Pharm
The mechanism of action of optic drugs include which of the following? SATA A. Decrease IOP by increasing outflow of aqueous humor B. Decrease formation of aqueous humor C. Decrease eye pressure by improving how fluid drains from the eye D. Decreasing the amount of fluid the eye makes
A, B, and D
An elderly lady receives Temazepam for sleep. which assessment data is indicative of serious complication A. The client reports dry mouth B. The client becomes agitated C. The client sleeps for one hour than usual D. The client reports a decrease in appetite
B.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for allopurinol. Which of the following instruction should the nurse include? A. Avoid crushing the tablet B. Avoid driving or doing activities that require mental alertness C. Limit potassium intake D. Limit fluid intake during therapy
B.
Prior to administering the prescribed dose of gentamicin, the nurse finds lab results of 12 mcg/ml. What action should the nurse take? A. Request a new culture and sensitivity B. Hold the dose of gentamicin C. Administer the dose of gentamicin D. Request a new serum level
B.
The nurse is caring for a client with open angle glaucoma. What are the characteristics of this disorder that the nurse must be aware of when providing care? SATA A. It is caused by impact injury B. It is the most common type of glaucoma C. The pressure develops slowly, over time D. The pressure develops quickly E. It is caused by stress
A, B, and C
List the order that aqueous humor is circulated for the development of glaucoma 1. Anterior Chamber 2. Posterior Chamber 3. Pupil 4. Ciliary body 5. Canal of Schlemm
4,2,3,1,5
A client is providing teaching for a client who has a new prescription for betaxolol eye drops. Which of the following affects should the nurse include in teaching? SATA A. Bradycardia B. Hypotension C. Constricted pupils D. discoloration of iris
A and B
A client asked if there is any non prescriptive drugs that can be taken for insomnia? SATA A. Diphenhydramine and doxylamin are used to increase drowsiness B. Ginger root is commonly used to improve sleep C. Valerian and melatonin are herbs commonly taken to improve sleep D. Ginkgo is an herb commonly taken to improve sleep
A and C
A client has been diagnosed with closed angle glaucoma. Which findings would the nurse interpret as indicating that the pharmacologic treatment regimen has been successful? SATA A. The clients eye is not as bloodshot B. The client reports being hungry C. The client has two intraocular pressure readings have been 19mmHg and 18mmHg D. The client reports a sensation of drainage down the nose E. The clients cough has diminished
A and C
A nurse in the emergency department is reviewing the medical record of a client with open angle glaucoma. Which of the following findings are indicative of this condition? SATA A. Gradual reduction of peripheral vision B. Severe pain around the eyes C. Insidious onset of painless loss of sensation D. Intraocular pressure less than 12 mmHg
A and C
A nurse is taking care of a client who is taking acetaminophen. The nurse should identify that it is indicated for which of the following? SATA A. To relieve mild pain B. To alleviate anxiety C. To reduce fever D. To promote sedation E. To decrease inflammation
A and C
A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed lorazepam for management of anxiety. Which assessment findings warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider? SATA A. History of glaucoma B. Impaired kidney functions C. Cigarette smoking D. Thoughts of suicide E. High blood pressure
A and D
A patient has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and prescribed rifater. While the patient is on this medication, the nurse should: SATA A. It is critical to continue therapy for at least 6 to 12 months B. No special precautions are required C. After one month of treatment, the medication will be discontinued D. These drugs may also be used to prevent tuberculosis E. Two or more drugs are used to prevent tuberculosis bacterial resistance
A, D, and E
The nurse has completed group education for anxiety disorder. Which statements made indicates an understanding of the education? SATA A. Relaxation techniques will often decrease anxiety B. Antianxiety medicine should be used until anxiety is gone C. Different medications are required for treating anxiety than for treating difficulty sleeping D. Cognitive behavioral therapy may help identify where this anxiety comes from E. Antianxiety medicine should not be used indefinitely
A, D, and E
You continue to instruct the patient about pilocarpine. You tell the patient to watch for and report which of the following adverse effects of this drug. SATA A. Headache B. Blurred Vision C. Visual Floaters D. Tachycardia E. Dilated pupils
A,B, and C
A nurse is teaching a client with a new prescription of allopurinol. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse drug reactions? SATA A. Vision changes B. Sore throat C. Palpitations D. Vertigo E. Bruising
A,B,D,E
Benzodiazepines are not to be stopped abruptly because it may cause severe withdrawal symptoms such as? SATA A. Hallucination B. Tinnitus C. Panic attacks D. Paranoia
A,C, and D
A client presents to the emergency department with symptoms of closed angle glaucoma. Intraocular pressure is measured at 30 mmHg. Which assessment findings should the nurse anticipate? SATA. A. Blood shot eyes B. Bruising around the orbit C. Headache D. Absence of eye pain E. Vomiting
A,C, and E
A client is prescribed zolpidem for short term insomnia. Which of these is the concern? A. Sleep walking B. Nausea C. Diarrhea D. Dizziness and Daytime sedation
A.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving vancomycin intravenous infusion for treatment of wound MRSA. Which findings should be reported to the provider immediately? A. Hypotension and red rash in chest area B. Joint and muscle pain with general malaise C. Chest discomfort and decreased heart rate D. Heel pain along with difficulty walking
A.
