. parietal syndrome. B. right hemiblindness. C. unilateral neglect syndrome. D. hemispherectomy.
Correct Answer is: C Unilateral neglect syndrome is a disorder in which patients seem unable to detect or respond to stimuli in regions of space contralateral to the damaged cerebral hemisphere. Some people may deny ownership of their contalateral limb and also neglect parts of their own body in the early stages. Neglect can be in the visual, auditory, tactile, and olfactory modalities, although the most commonly involve visuo-spatial neglect. Left neglect occurs following damage to the right hemisphere of the brain, in particular the right parietal lobe and, as in this question, it is associated with a failure to orient or respond to stimuli on the left side. Left neglect after right hemisphere damage is more frequent, severe, and long-lasting than right neglect after left hemisphere damage. Left neglect is also a significant negative prognostic factor after brain damage and is associated with poor performance on several recovery measures. Hemispherectomy involves cutting the connections one cerebral hemisphere from the rest of the brain to control seizures in the hemisphere. Hemispherectomy, or functional hemispherectomy, is considered only for individuals, usually children, who have severe epilepsy with seizures arising from only one side of the brain and is performed only if that hemisphere is already functioning very poorly due to prior injury and continued seizure activity. As a result of the procedure, over 75% of patients experience complete or nearly complete seizure control.
Following major surgery and anesthesia, an elderly patient is most likely to suffer from: Select one: A. dystonia B. dementia C. delirium D. dyskinesia
Correct Answer is: C he elderly, as well as children, are at increased risk for delirium. Conditions such as Pneumonia, congestive heart failure, and major surgery all increase the risk for delirium in the elderly. The other choices -- dementia, dystonia (abnormal muscle tone), and dyskinesia (distortion of movement) are not typically caused by major surgery.
An accident victim has been partially stabilized in a hospital emergency room and is being transferred to an intensive care unit for continued assessment and treatment. At this point, which of the following is commonly used to evaluate for brain injuries? Select one: A. Rancho Los Amigo Scale B. AVPU Scale C. Glascow Coma Scale D. Disability Rating Scale
Correct Answer is: CT he Glasgow Coma Scale is a standardized test that rates three categories of patient responses: eye opening, best motor response, and best verbal response. The eye opening tests indicate the function of the brain's activating center, the best verbal response indicates the condition of the central nervous system within the cerebral cortex, and the best motor response examines the ability to move arms and legs. The levels of responses indicate the degree of nervous system or brain impairment with "1" being the lowest possible score in each category. Using these scores, which range from 3 to 15 to form the Glascow Coma Scale, brain injuries are classified as mild, moderate or severe. The Rancho Los Amigo Scale is an evaluation of eight levels of cognitive functioning administered in acute rehabilitative settings following release from intensive care. The AVPU Scale is primarily used after injury occurs or as pre-hospital information. It rates if someone is alert, responds to voice, responds to pain or is unresponsive. The Disability Rating Scale or DRS is for gauging general level of disability (e.g., self care, dependence on others) from "none" to "extreme vegetative state."
The primary symptoms of normal pressure hydrocephalus are: Select one: A. headache followed by vomiting, downward deviation of the eyes and urinary incontinence B. a rapid increase in the size of the head, headache followed by vomiting, gait disturbance C. a rapid increase in the size of the head, downward deviation of the eyes, dementia D. gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, dementia/mental disturbance
Correct Answer is: D
Alzheimer's Dementia is most often associated with damage to the: A. frontal lobe B. parietal lobe C. occipital lobe D. temporal lobe
Correct Answer is: D Although it is not known whether the deficits of Alzheimer's Dementia are caused by diffuse damage to the brain or focused in a particular lobe, most research has linked it to damage to the temporal lobe. This is consistent with the important role of the temporal lobe in long-term memory.
The hallmark motor triad of Parkinson's disease includes: A. rigidity, cogwheel rigidity, and spastic gait B. tremor, rigidity, and a wide based gait C. tremor, festination, and over-reaching D. tremor, rigidity, and slowness of movement
Correct Answer is: D Parkinson's disease (PD) belongs to a group of conditions called motor system disorders, which are the result of the loss of dopamine-producing brain cells. PD ordinarily affects people over the age of 50 with early symptoms being subtle and occurring gradually. A definitive diagnosis of PD is based on neuropathological findings of Lewy bodies and degeneration and loss of pigmented neurons of the substantia nigra. The hallmark clinical signs of PD are its motor triad: 1) tremor; 2) rigidity; and 3) slowness or absence of movement. While festination, a manner of walking with an involuntary acceleration of gait, as if trying to catch up with one's displaced centre of gravity, is often experienced by individuals with PD, it isn't considered one of the primary motor hallmark signs.
