Pharmacology Review Questions VTNE Prep

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What do 15 gr and 10 g mean on a prescription? 15 grains and 10 grams 2. 15 grains and 10 grains 3. 15 grams and 10 grams 4. 15 grams and 10 grains

15 grains and 10 grams

Lidocaine can be diluted with sodium bicarbonate to decrease pain associated with injection. What should this dilution be (sodium bicarbonate: lidocaine)? -1:1 -1:4 -1:5 -1:9

1:9

Acepromazine must be used with caution or not at all in: -Bitches -Tomcats -Heifers -Stallions

Acepromazine; Acepromazine is known to cause penile relaxation in horses. If this is prolonged it will increase the chances of injury. This is also true of breeding bulls.

Cimetidine and ranitidine are used as: Antidiarrheals 2. Laxatives 3. Rumen stimulants 4. Antacids

Antacids; Cimetidine and ranitidine are H2 receptor agonists that will inhibit histamine at the parietal cells in the stomach. This will prevent or reduce hydrochloride acid secretions in the stomach.

What is the drug group of choice for treating Lyme disease (borreliosis)? -Antifungal -Antiviral -Antibiotic -Antiprotozoal

Antibiotic; Ticks (Ixodes sp.) are vectors for Lyme disease, which is caused by bacteria (Borrelia burgdorferi). Because it is caused by bacteria, an antibiotic (e.g., doxycycline) will be the drug of choice.

Which of the following is not a controlled substance? Apomorphine 2. Diazepam 3. Ketamine 4. Hydromorphone

Apomorphine

Which of the following drugs does not have an antiemetic action? -Chlorpromazine -Metoclopramide -Meclizine -Apomorphine

Apomorphine; Apomorphine is used to induce vomiting in the face of ingestion of a toxic substance.

The trade name for diphenhydramine is: Benadryl 2. Prozac 3. Dulcolax 4. Panacur

Benadryl

Cardiac drugs that belong in class IV act by: -Stabilizing myocardial cells -Blocking beta receptors -Decreasing myocardial automaticity -Blocking calcium channels

Blocking calcium channels

The species that generally clears NSAIDs most slowly is: Dog 2. Cat 3. Horse 4. Ruminant

Cat; NSAIDs have a longer half-life in cats because of the deficiency in glucuronic acid in this species. This is added to a substrate (usually a toxin) to allow metabolism of the substrate (glucuronidation). For this reason, NSAIDs should not be used in cats or the dose and dosing interval should be adjusted.

Dr. Blackman prescribed a particular antibiotic for a rabbit with a Pasteurella infection and asked you to educate the client regarding special instructions for administration of the drug. You told the client that she should wear gloves when handling this medication, because it has been associated with a rare adverse reaction in humans: aplastic anemia. Based on this information, the drug that you dispensed was most likely: Gentamicin 2. Tetracycline 3. Erythromycin 4. Chloramphenicol

Chloramphenicol

Which tricyclic antidepressant is now approved for use in dogs and cats to control separation anxiety? -Buspirone -Selegiline -Paroxetine -Clomipramine

Clomipramine

What route of administration of amikacin or gentamicin causes the highest risk for nephrotoxicity? -Per os -Intramuscular -Continuous intravenous infusion -Intravenous bolus

Continuous intravenous infusion; By allowing the plasma concentration of the drug to drop between doses, you will allow the drug to move out of the cell, down its concentration gradient, and into the plasma. This prevents an accumulation of the drug in the kidney (and decreases the risk of nephrotoxicity) if you did not allow the plasma concentration to fall. If the drug is administered as a constant infusion, there would be no drop in plasma concentration, which would allow the drug to accumulate in the cell, thus increasing the risk of nephrotoxicity.

The drug that treats autoimmune diseases and pruritus associated with atopic dermatitis is known as: -Cyclosporine -Interferon omega -Ketoconazole -Phytosphingosine

Cyclosporine

What drugs are considered fluoroquinolones? -Oxytetracycline, doxycycline -Danofloxacin, enrofloxacin -Sulfadimethoxine, sulfamethazine -Chloramphenicol, lincomycin

Danofloxacin, enrofloxacin

Cardiac drugs that belong in class IB act by: Stabilizing myocardial cells 2.Blocking beta receptors 3.Decreasing myocardial automaticity 4.Blocking calcium channels

Decreasing myocardial cells; Class IB drugs affect the heart by stabilizing myocardial cells. Drugs that decrease the automaticity of myocardial cells belong in class IA. Drugs that block beta receptors are in class II, drugs that block calcium channels are in class IV.

