NSCA - CSCS test prep
What compromises a motor neuron, and what is its function ?
Consisting of an alpha motor neuron(cell body), Axon, and dendrites, the motor neuron transmits nerve impulses from the spinal cord to the muscle fiber. A myelin sheath surrounds the axon, with nodes, interrupting the myelin every 1 to 2 mL. The alternation of myelin and nodes allows an electrical current (I.e., nerve impulse) to quickly move down the axon with impulses " jumping" from node to node. The terminal branches end at the neuromuscular junction.
What is meant by criterion-referenced standards, how do most athletes' scores fall relative to these standards?
Criterion-referenced standards are based on research- and normative- based achievement levels of health and fitness that, if reached, predict the lower disease is for the athlete. This may be lower standards than those likely achieved by athletic populations.
Carbohydrate loading is recommended for activities lasting longer than 120 minutes and can be accomplished by consuming which of the following? A. 8-10 grams of carbohydrate per kilogram of body weight B. 7-9 grams of carbohydrate per kilogram of body weight C. 6-8 grams of carbohydrate per kilogram of body weight D. 5-7 grams of carbohydrate per kilogram of body weight
A. Carbohydrate loading is typically recommended for activities lasting longer than 120 minutes by consuming a high-carbohydrate diet of about 8-10 grams of carbohydrate per kilogram of body weight. the ranges listed for carbohydrate loading in the other options are not supported by research.
Which is NOT symptom of overtraining? A. Lowered resting heart rate B. Depression or moodiness C. Sleep disturbances D. Changes in appetite or body weight
A. Overtraining is a condition that occurs when an individual trains with too much frequency and/or intensity, causing fatigue greater injury risk sleep issues changes in appetite or body weight lack of motivation depression or moodiness performance decline. Signs of overtraining also include elevated resting heart rate soreness that does not resolve within a day or two after exercise increased susceptibility to illness
What type of score is VO2 max? A. Norm-referenced score B. Criterion-referenced score C. Reliability-referenced score D. Validity-referenced
A. VO2 max is a norm-referenced score. Norm-referenced standards compare the athlete's performance against that of other similar athletes and scores are presented in percentiles. The 50th percentile indicates the athlete performed. Ether than half of the comparative population and worse than half. It is important that the coach reports not just the percentile score, but educates an athlete on their score's relative value.
Anatomically what are the primary control structures for blood pressure regulation?
Arterioles regulate blood flow into the capillary bed through constriction and dilation, so they are the primary control structures for blood pressure regulation.
What is blood doping ?
Artificially increasing the number of RBCs. This may be achieved by infusing RBCs (either an auto infusion or a donor infusion), or by administering erythropoietin (EPO). EPO stimulates the body to produce RBCs. Whereas RBC infusions rapidly increase RBC mass initially but then the results last just a few weeks, EPO allows the RBC count to continue to increase over time with continued.
What are common assisted sprint techniques, and what maximum speed should be used?
Assisted training techniques include: Pulling the athlete with cords (e.g., rope towing, elastic-band/surgical-tubing pulls) high-speed treadmill sprinting with a specialized treadmill downhill running The maximum speed should be no greater than 100% of the athlete's known maximal speed.
What is the minimum amount of rest an athlete should be given between tests?
At least 3-5 minutes after a test that uses the phosphagen system. At least one hour after a test that uses the lactic system.
What is the difference between autogenic, inhibition and reciprocal inhibition?
Autogenic inhibition is when a muscle relaxes when it is stretched or experiences tension, because the GTO's activate an inhibitory interneuron. It takes place in the same muscle. Reciprocal inhibition occurs when a contracting muscle stimulates the muscle spindles , causing the opposing muscle to relax. It takes place in the antagonist.
Which amino acids must be present for the development of carnosine, and essential muscle buffering element? A. Histidine B. Beta-alanine C. Carnosine D. Leucine
B. Beta-alanine is the specific nonessential amino acid that must be present for the development of carnosine. Histidine is a component of carnosine; carnosine and Leucine are not required for the development of carnosine.
