POST-PARTUM practice questions
In a variation of rooming-in, called couplet care, the mother and infant share a room, and the mother shares the care of the infant with: a. The father of the infant. b. Her mother (the infant's grandmother). c. Her eldest daughter (the infant's sister). d. The nurse.
ANS: D In couplet care the mother shares a room with the newborn and shares infant care with a nurse educated in maternity and infant care.
In the recovery room, if a woman is asked either to raise her legs (knees extended) off the bed or to flex her knees, place her feet flat on the bed, and raise her buttocks well off the bed, most likely she is being tested to see whether she: a. Has recovered from epidural or spinal anesthesia. b. Has hidden bleeding underneath her. c. Has regained some flexibility. d. Is a candidate to go home after 6 hours.
ANS: A If the numb or prickly sensations are gone from her legs after these movements, she likely has recovered from the epidural or spinal anesthesia.
The self-destruction of excess hypertrophied tissue in the uterus is called: a. Autolysis. b. Subinvolution. c. Afterpain. d. Diastasis.
ANS: A Autolysis is caused by a decrease in hormone levels. Subinvolution is failure of the uterus to return to a nonpregnant state. Afterpain is caused by uterine cramps 2 to 3 days after birth. Diastasis refers to the separation of muscles.
Knowing that the condition of the new mother's breasts will be affected by whether she is breastfeeding, nurses should be able to tell their clients all of the following statements except: a. Breast tenderness is likely to persist for about a week after the start of lactation. b. As lactation is established, a mass may form that can be distinguished from cancer by its position shift from day to day. c. In nonlactating mothers colostrum is present for the first few days after childbirth. d. If suckling is never begun (or is discontinued), lactation ceases within a few days to a week.
ANS: A Breast tenderness should persist only about 48 hours after lactation begins. That movable, noncancerous mass is a filled milk sac. Colostrum is present for a few days whether the mother breastfeeds or not. A mother who does not want to breastfeed should also avoid stimulating her nipples.
Discharge instruction, or teaching the woman what she needs to know to care for herself and her newborn, officially begins: a. At the time of admission to the nurse's unit. b. When the infant is presented to the mother at birth. c. During the first visit with the physician in the unit. d. When the take-home information packet is given to the couple.
ANS: A Discharge planning, the teaching of maternal and newborn care, begins on the woman's admission to the unit, continues throughout her stay, and actually never ends as long as she has contact with medical personnel.
A primiparous woman is to be discharged from the hospital tomorrow with her infant girl. Which behavior indicates a need for further intervention by the nurse before the woman can be discharged? a. The woman leaves the infant on her bed while she takes a shower. b. The woman continues to hold and cuddle her infant after she has fed her. c. The woman reads a magazine while her infant sleeps. d. The woman changes her infant's diaper and then shows the nurse the contents of the diaper.
ANS: A Leaving an infant on a bed unattended is never acceptable for various safety reasons. Holding and cuddling the infant after feeding and reading a magazine while the infant sleeps are appropriate parent-infant interactions. Changing the diaper and then showing the nurse the contents of the diaper is appropriate because the mother is seeking approval from the nurse and notifying the nurse of the infant's elimination patterns.
A new mother is seen in the health care clinic 2 weeks after the birth of a healthy newborn. The mother says that she feels as though she has the flu and complains of fatigue and aching muscles. On further data collection the nurse notes a localized area of redness on the left breast, and the mother is diagnosed with mastitis. The mother asks the nurse how the condition occurs. The appropriate nursing response is which of the following? a. "The infection can occur at anytime during breast-feeding." b. "The infection is most common for women who have breast-fed in the past." c. "The infection usually involves both breasts." d. "The infection usually is caused by wearing a supportive bra."
ANS: A Rationale: Mastitis is an infection of the lactating breasts and occurs most often during the second and third weeks after birth, although it may develop at any time during breast-feeding. It is more common in mothers nursing for the first time and usually affects at least one breast. Constriction of the breasts from a bra that is too tight may interfere with emptying of all the ducts and may lead to infection.
A nurse has an order to give a dose of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) to a client who has delivered an infant. The nurse understands that this medication will prevent the next infant from experiencing which of the following? a. Being affected by Rh incompatibility b. Having Rh-positive blood c. Developing perinatal infection d. Experiencing high bilirubin levels
ANS: A Rationale: Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative mother is sensitized to the Rh antigen. Sensitization may develop when an Rh-negative woman carries and delivers a fetus who is Rh positive. During pregnancy and delivery, some of the baby's Rh-positive blood can enter the maternal circulation. The woman's immune system then forms antibodies against Rh-positive blood. Administration of RhoGAM blocks this response by providing passive antibody protection against the Rh antigen
A hospital has a number of different perineal pads available for use. A nurse is observed soaking several of them and writing down what she sees. This activity indicates that the nurse is trying to: a. Improve the accuracy of blood loss estimation, which usually is a subjective assessment. b. Determine which pad is best. c. Demonstrate that other nurses usually underestimate blood loss. d. Reveal to the nurse supervisor that one of them needs some time off.
ANS: A Saturation of perineal pads is a critical indicator of excessive blood loss, and anything done to aid in assessment is valuable. The nurse is noting the saturation volumes and soaking appearances. It's possible the nurse if trying to determine which pad is best, but it is more likely that the nurse is noting saturation volumes and soaking appearances to improve the accuracy of blood loss estimation. Nurses usually overestimate blood loss, if anything. It is more likely that the nurse is noting saturation volumes and soaking appearances to improve the accuracy of blood loss estimation.
