Questions
How long must you wait between APU start attempts?
90 seconds
You should set IRS POS by what order of preference?
:GPS GATE REF AIRPORT LAT/LONG
What must be done with the DUAL BLEED light illuminated?
Thrust must be limited to idle.
What seven other GPWS alerts are there besides warnings and cautions?
"DON'T SINK" "SINK RATE" "TOO LOW GEAR" "TOO LOW FLAPS" (1) "GLIDESLOPE" "BANK ANGLE" P"AIRSPEED LOW"
What are the six FO parameter limit callouts on HGS AIII Mode approach?
"Airspeed" = Airspeed Target speed ± 5 kt (to flare "Crosstrack" = Localizer ±1 DOT (expanded LOC rectangle) to touchdown "Glideslope" = Glideslope ±1 DOT down to 100 ft "Sink Rate" = Sink Rate 1,000 fpm down to 50 ft "Approach Warning, Go Around" = APP WARN "HGS Fail, Go Around" = HGS FAIL (HGS 4000 only)
What are the Fuel Tank Temp Limits?
+49°C -37°C Jet A freeze point is -40°C, and other listed fuels freeze at lower temperatures.
Where is the portable wheelchair stowed?
-700 in aft closet -800 in fwd storage compartment
What are the new Max Zero Fuel Weight for both the -800s and Max aircraft when using Flight Suite?
-800 136,500 lbs Max 144,300 lbs
When ground power is not available, ensure how much time has elapsed between placing the battery switch ON and starting the APU?
30 seconds
During descent, the IAS/MACH speed window changes from MACH to IAS at approximately what airspeed?
300 KIAS
What are the placard limits for the landing gear?
320 kts while extended 270 kts during extension 235 kts prior to retraction
How long must you wait between Alternate Flap duty cycles?
5 minutes
What are the minimum wait times for exceeding Max Quickturn Weight?
62 minutes & 48 minutes (carbon brakes)
Below what RNP does autopilot use go from recommended to required?
.30
Use of the autopilot is required for RNAV approaches with what RNP?
0.30NM or less
What four visual clues tell you whether Anti-icing fluid has lost its effectiveness?
1 - Any wing surface changes from a smooth, translucent, glossy surface to a frost, slush, snow, or ice-covered surface. 2 - The fluid appears to be cloudy, hazy, or ghosting. 3 - Straight lines are indiscernible between aircraft panels or placards on the wing surface through the fluid. 4 - Random snow accumulates or a graying/dulling surface appears, caused by fluid deterioration.
What are the five basic requirements for a CAT III ILS?
1 - CAT III approaches require a tailored Jeppesen approach chart with "CAT III" in the title and labeled "SOUTHWEST HGS ONLY." 2 - The Captain must select AIII mode when it becomes available and hand-fly the approach using the HGS in the AIII mode to touchdown. 3 - Fly a flaps 30 or 40 approach and landing. 4 - An operating (open) ATC tower. 5 - To determine the DA, use the radio altimeter as the primary instrument (unless otherwise noted on the approach chart).
What two requirements are there for takeoffs with the EECs in the alternate mode?
1 - Reduced thrust is not allowed. 2 - Both EECs must be selected alternate. AFM L Ignition must be on for takeoff and landing. Note: Oil pressure digital readouts must be in white band for takeoff. Note: The digital readouts display amber or red if limits are exceeded.
PWB System integrates which 5 systems?
1 - SWIFT (Dispatcher's interface) 2 - OTIS (Operations Agent's interface) 3 - ACARS and FMC (Pilot's interface) 4 - PWB Data Centers (remotely hosted, redundant, calculating engines) 5 - EFB app (comprehensive additional backup device and training aid)
What are the two training requirements for a CAT III ILS?
1 - The Captain must be HGS trained, qualified, current, and have 100 hours as a Southwest Airlines PIC. Note: Qualified is defined as 3 HGS takeoffs and landings and submission of an HGS Aircraft Operating Experience form provided during UOE. 2 - The First Officer must be HGS trained.
FRM Chapters (QRH)
1 Aircraft General, Emerg Equip, Windows and Doors 2 Air Systems 3 Anti Ice 4 Automation 5 Communications 6 Electrical 7 Engines 8 Fire Protection 9 Flight Controls 10 Flight Instruments and Displays 11 Flight Management and Navigation 12 Fuel Systems 13 Hydraulics 14 Landing Gear 15 Warnings
FOM Chapters (AOM)
1 Introduction 2 Philosophy (Aircraft General) 3 Flight Ops, General (Limitations) 4 Flight Management, Navigation 5 Non Normal 6 Preflight 7 Pushback and Engine Start 8 Taxi Out 9 Takeoff and Initial Climb 10 Enroute 11 Approach 12 Landing 13 Taxi In 14 Terminating 15 Adverse Weather 16 Communications (Supplemental) 17 Flight Planning and Dispatch (PWB) 18 Ground Ops (In Flight Performance) 19 Maintenance 20 Non Scheduled Operations (Flight Deck Cards - End of AOM) 21 Passenger/Cargo Handling 22 Accident/Incident Reporting 23 Authorizations 24 Administrative
Evacuation Checklist
1 PARKING BRAKE. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Set C 2 Speedbrake lever . . . . . . . . . . . . DOWN C 3 FLAP lever . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 40 F/O 4 Pressurization mode selector . . . . . MAN F/O 5 Outflow VALVE switch . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Hold in OPEN until the outflow VALVE indication shows fully open to depressurize the aircraft F/O 6 If time allows, verify that the flaps are 40 before the engine start levers are moved to CUTOFF. C 7 Engine start levers (both) . . . . . CUTOFF C 8 Advise the cabin to evacuate. C 9 Advise the tower. F/O 10 Engine and APU fire switches (all) . . . . Override and pull C 11 If an engine or APU fire warning occurs: Illuminated fire switch . . . . . . . . . . Rotate to the stop and hold for 1 second C ■ ■ ■ ■ Evacuation Condition: Evacuat
What two requirements must you comply with if using LNAV for a ground-based non-precision approach?
1) All underlying navaids must be operational, and no restricting facility or procedural NOTAMs may exist. 2) Underlying navaid raw data must be monitored. Note: Loss of raw data requires a missed approach when flying in LNAV.
What is the three part definition of a standard ILS CAT I approach?
1) An ILS approach that has a minimum visibility of ½ SM, 2400 RVR or 1800 RVR, and 200 ft DH, as published; 2) does not require the use of HGS; 3) and may be flown using the requirements, provisions, procedures, and minimums specified within this section.
What four things must you discuss with the Ground Crew if notified that a towbar shear pin breaks during pushback or tow operations?
1) Did tow bar exceeded the white safety line (the vertical limit line on the aft portion of each nose landing gear door? 2) Is there visible damage to the aircraft, as assessed by the Ground Crew? 3) Was there sudden brake application by the Pilot or Ground Crew during pushback or tow operations while the aircraft was in motion? 4) Was towing or pushback is attempted with the parking brake set?