Dehydration at which level can negatively affect athletic performance? A. 1% of body weight B. 2% of body weight C. 3% of body weight D. 5% of body weight
B. Decreased physical performance can occur with just a 2% loss in body weight from dehydration, and the risk of heat illness increases significantly with a fluid loss equaling 3% or more of body weight
Which of the following anaerobic power tests is likely the LEASR optimal choice for a volleyball player? A. Vertical jump test B. Wingate test C. Margaria-Kalamen star sprint test C. Medicine ball throw
B. The Wingate test is conducted in a cycle ergometer, and so it is least applicable to a volleyball player because that sport does not involve biking. Vertical jump, margaria-kalamen stair sprint, and medicine ball throws would all be good assessments for this athlete.
What are the purposes of baseline testing ?
Baseline test provide a starting place so that programs can be designed at the right level. For example, they can identify an athlete's strengths and weaknesses. They also establish pre-training levels, so the athlete's growth and the effectiveness of a program can be measured.
What volume, in terms of repetitions per session, is typically recommended with plyometrics for bringer, intermediate, and advanced athletes, respectively?
Beginner: 80-100 reps per session Intermediate: 100-120 reps per session Advanced: 120-140 reps per session
An athlete would like to use an ergogenic aid for delaying fatigue. Which of the following is a good option? A. Sodium tablets and/or sports beverages B. Glutamine and/or sodium tablets C. Branched-chain amino acids and/or caffeine D. Sports beverages and/or caffeine
C. Branched-chain amino acids and caffeine is the best answer choice, since the other options do no represent combinations of ergogenic sonde that are used to delay fatigue. sodium tablets help to prevent hyponatremia during exercise. Sports beverages are used for hydration and the prevention of hyponatremia and fatigue.
The need for strength and conditioning professionals to always act with integrity, honesty, and ethical behavior and to report any and all unethical behavior is detailed in which of the following? A. NSCA's Conflict of Interest policy B. NSCA's professional liability insurance for certified strength and conditioning specialists C. NSCA's Professional Code of Ethics D. NSCA's Disciplinary Policies and procedures manual
C. NSCA's Professional Code of Ethics details the need to always act with integrity, honesty, and ethical behavior and to report any and all unethical behavior. It is designed to help maintain a high degree of professionalism in the strength and conditioning profession. NSCA does not offer there own branded professional liability insurance.
What is the purpose of a feasibility study when designing a strength and conditioning facility? A. To develop the building and construction plan and design B. To determine what space, equipment, and layout are needed C. To conduct a SWOT analysis to ensure the business will be financially viable and profitable D. To develop the budget and operational plan
C. The feasibility study should involve a SWOT analysis, which identifies the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats to ensure the business will be financially viable and profitable. Choices A and D are part of the master plan, and choice B describes a needs assessment.
Which pieces of equipment should be evaluated prior to every single use? I. Medicine Balls II. Exercise Bands III. Cables on weight machines IV. Emergency stop buttons on cardio equipment A. All of the above B. I, II, IV C. II. III, IV D. III, IV
C. While medicine balls should be checked weekly or so for cracks, which can cause sand to leak out, unless they are old or get substantial use, they likely are not something that needs to be checked prior to every use. Exercise bands routinely thin and snap, and cables fray, both of which can be very dangerous. Emergency stop buttons on cardio equipment should also be checked prior to usage.
What is the ISSN's recommendation for carbohydrate intake before, during, and after exercise, respectively?
Carbohydrate intake of 8-10 g/kg of body weight alone or with protein before resistance exercise to maximize glycogen stores. During exercise, 30-60g of carbohydrate/hr in 8-16 ounces of fluid every 15 minutes or so. The ISSN recommends 8-10 g/kg of body weight for carbohydrate (and 0.2-05 g/kg of body weight of protein) in the post-exercise meal.
What are the benefits of circuit training?
Circuit training leads to improved time efficiency enhanced cardiorespiratory functioning increased muscle endurance It increases metabolic costs and can be beneficial for athletes interested in reducing body fat.
Which macronutrient composition is best suited for short-term weight loss? A. 70% carbohydrate, 20% protein, and 10% fat B. 60% carbohydrate, 20% protein, and 20% fat C. 55% carbohydrate, 30% protein, and 25% fat D. 45% carbohydrate, 30% protein, and 25% fat
D. Macronutrient composition needs to be tailored to the individual based on composition, training, and goals, but a caloric distribution of about 40%-45% carbohydrate, 30%-35% protein, and 25% fat should lead to body fat loss in a short term. The other options all provide a higher amount of carbohydrate than would be optimal for short-term weight loss.