In caring for an immediate postpartum client, you note petechiae and oozing from her IV site. You would monitor her closely for the clotting disorder: a. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) b. Amniotic fluid embolism (AFE) c. Hemorrhage d. HELLP syndrome
ANS: A The diagnosis of DIC is made according to clinical findings and laboratory markers. Physical examination reveals unusual bleeding. Petechiae may appear around a blood pressure cuff on the woman's arm. Excessive bleeding may occur from the site of a slight trauma such as venipuncture sites. These symptoms are not associated with AFE, nor is AFE a bleeding disorder. Hemorrhage occurs for a variety of reasons in the postpartum client. These symptoms are associated with DIC. Hemorrhage would be a finding associated with DIC and is not a clotting disorder in and of itself. HELLP is not a clotting disorder, but it may contribute to the clotting disorder DIC.
What would prevent early discharge of a postpartum woman? a. Hemoglobin <10 g b. Birth at 38 weeks of gestation c. Voids about 200 to 300 ml per void d. Episiotomy that shows slight redness and edema and is dry and approximated
ANS: A The mother's hemoglobin should be above 10 g for early discharge. The birth of an infant at term is not a criterion that would prevent early discharge. A normal voiding volume is 200 to 300 ml per void and does not indicate that the woman should not be discharged early. A normal episiotomy would show slight redness and edema and would be dry and approximated and would not prevent a woman from being discharged early.
Several changes in the integumentary system that appear during pregnancy disappear after birth, although not always completely. What change is almost certain to be completely reversed? a. Nail brittleness b. Darker pigmentation of the areolae and linea nigra c. Striae gravidarum on the breasts, abdomen, and thighs d. Spider nevi
ANS: A The nails return to their prepregnancy consistency and strength. Some women have permanent darker pigmentation of the areolae and linea nigra. Striae gravidarum (stretch marks) usually do not completely disappear. For some women spider nevi persist indefinitely.
The laboratory results for a postpartum woman are as follows: blood type, A; Rh status, positive; rubella titer, 1:8 (EIA 0.8); hematocrit, 30%. How would the nurse best interpret these data? a. Rubella vaccine should be given. b. A blood transfusion is necessary. c. Rh immune globulin is necessary within 72 hours of birth. d. A Kleihauer-Betke test should be performed.
ANS: A This client's rubella titer indicates that she is not immune and that she needs to receive a vaccine. These data do not indicate that the client needs a blood transfusion. Rh immune globulin is indicated only if the client has a negative Rh status and the infant has a positive Rh status. A Kleihauer-Betke test should be performed if a large fetomaternal transfusion is suspected, especially if the mother is Rh negative. The data do not provide any indication for performing this test.
A woman gave birth to an infant boy 10 hours ago. Where would the nurse expect to locate this woman's fundus? a. One centimeter above the umbilicus b. Two centimeters below the umbilicus c. Midway between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis d. Nonpalpable abdominally
ANS: A Within 12 hours after delivery the fundus may be approximately 1 cm above the umbilicus. The fundus descends about 1 to 2 cm every 24 hours. Within 12 hours after delivery the fundus may be approximately 1 cm above the umbilicus. By the sixth postpartum week the fundus normally is halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. The fundus should be easily palpated using the maternal umbilicus as a reference point.
A client who has undergone a dilation and curettage for early pregnancy loss is likely to be discharged the same day. The nurse must ensure that vital signs are stable, bleeding has been controlled, and the woman has adequately recovered from the administration of anesthesia. To promote an optimal recovery, discharge teaching should include (choose all that apply): a. Iron supplementation. b. Resumption of intercourse at 6 weeks following the procedure. c. Referral to a support group if necessary. d. Expectation of heavy bleeding for at least 2 weeks. e. Emphasizing the need for rest.
ANS: A, C, E The woman should be advised to consume a diet high in iron and protein. For many women iron supplementation also is necessary. Acknowledge that the client has experienced a loss, albeit early. She can be taught to expect mood swings and possibly depression. Referral to a support group, clergy, or professional counseling may be necessary. Discharge teaching should emphasize the need for rest. Nothing should be placed in the vagina for 2 weeks after the procedure. This includes tampons and vaginal intercourse. The purpose of this recommendation is to prevent infection. Should infection occur, antibiotics may be prescribed. The client should expect a scant, dark discharge for 1 to 2 weeks. Should heavy, profuse, or bright bleeding occur, she should be instructed to contact her provider.
What statement by a newly delivered woman indicates that she knows what to expect about her menstrual activity after childbirth? a. "My first menstrual cycle will be lighter than normal and then will get heavier every month thereafter." b. "My first menstrual cycle will be heavier than normal and will return to my prepregnant volume within three or four cycles." c. "I will not have a menstrual cycle for 6 months after childbirth." d. "My first menstrual cycle will be heavier than normal and then will be light for several months after."
ANS: B "My first menstrual cycle will be heavier than normal and will return to my prepregnant volume within three or four cycles." is an accurate statement and indicates her understanding of her expected menstrual activity. She can expect her first menstrual cycle to be heavier than normal (which occurs by 3 months after childbirth), and the volume of her subsequent cycles will return to prepregnant levels within three or four cycles.
With regard to the postpartum uterus, nurses should be aware that: a. At the end of the third stage of labor it weighs approximately 500 g. b. After 2 weeks postpartum it should not be palpable abdominally. c. After 2 weeks postpartum it weighs 100 g. d. It returns to its original (prepregnancy) size by 6 weeks, postpartum.
ANS: B After 2 weeks postpartum, the uterus should not be palpable abdominally; however, it does not return to its original size. At the end of the third stage of labor, the uterus weighs approximately 1000 g. It does not return to its original size. After 2 weeks postpartum the uterus weighs about 350 g; not its original size. The normal self-destruction of excess hypertrophied tissue accounts for the slight increase in uterine size after each pregnancy.