What three things must be considered when selecting an Autobrake setting?
1) If braking action or runway conditions are anticipated to be worse than reported (e.g., continued snow with no additional runway treatments), select the runway condition that most accurately corresponds to the anticipated runway condition to ensure the stopping margins are valid for the anticipated conditions. 2) Do not use a higher autobrake setting in lieu of computing new landing data if landing conditions deteriorate. (Ie. Don't be lazy.) 3) When using autobrakes, select a setting that corresponds with a PWB positive stopping margin.
What are the three Flight Suite restrictions and limitations on its use on landing?
1) Only authorized if the PWB Data Center (AeroData) is not operational. 2) If a NOTAM is present that indicates a shortened runway, the Flight Deck Crew must ensure an autobrake selection that results in a stopping margin greater than the amount of shortening. For example, if a NOTAM indicates that the planned runway has been shortened by 1350', an autobrake setting that provides a stopping margin greater than 1350' must be used (or approximated if autobrakes are inoperative). 3) If a MEL is present that limits stopping performance, select the condition or Non-Normal Config on the Landing tab that most closely applies to the MEL restriction.
What are the six Flight Suite restrictions and limitations on its use on takeoff?
1) Only authorized if the PWB Data Center (AeroData) is not operational. 2) Computes only maximum thrust solutions. 3) Cannot compute data for precautionary takeoff profile (default windshear flap setting and increased VR) 4) Not allowed with a performance limiting MEL nor any CDL. 5) A runway with a NOTAM listed on the TLR may not be used. 6) Not authorized without first contacting the Flight's Dispatcher (no lock ability so must get authorization).
What are the two TCAS limitations)?
1) Pilots are authorized to deviate to the extent necessary from an ATC clearance to comply with a TCAS II resolution advisory (RA). 2) Flight Crews must immediately respond to TCAS information (both TAs and RAs) by using the TCAS (traffic avoidance) guidelines located in the QRH Maneuvers chapter.
Alias codes for an airport are available from which three resources?
1) TLR - ACARS Runways Tables 2) ACARS/cFDP - Available Runways selection 3) Dispatch
What four basic requirements are associated with a CAT II ILS?
1) The Jeppesen approach page must have "CAT II" in the title. 2) The Captain must hand-fly the approach using the HGS. 3) Fly a flaps 30 or 40 approach and landing. 4) An operating (open) ATC tower.
What are the three exceptions to the Clean Aircraft Concept?
1) Thin hoarfrost on the upper surface of the fuselage provided all vents and ports are clear. 2) Cold-soaked fuel frost (CSFF) up to ⅛ inch on lower wing surfaces. 3) CSFF on upper wing surfaces, provided that all of the following conditions are met: *The CSFF is on or between the black lines defining the allowable CSFF area. *Outside air temperature (OAT) is at or above 4°C (39°F). *Fuel tank temperature is at or above -16°C (3°F). *There is no precipitation or visible moisture (rain, snow, drizzle, or fog with less than 1 mile visibility). (4-16-dry) Note: Aircraft without depicted allowable CSFF areas are not allowed to take off with any frost on the upper wing surface.
When is the DA for a CAT II ILS not identified using the RA?
1) Unless otherwise noted on the approach chart. 2) When a CAT II approach chart shows the restriction, "RA NOT AUTH".
What are the four Autopilot Limits?
1) Use of the autopilot is not authorized for takeoff or landing. 2) Use of the aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is prohibited. 3) Minimum altitude for autopilot engagement after takeoff—1,000 ft AGL. 4) Minimum altitude for autopilot disengagement during approach—50 ft below DA/DDA, but no less than 50 ft AGL.
During what two scenarios must SWA aircraft use Approach Category "D" minima? Which speeds are associated with this category?
1) VREF is greater than 140 kt for other than Flaps 30 and Flaps 40 landings. 2) VTARGET is greater than 140 kt for RNAV (RNP) approaches with an RF leg on the final approach segment. Note: For an RNAV (RNP) approach with an RF leg on the final approach segment, the maximum allowable speed on the final approach segment is 165 kt. Cat D is from 141 kts to 165 kts
What two instances may a crewmember exceed the two bag carryon limitation?
1) When in uniform (whether or not they are assigned to a flight) 2) When flying on official company business (traveling to and from training, deadheading, or on must ride status for other reasons).
What two conditions require a Cabin Check?
1) Whenever a Holdover Time is Expired or 2). Heavy Snow is reported. A Flight Deck Crew Member operating the flight must inspect both aircraft wing surfaces from the cabin overwing windows within five minutes of takeoff. This inspection uses a comparative analysis to account for the condition of all critical aircraft surfaces. This comparative analysis validates the condition of non-visible surfaces predicated on the condition of those surfaces that are visible, particularly the left wing root, which is the oldest application point. The Cabin Check determines that all critical aircraft surfaces are free of contamination and that the deice/anti-ice fluid has not failed. Note: Southwest Airlines adopted the nomenclature Cabin Check to define the Pretakeoff Contamination Check respectively, which is required by 14 CFR Part 121.629(c)(3)(i). Use the windows that provide the best view of the leading edge and wing inspection area. If the cabin overwing windows do not allow the visibility necessary to inspect the wing surfaces, a cabin door may need to be opened. CAUTION: Prior to opening a cabin door, disarm the escape slide bar. After closing the door, rearm the escape slide bar. Note: When exiting the flight deck for the Cabin Check, use secure flight deck exit and entry procedures. Note: Passengers seated in the inspection row should be politely asked to stand in the aisle while performing the inspection Note: During hours of darkness, adjust interior cabin lighting as necessary and use all available external lighting (except emergency exit lighting) and/or a flashlight to illuminate the wing area. If using a flashlight from inside the aircraft, it may be necessary to shine the light through an adjacent window. Complete an inspection of both wings and then focus on fluid-failure recognition at the oldest application point. The wing inspection should focus on the following: ● Wing leading edge ● Horizontal surface along the entire length of the visible wing, including the winglet ● Control surfaces that are visible along the trailing edge of the wing This inspection is intended to draw attention to extreme environmental situations such as strong crosswinds that may cause snow drifting or significant cooling of deice/anti-ice fluid, which may cause the fluid to fail at different rates on different surfaces of the aircraft. If this inspection identifies any areas of concern, have the aircraft deiced again. Under certain conditions, anti-icing may also be required. The "Fluid Failure Inspection Area" represents the oldest fluid on the aircraft and may be expected to experience fluid failure/contamination first. After completing an inspection of both wings, it is important to focus on this area (the starting point of the final fluid application) for the most accurate indication of fluid failure. Anti-Icing Fluid Failure Identification Anti-icing fluid has lost its effectiveness when any of the following occur: ● Any wing surface changes from a smooth, translucent, glossy surface to a frost, slush, snow, or ice-covered surface. ● The fluid appears to be cloudy, hazy, or ghosting. ● Straight lines are indiscernible between aircraft panels or placards on the wing surface through the fluid. ● Random snow accumulates or a graying/dulling surface appears, caused by fluid deterioration.