Which of the following drugs is least likely to kill the normal flora in the gut of a rabbit, thus avoiding severe diarrhea? -Clavamox -Clindamycin -Cefotaxime -Enrofloxacin

Enrofloxacin; Rabbits are sensitive to medications that are known to kill off the normal flora of the gastrointestinal tract, causing dysbiosis and/or enterotoxemia. Because of this, antibiotics that should be avoided include penicillins (Clavamox), cephalosporins (cefotaxime), lincosamides (clindamycin), and some macrolides (erythromycin). Enrofloxacin does not have this side effect and so is safe for use in rabbits.

The primary function of insulin is to: -Regulate the metabolic processes of the body -Regulate digestion through secretion of gastrointestinal hormones --Facilitate the entry of glucose into cells -Control reproductive function

Facilitate the entry of glucose into cells

Which of the following drugs is used to decrease gastric acid production by blocking histamine receptors in the stomach? -Famotidine -Sucralfate -Omeprazole -Misoprostol

Famotidine

Which of the following drugs provides analgesic relief to a patient who undergoes a painful procedure? -Acepromazine -Diazepam -Thiopental -Fentanyl

Fentanyl

What can be done to decrease the risk of esophageal lesions in cats secondary to oral medications? -Do not give oral medications -Crush the medications -Advise the owner to bring in the cat for medicating -Follow the medication with water

Follow the medication with water

Resuspension of NPH insulin is achieved by: -Gently rolling the bottle -Vigorously shaking the bottle -Gently heating the bottle in warm water -Refrigerating the bottle

Gently rolling the bottle

Malignant hyperthermia is a phenomenon associated primarily with the use of what inhalant anesthetic? -Nitrous oxide -Sevoflurane -Halothane -Isoflurane

Halothane

Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) is an NSAID most commonly used in: Dogs for the treatment of chronic osteoarthritis Horses for the treatment of colic 3.Horses for reducing fever 4.Dogs for its anticoagulant activity

Horses for the treatment of colic

Which of the following can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity? Hypokalemia 2. Hypochloremia 3. Hyponatremia 4. Hypocalcemia

Hypokalemia; Digoxin prefers to bind to Na, K-ATPase at the same place that potassium binds. When hypokalemia is present, there is less potassium binding to these sites so there are more available binding sites for digoxin, which can lead to toxicity (because more of the drug is binding and having an effect).

It is essential for veterinary technicians to educate clients expecting to treat their pets with insulin. Which of the following statements is true? -Insulin can be stored at room temperature between uses -The bottle of insulin should be shaken before use -The injection is given in the same site each time -Insulin should be given with a meal

Insulin should be given with a meal; Insulin should always be given after the patient has eaten. If the patient does not eat or only eats a partial meal, the owner should be directed to call the veterinarian to discuss whether insulin should be given and how much insulin to give. Otherwise, patients may become hypoglycemic and experience seizure activity. Insulin should be stored in the refrigerator and should never be shaken, which will damage the proteins and render the insulin useless. Injection sites can be rotated to prevent the formation of sores and the anticipation of pain by the patient.

An aerotolerant organism is one that: Is not affected by the presence or absence of oxygen 2.Can tolerate elevated temperatures 3.Prefers and environment that is dehydrated 4.Is tolerant of environments lacking moisture

Is not affected by the presence or absence of oxygen

Which of the following statements is true when considering the use of propofol? -It is a potent analgesic -It can be given via the IM and IV routes -It is best administered as a single bolus -It can be given in incremental doses

It can be given in incremental doses; Propofol is a hypnotic and does not provide any analgesia. It should only be given IV and never as a bolus because of the possibility for causing seizure activity. Propofol will only last 2-5 minutes and so is ideal to use in incremental doses for short procedures.

Which of the following statements is true when considering the use of butorphanol? It is an antibiotic It is an antitussive It can be reversed using yohimbine It is contraindicated in the cat

It is an antitussive

Which of the following drugs does not have an immunosuppressive effect? -Cyclosporine -Azathioprine -Prednisone -Ivermectin

Ivermectin

Which drug listed belongs in the drug class imidazole? -Amoxicillin -Cephalexin -Enrofloxacin -Ketoconazole

Ketoconazole

Decreased function of what organ would have the greatest effect on the biotransformation of most drugs? -Kidney -Liver -Pancreas -Spleen

Liver

Most biotransformation of drugs occurs in the: -Liver -Kidney -Lungs -Skin

Liver

Which of the following drugs is classified as an osmotic diuretic and is often used to reduce intracranial pressure or treat oliguric renal failure? -Furosemide -Propranolol -Mannitol -Bethanechol