While providing care in an obstetric setting, the nurse should understand that postpartum care of the woman with cardiac disease: a. Is the same as that for any pregnant woman. b. Includes rest, stool softeners, and monitoring of the effect of activity. c. Includes ambulating frequently, alternating with active range of motion. d. Includes limiting visits with the infant to once per day.
ANS: B Bed rest may be ordered, with or without bathroom privileges. Bowel movements without stress or strain for the woman are promoted with stool softeners, diet, and fluid. Care of the woman with cardiac disease in the postpartum period is tailored to the woman's functional capacity. The woman will be on bed rest to conserve energy and reduce the strain on the heart. Although the woman may need help caring for the infant, breastfeeding and infant visits are not contraindicated.
A woman gave birth to a 7-pound, 3-ounce infant boy 2 hours ago. The nurse determines that the woman's bladder is distended because her fundus is now 3 cm above the umbilicus and to the right of the midline. In the immediate postpartum period, the most serious consequence likely to occur from bladder distention is: a. Urinary tract infection. b. Excessive uterine bleeding. c. A ruptured bladder. d. Bladder wall atony.
ANS: B Excessive bleeding can occur immediately after birth if the bladder becomes distended because it pushes the uterus up and to the side and prevents it from contracting firmly. A urinary tract infection may result from overdistention of the bladder, but it is not the most serious consequence. A ruptured bladder may result from a severely overdistended bladder. However, vaginal bleeding most likely would occur before the bladder reaches this level of overdistention. Bladder distention may result from bladder wall atony. The most serious concern associated with bladder distention is excessive uterine bleeding.
A nurse is monitoring a new mother in the fourth stage of labor for signs of hemorrhage. Which of the following signs, if noted in the mother, would indicate an early sign of excessive blood loss and shock? a. A temperature of 100.4° F b. A increase in the pulse rate from 88 to 102 beats per minute c. An increase in the respiratory rate from 18 to 22 breaths per minute d. A blood pressure change from 130/88 to 124/80 mm Hg
ANS: B Rationale: During the fourth stage of labor, the maternal blood pressure, pulse, and respiration should be checked every 15 minutes during the first hour. A rising pulse is an early sign of excessive blood loss because the heart pumps faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure will fall as the blood volume diminishes, but a decreased blood pressure would not be the earliest sign of hemorrhage. An elevation in temperature is not a sign of excessive blood loss. Although the respiratory rate may increase, this would not be an early sign. Additionally, an increase in the respiratory rate from 18 to 22 breaths per minute is not significant.
When performing a postpartum assessment on a client, the licensed practical nurse (LPN) notes clots in the lochia. The LPN examines the clots and notes that they are larger than 1 cm. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate? a. Document the findings. b. Notify the registered nurse (RN). c. Reassess the client in 2 hours. d. Encourage increased oral intake of fluids.
ANS: B Rationale: Normally there may be a few small clots in the first 1 to 2 days after birth from pooling of the blood in the vagina. Clots larger than 1 cm are considered abnormal. The cause of such clots, such as uterine atony or retained placental fragments, needs to be determined and treated to prevent further blood loss. Although the findings would be documented, the most appropriate action is to notify the RN. Reassessing the client in 2 hours would delay necessary treatment. Increasing oral intake of fluids would not be an appropriate action in this situation.
A nurse assisting in the care of a newborn has a standing order to administer the hepatitis B vaccine to the infant. The nurse should plan to do which of the following when carrying out this order? a. Spread the skin under the injection site. b. Obtain written parental consent. c. Use the dorsogluteal muscle. d. Select a 21-gauge, 1-inch needle.
ANS: B Rationale: The nurse must obtain informed consent from the parents before administering the hepatitis B vaccine to the newborn. The vastus lateralis muscle is used because the dorsogluteal muscle is underdeveloped in the newborn and is dangerously close to the sciatic nerve. A 25-gauge, 5/8-inch needle is used. The nurse pinches up the skin to inject the medication.
With regard to the postpartum changes and developments in a woman's cardiovascular system, nurses should be aware that: a. Cardiac output, the pulse rate, and stroke volume all return to prepregnancy normal values within a few hours of childbirth. b. Respiratory function returns to nonpregnant levels by 6 to 8 weeks after birth. c. The lowered white blood cell count after pregnancy can lead to false-positive results on tests for infections. d. A hypercoagulable state protects the new mother from thromboembolism, especially after a cesarean birth.
ANS: B Respirations should decrease to within the woman's normal prepregnancy range by 6 to 8 weeks after birth. Stroke volume increases, and cardiac output remains high for a couple of days. However, the heart rate and blood pressure return to normal quickly. Leukocytosis increases 10 to 12 days after childbirth, which can obscure the diagnosis of acute infections (false-negative results). The hypercoagulable state increases the risk of thromboembolism, especially after a cesarean birth.
Which description of postpartum restoration or healing times is accurate? a. The cervix shortens, becomes firm, and returns to form within a month postpartum. b. The vagina gradually returns to prepregnancy size by 6 to 10 weeks after childbirth. c. Most episiotomies heal within a week. d. Hemorrhoids usually decrease in size within 2 weeks of childbirth.
ANS: B The vagina gradually returns to prepregnancy size by 6 to 10 weeks after childbirth; however, lubrication may take longer. The cervix regains its form within days; the cervical os may take longer. Most episiotomies take 2 to 3 weeks to heal. Hemorrhoids can take 6 weeks to decrease in size.
With regard to rubella and Rh issues, nurses should be aware that: a. Breastfeeding mothers cannot be vaccinated with the live attenuated rubella virus. b. Women should be warned that the rubella vaccination is teratogenic and that they must avoid pregnancy for 1 month after vaccination. c. Rh immune globulin is safely administered intravenously because it cannot harm a nursing infant. d. Rh immune globulin boosts the immune system and thereby enhances the effectiveness of vaccinations.