Which three ways may you monitor localizer raw data when using LNAV for a ground based non-precision approach?
1) White unfilled diamond anticipation cue. This cue is displayed if valid approach course deviation information is being received, however lateral Navigation Performance Scales (NPS) deviation scale represents current FMC lateral RNP. If the white unfilled diamond is not centered, switch the ND to APP mode. 2) APP mode on the EFIS control panel to verify the aircraft is within the required two dots for the localizer approach. The localizer identifier on the PFD indicates localizer signal. If the signal is lost, the localizer frequency is displayed in place of the localizer identifier. 3) HUD
Fuel Distribution Main tanks must be full if the center tank quantity is greater than what?
1,000 lbs
How much fuel may be retained in the center tank provided the effects of balance have been considered?
1,000 lbs
What is the Max Fuel Imbalance permitted for Taxi, Takeoff, Flight, and Landing?
1,000 lbs
What is the minimum fuel for ground operation of electric hydraulic pumps?
1,675 lb in the respective wing tank.
What four steps are required to determine Cold Temperature Adjustments?
1. Reference current weather information (e.g., ATIS, AWOS, ASOS). 2. Check the notes section of the approach chart(s) for a cold temperature altitude correction requirement note. 3. Check the EFB for the Cold Temperature Adjustment Tables found on the EFB via the following path myMobile365>MyPublications>Collections>*Flying>*Manuals & Flight Deck Cards>Cold Temperature Restricted Airports. 4. Enter the appropriate altitude(s) from the Cold Temperature Adjustment Tables in the FMC LEGS page. Do not apply corrections to waypoints that are not identified in the Cold Temperature Adjustment Table.
How is controlling approach visibility prioritized?
1. Runway Visual Range (RVR) is controlling for runways listed as RVR-controlled on Jeppesen charts. 2. Runway Visibility Value (RVV) is given in miles and fractions of miles for a specified runway. 3. Prevailing Visibility (PV) is "Airport Visibility" and is used for all runways unless a runway is controlled by RVR or RVV. So RVR - RVV - PV
Flight director or autopilot is required for RNAV operations with what RNP?
1.0NM or less
Center tank fuel pumps must be ON for all operations with more than what amount of fuel in the center tank?
1000 lbs Some MEL items can override this limitation.
What is the definition of All-Engine Takeoff Distance?
115 percent of the distance required to accelerate from brake release to VR with both engines operating normally, commence rotation, lift off, and climb to a height of 35 ft above the takeoff surface while reaching a speed not less than V2.
How many spare life vests are there on the -700? The -800?
15 on the -700 20 on the -800
FOM Chapters
16. Communications
How long should the APU be operated for one minute before being used as a bleed air source?
2 minutes
What is the normal Starter Duty Cycle?
2 minutes ON, 10 seconds OFF between start attempts. Motoring (fuel off): 15 minutes
What is the max allowable in-flight difference between Captain and First Officer altimeters for RVSM operation?
200 ft
On the ground, limit one generator operation (engine driven) to a maximum of what load?
215 amps
A CDS MAINT (white) on the altimeter display indicates what?
A dispatchable CDS fault has occurred. Displayed on the ground only, prior to start of the second engine.
Rejected Takeoff (RTO)
A Captain should reject a takeoff after 80 knots only for the following reasons: an engine failure, fire or fire warning, predictive windshear warning or the aircraft is unsafe/unable to fly. A takeoff shall not be started or continued with any warning horn or bell sounding before the aircraft attains 80 knots. Any abnormality or non-normal situation during the takeoff should be announced by the first Pilot to notice it. A decision to continue the takeoff after recognition of an abnormality or non-normal situation should be communicated by the Captain saying "CONTINUE." The Captain is solely responsible for rejecting a takeoff. The decision to reject must be made in time to start the RTO maneuver no later than V1. If the Captain makes the decision to reject the takeoff, the Captain should announce the decision with a loud clear statement, such as: "REJECT." If the First Officer is making the takeoff, the Captain should announce: "REJECT, I HAVE THE AIRCRAFT." After V1, rejecting the takeoff is not recommended unless the Captain judges the aircraft incapable of flight. The Captain must submit an Irregularity Report if a takeoff is rejected. If takeoff warning horn actuates on takeoff or during the takeoff warning check, the Captain must ensure that an Info Only entry is made in the Aircraft Logbook. Refer to FOM 19 Maintenance for specific information on Info Only entries in the Aircraft Logbook. PF Simultaneously perform the following: • Close the thrust levers. • Disengage the autothrottles. • Apply maximum manual wheel brakes or verify operation of the RTO autobrake system. • If RTO autobrake is selected, monitor system performance and apply manual wheel brakes if the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates or deceleration is not adequate. Without delay: • Raise the speedbrake lever. • Apply reverse thrust up to the maximum amount consistent with conditions. • Continue maximum braking until certain the aircraft will stop on the runway. PM Verify actions as follows: • Thrust levers closed. • Autothrottles disengaged. • Maximum brakes applied. • Speedbrake lever is up and call "EXTENDED." If speedbrake lever is not up, call "NO SPEEDBRAKE." When both green REV lights are illuminated, call "DEPLOYED." If a green REV light is not illuminated, call "NO REVERSE." Note: The "NO REVERSE" call only applies to the operating engine. Note: The "NO REVERSE" call does not apply to thrust reversers deferred by Maintenance. If the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates: • Call "AUTOBRAKE DISARM." • Call out any omitted action items. If the field length permits, initiate movement of the reverse thrust levers to reach the idle detent by taxi speed. Call "60 KNOTS." Communicate the reject decision to the Control Tower. • Using the PA, the Captain will advise the Flight Attendants/Passengers to "REMAIN SEATED." • If necessary, an all exit evacuation is ordered by stating "EVACUATE, EVACUATE, EVACUATE." In some situations, it will be necessary to direct the use of certain exits (e.g., "AIRCRAFT FORWARD" or "AIRCRAFT LEFT," "EVACUATE, EVACUATE, EVACUATE"). Considerations • Request that tower personnel alert the fire department as required. Request that tower personnel visually inspect the aircraft for signs of smoke or fire as required. If fire is present, the Captain should consider positioning the aircraft upwind of the fire. • Consider the following: • The possibility of wheel fuse plugs melting • The need to clear the runway • The requirement for remote parking • Not setting the parking brake unless Passenger evacuation is necessary • Prior to another takeoff attempt or further taxi, determine brake cooling requirements. If unable to determine brake cooling requirements, contact Dispatch. Additional heat buildup from taxiing or riding the brakes may aggravate the brake energy situation and in some cases, put the aircraft into the situation where a mandatory cooling period is required. • Coordinate with ATC and Station Operations as to remote parking requirements and location, if required. Advise them of the hot brake hazard and the fact that the fuse plugs may melt. Request that ground personnel chock the nose gear tire. This keeps the aircraft stationary without use of wheel brakes and keeps personnel away from the main gear/hot brakes. • Aircraft Logbook defect entry is required if brake energy exceeds 30.0 million ft/lb.