In which order would a strength coach recommend administering the following assessments? A. Skinfold, push-up test, step test, 1RM bench press, sit-and-reach test B. Skinfold, step test, push-up test, 1RM bench press, sit-and-reach C. Skinfold, sit-and-reach, step test, 1RM bench press, push-up test D. Skinfold, sit-and-reach, 1RM bench press, push-up test, step test
D. NCSA guidelines suggest this order, with the first and second being interchangeable: Skinfold, sit-and-reach, 1RM bench press, push-up test, and step test. Stretches and measurements of physical attributes are first. Muscular strength tests should follow. Next comes local muscular endurance test. Finally, anaerobic tests and aerobic capacity tests should be conducted.
Prior to a 1RM bench press, an athlete should do which of the following ? I. A 5 to 10-minute jog II. One minute of push-ups III. A few sets of submaximal bench presses IV. A 300-yard shuttle test A. All of the above B. I, III, IV C. I, II, III D. I, III
D. Prior to a 1RM bench press, an athlete should perform a thorough warm-up of the metabolic and physiologic systems that will be used in the test. In this instance, athletes should warm up with light cardiovascular exercise to increase blood flow, heart rate, and muscle perfusion, then complete a few sets with increasing weight below max, to prepare the muscles for the test.
Which of the following does NOT typically affect the validity of an assessment ? a. Population tested b. Order of tests conducted c. Test selection d. The rater's skill level
D. The rater's skill level typically affects the reliability or consistency of a test score. Validity refers to a test measuring what it is intended to measure — such as a strength test actually measuring force production. Reliability of a test refers to its ability to produce consistent measures.
To reduce liability risk, certified strength and conditioning specialists should do all EXCEPT which of the following? A. Adhere to NSCA Professional Code of Ethics B. Rehearse emergency action plans and maintain CPR Certification C. Abide by the NSCA scope of practice for certified strength and conditioning professionals D. Model healthy lifestyle and behavior choices for athletes
D. While modeling a healthy lifestyle is important, it does not reduce liability risk for certified strength and conditioning professionals. Strength and conditioning professionals should be mindful to adhere to NSCA Professional Code of Ethics, rehearse emergency action plans, maintain CPR certification, and abide by the NSCA Scope of Practice for certified strength and conditioning specialists.
What is the benefit of altitude training?
It induces physiological benefits that can increase aerobic performance. Increased altitude causes a reduction in the partial pressure, which detrimentally affects gas exchange in the lungs. The body attempts to compensate for the reduced partial pressure with a number of physiological changes.
What are the essential and conditional amino acids, respectively?
EAAs are required through the diet since they cannot be synthesized in the body: • isoleucine • leucine • lysine • methionine • phenylalanine • threonine • tryptophan • valine • histidine Histidine was originally thought to only be essential for infants, but more recent studies have found that it is also essential for adults. Conditional AAs cannot be sufficiently produced in the body, so they should come the diet: • arginine • cysteine • glutamine • proline • taurine • glycine • tyrosine
What is the definition of an ergogenic aid, and what are their general categories?
Ergogenic aids are considered to any substance, device, or practice that has the ability to enhance or improve an individual's performance. They can be categorized as mechanical, nutritional, pharmacological, physiological, or psychological substances.
What factors should go into selecting the appropriate tests for an athlete?
Factors include considering physiological energy systems required by the sport/position compared to the test movement specificity, feasibility, and the athletes experience with training and testing. A needs analysis of the sport/position help determine what aspects of fitness are most important and should be tested. From there, tests should be selected based on their validity for such fitness components as well as the athlete's training status.
What is force, how is it calculated, and what determines the magnitude of force produced by a muscle at any given time?
Force is the interaction of two physical objects that have both magnitude and direction, often thought of as push or pull exerted on one object by a second object. Force, in Newtons (N), is calculated via F = ma. The number of cross-bridges formed between actin and myosin filaments determines the amount of force produced by a muscle at any instant in time.
What are Golgi tendon organs?
Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) are mechanoreceptors that lie parallel to extrafusal muscle fibers near the muscultendinous junction and detect tension changes in an active muscle, acting as feedback monitors.
Generally speaking, in what sequence should a CSCS conduct performance tests on athletes?
Non-fatiguing tests (body composition, flexibility, etc) agility tests, maximum power and strength tests, speed/sprint tests, local muscular endurance tests (e.g., push-up test), fatiguing anaerobic capacity tests, aerobic capacity tests.
What is the principle behind post-activation potentiation?