The nurse emphasis to a patient with glaucoma the importance of informing the healthcare provider of the condition when performing an eye exam due to potential adverse reactions to which drug? A. Mydriatic drugs B. Cycloplegic drops C.Anti inflammatory drops D. anticholinergic drops
A.
What important information should be included in the patient education regarding ciprofloxacin? A. Any heel or lower leg pain should be reported immediately B. The drug should be taken with an antacid to reduce gastric effects C. The drug can cause discoloration of the teeth D. Fluid intake should be decreased to prevent urine retention
A.
What is the term used to describe the magnitude of maximal response that can be produced by a particular drug? A. Efficacy B. Toxicity C. Potency D. Comparability
A.
When administering erythromycin to a patient with pneumonia, you should monitor for which of the following adverse effect? A. Cardiac Dysrhythmias B. Hypothermia C. Constipation D. Blurred vision
A.
Which information should the nurse include in the teaching for a client prescribed Ramelteon? A. Relatively short onset of action B. The primary action is to induce a deep sleep state C. There is an increased risk of physical dependence D. Daytime drowsiness is common
A.
Which nursing statement regarding the onset of action of zolpidem is accurate? A. Rapidly, and should be taken just before bedtime B. Four hours after doing C. Sixty minutes after dosing D. two hours after dosing
A.
Which of the following assessments of a patient is most important immediately following administration of Diazepam? A. Respiratory Rate B. Blood pressure C. Electrocardiogram D. Seizure activity
A.
Which should the nurse monitor a client that is prescribed cefotaxime? A. Diarrhea B. Headache C. Fever D. Tachycardia
A.
Which unit of measurement should the nurse anticipate penicillin to be prescribed? A. Units B. Grains C. Grams D. Milligrams
A.
The client has been diagnosed with closed angle glaucoma. What are the common assessment findings for this condition? SATA A. Halos around eyes B. Ocular pain C. Nausea D. photophobia E. blurred vision
All of the above
A patient experiences profound drowsiness when a stimulant drug is given. This is an unusual reaction for this drug, a reaction that has not been associated with this particular drug. What is the term for this type of drug reaction? A. Allergic reaction B. Idiosyncratic reaction C. Enzyme-specific reaction D. Unaltered reaction
B.
A patient has been prescribed tetracycline. When providing information regarding this drug, the nurse should include which of the following? A. It has been identified safe to use during pregnancy B. It is contraindicated in children younger than 8 years old C. It is classified as narrow spectrum antibiotic with minimal adverse effects D. It is used to treat a wide variety of disease processes
B.
A provider prescribes prednisone for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Recognizing the risk for adverse reaction to prednisone, which of the following precautions should the primary care provider take for this client A. Reduce the insulin dose B. Increase serum glucose monitoring C. Increase carbohydrate intake D. reduce prednisone dose
B.
A nurse is planning teaching needs for a patient who is to be discharged postoperatively with a prescription to oxycodone and acetaminophen. It should include which of the following? A. Refer the patient to drug treatment center if addiction occurs B. Encourage increase in fluid and fiver C. Monitor GI for bleeding D. Diarrhea
B.