When is cost differential fueling (fuel tankering) not permitted?
A Dispatcher may not plan cost differential fueling: ● Anti-skid system is inoperative. ● Reverse thrust is inoperative. ● Braking at the departure or arrival airport is reported less than 5-GOOD. ● Within 1,000 lb of the Dispatch landing performance limit. ● Max Quick Turn Weight will be exceeded. ● Into California or Florida when the flight time exceeds 2+30 minutes, except for terminating aircraft. Note: When conditions unexpectedly change, the flight may be operated without defueling provided the Captain and Dispatcher agree that the takeoff, en route, and Dispatch landing limits will not be exceeded.
What are the indications of a Predictive Windshear (PWS) Caution?
A PWS Caution displays the windshear icon on the navigation display and sounds an aural alert "Monitor Radar Display" when windshear is detected in the caution region.
What are the indications of a Predictive Windshear (PWS) Warning?
A PWS Warning displays the windshear icon on the navigation display and sounds the aural alert: "WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD," on takeoff. "GO AROUND, WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD", on approach.
What is one complete Alternate Flap duty cycle in flight?
A complete cycle is movement from position 0° to 15° and back to 0°. The ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch must be in the OFF position for 15 seconds before reversing the direction of flap movement.
What does the note "Missed Approach RNP Less than 1.0" on the approach plate indicate?
A less than standard RNP corridor width on the missed approach segment(s).
A CDS FAULT on the altimeter display indicates what?
A non-dispatchable CDS fault has occurred. Video is reversed and displayed on the ground only, prior to start of the second engine.
How would you determine the outer marker on a CAT II ILS?
A precision or airport surveillance radar, compass locator transmitter, or DME is required to identify the outer marker position.
A DSPLY SOURCE on the altimeter display indicates what?
A single DEU has been selected, either manually or automatically, to drive all six display units.
Takeoff Alternate
A takeoff alternate is required and must be shown in the Dispatch Release when the weather conditions at the departure airport are below non-HGS CAT I landing minimums. Note: Takeoff alternate weather requirements are the same for a landing alternate. Note: The takeoff alternate must not be more than one hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative (approximately 320 NM).
What options do you have if the weather or RAF does not allow an RNAV approach?
A) Consider delaying the approach or B) Try using an approach predicated on a ground-based navaid.
What are the seven categories in which you must execute a go-around/missed approach?
A) Directed ● Any Flight Deck Crew Member directs. ● ATC directs. B) Parameters Exceeded ● The approach does not meet stabilized approach criteria. During an instrument approach, when a visual approach cannot be accomplished: ● The CDI exceeds a 2-dot deflection while on the FAS in IMC. ● The expanded LOC pointer becomes "unfilled" while on the FAS in IMC. ● A 2-dot low glideslope deflection on the FAS in IMC is exceeded. ● The VOR pointer exceeds 10º from the desired course on a VOR approach inside the FAF in IMC. ● Lateral Navigation Performance Scale ANP bar amber indication or NPS pointer cannot be maintained at less than 1 x RNP (NPS full scale deflection). ● Vertical Navigation Performance Scale pointer cannot be maintained between the ANP bar limits. C) No Visual Reference ● Sufficient visual references for landing are not present and any of the following occur: - (ILS) Radio Altitude display flashes and turns amber. - The aircraft altimeter indicates that the DA or DDA is reached. - The missed approach point, if applicable, is reached. ● The Pilot initially has sufficient visual references but then loses them below DA, DDA, or MDA. D) Safe Landing Jeopardized ● A landing in the touchdown zone cannot be safely accomplished. Note: The touchdown zone is the area of the runway 500 ft to 3,000 ft beyond the landing threshold not to exceed the first one-third of the usable length beyond the threshold. ● The aircraft touches down beyond 1,500 ft with an insufficient PWB System-computed stopping margin. E) Malfunctions ● Before reaching DA, DDA, or MDA, any required portion of ground equipment/system elements become inoperative, unless adequate and appropriate backup exists for the type of approach being flown. ● An HGS malfunction occurs during an HGS approach and adequate runway visual references have not been established. ● An APCH WARN or HGS FAIL occurs and the Captain does not have the runway in sight (actual runway is in sight, not just part of the runway environment, such as lead-in lights or other approach lights). ● For RNAV approaches inside the IAF: Both Pilots' primary altimeters differ by more than 100 ft at the FAF. FMC Alert message UNABLE REQD NAV PERF—RNP, FMC DISAGREE or any VERIFY POS alerting message. Dual FMC failure. Dual CDU failure. Dual GPS failure. Loss of MAP display. Autopilot failure with RNP less than 0.30 NM. F) Weather Deteriorates ● For CAT III operations, if any controlling RVR is reported below the lowest authorized minima. G) Windshear and Terrain ● For a Predictive Windshear (PWS) caution or warning. On approach, initiate a normal go-around. Be prepared to execute a windshear recovery .● For a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) warning or caution: Warning—Any time, immediately initiate the Terrain Avoidance Maneuver. Caution—On approach, initiate a go-around in any of the following situations: ○ At night ○ In IMC ○ If unable to acquire terrain visually
What are the five RRM Resource Blocks?
A) Policies, Procedures, and Flows—create predictability and consistency. Using these blocks is equivalent to making decisions ahead of time. In the absence of a policy, procedure, or flow, Crew Members must rely on Southwest Airlines operational priorities (i.e., safety, service, and efficiently on time) to determine the appropriate course of action. Policies are broad specifications about how Southwest Airlines management expects tasks to be performed to minimize risk. Procedures dictate the manner in which operational management intends to have various tasks performed. Pilots are expected to accurately follow the procedure methodology and sequence in an efficient manner and at the appropriate time. Flows are sequences for the accomplishment of a series of related tasks. Pilots are expected to consistently accomplish flows in a logical and timely manner. Any deviation from the documented flow sequence must not introduce unnecessary risk. B) Checklists—serve as a structured means of ensuring all critical items have been properly accomplished for a specific phase of flight or operating condition. Checklists reduce the reliance on memory. C) Automation— reduces task loading by distributing the workload and allowing Pilots to effectively manage and monitor the programmed or directed flight path. Automation must be set up in advance and used appropriately to reduce risk. Inappropriate use of automation can increase risk. D) Briefings and External Resources Briefings are verbal communications conducted between people who are working together on the same goals and in the same context. Effective briefings create a shared mental model and help to develop a plan. Briefings conducted in an organized, timely, and thoughtful manner can help reduce risk. External resources are people/groups who understand and have the same goals, but are working within a different context (e.g., ATC, Maintenance, Dispatch, Flight Service, ARINC, STAT MD). E) Knowledge, Skills, and Techniques Knowledge is readily recalled information that may be required or beneficial in the conduct of the flight. Skills are the physical capabilities of a Pilot to operate the aircraft within the parameters of the policies and procedures set forth by Southwest Airlines. Techniques are individual methods or behaviors. Techniques must be compatible with established policies and procedures, and are only effective if they do not interfere with the expectations of the other Pilot.