Heavy loading causes significant stimulation of the CNS, which leads to greater motor-unit recruitment and force. The increased muscle activation resulting from heavy load produces a faster contraction rate. In complex training, by pairing a high-intensity resistance exercise set with a biomechanically similar plyometric exercise set, the resulting PAP increases force development and maximizes the production of explosive power for athletic performance.
What is the stretch-shortening cycle, and what sort of training relies on this principle?
It involves: an eccentric phase amortization phase concentric phase A muscle shortens in the concentric phase and lengthens in the eccentric phase. The amortization phase is the transition between the eccentric and concentric phases. plyometric training relies on this concept.
What is the structure and primary functions of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
It is a network of tubular channels (i.e., transverse [T]-tubule system) and vesicles which together provide structural integrity to the muscle fiber. The sarcoplasmic reticulum also acts as a calcium ion pump, moving Ca2+ ions from the sarcoplasmic into the muscle fiber. Influx of Ca2+ ions from the sarcoplasm into the muscle fiber results from an action potential in the sarcomere, causing the depolarization that initiates muscle movement.
What are the dietary recommendations for lowering triglyceride levels, and what is the normal range for circulating triglycerides?
Limiting refined, sugary foods; replacing Saturdays fats with unsaturated fats; and increasing fiber intake can help to keep triglycerides in the normal range of less than 150 milligrams per deciliter. High triglycerides can lead to increased risk of heart disease and diabetes
What loads should be used with resisted sprint training?
Loads used for training are sport-specific. Sprinters should use lighter loads (i.e., loads that do not decrease velocity more than 10% to 12%) Field athletes who are exposed to external resistance may use loads that are 20% to 30% of the athlete's body weight.
What are myofibrils?
Myofibrils consist of long, thin (approximately 1/1000 millimeter) chain proteins, such as actin, myosin, and titan. Bunches of myofibrils and nuclei together make a muscle fiber.
What are myofilaments?
Myofilaments primarily consist of protein chains containing actin and myosin and are the smaller components of the myofibrils within striated muscle fibers. A sarcomere is composed of myofilaments.
How is the appearance of myosin described and what is its function?
Myosin, the thick myofilament is often described as resembling a bundle of golf clubs with the heads forming the attachment site along the actin myofilaments, which resemble a string of beads Myosin is responsible for splitting ATP. The phosphate released from ATP hydrolysis provides the energy required from myosin to produce the power stroke, causing the myosin head to grab onto the actin and pull the filaments closer together as a muscle contraction occurs
How is power improved?
Power is improved through complex training, which combines heavy resistance training and plyometric exercises with the goal of enhancing short-term power output. Complex training uses a training stimulus that couples a heavy load with a light load in order to optimize force and power production beyond that which can be achieved with either exercise alone.
What are the pros and cons of field tests and examples of common tests?
Pros: efficient because you can test entire teams or multiple athletes at one time, typically require minimal equipment, can be more sport-specific or true-to- sporty because they usually occurs in a natural movement. Cons: Harder to control environmental variables, so they can be less reliable attention can be split when testing multiple athletes at once, athletes may be distracted Examples: rock port wall test,shuttle runs, 1ish run or step test.
What are the pros and cons of the laboratory tests, and examples of common tests?
Pros: the environment can be better controlled, equipment can be calibrated and usually involves a single athlete at a time, allowing the tester to select the best test for the athlete and focus all of their attention on the one athlete and test Cons: typical require equipment (sometimes expensive), familiarity with complicated protocols, and are less efficient since groups can't be tested simultaneously. Examples: wombats, YMCA VO2 max, underwater weighing, etc.
What is a motor unit, and what does its function depend on ?
The functional unit of the neuromotor system consisting of the motor neuron all the muscle fibers it inner ages. Motor units contain only one type of muscle fiber (i.e., Type I, Type IIa, Type IIx)x Motor unit function depends on the morphological and physiological characteristics of the muscle fibers inner ages by the motor neuron.
What is the goal of assisted sprint training techniques?
The goal is to produce an overspeed effect that causes the athlete to run at faster pace than normal. This increased pace supports adaptation of the athlete's neuromuscular system to contract at rates, thus allowing athletes to increase their stride rate and maximum sprint velocity.
How does automaticity of the hard work?
The heart initiates its own pulse. If the SA node fails to initiate the pulse, the AV node will fire the impulse at a slower rate. If neither the SA node, nor the AV node fires the impulse, the cells within the bundle of His and the Purkinje fibers will fire to start the impulse at an even slower rate.