Compared to traditional neuroleptics, risperidone: A. is significantly more effective in treating the "positive" symptoms of psychotic disorders B. has a higher risk of causing cognitive blunting C. has a higher risk of extrapyramidal symptoms D. has a lower risk of tardive dyskinesia
Correct Answer is: D Risperidone (brand name Risperdal) is one of several atypical antipsychotics that has emerged more recently. Risperdal has also become a commonly prescribed antipsychotic medication. The most significant difference between the traditional antipsychotics and the newer atypical antipsychotics is that the atypicals have a much lower incidence of causing tardive dyskinesia and extrapyramidal side effects. However, they are generally considered to be equally effective in treating the positive symptoms (e.g., hallucinations, delusions) of Schizophrenia. They have often been considered to be more effective for treating the "negative" symptoms (e.g., affective and cognitive blunting, apathy, poverty of speech); however, the research for this remains inconclusive.
Following a stroke, a woman complains of numbness in her left hand and she does not respond to images presented to her left visual field. She most likely suffered damage in: A. Broca's area B. Wernicke's area C. the right precentral gyrus D. the right postcentral gyrus
Correct Answer is: D The postcentral gyrus includes the somatosensory cortex, and is located in the parietal lobe. Damage to the right postcentral gyrus could result in numbness in the left hand and contralateral neglect, which includes neglect of the left visual field. Broca's and Wernicke's areas are both located in the left hemisphere of the brain and only affect language. The precentral gyrus is responsible for motor functioning.
A physician refers a patient to you with temporal lobe damage. You would be least likely to expect your patient to exhibit Select one: A. problems understanding what you say. B. changes in sexual behavior. C. anterograde amnesia. D. impulsive statements.
Correct Answer is: D A patient making impulsive statements or other types of problems with response inhibition is more from the result of damage to the frontal lobes. The incorrect options (problems with auditory perception, changes in sexuality, and severe anterograde amnesia) are examples of behaviors that have been linked to temporal lobe damage.
What percentage of left-handed individuals are likely to be left-hemisphere language dominant? Select one: A. 5-15% B. 15-30% C. 35-50% D. 60-75%
Correct Answer is: D About 90% of the population is right-handed, most of the other 10% is left-handed or "left hand dominant" and a few are "ambidextrous" or use each hand equally. In 95% of right-handers and 60-70% of left-handers, the left side of the brain is dominant for language processing. Even though between 70% to 95% of people have a left-hemisphere language specialization, somewhere between 5% to 30% have anomalous patterns of specialization such as a right-hemisphere language specialization or little lateralized specialization with both hemispheres being used for language. Prosody, the emotive content of speech, is an example of a language function specialized in the right hemisphere of individuals with left-hemisphere language specializations.
___________ means possessing two different alleles, one dominant and one recessive, for single trait. Select one: A. genotype. B. phenotype. C. homozygous. D. heterozygous.
Correct Answer is: D An allele is an alternative form of a gene that is one member of a pair that determines a genetic trait. Heterozygous means a person has two different alleles or genes for each trait. An example is a person with Bb has a "B" gene for brown eyes and the small "b" gene for blue eyes. The individual will have brown eyes because the gene for brown eyes is dominant. If a person inherits identical genes from each parent then it would result in either a homozygous dominant "BB" or homozygous recessive "bb" gene. Blue eyes, blond hair, nearsightedness, and Rh-negative blood are examples of results from a pair of homozygous recessive genes. Genotype is the genetic makeup of an individual, whereas phenotype is the physical and physiological traits of an individual resulting from genotype and environment.
Presbyopia, a common result of normal aging, is most likely to increase the near point from four inches at 20 years of age to _________ at 60 years of age. Select one: A. 8 inches B. 12 inches C. 24 inches D. 48 inches
Correct Answer is: D As we age the ability of our eyes to focus on objects declines due to a loss of elasticity in the lens of the eye. This condition, known as "presbyopia," typically increases the near point (the shortest distance at which we can focus) from four inches at 20 years of age to about four feet at 60 years of age. Although some people have different rates of decline, presbyopia eventually affects everyone.