Is there anything we can do about bird strikes?
AOM 5.14.1 contains preventative strategies and actions to take for a bird strike; however, there are additional steps Pilots can take to mitigate the effects on the operation. The most important step is to conduct a thorough exterior postflight inspection when terminating the aircraft and after any suspected bird strike
Aside from being cleared for and on the final approach segment, for each MCP vertical mode, when should you set the the MCP to zero?
APP Mode: ● VOR/LOC captured ● GS captured VNAV Mode: ● Final segment roll mode is verified in the FMA (i.e., LNAV, VOR/LOC, HDG [LOC BC only]) ● Prior to GP intercept ● VNAV PTH verified in the FMA V/S Mode: ● At the FAF altitude, if there are no restrictions inside the FAF; after compliance with stepdown restrictions inside of the FAF is ensured
What five different warning flags may be displayed on the attitude indicator?
ATT The attitude display has failed. FD The flight director has failed. RA The radio altitude display has failed. PITCH The Captain and First Officer's pitch angle displays differ by more than 5°. ROLL The Captain and First Officer's roll displays differ by more than 5°.
What are three concerns with takeoffs from Contaminated Runways?
Acceleration Degraded Use maximum takeoff thrust when the runway is contaminated with clutter. During takeoff in slush, a slush and water bow wave forms in front of the landing gear wheels, growing in size with increasing speed. The acceleration rate during the low speed portion of the takeoff roll will be close to normal but may deteriorate during the high speed takeoff roll. The lower fuselage, retractable landing lights (as installed), and wing area can be damaged by the slush thrown up from the landing gear tires. Rejected Takeoff If rejecting a takeoff on a slippery runway, the rudder should be used as the primary source of directional control down to 60 kt. WARNING: Stopping the aircraft must always be the first priority when rejecting a takeoff on contaminated runways. Maintain reverse thrust as necessary to ensure a safe stop. Frozen Doors and Leading Edge Devices Takeoffs in slush or wet snow can cause freezing of nose gear doors and main gear seals and mechanisms. This does not cause a problem unless a hydraulic failure occurs. A free fall might not be possible if the main landing gear unlocks and associated components are frozen. To prevent this, extend and retract the landing gear once after a stable climb has been established. Slush and/or water can accumulate in the leading edge flaps and freeze during the climb. After the flaps are up, wing anti-ice should be turned on to melt any accumulation of slush on the leading edge of the wing.
What must you ensure before you leave leave an aircraft on Gate Services without turning it over to another pilot?
Accomplish the Parking checklist and complete the following: IRSs ............................................. OFF Emergency Exit Lights .............. ARMED Flight Attendant/Ops Agent ...... Notify Notify the "A" Flight Attendant and Operations Agent to inform them that both Pilots are leaving the aircraft and all criteria is met. Discuss potential contingencies and ensure that Cabin Crew and Passenger needs are met. Note: If an extended delay is expected, coordinate with the Operations Agent and consider deplaning through Passengers. If deplaning, perform the Terminating checklist. Note: APU usage is not allowed for this procedure. For international flights, refer to IFOM 4.1.5 Aircraft Unattended with Power Applied.
Additional GPWS Cautions
Additional GPWS cautions include the following: • "DON'T SINK" • "SINK RATE" • "TOO LOW GEAR" • "TOO LOW FLAPS" • (1) "GLIDESLOPE" "Glideslope" may be inhibited for the following: • Localizer or back course approach • Circling from an ILS • Conditions requiring a deliberate approach below glideslope • Unreliable glideslope signal • "BANK ANGLE" • "AIRSPEED LOW" (as installed) For all, just correct whatever the alert is identifying.
The ALTN light is illuminated on the pressurization panel; what has happened?
Alternate pressurization controller is operating. System operation in the ALTN mode is identical to the AUTO mode. Failure of the ALTN light to illuminate indicates a dual channel failure of the automatic system and requires manual operation of cabin pressurization. This condition is indicated by AUTO FAIL, MASTER CAUTION, and AIR COND annunciator illumination.
What specifically do Cold Temperature Adjustment Tables adjust?
Altitudes on certain approaches based on actual OAT and approach notes.
What is the only Cargo Bay Smoke & Fire Suppression limitation?
Aircraft must land within 60 minutes (8E 180 minutes) of initial discharge of the fire suppression system.
What restriction is placed on a "stiff leg" aircraft?
Aircraft will not be dispatched on revenue flights if the landing gear must remain down.
With no Operating Lavatories, what is the restriction?
Aircraft will not be dispatched on revenue flights.
Thunderstorms
Airmass Thunderstorms Airmass thunderstorms develop from localized heating of the earth's surface and are randomly distributed. The heated air rises and cools to form cumulus clouds. As the cumulus stage continues to develop, precipitation forms in the tops of the clouds and begins to fall. This precipitation signals the beginning of the "mature stage" and the presence of downdrafts. After approximately one hour, the heated air that created the thunderstorm is cooled by the rainfall. When the heat is removed, the thunderstorm dissipates. Many dissipating thunderstorms produce an associated cold air gust front as a result of the out-rush of rain-cooled air. These gust fronts are usually very turbulent and can create a serious threat to aircraft during takeoff and landing. Frontal Thunderstorms Frontal thunderstorms form in squall lines, last several hours, can generate heavy rain and hail, and can produce strong gusty winds and tornadoes. They are usually associated with weather fronts, converging winds, and troughs aloft. This type of severe thunderstorm is characterized by large horizontal wind speed and direction changes at different altitudes in the thunderstorm. This causes the thunderstorm to become vertically tilted and allows precipitation to fall away from the heated updraft. This allows the storm to have a much longer development period. For additional information about thunderstorms, consult the Meteorology section of the Jeppesen Airway Manual.
MQTW calculations are based on what six inputs?
Airport Pressure Altitude Airport OAT Runway slope Airport winds and gust factor Max Manual braking immediately on touchdown Touchdown speed
In what two situations would an Engine Crossbleed Start be required?
An engine crossbleed start of the second engine may be required anytime an inoperative requires the Flight Deck Crew to: 1 - start one engine at the gate or 2 - shut down an engine on the taxiway.
What effect may an overall increase in Takeoff Weight have on your flight?
An increase in Bleeds Off takeoffs PWB fuel burn off messages (refer to FRM GIP for more information)
What does an Airworthiness Release confirm?
An Airworthiness Release indicates all write-ups in the Aircraft Logbook and the SA-M 1073 MEL/CDL/MX Note Action Log prior to the date of the Airworthiness Release have been properly deferred or closed (Final Action [FACT]).
