NSG5003 Week 2 Quiz
A type IV hypersensitivity reaction causes which result?
. Lymphokine-producing Th1 cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets
In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to-complete absence of T-cell immunity?
DiGeorge syndrome
During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, the degranulation of mast cells is a result of which receptor action?
Histamine bound to H2
Graves disease (hyperthyroidism) is an example of which type II hypersensitivity reaction?
Modulation
Which statement is true concerning an atopic individual?
They tend to produce more Fc receptors.
Which chemical mediators induce pain during an inflammatory response? (Select all that apply.)
Prostaglandins & Bradykinin
Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type I
Urticaria are a manifestation of a which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type I
Raynaud phenomenon is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?
Type III
Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen?
b. Active-acquired immunity
Graves disease is an autoimmune disease that results in which maternal antibody?
b. Affecting the receptor for TSH, causing neonatal hyperthyroidism
Type III hypersensitivity reactions are a result of which of the following?
b. Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited in the tissues
Activation of the classical pathway begins with:
b. Antigen-antibody complexes
What plasma protein system forms a fibrinous meshwork at an inflamed site?
b. Coagulation
Many neonates have a transient depressed inflammatory response as a result of which condition?
b. Complement and chemotaxis are deficient.
What is the role of a natural killer (NK) cells?
b. Elimination of malignant cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the antigen?
b. Foreignness
In regulating vascular mediators released from mast cells, the role of eosinophils is to release
b. Histaminase, which limits the effects of histamine during acute inflammation
What causes the edema that occurs during the inflammatory process?
b. Increased capillary permeability
In the later stages of an inflammatory response, which phagocytic cell is predominant?
b. Monocytes
How do surfactant proteins A through D provide innate resistance?
b. Promote phagocytosis
When cellular damage occurs and regeneration is minor with no significant complications, the process of returning the cells to preinjury function is referred to as:
b. Resolution
Which primary characteristic is unique for the immune response
b. The immune response is specific to the antigen that initiates it.
Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(an)
c. Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease
Frequently when H1 and H2 receptors are located on the same cells, they act in what fashion?
c. Antagonistically
Graves disease is a result of:
c. Autoantibodies binding to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)-receptor sites
In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells?
c. Bone marrow
Which bacterium grows in the intestines after prolonged antibiotic therapy?
c. Clostridium difficile
A keloid is the result of which dysfunctional wound healing response?
c. Collagen matrix assembly
The chemotactic factor affects the inflammatory process by:
c. Directing leukocytes to the inflamed area
During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated?
c. Eosinophils
The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is referred to as what type of determinant?
c. Epitope
What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies?
c. Greater quantities of IgE
Which statements best define acute rejection? (Select all that apply.)
c. Immunosuppressive drugs delay or lessen the intensity of an acute rejection. d. Acute rejection is associated with the body's response to an organ transplant. e. Acute rejection is a response against unmatched human leukocyte antigens (HLAs a. Acute rejection is a cell-mediated immune response
Fusion is the step in phagocytosis during which:
c. Lysosomal granules enter the phagocyte
IFN-α is secreted from which cells?
c. Macrophages
When considering white blood cell differentials, acute inflammatory reactions are related to elevations of which leukocyte?
c. Neutrophils
Where are antibodies produced?
c. Plasma cells
Which chemical mediator derived from mast cells retracts endothelial cells to increase vascular permeability and to cause leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells?
c. Platelet-activating factor
What is the correct sequence in phagocytosis?
c. Recognition, engulfment, fusion, destruction
Newborns often have deficiencies in collectin-like proteins, making them more susceptible to what type of infection?
c. Respiratory
The role of fibroblasts during the reconstructive phase of wound healing is to:
c. Synthesize and secrete collagen and the connective tissue proteins.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process?
c. To prevent infection of the injured tissue
Some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing because of which problem?
c. Underlying chronic illness(es) exists.
What is the vascular effect of histamine released from mast cells?
c. Vasodilation
In the coagulation (clotting) cascade, the intrinsic and the extrinsic pathways converge at which factor?
c. X
How many months does it take for the newborn to be sufficiently protected by antibodies produced by its own B cells?
6 to 8
A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of which anti-antibodies?
A and B
Blood transfusion reactions are an example of:
Alloimmunity
When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what reaction occurs?
Alloimmunity
A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called:
Anaphylaxis
Which manifestation of inflammation is systemic?
Ans: Fever and leukocytosis Exp: The three primary systemic changes associated with the acute infammatory response are fever, leukocytosis (a transient increase in circulating leukocytes), and increased levels in circulating plasma proteins.
In a type III hypersensitivity reaction, the harmful effects after the immune complexes that are deposited in tissues are a result of:
Complement activation
Which disorders are considered autoimmune? (Select all that apply
Crohns, Addisons, Rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus
Which blood cell carries the carbohydrate antigens for blood type?
Erythrocytes
Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction?
IgE
Which class of immunoglobulins forms isohemagglutinins?