What are the typical signs of heat illness, and preventive measures?
Signs can include: dizziness nausea vomiting clammy skin confusion visual disturbances headache weakness possible heart arrhythmias To prevent such illness, athletes should be encouraged to: • drink plenty of fluids • frequent breaks in the shade • reduce intensity in hot, humid environments • modify the workout to indoor settings
What do the components of the ECG represent?
The P-wave represent depolarization of the atria, or when the signal travels from the SA node to the AV node . The QRS complex is depolarization of the ventricles . The T wave represents a repolarization or recovery of the ventricles.
In general, how much glycogen can the body store, and what factors influence this amount on the individual level ?
The amount the body can store is influenced by a variety of factors including physical training status, basal metabolic rate, body size, and eating habits, but in general, the body can store about 15 g/kg of body weight. In general, athletes should consume about 6-10 grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight daily, depending on the intensity, duration, and frequency of their trainings as well as their current health and physical goals.
What is the function of the ANS and what are its subdivisions?
The autonomic nervous system innervates smooth and cardiac muscles and glands. It is also responsible for visceral motor actions (e.g., pumping the heart ,food movement through the digestive tract). It is under involuntary control, unlike the somatic nervous system. It has two subdivisions: then sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
What is the rate of force development, how can it be visually represented, and for what aspect of sports does it serve as an index?
The change in force divided by the change in time. The force-time curve graphically represents the RFD. It has relevance for sports where the timing of movements or explosiveness is critical. The generation of maximum force in minimum time is an index of explosive strength.
What is a motor end plate, And what is its functions?
The chemical synapse between the end of the myelinated motor neuron, and the muscle fiber. Transmits nerve impulses from the motor neuron to the muscle fiber , initiating the simulation of the nerve fiber by chemical transmission. The action potential reaches a terminal branches, and ACh is released across the synaptic space, stimulating the sarcolemma. When enough ACh is released, an action potential is generated and travels the length of the muscle fiber, causing it to contract.
What do the two phenomena that can describe an athlete's use of fat as energy substrate during exercise entail?
The crossover concept refers to the fact that the lower intensities, the body is primarily using fat as a source of fuel, and as the intensity increases, the contribution of ATP from carbohydrate metabolism increases. The duration effect of the exercise bout increases, the body relies more heavily on fat, as carbohydrate stores deplete.
What are the steps in the electrical conduction system of the heart?
The electrical conduction system of the heart begins with the impulse known as the action potential from the pacemaker at the sinoatrial (SA) node. The impulse travels across the right, and left atria before activating the atrioventricular (AV) node. From the AV know the impulse continues down the septum along cardiac fibers (The bundle of HIS). The impulse in spreads out and across the ventricles via the Purkinje fibers.
What are the three tissue layers in the structure of arteries and veins and what are they composed of?
The endothelium or the tunica intima forms the inner layer. The middle layer, the tunica media, contains the last in and smooth muscle fibers. Connective tissue forms, the outside coding called the tunica externa .
What is the frontal plane, another name for it and the primary type of movement that takes place in this plane?
The frontal (coronal) plane runs through the center of the body from side to side, dividing the body into front and back halves. Abduction/addiction occurs in this plane. Some inversion(such as ankle inversion when dribbling a soccer ball) also takes place.
What are the IOC and NCAA caffeine limits for athletes and the optimal dosing for athletic performance?
The international Olympic committee allows athletes to have up to 12 micrograms per milliliter of caffeine in their urine, and the National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) allows 15 micrograms per milliliter in urine before any violation is cited. Optimal dosing of caffeine ranges from 3-6 milligrams per kilogram of body weight
Why is it difficult to perform a true plyometric trunk exercise?
The mechanical and neurophysiological mechanisms necessary for the stretch-shortening cycle may not be present. The stretch reflex is not sufficiently involved for potentiated muscle-contraction activity to occur. Te abdominal muscles are close to the spinal cord, which may result in shorter latencies for the abdominal stretch reflex. The large ROM and the time associated with the trunk movements inhibit the potentiation of abdominal muscles.
What is the series elastic component, and physiologically, how does it help an athlete?
The musculotendinous unit where elastic energy is stored is called the series elastic component. The SEC works like a spring that returns the lengthened muscle to its shortened state during a concentric contraction. As muscle shortens, energy is released. An athlete can use this energy to generate force.