What does an Airworthiness Release sign off indicate?
An Airworthiness Release sign-off in the Aircraft Logbook is an indication that all the required equipment for carriage of Passengers under 14 CFR Part 91 is onboard.
Destination Alternates
An alternate airport is required if the destination airport's weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them indicate that for at least one hour before and one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination, either of the following weather conditions exist: ● The ceiling is less than 2,000 ft above the airport elevation. ● The visibility is less than 3 SM (4,800 m). When the weather conditions forecast for both the destination and the alternate airport are less than 600-ft ceiling and less than 2 miles visibility (defined as "marginal" weather), at least one additional alternate must be designated. No person may allow a flight to continue to an airport to which it has been dispatched or released unless the weather conditions at an alternate airport that was specified in the Dispatch Release are forecast to be at or above the alternate minimums specified in the OpSpecs for that airport at the time the aircraft would arrive at the alternate airport, in accordance with 14 CFR Part 121.631(b). However, the Dispatch Release may be amended en route to include any alternate airport that is within the fuel range of the aircraft as specified in 14 CFR Parts 121.639 through 121.647. Refer to 17.6 Fuel in this chapter for additional information. When a flight is released without an alternate airport and, once airborne, the destination weather deteriorates to the point that an alternate airport would have been required on the original Dispatch Release, the flight may continue to the destination provided the Captain and Dispatcher develop a safe contingency plan to be implemented in the event the aircraft is unable to land at the intended destination. The Dispatcher must continuously monitor the destination weather reports for observable trends and notify the Flight Deck Crew as necessary.
What parameters define an Upset Recovery?
An upset can generally be defined as unintentionally exceeding the following conditions: • Pitch attitude > than 25° nose up • Pitch attitude < than 10° nose down • Bank angle > than 45° • Within above parameters but flying at airspeeds inappropriate for the conditions
Upset Recovery
An upset can generally be defined as unintentionally exceeding the following conditions: • Pitch attitude greater than 25° nose up • Pitch attitude greater than 10° nose down • Bank angle greater than 45° • Within above parameters but flying at airspeeds inappropriate for the conditions The following techniques represent a logical progression for recovering the aircraft. The sequence of actions is for guidance only and represents a series of options to be considered and used depending on the situation. Not all actions may be necessary once recovery is under way. If needed, use pitch trim sparingly. Careful use of rudder to aid roll control should be considered only if roll control is ineffective and the aircraft is not stalled. These techniques assume that the aircraft is not stalled. A stalled condition can exist at any attitude and can be recognized by one or more of the following: • Stick shaker • Buffet that can be heavy at times • Lack of pitch authority • Lack of roll control • Inability to stop a descent If the aircraft is stalled, recovery from the stall must be accomplished first by applying and maintaining nose down elevator until stall recovery is complete and stick shaker activation ceases. High Nose Recovery PF • Recognize and confirm the situation. • Disengage autopilot (if engaged). • Disengage autothrottle (if engaged). • Apply as much as full nose-down elevator. • (1) Apply appropriate nose down stabilizer trim. • Reduce thrust. • (1) Roll (adjust bank angle) to obtain a nose down pitch rate. • Complete the recovery: • When approaching the horizon, roll to wings level. • Check airspeed and adjust thrust. • Establish pitch attitude for desired flight conditions. PM • Recognize and confirm the situation. • Call out attitude, airspeed and altitude throughout the recovery. • Verify all required actions have been completed and call out any omissions. Nose Low Recovery PF • Recognize and confirm the situation. • Disengage autopilot (if engaged). • Disengage autothrottle (if engaged). • Recover from stall, if required. • (1) Roll in shortest direction to wings level (unload and roll if bank angle is more than 90°). • Recover to level flight: • Apply nose up elevator. • (1) Apply nose up trim, if required. • Adjust thrust and drag as required.
What if hail or ice pellets are mixed with other precipitation?
Anytime ice pellets or small hail is included as a weather phenomenon, the Crew must reference the Ice Pellet and Small Hail Allowance Time Table. Since this table is a requirement to reference with Ice Pellets, any precipitation combination not included on the table won't allow a takeoff.
What Approach Category do SWA aircraft typically fall? What speeds are associated with this category?
Approach Category "C" minima (121 kt to 140 kt).
When is the Flight Deck Door System Test required?
Anytime a WN-966 Aircraft Security Checklist is completed or on the first flight of the day. FLIGHT DECK ACCESS SYSTEM Switch.................................. NORM Flight Deck Door ....................................................................................Open FLT DK DOOR Lock Selector.......................................... ...............AUTO Emergency Access Code...................................................................Enter ENT Key ........................................................................................................Press Verify alert sounds. Verify AUTO UNLK light illuminates. FLT DK DOOR Lock Selector.......................................... DENY Verify AUTO UNLK light extinguishes. FLT DK DOOR Lock Selector......................................... UNLKD FLIGHT DECK ACCESS SYSTEM Switch................................... OFF Verify LOCK FAIL light illuminates. FLIGHT DECK ACCESS SYSTEM Switch......................... NORM/Guarded Verify LOCK FAIL light extinguishes.
When is the Overwing Handle Cover required?
Any departure with passengers
What is the ABCD RRM Flow?
Assess—Maintain situational awareness. Continuously evaluate what is happening now to identify, process, and comprehend the critical elements of information and determine how it affects the future outcome. Balance—Make decisions based on policies, procedures, and the operational priorities (i.e., safety, service, and efficiently on time). This supports effective workload management and task redundancy. Communicate Risk and Intentions—Communicate effectively, timely, constructively, and appropriately, so that a shared mental model is established amongst Crew Members. Do and Debrief—Promote active involvement and constant self-evaluation. Crew Members should continuously work toward improving performance and reducing risk by debriefing and learning from the occurrences.
How long must you wait after the APU GEN OFF BUS light extinguishes prior to positioning the battery switch to OFF?
At least 2 minutes
When must the Captain land if the FO has less than 100 hours?
At special airports designated by the FAA or Southwest Airlines [see SIP]. Prevailing visibility is at or below ¾ mile. The RVR is at or below 4,000 ft. Water, snow, slush, or similar conditions that may affect aircraft performance. Braking action is less than GOOD. The crosswind component is greater than 15 kt. Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport. Any time the Captain deems it necessary to conduct the takeoff or landing.