Mannitol

Which of the following drugs is used as an adulticide to treat a heartworm-positive dog? -Melarsomine -Ivermectin -Milbemycin -Moxidectin

Melarsomine

Of the following drugs, which must be in an anaerobic environment to be effective? Chloramphenicol 2.Clindamycin 3.Metronidazole 4.Neomycin

Metronidazole

Which of the following is a benzodiazepine tranquilizer? -Fentanyl -Ketamine -Medetomidine -Midazolam

Midazolam

Many antibiotic drug inserts (information included in packages of drugs) make reference to the MIC at which the antibiotic is effective. What is the MIC? Minimum inflammatory concentration 2. Maximum infusion concentration 3. Minimum inhibitory concentration 4. Maximum inhalation concentration

Minimum inhibitory concentration; MIC stands for minimum inhibitory concentration and indicates how susceptible an organism is when a drug is at the lowest dose that inhibits growth.

Which of the following cannot be phoned in to the pharmacy and will require a written prescription? -Buprenorphine -Diazepam -Morphine -Phenobarbital

Morphine; Controlled drugs that are scheduled as C-II require a written prescription and cannot be called in via the phone. Of the medications listed, morphine is the only C-II drug included. Buprenorphine is scheduled as C-III, and phenobarbital and diazepam are scheduled as C-IV.

The reversal agent used for opioid toxicity is: Naloxone (Narcan) 2.Yohimbine 3.Acetylcysteine 4.Diazepam

Naloxone (Narcan)

The most common adverse side effect(s) of aminoglycoside antimicrobials are: Nephrotoxicity 2. Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity 3. Ototoxicity and neurotoxicity 4. Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and neurotoxicity

Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and neurotoxicity

The following information was provided for a prescription written by a veterinarian: "Dr. Pete Bill, Veterinary Associates, Inc., 325 Sentry Highway, West Lafayette, IN 47907. Indiana License Number #4xxx. (317) 555-8636. For: Mr. R. K. Jones, 111, Melrose Place, Loomisville, IN 47905. Canine patient Ruby, Amoxicillin 100 mg tablets, Sig: 1 tab q8h po prn 2 refills. Date : 1/5/2016. Signature: Pete Bill." What vital information is missing from this prescription? -Veterinarian's Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) license number -Pet's name -Owner's telephone number -Number of tablets

Number of tablets; Prescriptions must include the name, address, telephone number, signature, and DEA number (if the drug is controlled) of the prescribing veterinarian, as well as the drug name, concentration, and quantity (mL or number of tablets). It must also include directions, name and address of the client, name and species of the patient, any cautionary information, and the number of refills.

What condition does dirlotapide treat? Obesity in dogs 2. Obesity in cats 3. Anorexia in dogs 4. Anorexia in cats

Obesity in dogs; Dirlotapide is used for obesity in dogs and acts by blocking the assembly and release of lipoproteins into the blood.

The surgeon has completed Buffy's surgical procedure and asks you to discontinue the inhalant anesthesia. What is absolutely necessary to do when terminating anesthesia in a patient that has been receiving nitrous oxide? -Give an injection of the reversal agent -Observe carefully for signs of seizures -Allow the patient to recuperate in a quiet, dark area -Oxygenate for 5 to 10 minutes

Oxygenate for 5 to 10 minutes; Nitrous oxide will diffuse into the alveoli and take the place of oxygen. For this reason, the patient should be maintained on 100% oxygen for 5-10 minutes after the gas is shut off to allow time for the nitrous oxide to leave the alveoli and oxygen to take its place, which will ensure diffusion hypoxia does not occur.

The most widely used type of antiemetic drug to prevent motion sickness in dogs and cats is the: Phenothiazine Antihistamine Anticholinergic Antispasmodic

Phenothiazine; All of the drugs listed can be used for motion sickness, but phenothiazines are the most widely used. They act by blocking dopamine receptors. Some common phenothiazines used to treat motion sickness are chlorpromazine and prochlorperazine.

Predictable, short-term side effects of glucocorticoid therapy of which every client should be aware include: -Polyuria and polydipsia -Cough and nasal discharge -Anorexia and diarrhea -Dry skin and skin irritations

Polyuria and polydipsia; Prednisone commonly causes polyuria. Prednisone causes a decreased response to antidiuretic hormone, which is involved with reabsorption of water from the kidneys into the bloodstream. When the response to ADH is decreased, water is not reabsorbed and urine production increases. This makes the animal polyuric and, in response to the large loss of fluid, the animal drinks more water.