A client had several measurements of interocular pressure. Which measurements would the nurse interpret as indicted need for pharmacologic intervention? SATA A. A consistent reading trending between 15 and 16 mmHG B. A single reading of 32 mmHG C. Readings consistently higher than 21 mmHg D. A single reading of 14 mmHg
B and C
The client asks the nurse how glaucoma develops. What is the best response by the nurse? SATA. A. Having blue eyes is a risk factor in the development of glaucoma B. Drugs like antihistamines and antidepressants can contribute to glaucoma C. Glaucoma exists when the pressure in your eye is high enough to cause optic nerve damage D. Having diabetes is a risk factor in the development of glaucoma E. High BP is a risk to development of glaucoma
B, C, D, and E
A client has just been diagnosed with angle closure glaucoma. The nurse assesses the client for what common symptoms of this disorder? SATA A. Impaired night vision B. Severe eye and face pain C. Halo vision D. Dull eye pain E. Sudden loss of vision
B, C, and E
A patient required pupil dilation with a mydriatic drug. The nurse would provide which discharge instructions? SATA A. Do not eat for at least 8 hours B. Do not drive until this drug wears off C. Wear sunglasses while you are outside D. You may notice periods of blurry vision for several days E. Check the size of your pupils at least every hour until they have a normal size
B,C, and D
For which clients condition should the nurse anticipate administering antibiotic therapy for chemoprophylactic purpose? SATA A. Neurologic abnormalities B. Prosthetic heart valve C. Dental surgical procedure D. Chronic respiratory infection E. Kidney transplantation
B,C, and E
A client who has been taking lorazepam for two years presents to the clinic and tells the nurse that he stopped taking his medication 3 days prior. Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate? A. Nothing different; it is safe to abruptly stop B. Increased heart rate, fever, and muscle cramp C. Pinpoint pupils, constipation, and urinary retention D. A sense of calmness and lack of anxiety
B.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving opioid analgesics over an extended period of time. What should the nurse include in the patients plan of care? A. Referring the patient to a drug treatment center B. Encouraging increased fluid and fiber C. Monitoring for signs of gastrointestinal bleeding D. Administering medication as needed for pain
B.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has brain cancer and is experiencing headaches. Which of the following ADJUVANT medication is indicated for this client? A. Amitriptyline B. Dexamethasone C. Hydroxyzine D. Methylphenidate
B.
Superinfection is an adverse effect of many antibiotics. Which of the following best describes superinfection? A. Bacterial resistance that creates infections that are difficult to treat B. An overgrowth of normal body flora or of opportunistic organisms such as viruses and yeast no longer held in check by normal beneficial flora C. infections requiring high dose anti microbial therapy with increased chance of organ toxicity D. An initial infection so overwhelming that it requires multiple antimicrobial drugs to treat it successfully
B.
The mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is A. antagonize receptors for sedation B. Enhance the inhibitory effect of GABA C. Decrease the release of antihistamines D. Binds to the mu and kappa receptors of the central nervous system
B.
When talking to a patient about starting antituberculosis treatment with Rifampin, be sure to instruct the client to report which of the following adverse reaction? A. Sweating B. Jaundice C. Insomnia D. Tremor
B.
You are caring for a client who is about to begin gentamicin therapy to treat infection. You should monitor the patient for which of the following? A. Bowel function B. Urine output C.Level of consciousness D. Peripheral pulses
B.
You should expect which of the following adverse reaction for a patient who is taking betaxolol eye drops to treat glaucoma? A. Constricted pupils B. Bradycardia C. Hypertension D. Discoloration of the iris
B.
You are taking care of a patient who is taking zolpidem. The patient has a history of benzodiazepine abuse and reports insomnia. You should caution the patient that the drug can cause A. joint pain B. constipation C. memory impairment D. tinnitus
C.
Intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) has been prescribed to treat the meningitis. When administering this drug IV, which of the following actions should the health care professional take? SATA A. Do not mix it with other drugs. B. Administer it rapidly via IV bolus. C. Monitor the IV insertion site for phlebitis. D. Monitor vital signs during the infusion. E. Dilute the drug before administering it.
C,D, and E
Which statement will the nurse interpret as indicating that the client understands the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma. SATA A. my type of glaucoma is a medical emergency B. one of the first signs of this is pain behind my eyes C. this is a gradual process, it may take years to develop D. This is the most common type of glaucoma E. My eyes cannot drain the fluid that it produces
C,D, and E
A 32 year old patient has been taking lorazepam for her anxiety and has been brought into the emergency for taking 30 days worth in one day. Which of the following antagonist for benzodiazepines be used to reverse? A. Epinephrine B. Atropine C. Flumazenil D. Naloxone
C.
A client has abruptly stopped taking CNS depressants and is experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Which symptoms should the nurse expect to see? A. Hypothermia, psychosis, seizures, decreased heart rate, increased blood pressure, and panic anxiety B. Fever, Euphoria, headache, increased heart rate, and fatigue C. Fever, psychosis, seizures, increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, panic, and anxiety D. Euphoria, tremor, fever, relaxation, and coma
C.
A client has been prescribed latanoprost. The nurse informs the client regarding potential side effects. Which of the following is not appropriate for the nurse to include in the client teaching? A. Dryness B. Heightened pigmentation C. Decreased pigmentation D. Photophobia
C.