What are the objectives of resisted sprint techniques and common modalities used?
The objectives are to enhance the acceleration phase biomechanics and to produce greater propulsive forces so that the athlete can cover longer distances faster. Resisted sprint training techniques include modalities such as: using harnesses for sled and parachute towing uphill running weighted vests wind resistance sled pushing
What is the anatomical position?
The position where the person is standing upright with the arms at the side and the palms of the hands facing forward
What is the function of the somatic system and what can be considered its counterpart?
The somatic nervous system, innovate, skeletal muscles and is responsible for conscious control of voluntary movements. The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is the counterpart, because it is the other part of the motor system, but it is under involuntary control.
What are the three columns of the erector spinal from medial to lateral, and the muscle's primary action?
The spinal is (most medial), long is sinus, and iliocostalis. The erector spinal is the prime mover of the back extension, and each side consists of three columns.
What is the transverse plane and the primary type of movement that takes place in this plane?
The transverse plane is horizontal plane that divides the body into upper and lower regions. Rotation occurs in this plane, such as hip internal/external rotation or trunk twists.
Why is sodium bicarbonate used as an ergogenic aid?
The use of sodium bicarbonate with caffeine 70-90 minutes before exercise has been shown to reduce fatigue. Sodium bicarbonate is essentially a buffer, which helps to prevent the acidic environment associated with fatigue during anaerobic activity. Sodium bicarbonate with the citrate may lead to gastrointestinal discomfort l, so it may not be the best solution for athletes.
What is involved in phase 1 - 3 of the action potential?
These are the repolarization phases. During these phases represented as the plateau, Ca2+ and some K+ channels open. Ca2+ flows into the cells, and K+ flows out. The cell remains polarized, and the increased Ca2+ within the cell trigger contraction of the muscle cell.
When used as an ergogenic aid, how are anabolic steroids typically taken in terms of protocol ?
They are usually stacked because the results of each drug are thought to be additive, such that taking a cocktail of different anabolic steroids together increases the effects or potency of each. Additionally they are often taken in pyramid-type dosing pattern wherein the dose taken is increased steadily over a period of weeks then dropped at the end of cycle to minimize the side effects of excessively high doses.
What is meant by norm-referenced standards, and how does a CSCS use them in practice ?
They compare the athletes performance against that of similar individuals and scores are presented in percentiles. Taken together with an understanding of the most important fitness components for a given athlete, coaches can look at the norm-referenced standards for each test score for an athlete to identify the greatest areas of deficit and be sure to emphasize them, along with those that are most important for the position, in training programs.
What is involved in phase 0 of the action potential?
This is depolarization. Four things occur: Rapid Na+ channels are stimulated to open. The muscle fiber is flooded with Na+ ions, which change the transmembrane potential. The shift and potential is reflective by the initial spike of the action, potential depolarization of one cell triggers the Na+ channels and surrounding cells to open, which causes the depolarization wave to propagate cell by cell throughout the muscle
What is involved in phase 4 of the action potential?
This is the completion of repolarization. Ca2+ channels close. K+ outflow continues. The muscle cell returns to its normal state.
Why is beta-alanine used as an ergogenic aid?
This non-EAA is a component of carnosine, along with histidine, and is produced in skeletal muscle. Carnosine is an essential buffering element in skeletal muscle. If beta-alanine is not present, carnosine production cannot occur. Beta-alanine supplementation increases muscle carnosine content, which helps to improves performance during high-intensity exercise by neutralizing acid production.
What is the Sagittal plane and the primary type of movement that takes place in this plane?
This plane divides the body into right and left regions. Flexion/extension occurs in this plan.
What is the ISSN's recommended regimen for creatine supplementation and what is the purpose of such supplementation?
To increase muscle creating, the ISSN recommends 0.3 g/kg of body weight per day of creating monohydrate for at least 3 days, then 3-5 g/day to maintain the increased stores. Creative at the rate of about 0.1 g/kg of body weight per day added to a protein supplement may help further facilitate resistance training. The purpose is to enhance high-intensity exercise and lean body mass.
What is the role of troponin in muscle contraction?
Troponin, a protein located at regular intervals along the Acton, filament finds with the Ca2+ release from the Sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes a conformational change in tropomyosin, exposing the binding site on the actin filaments for the myosin heads to form cross-bridges
What is the difference between validity and reliability?