The Food and Drug Administration does not approve the use of fluoroquinolones in: -Dogs -Cats -Poultry -Birds

Poultry; Because of the possibility of danger to the public, fluoroquinolones should not be used in food animals.

What drug is not an NSAID? -Prednisone -Flunixin -Phenylbutazone -Aspirin

Prednisone

What anticonvulsant drug is converted by the liver primarily to phenobarbital, which accounts for most of its anticonvulsant activity? -Diazepam -Primidone -Phenytoin -Clonazepam

Primidone; Primidone is similar to phenobarbital, and the liver will metabolize a portion of it to phenobarbital. Diazepam is metabolized to nordazepam and oxazepam. Clonazepam is metabolized to aminoclonazepam and acetaminoclonazepam, and phenytoin is metabolized to hydroxyphenytoin.

Altrenogest, which is used for estrus synchronization in female animals, is a synthetic: Estrogen 2.Androgen 3.Progestin 4.Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Progestin; Altrenogest is an oral progestin. The main progestin in the body is progesterone, which prepares the uterus for pregnancy. Progestins are provided to delay the onset of estrus as well as to synchronize estrus in mares.

Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is a significant problem in veterinary medicine. What factor is not considered to be a significant contributor to the development of bacterial resistance? -Prolonged levels of higher-than-recommended dosages of antibiotics -Normal dosages of antibiotics for half the recommended duration -Low dosages of antibiotics in the feed for prolonged periods -Antibiotics that do not reach the infection site in concentrations that exceed MIC

Prolonged levels of higher-than-recommended dosages of antibiotics; Failing to administer antibiotics for the full course prescribed, administrating low doses, or prescribing antibiotics that will not reach the site of infection will all contribute to bacterial resistance. Prolonged use of a high dose may allow some bacteria to develop resistance, but it is less likely than the other choices to cause significant resistance.

Kaolin, pectin, and bismuth subsalicylate are examples of: -Narcotic analgesics -Antispasmodics -Anticholinergics -Protectants

Protectants

Which of the following is not a side effect of sulfonamides? -Crystalluria -Keratoconjunctivitis sicca -Seizures -Thrombocytopenia

Seizures; Sulfonamides commonly cause keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS), thrombocytopenia, and crystalluria. They also cause allergic skin reactions, liver dysfunction, leukopenia, and anemia. Seizures are not associated with sulfonamide use.

What liquid form of drug is administered intravenously? -Emulsion -Solution -Suspension -Elixir

Solution

Which of the following is not absorbed systemically? -Diphenhydramine -Dolasetron -Sucralfate -Tramadol

Sucralfate; It coats the esophagus and stomach and is not absorbed into the blood. Dolasetron, diphenhydramine, and tramadol are available in both injectable and oral forms (injectable tramadol is not currently available in the United States) and are absorbed systemically when given orally. Any medication given IV, IM, or SQ will be absorbed systemically.

Why should apomorphine and activated charcoal not be given simultaneously? -The resultant vomiting is too severe and too prolonged -Each cancels the beneficial effects of the other -The patient will vomit and may aspirate the charcoal -Severe diarrhea and intestinal cramping result

The patient will vomit and may aspirate the charcoal

Which statement is true about the drugs used for cancer chemotherapy? -They are usually given by mouth -They usually have relatively low margins of safety -They are available over the counter -They are all nephrotoxic

They usually have relatively low margins of safety

For what reason is apomorphine used in canine patients in emergency veterinary medicine? To keep blood pressure elevated for animals in shock 2.To alleviate pain 3.To produce emesis after ingestion of a toxin 4.To maintain kidney function during periods of reduced blood flow to the kidneys

To produce emesis after ingestion of a toxin; Apomorphine is an emetic that stimulates the chemoreceptor zone to cause vomiting.

Which of these drugs most recently became controlled? -Butorphanol -Buprenorphine -Fentanyl -Tramadol

Tramadol;

Insulin concentration is measured in: -Milligrams per milliliter -Milliequivalents per milliliter -Units per milliliter -Grams per milliliter

Units per milliliter

Nitroglycerin is administered primarily to achieve which of the following effects? -Vasodilation -Vasoconstriction -Antiarrhythmic effect -ACE inhibitor effect

Vasodilation

Alpha-tocopherol is also known as: -Vitamin E -Vitamin D2 -Vitamin D3 -Vitamin B2

Vitamin E; Vitamin D2 is ergocalciferol, vitamin D3 is cholecalciferol, and vitamin B2 is riboflavin.

Which of the following is/are not a side effect of oral glucocorticoid administration in dogs? -Polyuria and polydipsia -Polyphagia -Hyperglycemia -Vomiting

Vomiting


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