A client receiving chemotherapy for leukemia has been taking prednisone for the last 6 months. During assessment, the nurse concludes that the client may be experiencing adrenal crisis based on which findings? A. hyperglycemia with polyuria and polydipsia B. shortness of breath and shallow respirations C. Profound hypotension and increased heart rate D. eye pain accompanied by visual disturbances
C.
A client with anxiety and insomnia asks the nurse about the benefits of treatment with benzodiazepine. Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. Benzodiazepines are most likely to be covered under insurance premiums B. Benzodiazepines are most affordable C. Benzodiazepines have the lowest risk of dependency and tolerance D. Benzodiazepines are the most effective
C.
A nurse notes a client has gram negative UTI. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate? A. Gentamicin B. Tetracycline C. Ciprofloxacin D. Vancomycin
C.
A patient is admitted with hepatitis B and is prescribed hydrocodone with acetaminophen 2 tablets for pain. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take? A. Administer the drug as ordered B. Administer 1 tablet only C. Recheck the order with the healthcare provider D. Hold the drug until the healthcare provider arrives
C.
Patients receiving vancomycin should be closely monitored for which of the following? A. Perioral numbness B. Metallic taste C. Hearing loss D. Visual disturbances
C.
The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for tramadol. The nurse should identify which of the following contraindication for tramadol A. Urinary inconsistence B. Hyperthyroidism C. Seizure disorder D. Rheumatoid arthritis
C.
The nurse should assess a patient who is taking lorazepam for the development of which of the following adverse effects? A. Tachypnea B. Astigmatism C. Ataxia D. Euphoria
C.
The nurse should inform the client and family to monitor which parameter while the client is taking beta blockers for glaucoma A. Urine Output B. Blood glucose C. Blood pressure D. Respiratory Rate
C.
What is the most appropriate method to ensure adequate pain relief in the immediate postoperative period from an opioid drug? A. Give the drug only when the family members report that the patient is having pain B. Give the drug every time the patient complains of acute pain C. Give the drug as consistently as possible for the first 24-48 hours D. Give the drug only when the nurse observes signs and symptoms of pain
C.
You are caring for a patient who is taking wafarin and is about to start taking trimethopim/sulfamethoxazole to treat UTI. You should question the drug regimen because taking these two concurrently can increase the patients risk for which of the following? A. ECG changes B. thrombosis C. bleeding D. ototoxicity
C.
You are taking care of a patient who is about to begin taking nitrofurantoin to treat UTI. You should tell the patient to report which of the following adverse reaction of the drug? A. Tremors B. Constipation C. Cough D. Dark brown Urine
C.
The nurse emphasizes to the patient with glaucoma the importance of informing the physician performing an eye examination of the condition, due to potential adverse reactions to which drugs? (Select all that apply.) A. Antibiotic drugs B. Cycloplegic drops C. Anti-inflammatory drops D. Anticholinergic mydriatic drops
D
A client has been prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which information should the nurse share regarding administration? A. The dose must be taken on an empty stomach to increase absorption B. The client can have unlimited caffeine C. The drug can be taken with antacid to decrease GI symptoms D. The dose should not be taken with supplements containing iron
D.
A client is newly diagnosed with glaucoma and is prescribed timolol. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider? A. Mild back pain B. Presence of UTI C. High blood sugar level D. History of COPD
D.
A nurse is treating a patient who has a prescription for aspirin to treat an ankle sprain. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse reaction? A. Polyuria B. Infection C. Bone loss D. Weight gain
D.
A patient is about to start taking aspirin to prevent cardiovascular events. You should instruct the patient to watch for and report which of the following adverse effects of aspirin? A. Dyspnea B. Constipation C. Calf pain D. Coffee ground emesis or bruising
D.
The nurse administers morphine sulfate to client for treatment of sever pain. Which finding requires immediate nursing action? A. Blood pressure is 110/70 mmhg B. The client is drowsy upon arrival C. Pain is unrelieved upon 15 minutes D. Respiratory rate is 10 bpm
D.
Which laboratory test should the nurse anticipate prescribed to help identify the correct antibiotic to be used for treatment for a client who has a fever of 104 F A. Urinalysis B. Liver function test C. Complete blood count D. Blood for culture and sensitivity
D.
You administer vancomycin to the patient and they become flushed and warm. Which of the following additional adverse reaction should be expected? A. Ecchymosis B. Muscle weakness C. Pupil change D. Hypotension
D.
You are caring for a patient who is about to receive gentamicin to treat systemic infection. You should question the use of a drug for. a client who is also taking which of the following? A. Diphenhydramine B. Acetaminophen C. Levothyroxine D. Furosemide
D.