ANS: B Women should understand they must practice contraception for 1 month after being vaccinated. Because the live attenuated rubella virus is not communicable in breast milk, breastfeeding mothers can be vaccinated. Rh immune globulin is administered intramuscularly; it should never be given to an infant. Rh immune globulin suppresses the immune system and therefore might thwart the rubella vaccination.
With regard to afterbirth pains, nurses should be aware that these pains are: a. Caused by mild, continuous contractions for the duration of the postpartum period. b. More common in first-time mothers. c. More noticeable in births in which the uterus was overdistended. d. Alleviated somewhat when the mother breastfeeds.
ANS: C A large baby or multiple babies overdistend the uterus. The cramping that causes afterbirth pains arises from periodic, vigorous contractions and relaxations, which persist through the first part of the postpartum period. Afterbirth pains are more common in multiparous women because first-time mothers have better uterine tone. Breastfeeding intensifies afterbirth pain because it stimulates contractions.
With regard to the condition and reconditioning of the urinary system after childbirth, nurses should be aware that: a. Kidney function returns to normal a few days after birth. b. Diastasis recti abdominis is a common condition that alters the voiding reflex. c. Fluid loss through perspiration and increased urinary output accounts for a weight loss of over 2 kg during the puerperium. d. With adequate emptying of the bladder, bladder tone usually is restored 2 to 3 weeks after childbirth.
ANS: C Excess fluid loss through other means occurs as well. Kidney function usually returns to normal in about a month. Diastasis recti abdominis is the separation of muscles in the abdominal wall; it has no effect on the voiding reflex. Bladder tone usually is restored 5 to 7 days after childbirth.
A recently delivered mother and her baby are at the clinic for a 6-week postpartum checkup. The nurse should be concerned that psychosocial outcomes are not being met if the woman: a. Discusses her labor and birth experience excessively. b. Believes that her baby is more attractive and clever than any others. c. Has not given the baby a name. d. Has a partner or family members who react very positively about the baby.
ANS: C If the mother is having difficulty naming her new infant, it may be a signal that she is not adapting well to parenthood. Other red flags include refusal to hold or feed the baby, lack of interaction with the infant, and becoming upset when the baby vomits or needs a diaper change. A new mother who is having difficulty would be unwilling to discuss her labor and birth experience. An appropriate nursing diagnosis might be impaired parenting related to a long, difficult labor or unmet expectations of birth. A mother who is willing to discuss her birth experience is making a healthy personal adjustment. The mother who is not coping well would find her baby unattractive and messy. She may also be overly disappointed in the baby's sex. The client might voice concern that the baby reminds her of a family member whom she does not like. Having a partner and/or other family members react positively is an indication that this new mother has a good support system in place. This support system will help reduce anxiety related to her new role as a mother.
Which hormone remains elevated in the immediate postpartum period of the breastfeeding woman? a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Prolactin d. Human placental lactogen
ANS: C Prolactin levels in the blood increase progressively throughout pregnancy. In women who breastfeed, prolactin levels remain elevated into the sixth week after birth. Estrogen and progesterone levels decrease markedly after expulsion of the placenta, reaching their lowest levels 1 week into the postpartum period. Human placental lactogen levels decrease dramatically after expulsion of the placenta.
A woman with asthma is experiencing a postpartum hemorrhage. Which drug would NOT be used to treat her bleeding because it may exacerbate her asthma? a. Pitocin b. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) c. Hemabate d. Fentanyl
ANS: C Prostaglandin derivatives should not be used to treat women with asthma, because they may exacerbate symptoms. Pitocin would be the drug of choice to treat this woman's bleeding because it would not exacerbate her asthma. NSAIDs are not used to treat bleeding. Fentanyl is used to treat pain, not bleeding.
A nurse is preparing to assist in performing a fundal assessment on a postpartum client. The nurse understands that the initial nursing action when performing this assessment is which of the following? a. Ask the client to turn onto her side. b. Ask the client to lie flat on her back with her knees and legs flat and straight. c. Ask the client to urinate and empty her bladder. d. Massage the fundus gently prior to determining the level of the fundus.
ANS: C Rationale: Before fundal assessment is started, the nurse should ask the mother to empty her bladder so that an accurate assessment can be done. The nurse can then assess the bladder for complete emptying and accurately assess uterine involution. When fundal assessment is performed, the woman is asked to lie flat on her back with the knees flexed. Massaging the fundus is not appropriate unless the fundus is boggy or soft, and then it should be massaged gently until firm.
A client in the postpartum unit complains of sudden sharp chest pain. The nurse notes that the client is tachycardic and the respiratory rate is elevated. The nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism. The initial nursing action would be which of the following? a. Check the client's blood pressure. b. Prepare for the insertion of an intravenous (IV) line. c. Prepare to administer oxygen at 8 to 10 L by tight face mask. d. Prepare to administer morphine sulfate.
ANS: C Rationale: If pulmonary embolism is suspected, oxygen should be administered at 8 to 10 L by tight face mask. Oxygen is used to decrease hypoxia. The woman also is kept on bedrest with the head of the bed slightly elevated to reduce dyspnea. Morphine sulfate may be prescribed for the client, but this action would not be the initial nursing action. An IV line also will be required, but this action would follow the administration of the oxygen
If a woman is at risk for thrombus and is not ready to ambulate, nurses might intervene by doing all of these interventions except: a. Putting her in antiembolic stockings (TED hose) and/or sequential compression device (SCD) boots. b. Having her flex, extend, and rotate her feet, ankles, and legs. c. Having her sit in a chair. d. Notifying the physician immediately if a positive Homans' sign occurs.