Hydrocephalus is associated with which of the following structures? Select one: A. corpus callosum B. limbic system C. cingulate gyrus D. ventricles
Correct Answer is: D Cerebrospinal fluid flows through a group of cavities in the brain known as ventricles. Hydrocephalus results when the flow through the ventricles is blocked, producing abnormal pressure which causes brain damage and mental retardation.
he brand name for one of the medications used for ADHD is: Select one: A. Tegretol B. Depakote C. Dolophine D. Dexedrine
Correct Answer is: D Dexedrine is sometimes used in the treatment of ADHD. Tegretol and Depakote are both used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. Dolophine is used for the treatment of heroin addiction.
Damage to the striate cortex in the occipital lobe, is most likely to result in: Select one: A. loss of fine motor control B. loss of touch and other body sensations C. deafness D. blindness
Correct Answer is: D The striate cortex, located in the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex, is the primary receptive area for visual impulses and handling of visual processing. It is also sometimes called the visual projection area.
Recent longitudinal studies investigating the relationship between menopause and psychological well-being have suggested that: Select one: A. women experiencing menopause are more likely to report significant depression than pre-menopausal or post-menopausal women. B. post-menopausal women are likely to have higher general levels of psychological well-being than either pre-menopausal women or women in the midst of menopause. C. pre-menopausal are likely to have higher general levels of psychological well-being than either post-menopausal women or women in the midst of menopause. D. there is no evidence that menopause is linked to either depression or psychological well-being.
Correct Answer is: D During menopause, there is a reduction in estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone levels. The drop in estrogen may produce a number of physical symptoms including hot flashes, insomnia, mood swings, urinary incontinence, and vaginal changes (dryness and loss of elasticity) as well as an increased risk for osteoporosis and heart disease. Estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) and hormone replacement therapy (HRT), which combines estrogen and progesterone, alleviate many of the symptoms of menopause and reduce the risk for osteoporosis and heart disease. On the negative side, they may increase the risk for breast cancer and produce a number of side effects such as nausea, headaches, weight gain or loss, depression, and changes in libido.
Research on HIV progression in adults has most consistently found: Select one: A. age is unrelated to HIV disease progression. B. younger age is associated with a more rapid HIV disease progression. C. middle age is associated with a more rapid HIV disease progression. D. older age is associated with a more rapid HIV disease progression.
Correct Answer is: D Findings of recent studies indicate that the factors of intellectual functioning, age and somatic symptoms of depression are significant predictors of HIV progression and prognosis. Specifically, older age, lower IQ, and the presence of somatic symptoms of depression are associated with a more rapid progression from HIV infection to AIDS, HIV-related dementia, and death.
In Huntington's Disease, the first brain structure to show signs of damage is the Select one: A. superior colliculus. B. medulla oblongata. C. nucleus cuneatus. D. caudate nucleus.
Correct Answer is: D Huntington's Disease is due to degeneration of neurons in the basal ganglia, and the degeneration is usually first apparent in the caudate nucleus. (The basal ganglia include the caudate nucleus, the putamen, and the globus pallidus.)
The symptoms of hypothyroidism may involve all of the following, except: Select one: A. depression. B. cognitive impairment. C. weight gain. D. tachycardia.
Correct Answer is: D Hypothyroidism is an endocrine disorder that occurs when the thyroid gland secretes an abnormally low level of the hormone thyroxin. Its symptoms, which resemble those of depression, include weight gain, depression, lowered body temperature, deficits in concentration and thinking and slowed heart rate (rather than rapid heart rate, or tachycardia).
Right-left confusion is a characteristic of damage to the: Select one: A. temporal lobe B. frontal lobe C. occipital lobe D. parietal lobe
Correct Answer is: D Left-right disorientation is typically caused by damage in the parietal lobe, specifically the left angular gyrus located between the parietal and temporal lobes. It is also one of the symptoms of Gerstmann's syndrome.