IgM
The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
IgE
A person with type O blood is considered to be the universal blood donor because type O blood contains which of the following?
No antigens
Steps of Phagocytosis
Opsonization is recognition and adherence of phagocytes to bacteria Phagosome is a small pseudopod that extend from plasma membrane and form vacuole or phagosome, carry out engulfment Engulfment is ingestion of phagosomes Fusion occurs with lysosomal granules within phagocyte Destruction is step which microorganism is killed and digested
When antibodies are formed against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system, the blood cells are destroyed by:
Phagocytosis in the spleen
Which chemical interacts among all plasma protein systems by degrading blood clots, activating complement, and activating the Hageman factor?
Plasmin
Exposure to which of the following could result in a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? (Select all that apply.)
Poison Ivy, Neomycin, Nickel, Detergents
Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease?
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Considering the effects of nutritional deficiencies on the immune system, severe deficits in calories and protein lead to deficiencies in the formation of which immune cells?
T cells
Which component of the immune system is deficient in individuals with infections caused by viruses, fungi, or yeast?
T cells
When a tuberculin skin test is positive, the hard center and erythema surrounding the induration are a result of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
T lymphocytes and Macrophages
Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?
Zinc
Sebaceous glands protect the body from infection by secreting: (Select all that apply.)
a. Antibacterial fatty acids b. Antifungal fatty acids d. Lactic acid
The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:
a. Are antigen-presenting molecules.
Normal bacterial flora found in the intestines produce vitamin K to assist in the absorption of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Calcium d. Iron e. Magnesium
What is the term for the process during which lymphoid stem cells migrate and change into either immunocompetent T cells or immunocompetent B cells?
a. Clonal diversity
Which component of the plasma protein system tags pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages?
a. Complement cascade
When mismatched blood is administered causing an ABO incompatibility, the erythrocytes are destroyed by
a. Complement-mediated cell lysis
The acute inflammatory response is characterized by fever that is produced by the hypothalamus being affected by:
a. Endogenous pyrogens
Which cell is the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?
a. Eosinophil
Raynaud phenomenon is classified as a type III hypersensitivity reaction and is due to:
a. Immune complexes that are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation
Which statement is true regarding immunodeficiency?
a. Immunodeficiency is generally not present in other family members
What affect does the process of histamine binding to the histamine-2 (H2) receptor have on inflammation?
a. Inhibition
An older adult is particularly susceptible to infections of which body parts? (Select all that apply.)
a. Lungs b. Skin e. Bladder
An example of a pathogen capable of surviving and even multiplying inside a macrophage is known as: (Select all that apply.)
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (tuberculosis) b. Mycobacterium leprae (leprosy) c. Salmonella typhi (typhoid fever) e. Brucella abortus (brucellosis
What occurs during the process of repair after tissue damage?
a. Nonfunctioning scar tissue replaces destroyed tissue.
Which solution is best to use when cleaning a wound that is healing by epithelialization?
a. Normal saline
What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
a. Passive-acquired immunity
Which body fluid has the ability to attack the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria? (Select all that apply.)
a. Perspiration c. Tears d. Saliva Only perspiration, tears, and saliva contain an enzyme (lysozyme) that attacks the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria.
During phagocytosis, what is occurring during the step referred to as opsonization?
a. Phagocytes recognize and adhere to the bacteria.
The main function of NK cells includes: (Select all that apply.)
a. Recognizing virus-infected cells b. Eliminating virus-infected cells e. Eliminating previously identified cancer cells
An individual's acquired immunity is dependent on the function of which cells? (Select all that apply.)
a. T lymphocytes b. B lymphocytes c. Macrophages
The function of opsonization related to the complement cascade is to:
a. Tag of pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages.
Why does tissue damage occurs in acute rejection after organ transplantation?
a. Th1 cells release cytokines that activate infiltrating macrophages, and cytotoxic T cells directly attack the endothelial cells of the transplanted tissue.
What process causes heat and redness to occur during the inflammatory process?
a. Vasodilation of blood vessels
How are target cells destroyed in a type II hypersensitivity reaction?
d. Natural killer cells
When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:
d. Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products
What is the inflammatory effect of nitric oxide (NO)?
d. Decreases mast cell function, and decreases platelet aggregation.
Which secretion is a first line of defense against pathogen invasion that involves antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids, as well as lactic acid?
d. Sebaceous gland sebum
When antigens are administered to produce immunity, why are different routes of administration considered?
d. Each route stimulates a different lymphocyte-containing tissue, resulting in different types of cellular and humoral immunity.
Which cytokine is produced and released from virally infected host cells
d. IFN-α ANS: D Only interferons (IFNs) are produced and released by virally infected cells in response to viral double-stranded ribonucleic acid (RNA)
What is an outcome of the complement cascade?
d. Lysis of bacterial cell membranes
During the process of endocytosis, the phagosome step results in:
d. An intracellular phagocytic vacuole is formed.
What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?
d. Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.