Validity is the extent to which a test measures what is intended to measure, such as a strength test actually measuring force production. Reliability is a test's ability to produce consistent measures. Some tests are valid only for certain populations, subjective tests become less reliable if they have multiple eaters for different administrations of the test.
What factors influence the torque extended by a joint?
Various characteristics of the joint such as range of motion (ROM) of the joint and the angle within this range that the joint is in; the relationship of muscle length vs force; length of the lever arm of the bone; leverage resulting from the use of joints l as first-, second- and third- class levers; and speed of contraction of muscles at the joint
What is the difference between velocity and speed, and how are they calculated ?
Velocity is the rate of change of distance over time. Speed is the rate at which an object covers a distance, and velocity describes how fast and in what direction an object is moving. Average speed is calculated by dividing the distance traveled by the amount of time it took to cover that distance. The same can be said for average velocity, but it entails the distance traveled in a given direction.
What does the all-or-none principle of muscle contraction state?
When an action potential in a motor, neuron reaches the sarcolemma the action potential, either illicit activation of all the muscle fibers connected to the motor neuron or no activation of any of the muscle fibers will occur. Partial activation of just some fibers will not occur.
What occurs in a eccentric muscle action and what part of a biceps curl demonstrates this action?
When the external resistance is greater than the muscle force (FM), the muscle develops tension, and lengthens. During a biceps curl, the lowering of the weight when moving the arm from a flexed to extended position reflects the lengthening of the muscle, resulting from eccentric action.
What is the difference between personal injury liability insurance, professional liability insurance and commercial liability insurance?
• Personal injury liability insurance protects against libel, slander, and invasion of privacy. • Professional liability insurance protects against injuries caused by services or negligence. • Commercial liability insurance covers individuals and the business against incidents and accidents that occur at the facility and must be purchased by trainers who own their own studios
What are the four important properties of cardiac cells and what does each mean?
excitability, conductivity, contractility and automaticity. Excitability allows the hard to respond to stimuli maintain homeostasis. Conductivity he is the ability to transfer the electrical impulse initiate it at the SA node across cardiac cells Contractility is the cardiac cells ability to transform an action potential into the mechanical action of contraction and relaxation. Automaticity is the ability of cardiac cells to contract without direct nerve stimulation.
What are the four defined segments of a sarcomere, and what does each contain?
• A-Band • H-Zone • I-Band • Z-Line Each sarcomere is composed of a basic repeating unit between the Z-Line located at each end of the sarcomere. The A-Band contains both actin and myosin. The H-Zone, a region located in the center of the sarcomere within the A-Band, contains only myosin filaments. The I-Band contains only actin filaments and consists of two connected sarcomere son either side of the Z-Line.
What is the structure of the fascicular arrangement in fusiform and convergent muscles, respectively, and an example of each?
• Fusiform: spindle-shaped muscles (such as biceps-brachii) •Convergent (also called radiate): Muscle has a broad origin and is a fan- or triangular-shaped (examples are pectoralis major and gluteus medius)
What are the characteristics of each of the three categories of sports beverages, and the general recommendations for the use of sports beverages ?
• Isotonic beverages contain sodium sugar in physiologically similar levels • hypertonic beverages contain more sodium and sugar than the body • hypotonic beverages contain lower amounts of sodium and sugar than the body. Sports beverages should ideally contain about 6%-8% carbohydrates and be ingested at the rate of 3-8 ounces every 10-20 minutes for activities lasting around 90 minutes or longer.
What do each of the three measures of central tendency entail?
• Mean: average (found by summing the scores and dividing by the number of scores) • Median: middle number when the set of scores is arranged in order of increasing magnitude • mode: most frequent score
When conducting a needs analysis prior to program development, what is involved in the evaluation of the sport step?
• Movement analysis: limb and body movement patterns of the given sport/position • Physiological analysis: muscular strength, power, and endurance required by the sport/position • Injury analysis: researching the injuries commonly seen in the sport/position
What should be involved in the pre-design phase of designing a new facility?
• Needs assessment: Determines what space, equipment, and layout are needed • Feasibility study (SWOT analysis): Identifies the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats, to ensure the business will be financially viable and profitable • Master Plan: Building and construction plans and design, and the budget and operational plan
What are negligence and gross negligence, and how can strength and conditioning specialists protect against such claims?