Ice Crystals
At temperatures below freezing near convective weather, the aircraft can encounter visible moisture made up of high concentrations of small ice crystals. Ice crystals can accumulate aft of the engine fan in the engine core. When accumulated ice breaks off, one or more of the following can result: engine vibration, engine power loss, damage. Ice crystals can also accumulate in the fan hub. This can cause vibration indications above 4 units. Fan ice removal procedures have no effect on fan hub icing. When clear of clouds, fan hub ice sublimates and engine vibration decreases over time. Fan hub ice can remain into descent. These weather conditions are difficult to detect because ice crystals do not cause significant weather radar returns. They are often found in high concentrations above and near regions of heavy precipitation. Ice crystals do not stick to cold aircraft surfaces. Recognizing Ice Crystal Icing Weather Ice crystals are most frequently found in areas of visible moisture and above altitudes normally associated with icing conditions. One or more of the following can indicate the presence of ice crystals: ● Appearance of rain on the windshield at temperatures too cold for liquid water to exist, due to ice crystals melting on the heated windows. The sound will be different than that of rain (more like sleet). ● Static discharge around the windshield (e.g., St. Elmo's Fire). ● Areas of light to moderate turbulence. ● In IMC with: - No significant radar returns at aircraft altitude. - Heavy precipitation below the aircraft, identified by amber and red radar returns on the weather radar. ● Cloud tops above typical cruise levels (e.g., above the tropopause). ● An erroneous TAT lasting from one minute to more than 20 minutes. This can occur as a result of ice crystals blocking the sensor. Note: There is no significant airframe icing. Ice crystals do not adhere to cold airframe surfaces. However, the crystals can partially melt and stick to relatively warm engine surfaces. Ice Crystal Icing Avoidance During flight in IMC, avoid flying directly over significant amber or red radar returns, even if there are no returns at aircraft altitude. Use the weather radar controls to assess weather radar reflectivity below the aircraft flight path. Refer to the weather radar operating instructions for additional information. Suspected Ice Crystal Icing If conditions allow, exit the ice crystal icing conditions laterally. Climbing or descending to exit ice crystal icing conditions is not recommended. Request a route change to minimize the time above red and amber radar returns. Accomplish the Ice Crystal Icing checklist in QRH NNC 3 Anti-Ice, Rain.
Which MEL prevents Autobrakes from being used?
Autobrakes are not allowed with anti-skid inoperative.
When must Autobrakes be used?
Autobrakes, if operable, must be used for landing in any of the following situations: ● On any runway that is reported 5-GOOD or less. ● If the reported visibility is less than 4000 RVR or ¾ mile. ● If landing with less than flaps 30 (e.g., single-engine landing or abnormal configuration). ● Anytime uniform brake application due to rudder input may be affected (eg. gusty crosswinds). Remember 5-4-3-rudder ! BTW.... Autobrake level 1 is not authorized (just saying).
How do you avoid FMC Lockup and what should you do if you encounter FMC Lockup on the ground?
Avoiding flight plan manipulation until IRS alignment is complete normally prevents the lockup from occurring. During alignment of the IRSs, and before the initial alignment can be completed, present position must be entered on the SET IRS POS line. Occasionally, an FMC may lock up while the aircraft is on the ground. A lockup condition can be identified by observing any of the following: ● The CDU will not respond to keypad entries. ● The CDU page displayed at the time of the lockup remains displayed. ● No FMC or CDU FAIL indications are present. Should a lockup occur, operation can normally be restored by pulling the "FMCS CMPTR" circuit breaker (P18-2 panel behind the Captain) for 15 seconds, then resetting the circuit breaker.
If a CAT II ILS states "RA NOT AUTH", how do you determine the DA?
Both the barometric altimeter and an operable inner marker is required to use the 100-ft DA. The DA is determined by whichever is reached first.
How do you respond to a Predictive Windshear (PWS) Warning on takeoff?
Before starting the takeoff roll ——> Delay the takeoff. After starting the takeoff roll: Reject the takeoff if it can be done safely, or Continue the takeoff using the precautionary takeoff profile. Be prepared to execute a windshear recovery.
What must be done any time the Min(2) stopping margin is negative (dashes)?
Begin manual braking immediately after nose wheel touchdown.
When is an HGS Takeoff required? Is there an associated wind limitation?
Below 500 RVR, an HGS takeoff is required. Do not exceed a 10-kt crosswind component.
What effect will weights approaching MZFW have on your flight?
Blocked seats (resulting in last minute over-sell issues) Freight being left behind to accommodate Customers Standby Passengers being cleared later than normal to ensure weight is available to carry them
What effect will weights approaching ATOG have on your flight?
Blocked seats when an alternate is required or other additional fuel is required (resulting in last-minute over-sell issues) Fewer Online Alternate opportunities (more offline alternates) Reduced holding times Reduced DISP ADD flexibility Accidentally Exceeding ATOG if the Captain requests additional fuel without close coordination with the flight's Dispatcher and the Ops Agent. Longer stage length flights departing from airports that are takeoff performance limited due to runway length (MDW, BUR, and SNA) may result in a fuel stop scenario. Standby Passengers being cleared later than normal to ensure weight is available to carry them.
What must occur before the aircraft is towed forward?
Both engines will be shut down and hydraulic system A depressurized.
If a CAT II ILS chart does not say "tailored for Southwest Airlines", when may you use it?
CAT II procedures and minimums are authorized for Southwest Airlines Crews even if a chart is not tailored for Southwest Airlines. But as a minimum, the Jeppesen approach chart must have a decision altitude (DA) listed. Charts that only list an alert height (AH) are not acceptable.
Fan Ice Removal
CAUTION: Avoid prolonged operation in moderate to severe icing conditions. Prolonged operation in moderate to severe icing conditions can lead to fan blade/spinner icing and engine vibration. Severe icing can usually be avoided by a change in altitude and/or airspeed. If flight in moderate to severe icing conditions cannot be avoided, do the following on both engines, one engine at a time: Note: Engine vibration can reduce to a low level before 80% N1 is reached; however, thrust increase must continue to a minimum of 80% N1 to remove ice from the fan blades. Note: Engine vibration can indicate full scale before shedding ice; however, this has no adverse effect on the engine. ENGINE START switches (both) ......................................... FLT Autothrottle (if engaged) ...................................... Disengage Thrust ......................................................... Increase Increase thrust to a minimum of 80% N1 for approximately 1 second to ensure the fan blades and spinner are clear of ice. Thrust ............................ Reduce as needed for flight conditions Wait 15 seconds. This allows engine vibration level to stabilize. If engine vibration is less than 4.0 units after thrust is reduced, repeat the above steps at approximately 15-minute intervals or sooner, as needed. Autothrottle (as applicable) ...................................... Engage If engine vibration is 4.0 units or greater after thrust is reduced, do the Engine High Vibration checklist in QRH NNC 7 Engines, APU.
What External Lighting Policy involves runway clutter?
CAUTION: For takeoff and landing, do not extend the retractable landing lights (as installed) when the runway is contaminated with clutter. Retractable landing lights can be damaged by slush thrown off the nose landing gear tires.
What are the three basic Briefings?
CREW BRIEF Crew verification Flight Segments Weather/turbulence Delays Maintenance Issues Security considerations International considerations CAPT BRIEF Assign PF/PM Station Information Page Alternates Special airports MEL items NOTAMs Adverse weather Taxi routing/hotspots/SMGCS Movement Guidance and Control Runway conditions Rejected takeoff considerations PILOT FLYING ClearancE MCP and VHF NAV radio FMC route Automation and navigation HGS takeoff Minimum climb gradient? Engine failure procedure Transition altitude (if not 18,000 ft)
What must you do if the APU fails to start after the third attempt?