ANS: C Sitting immobile in a chair will not help. Bed exercise and prophylactic footwear might.TED hose and SCD boots are recommended. Bed exercises, such as flexing, extending, and rotating her feet, ankles, and legs, are useful. A positive Homans' sign (calf muscle pain or warmth, redness, or tenderness) requires the physician's immediate attention.
Under the Newborns' and Mothers' Health Protection Act, all health plans are required to allow new mothers and newborns to remain in the hospital for a minimum of _____ hours after a normal vaginal birth and for _____ hours after a cesarean birth. a. 24, 73 b. 24, 96 c. 48, 96 d. 48, 120
ANS: C The specified stays are 48 hours (2 days) for a vaginal birth and 96 hours (4 days) for a cesarean birth. The attending provider and the mother together can decide on an earlier discharge.
A 25-year-old gravida 2, para 2-0-0-2 gave birth 4 hours ago to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy after augmentation of labor with Pitocin. She puts on her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating, "I'm bleeding a lot." The most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this woman is: a. Retained placental fragments. b. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations. c. Uterine atony. d. Puerperal infection.
ANS: C This woman gave birth to a macrosomic boy after Pitocin augmentation. The most likely cause of bleeding 4 hours after delivery, combined with these risk factors, is uterine atony. Although retained placental fragments may cause postpartum hemorrhage, this typically would be detected in the first hour after delivery of the placenta and is not the most likely cause of hemorrhage in this woman. Although unrepaired vaginal lacerations may cause bleeding, they typically would occur in the period immediately after birth. Puerperal infection can cause subinvolution and subsequent bleeding, but it typically would be detected 24 hours after delivery
Excessive blood loss after childbirth can have several causes; the most common is: a. Vaginal or vulvar hematomas. b. Unrepaired lacerations of the vagina or cervix. c. Failure of the uterine muscle to contract firmly. d. Retained placental fragments.
ANS: C Uterine atony can best be thwarted by maintaining good uterine tone and preventing bladder distention. Although vaginal or vulvar hematomas, unpaired lacerations of the vagina or cervix, and retained placental fragments are possible causes of excessive blood loss, uterine muscle failure (uterine atony) is the most common cause.
Two days ago a woman gave birth to a full-term infant. Last night she awakened several times to urinate and noted that her gown and bedding were wet from profuse diaphoresis. One mechanism for the diaphoresis and diuresis that this woman is experiencing during the early postpartum period is: a. Elevated temperature caused by postpartum infection. b. Increased basal metabolic rate after giving birth. c. Loss of increased blood volume associated with pregnancy. d. Increased venous pressure in the lower extremities.
ANS: C Within 12 hours of birth women begin to lose the excess tissue fluid that has accumulated during pregnancy. One mechanism for reducing these retained fluids is the profuse diaphoresis that often occurs, especially at night, for the first 2 or 3 days after childbirth. Postpartal diuresis is another mechanism by which the body rids itself of excess fluid. An elevated temperature would cause chills and may cause dehydration, not diaphoresis and diuresis. Diaphoresis and diuresis sometimes are referred to as reversal of the water metabolism of pregnancy, not as the basal metabolic rate. Postpartal diuresis may be caused by the removal of increased venous pressure in the lower extremities.
A 25-year-old multiparous woman gave birth to an infant boy 1 day ago. Today her husband brings a large container of brown seaweed soup to the hospital. When the nurse enters the room, the husband asks for help with warming the soup so that his wife can eat it. The nurse's most appropriate response is to ask the woman: a. "Didn't you like your lunch?" b. "Does your doctor know that you are planning to eat that?" c. "What is that anyway?" d. "I'll warm the soup in the microwave for you."
ANS: D "I'll warm the soup in the microwave for you" shows cultural sensitivity to the dietary preferences of the woman and is the most appropriate response. Cultural dietary preferences must be respected. Women may request that family members bring favorite or culturally appropriate foods to the hospital. "What is that anyway?" does not show cultural sensitivity.
Postbirth uterine/vaginal discharge, called lochia: a. Is similar to a light menstrual period for the first 6 to 12 hours. b. Is usually greater after cesarean births. c. Will usually decrease with ambulation and breastfeeding. d. Should smell like normal menstrual flow unless an infection is present.
ANS: D An offensive odor usually indicates an infection. Lochia flow should approximate a heavy menstrual period for the first 2 hours and then steadily decrease. Less lochia usually is seen after cesarean births and usually increases with ambulation and breastfeeding.
Your client has been on magnesium sulfate for 20 hours for treatment of preeclampsia. She just delivered a viable infant girl 30 minutes ago. What uterine findings would you expect to observe/assess in this client? a. Absence of uterine bleeding in the postpartum period b. A fundus firm below the level of the umbilicus c. Scant lochia flow d. A boggy uterus with heavy lochia flow
ANS: D Because of the tocolytic effects of magnesium sulfate, this client most likely would have a boggy uterus with increased amounts of bleeding and a heavy lochia flow in the postpartum period.
Which finding could prevent early discharge of a newborn who is now 12 hours old? a. Birth weight of 3000 g b. One meconium stool since birth c. Voided, clear, pale urine three times since birth d. Infant breastfed once with some difficulty latching on and sucking and once with some success for about 5 minutes on each breast.
ANS: D Infant breastfed once with some difficulty latching on and sucking and once with some success for about 5 minutes on each breast indicates that the infant is having some difficulty with breastfeeding. The infant needs to complete at least two successful feedings (normal sucking and swallowing) before an early discharge. Birth weight of 3000 g; one meconium stool since birth; and voided, clear, pale urine three times since birth are normal infant findings and would not prevent early discharge.