The four main stages of neural development are: Select one: A. meiosis, mitosis, migration, myelination B. mitosis, meiosis, differentiation, myelination C. differentiation, mitosis, migration, myelination D. proliferation, migration, differentiation, myelination
Correct Answer is: D Neural development involves the stages of proliferation, migration, differentiation, and myelination. The proliferation stage includes the production of cells. Migration is the second stage of development during which the cells move or migrate to its ultimate destination in the nervous system. Following migration is differentiation, in which cells develop the unique characteristics of nerve cells. During the fourth stage, myelination, the axons of some cells become surrounded (insulated) by glial cells. Meiosis is the process of cell division that produces cells with one-half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Mitosis is the process of cell division that produces cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
Side effects of propranolol (Inderol) are most likely to include: Select one: A. tachycardia and mania B. tachycardia and tremor C. bradycardia and hypersomnia D. bradycardia and depression
Correct Answer is: D Propranolol (Inderal) is a beta-blocker often used to treat hypertension, migraine, essential tremors and is also useful in reducing the physical symptoms of anxiety. Side effects of Inderal include bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypotension, fatigue, sexual dysfunction, and depression.
Patients with depression typically have: Select one: A. more rapid onset of REM sleep B. decreased slow wave sleep C. increased percentage of REM sleep D. all of the above
Correct Answer is: D Research has found that depression is most associated with a more rapid onset of REM sleep, decreased percentage of slow wave sleep, and increased percentage of REM sleep. The research also suggests that individuals with no prior history of depression but who have rapid REM onset have an increased risk of developing depression.
Use of benzodiazepines is associated with a rebound effect. If an individual is experiencing rebound anxiety, this refers to: Select one: A. an initial paradoxical increase in anxiety B. anxiety persisting even after increasing dosage C. anxiety re-appearing after long-term usage of the drug D. an increase in severity of anxiety temporarily following the discontinuation of the drug
Correct Answer is: D The rebound effect occurs when a benzodiazepine is discontinued and wears off. The symptoms come back stronger and the initial symptoms are magnified. When the medication is stopped, individuals can experience withdrawal symptoms as well as experience a rebound or resurgence of the feelings or condition the drug was originally managing. Essentially, the body/brain reacts to the drug by trying to overcome its effect, and once the drug is stopped that overreaction continues for awhile until it "gets through" to the body/brain that there is no longer a chemical to fight against. The symptoms lessen as the body readjusts to life without the chemicals. This rebound effect is also common for other conditions and drugs, such as rebound sinus congestion after frequent use of nasally inhaled decongestants or rebound headaches after a long-term course of painkillers for someone suffering from chronic headaches.
n most species of animals the differences between males and females in body size and shape is referred to as: Select one: A. androgyny B. sexual bifurcation C. gender dichotomy D. sexual dimorphism
Correct Answer is: D The term "sexual dimorphism" may be new to you, but now you know that it refers to any consistent differences between males and females in size or shape. Sexual dimorphism enables animals to readily identify males and females of their species which serves to facilitate mating.
A female patient had a small tumor removed from the rear part of her right cerebral hemisphere. During the operation, it was necessary to remove the primary visual cortex from the right side of her brain. As a result, she became blind in the: Select one: A. right part of the visual field of her right eye. B. left part of the visual field of her left eye. C. right part of the visual field of both eyes. D. left part of the visual field of both eyes.
Correct Answer is: D The visual system, once the neural stimulation leaves the retina, goes back up into the brain and eventually stimulates the visual cortex at the back of the brain (in the occipital lobes). An interesting feature of the visual system is that the images cross over so that on the right side of the brain we are imaging the left visual field, and on the left side of the brain we are imaging the right visual field. Now in this case, the woman has the visual cortex of the right hemisphere removed. Thus, she would not be able to see anything in the opposite visual field, i.e., the left field. The reason that it has to be from both eyes is that by the time the images get up to the cortex, the information from both eyes has already converged, like streams leading into a large river.
Gould and Gross (1999) found neurogenesis, the formation of new neurons or nerve cells, in all of the following areas, except: Select one: A. the olfactory system B. the hippocampus C. the prefrontal region D. the striate cortex
Correct Answer is: D Traditionally it has been believed that no new neurons are added to the brain in maturity. In the last decade, evidence has accumulated for neurogenesis in several evolutionarily older parts of the brain such as the olfactory system and the hippocampus, which is believed to play role in memory formation. Gould and Gross, furthermore, identified neurogenesis in three areas of the cerebral cortex: 1) the prefrontal region, which controls executive decision making and short-term memory; 2) the inferior temporal region, which plays a crucial role in the visual recognition of objects and faces; and 3) the posterior parietal region, which is important for the representation of objects in space. The striate cortex, which handles the initial, and more rudimentary, steps of visual processing, had no sign of neurogenesis. (See: Gould, E., and Gross, C.G. (2002). Neurogenesis in Adult Mammals: Some Progress and Problems. The Journal of Neuroscience. 22, 619-623.)