• Negligence is failure to perform at the accepted standard (due care) • Gross negligence is to do so consciously In addition to carrying the necessary liability insurance, trainers can defend against negligence claims by documenting all services daily performing at the highest industry standards, creating and maintaining a safe training environment within the facility, including safe guarding athletes from risk of injury, illness, and undue emotional distress.
What is the origin insertion in primary action of the serratus anterior?
• Origin: Series of muscle slips from ribs • insertion: entire anterior (ventral) surface of vertebral border of scapula • primary action: pulls scapula anteriorly and downward; abducts scapula
What is the origin insertion and primary action of the rhomboid major and rhomboid minor, respectively
• Origin: spinous processes of T2-T5 (rhomboid major), and spinous processes of C7-T1 (rhomboid minor) • Insertion: Medial (i.e., vertebral) border of scapula for both muscles • primary action: they both retract and elevate the scapula, and rhomboid major also rotates the scapula
What are recommended policies and procedures training facilities should employ to reduce possible areas of liability?
• Protocols for handling injury prevention/ risk management during training sessions • reviewing and rehearsing emergency procedures • maintain confidential records • retaining comprehensive facility and staff liability insurance • keeping the training area safe and up to code • keeping the floor clear of tripping hazards • closely monitoring every session • making certain first aid supplies and AED are in close proximity • ensuring equipment is routinely serviced and checked • insisting that staff carry liability insurance
What are the categories used in food exchanges, and the nutrient values per exchange ascribed to each category?
• Starches/breads: 15g of carbohydrate, 3 g of protein, 80 calories • fruits: 15g of carbohydrate, 60 calories • milk: 12 g of carbohydrate, 8 g of protein, 3-8 grams of fat, 90-150 calories • vegetables: 5 g of carbohydrate, 25 calories • meat: 7g of protein, 0-8g of fat, and 35-100 calories per oz • fat: 5g of fat, 45 calories
When conducting a needs analysis prior to program development, what is involved in the assessment of the athlete step?
• The athlete's training status (length of time training, intensity, experience, etc.) • Results from any physical testing and evaluation (which should have been selected based on the evaluation of the sport step) • Primary resistance training goal ( hypertrophy, strength, endurance, injury prevention, etc.)
When thinking about design of a new facility, what are the important considerations strength and conditioning coaches must bring to the committee?
• Types of flooring • ceiling height (taking into account the platforms of cardio equipment and weight decks, box jumps, and mirror placement which in turn can effect window placement) • good ventilation and lighting • outlet placement • ample margins around each piece of equipment Most manufacturers publish the footprint of equipment for design planning purposes, and planners should bear in mind the need for close proximity to outlets.
What three populations of athletes are most at risk for iron-deficiency anemia and why?
• females of childbearing age are at a higher risk for iron-deficiency anemia due to red blood cell loss during menstruation. • endurance athletes may require additional iron due to foot-strike hemolysis, loss of hemoglobin in urine from strenuous training, and the small amount of iron lost in sweat • vegetarian athletes are at an increased risk due to the lower bioavailability of nonheme iron sources in the vegetarian diet.
What is the difference intrarater reliability and interrater reliability?
• intrarater reliability is the degree to which a given tester is consistent in their scoring of a certain test. • interrater reliability is the degree to which different raters agree or produce the same scores on the same test (objectivity)
What is the origin insertion in primary action of the trapezius?
• origin: occipital bone, ligamentum nuchae, and spines of C7 and all thoracic vertebrae • insertion: a continuous insertion along actin ion and spine of scapula and lateral third of clavicle • primary action: stabilizes, raises, and rotates scapula; middle fibers retract (adduct) scapula; superior fibers elevate scapula (i.e., shrugging shoulders); inferior fibers depress scapula (and shoulder)
What are the four phases integral in the design of a new facility, and which phase is typically the longest ?
• pre-design • design • construction • pre-operational The construction phase is usually the longest, and efforts should be made to meet project deadlines to avoid increases in cost and litigation concerns
What are the primary electrolytes and minerals lost in sweat, what are the functions of each of those nutrients ?
• sodium and potassium: help to regulate the body's water balance and also play a significant role in muscle contraction • chloride: helps with fluid balance and nerve conductions • iron plays an important role in the body's ability to transport and use oxygen • calcium: is critical for bone formation, nerve conduction, and muscle contraction • phosphorus: is involved in intramuscular oxidation processes • magnesium: helps support energy metabolism