Because a full bladder prevents the uterus from contracting normally, nurses intervene to help the woman empty her bladder spontaneously as soon as possible. If all else fails, the last thing the nurse might try is: a. Pouring water from a squeeze bottle over the woman's perineum. b. Placing oil of peppermint in a bedpan under the woman. c. Asking the physician to prescribe analgesics. d. Inserting a sterile catheter.
ANS: D Invasive procedures usually are the last to be tried, especially with so many other simple and easy methods available (e.g., water, peppermint vapors, pain pills). Pouring water over the perineum may stimulate voiding. It is easy, noninvasive, and should be tried early. The oil of peppermint releases vapors that may relax the necessary muscles. It is easy, noninvasive, and should be tried early. If the woman is anticipating pain from voiding, pain medications may be helpful. Other nonmedical means could be tried first, but medications still come before insertion of a catheter.
A woman gave birth to a healthy infant boy 5 days ago. What type of lochia would the nurse expect to find when assessing this woman? a. Lochia rubra b. Lochia sangra c. Lochia alba d. Lochia serosa
ANS: D Lochia serosa, which consists of blood, serum, leukocytes, and tissue debris, generally occurs around day 3 or 4 after childbirth. Lochia rubra consists of blood and decidual and trophoblastic debris. The flow generally lasts 3 to 4 days and pales, becoming pink or brown. There is no such term as lochia sangra. Lochia alba occurs in most women after day 10 and can continue up to 6 weeks after childbirth.
Nursing care in the fourth trimester includes an important intervention sometimes referred to as taking the time to mother the mother. Specifically this expression refers to: a. Formally initializing individualized care by confirming the woman's and infant's identification (ID) numbers on their respective wrist bands. ("This is your baby.") b. Teaching the mother to check the identity of any person who comes to remove the baby from the room. ("It's a dangerous world out there.") c. Including other family members in the teaching of self-care and child care. ("We're all in this together.") d. Nurturing the woman by providing encouragement and support as she takes on the many tasks of motherhood.
ANS: D Many professionals believe that the nurse's nurturing and support function is more important than providing physical care and teaching. Matching ID wrist bands is more of a formality, but it is also a get-acquainted procedure. "Mothering the mother" is more a process of encouraging and supporting the woman in her new role. Having the mother check IDs is a security measure for protecting the baby from abduction. Teaching the whole family is just good nursing practice.
The trend in the United States is for women to remain hospitalized no longer than 1 or 2 days after giving birth for all of the following reasons except: a. A wellness orientation rather than a sick-care model. b. A desire to reduce health care costs. c. Consumer demand for fewer medical interventions and more family-focused experiences. d. Less need for nursing time as a result of more medical and technologic advances and devices available at home that can provide information.
ANS: D Nursing time and care are in demand as much as ever; the nurse just has to do things more quickly. A wellness orientation seems to focus on getting clients out the door sooner. Less hospitalization means lower costs in most cases. People believe the family gives more nurturing care than the institution
A nurse is caring for a client who delivered a healthy newborn via vaginal delivery. An episiotomy was performed, and the woman has developed a wound infection at the episiotomy site. The nurse provides instructions to the mother regarding care related to the infection. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for further instructions? a. "I need to take the antibiotics as prescribed." b. "I need to apply warm compresses to provide comfort." c. "I need to take warm sitz baths to promote healing." d. "I need to isolate my infant for 48 hours after starting the antibiotics."
ANS: D Rationale: Broad-spectrum antibiotics will be prescribed for the mother, and she should be instructed to take them as prescribed. Analgesics often are necessary, and warm compresses or sitz baths may be used to provide comfort. The infant is not routinely isolated from the mother with a wound infection, but the mother must be taught how to protect the infant from contact with contaminated articles
A nurse is providing vaccine information to a second-day postpartum client who received a rubella vaccine. The nurse reminds the client to avoid which of the following after receiving this vaccine? a. Eating highly acidic foods for a week b. Sustaining injury to the injection site c. Having sexual relations for 2 to 3 months d. Becoming pregnant for 2 to 3 months
ANS: D Rationale: Rubella vaccine is a live attenuated virus that provides active immunity for 15 years. Because rubella is a live vaccine, it is potentially teratogenic during the organogenesis phase of fetal development. To avoid this risk, the nurse advises the client to avoid becoming pregnant for 2 to 3 months after receiving the vaccine. Abstinence from sexual intercourse is unnecessary, but an effective form of contraception should be used. The vaccine may cause local or systemic reactions that are mild and self-limiting. Options 1 and 2 are not significant or related to this vaccine.
A nurse has a routine order to instill erythromycin ointment (Ilotycin) into the eyes of a newborn. The nurse explains to the parents that the purpose of the medication is to: a. Help the newborn to see more clearly. b. Guard against infection acquired during intrauterine life. c. Ensure the sterility of the conjunctiva in the newborn. d. Protect the newborn from contracting an eye infection from the birth process.
ANS: D Rationale: The use of eye prophylaxis with an agent such as erythromycin protects the newborn from contracting a conjunctival infection during birth. This infection, called ophthalmia neonatorum, results from maternal vaginal infection with chlamydia or gonorrhea. This prophylaxis is mandatory in the United States.
On the second postpartum day, a woman complains of burning on urination, urgency, and frequency of urination. A urine sample is collected for urinalysis, and the results indicate the presence of a urinary tract infection. The nurse instructs the new mother regarding measures to take for the treatment of the infection. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for further instructions? a. "My prescribed medication must be taken until it is completed." b. "My fluid intake should be increased to at least 3000 mL daily." c. "I should urinate frequently throughout the day." d. "Foods and fluids that will increase urine alkalinity should be consumed."
ANS: D Rationale: The woman with a urinary tract infection must be encouraged to take the medication for the entire time it is prescribed. The woman also should be instructed to drink at least 3000 mL of fluid each day to flush the infection from the bladder and to urinate frequently throughout the day. Foods and fluids that acidify the urine need to be encouraged.
With regard to postpartum ovarian function, nurses should be aware that: a. Almost 75% of women who do not breastfeed resume menstruating within a month after birth. b. Ovulation occurs slightly earlier for breastfeeding women. c. Because of menstruation/ovulation schedules, contraception considerations can be postponed until after the puerperium. d. The first menstrual flow after childbirth usually is heavier than normal.
ANS: D The first flow is heavier, but within three or four cycles, it is back to normal. Ovulation can occur within the first month, but for 70% of nonlactating women, it returns in about 3 months. Breastfeeding women take longer to resume ovulation. Because many women ovulate before their first postpartum menstrual period, contraceptive options need to be discussed early in the puerperium.
A new mother asks the nurse when the "soft spot" on her son's head will go away. The nurse's answer is based on the knowledge that the anterior fontanel closes after birth by _____ months. a. 2 b. 8 c. 12 d. 18
ANS: D The larger of the two fontanels, the anterior fontanel, closes by 18 months after birth.
On examining a woman who gave birth 5 hours ago, the nurse finds that the woman has completely saturated a perineal pad within 15 minutes. The nurse's first action is to: a. Begin an intravenous (IV) infusion of Ringer's lactate solution. b. Assess the woman's vital signs. c. Call the woman's primary health care provider. d. Massage the woman's fundus.
ANS: D The nurse should assess the uterus for atony. Uterine tone must be established to prevent excessive blood loss. The nurse may begin an IV infusion to restore circulatory volume, but this would not be the first action. Blood pressure is not a reliable indicator of impending shock from impending hemorrhage; assessing vital signs should not be the nurse's first action. The physician would be notified after the nurse completes the assessment of the woman.
The nurse caring for the postpartum woman understands that breast engorgement is caused by: a. Overproduction of colostrum. b. Accumulation of milk in the lactiferous ducts. c. Hyperplasia of mammary tissue. d. Congestion of veins and lymphatics.
ANS: D Breast engorgement is caused by the temporary congestion of veins and lymphatics , not by overproduction of colostrum, overproduction of milk, or hyperplasia of mammary tissue.
A woman gave birth to a 7-pound, 6-ounce infant girl 1 hour ago. The birth was vaginal, and the estimated blood loss (EBL) was approximately 1500 ml. When assessing the woman's vital signs, the nurse would be concerned to see: a. Temperature 37.9° C, heart rate 120, respirations 20, blood pressure (BP) 90/50. b. Temperature 37.4° C, heart rate 88, respirations 36, BP 126/68. c. Temperature 38° C, heart rate 80, respirations 16, BP 110/80. d. Temperature 36.8° C, heart rate 60, respirations 18, BP 140/90.
ANS: A An EBL of 1500 ml with tachycardia and hypotension suggests hypovolemia caused by excessive blood loss. An increased respiratory rate of 36 may be secondary to pain from the birth. Temperature may increase to 38° C during the first 24 hours as a result of the dehydrating effects of labor. A BP of 140/90 is slightly elevated, which may be caused by the use of oxytocic medications.
While admitting the pregnant woman, the nurse should be aware that postpartum hospital stays that are becoming shorter are primarily the result of the influence of: a. Health maintenance organizations (HMOs) and private insurers. b. Consumer demand. c. Hospitals. d. The federal government.
ANS: A The trend for shortened hospital stays is based largely on efforts to reduce health care costs. Secondarily consumers have demanded less medical intervention and more family-centered experiences. Hospitals are obligated to follow standards of care and federal statutes regarding discharge policies. The Newborns' and Mothers' Health Protection Act provided minimum federal standards for health plan coverage for mothers and their newborns. Under this act couples were allowed to stay in the hospital for longer periods
200. Which woman is most likely to experience strong afterpains? a. A woman who experienced oligohydramnios b. A woman who is a gravida 4, para 4-0-0-4 c. A woman who is bottle-feeding her infant d. A woman whose infant weighed 5 pounds, 3 ounces
ANS: B Afterpains are more common in multiparous women. Afterpains are more noticeable with births in which the uterus was greatly distended, as in a woman who experienced polyhydramnios or a woman who delivered a large infant. Breastfeeding may cause afterpains to intensify.
A woman gave birth 48 hours ago to a healthy infant girl. She has decided to bottle-feed. During your assessment you notice that both of her breasts are swollen, warm, and tender on palpation. The woman should be advised that this condition can best be treated by: a. Running warm water on her breasts during a shower. b. Applying ice to the breasts for comfort. c. Expressing small amounts of milk from the breasts to relieve pressure. d. Wearing a loose-fitting bra to prevent nipple irritation.
ANS: B Applying ice to the breasts for comfort is appropriate for treating engorgement in a mother who is bottle-feeding. This woman is experiencing engorgement, which can be treated by using ice packs (since she is not breastfeeding) and cabbage leaves. A bottle-feeding mother should avoid any breast stimulation, including pumping or expressing milk. A bottle-feeding mother should wear a well-fitted support bra or breast binder continuously for at least the first 72 hours after giving birth. A loose-fitting bra will not aid lactation suppression. Furthermore, the shifting of the bra against the breasts may stimulate the nipples and thereby stimulate lactation.
A nurse is preparing to care for a woman in the immediate postpartum period who has just delivered a healthy newborn. The nurse plans to take the woman's vital signs: a. Every 30 minutes during the first hour and then every hour for the next 2 hours b. Every 15 minutes during the first hour and then every 30 minutes for the next 2 hours c. Every hour for the first 2 hours and then every 4 hours d. Every 5 minutes for the first 30 minutes and then every hour for the next 4 hours
ANS: B Rationale: During the immediate postpartum period, vital signs are taken every 15 minutes in the first hour after birth, every 30 minutes for the next 2 hours, and every hour for the next 2 to 6 hours. Vital signs are monitored thereafter every 4 hours for 24 hours and every 8 to 12 hours for the remainder of the hospital stay.
The perinatal nurse is giving discharge instructions to a woman, status postsuction curettage secondary to a hydatidiform mole. The woman asks why she must take oral contraceptives for the next 12 months. The best response from the nurse would be: a. "If you get pregnant within 1 year, the chance of a successful pregnancy is very small. Therefore, if you desire a future pregnancy, it would be better for you to use the most reliable method of contraception available." b. "The major risk to you after a molar pregnancy is a type of cancer that can be diagnosed only by measuring the same hormone that your body produces during pregnancy. If you were to get pregnant, it would make the diagnosis of this cancer more difficult." c. "If you can avoid a pregnancy for the next year, the chance of developing a second molar pregnancy is rare. Therefore, to improve your chance of a successful pregnancy, it is better not to get pregnant at this time." d. "Oral contraceptives are the only form of birth control that will prevent a recurrence of a molar pregnancy."
ANS: B This is an accurate statement. -human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels will be drawn for 1 year to ensure that the mole is completely gone. There is an increased chance of developing choriocarcinoma after the development of a hydatidiform mole. The goal is to achieve a "zero" hCG level. If the woman were to become pregnant, it may obscure the presence of the potentially carcinogenic cells. Women should be instructed to use birth control for 1 year after treatment for a hydatidiform mole. The rationale for avoiding pregnancy for 1 year is to ensure that carcinogenic cells are not present. Any contraceptive method except an intrauterine device is acceptable.
A nurse is providing nutritional counseling to a new mother who is breast-feeding her newborn. The nurse instructs the mother that her calorie intake needs to increase by approximately: a. 100 calories per day b. 300 calories per day c. 500 calories per day d. 1000 calories per day
ANS: C Rationale: If the mother is breast-feeding, her calorie needs increase by approximately 500 calories per day. The mother should also be instructed regarding the need for increased fluids and the need for prenatal vitamins and iron supplements.
A nurse is providing instructions to the mother following delivery regarding care of the episiotomy site to prevent infection. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further instructions? a. "I will wipe my perineum from front to back after voiding and defecation." b. "I will use warm water or an irrigation device to rinse the perineum after elimination." c. "I will change the perineum pads three times a day." d. "I will take warm sitz baths three times a day."
ANS: C Rationale: Warm sitz baths and cleansing with warm water are helpful for relieving pain, and these measures will promote cleanliness in the perineum area to prevent infection. The mother should also be instructed to wipe the perineum from front to back after voiding and defecation to decrease the risk for contamination with microorganisms from the anus to the vagina. Warm water should be used to rinse the perineum after elimination. The mother also should be instructed that the perineal pad should be changed after each elimination and may be changed in between.
Which condition, not uncommon in pregnancy, is likely to require careful medical assessment during the puerperium? a. Varicosities of the legs b. Carpal tunnel syndrome c. Periodic numbness and tingling of the fingers d. Headaches
ANS: D Headaches in the postpartum period can have a number of causes, some of which deserve medical attention. Total or nearly total regression of varicosities is expected after childbirth. However, headaches might deserve attention. Carpal tunnel syndrome is relieved in childbirth when the compression on the median nerve is lessened. However, headaches might deserve attention. Periodic numbness of the fingers usually disappears after birth unless carrying the baby aggravates the condition. However, headaches might deserve attention.
The interval between the birth of the newborn and the return of the reproductive organs to their normal nonpregnant state is called the: a. Involutionary period because of what happens to the uterus. b. Lochia period because of the nature of the vaginal discharge. c. Mini-tri period because it lasts only 3 to 6 weeks. d. Puerperium, or fourth trimester of pregnancy.
ANS: D The puerperium, also called the fourth trimester or the postpartum period of pregnancy, lasts about 3 to 6 weeks. Involution marks the end of the puerperium, or the fourth trimester of pregnancy. Lochia refers to the various vaginal discharges during the puerperium, or fourth trimester of pregnancy.
Childbirth may result in injuries to the vagina and uterus. Pelvic floor exercises also known as Kegel exercises will help to strengthen the perineal muscles and encourage healing. The nurse knows that the client understands the correct process for completing these conditioning exercises when she reports: a. "I contract my thighs, buttocks, and abdomen." b. "I do 10 of these exercises every day." c. "I stand while practicing this new exercise routine." d. "I pretend that I am trying to stop the flow of urine midstream."
ANS: D The woman can pretend that she is attempting to stop the passing of gas or the flow of urine midstream. This will replicate the sensation of the muscles drawing upward and inward. Each contraction should be as intense as possible without contracting the abdomen, buttocks, or thighs. Guidelines suggest that these exercises should be done 24 to 100 times per day. Positive results are shown with a minimum of 24 to 45 repetitions per day. The best position to learn Kegel exercises is to lie supine with knees bent. A secondary position is on the hands and knees.
A woman gave birth vaginally to a 9-pound, 12-ounce girl yesterday. Her primary health care provider has written orders for perineal ice packs, use of a sitz bath TID, and a stool softener. What information is most closely correlated with these orders? a. The woman is a gravida 2, para 2. b. The woman had a vacuum-assisted birth. c. The woman received epidural anesthesia. d. The woman has an episiotomy.
ANS: D These orders are typical interventions for a woman who has had an episiotomy, lacerations, and hemorrhoids. A multiparous classification is not an indication for these orders. A vacuum-assisted birth may be used in conjunction with an episiotomy, which would indicate these interventions. Use of epidural anesthesia has no correlation with these orders.