CallDispatch and Maintenance. Do not attempt a fourth start.
What is the maximum brake temperature for ground turnaround with carbon brakes?
Carbon brakes are limited to a fixed time of 48 minutes for ground turnaround if the maximum quick turnaround weight is exceeded. The option of reducing the turn time based on a brake temperature measurement is not applicable. Note: This limitation only applies to landing and not to rejected takeoffs.
What are the four GPWS Cautions and what do they require?
Cautions "TERRAIN" "TOO LOW TERRAIN" "CAUTION" "CAUTION OBSTACLE" Correct the flight path and prepare to accomplish the Terrain Avoidance Maneuver. If on approach, initiate a go-around for any of the following: • Night • IMC • Unable to acquire terrain visually.
What are the lighting waivers associated with a Special Authorization CAT I ILS (SA CAT I)?
Centerline CL Touchdown Zone TDZ and/or ALSFF-2 These approaches are identified by an additional chart note that states: "Requires specific OP-SPEC, MSPEC, or LOA approval and use of HUD to DA(H)." An approach lighting system is still required.
What Runway End Lighting warns that you are running out of runway?
Centerline lights alternate red and white starting at 3,000 ft remaining and illuminate all red at 1,000 ft remaining. The runway edge lights for all runways illuminate amber starting a 2,000 ft remaining.
Checklist Titles
Checklist titles in upper case (such as AUTO BRAKE DISARM) are annunciated by a light, alert, or other indication. Checklist titles in upper and lower case (such as Window Damage) are not annunciated. In the Table of Contents of each chapter (0-15), checklist titles in bold (such as APU Fire) indicate non-normal checklists that contain immediate action items .
What three things should you consider if you suspect a tire failure on takeoff?
Consider keeping the landing gear down until wheel rotation stops before raising. The Air Traffic Control facility serving the departing airport should be advised of the potential for tire pieces remaining on the runway. Pilots should consider continuing to the destination unless there is an indication that other damage has occurred (e.g., non-normal engine indications, engine vibrations, hydraulic system failures and leaks). Continuing to the destination allows the aircraft weight to be reduced normally, and provides the Pilots an opportunity to plan and coordinate their arrival and landing when the workload is low.
How do you respond to a Predictive Windshear (PWS) Caution on takeoff?
Continue the takeoff using the precautionary takeoff profile. Be prepared to execute the windshear recovery procedure.
What four things should be done following a laser illumination?
Crews must immediately report unauthorized laser illumination to ATC and contact the flight's Dispatcher. The Crew should file an Irregularity Report (IR) as soon as practical but no later than 24 hours following the pairing in which the event occurred. Crews are encouraged to file an optional FAA laser strike questionnaire to provide critical information for law enforcement to identify and apprehend responsible parties. Additionally, Crews are encouraged to file an ASAP report. The data we receive from Crews reporting these occurrences through ASAP is much more comprehensive and allows us to brief airports and ATC facilities that are experiencing higher rates of laser strikes.
When should Center Tank pump switches be turned off?
Corresponding center tank fuel pump switch must be positioned to OFF when a center tank LOW PRESSURE light illuminates. Note: When on the ground, if center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE light illuminates with usable fuel greater than 1,000 lb in the center tank, refer to 16.12.5 Center Tank Fuel Pump LOW PRESSURE Light Illuminated on Ground. Note: When established in level flight attitude, both center tank pump switches should be positioned ON again if the center tank contains usable fuel. Note: If the center tank is empty, both center tank fuel pump switches must be positioned OFF when the first center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE light illuminates.
What two two terminology changes are there with the new logbook format?
Defects are now called Faults so only some terminology has changed. 1) Defect Number changes to Logbook Reference Number 2) MDDR/Tracking Number changes to MDDR/Authorization Number
What should you do if a discontinuity on a route review that is caused by high winds on a heading to intercept during departure?
Delete the top-of-climb wind, and then re-select the procedure, including the runway and transition. After departure, enter the top-of-climb wind after passing the discontinuity point.
What is the Windshear Escape Maneuver for the pilot flying?
Disengage autopilot (if engaged). Disengage autothrottle (if engaged). Press either TO/GA switch. Aggressively apply emergency thrust. Simultaneously roll wings level and krotate to an initial pitch of 15°. Retract speedbrakes (if extended). Follow flight director TO/GA guidance (if available) Do not change flap or gear configuration until windshear is no longer a factor. Do not exceed the Pitch Limit Indication. Do not attempt to regain lost airspeed until windshear is no longer a factor. WARNING: Severe windshear can exceed the performance of the AFDS. Note: Aft control column force increases as the airspeed decreases. In all cases, the pitch attitude that results in intermittent stick shaker or initial buffet is the upper pitch attitude limit. Flight at intermittent stick shaker may be needed to obtain a positive terrain separation. Use smooth, steady controls to avoid a pitch attitude overshoot and stall.
What are the four Autothrottle Limits?
Disengage the autothrottle in severe turbulence. Minimum altitude for autothrottle disengagement during approach is 50 ft below DA/DDA, but no less than 50 ft AGL. During cruise, descent, or approach, autothrottle use is allowed only when the autopilot is engaged in the command (CMD) mode. Momentary use of CWS pitch is allowed with the autothrottle engaged.
What seven items must the Dispatch Release include? Must it be printed?
Dispatch Release may be in any form (i.e., print, electronic, or handwritten) and contains the following information concerning each flight: ● Identification number of the aircraft ● Flight number ● Departure airport, destination airports, and alternate airports ● A statement of the type of operation (e.g., IFR) ● Minimum fuel required ● Maximum allowable takeoff gross weight (not required by CFR) ● Dispatcher's name and date The Dispatch Release must contain, or have attached to it, weather reports, available weather forecasts, or a combination thereof for the destination airport and alternate airports that are the latest available at the time the Dispatch Release is signed by the Captain and Dispatcher. The Dispatch Release may include any additional available reports that the Captain or Dispatcher consider necessary or desirable.
Stall Recovery
Do all recoveries from approach to stall as if an actual stall has occurred. The recovery is initiated at the first indication of a stall, buffet or stick shaker. Note: Do not use flight director commands during the recovery. If a Stall Indication Occurs PF • Hold the control column firmly. • Disengage autopilot (if engaged). • Disengage autothrottle (if engaged). • (1) Smoothly apply nose down elevator to reduce the angle of attack until buffet or stick shaker stops. Nose down stabilizer trim may be needed. • (2) Roll wings level. • Advance thrust levers as needed (up to and including emergency thrust, if required). • Retract speedbrakes (if extended). • Do not change flaps or landing gear configuration, except during liftoff, if flaps are up, call for flaps 1. • Return to the desired flight path. • Reengage autopilot and autothrottle, if desired. PM • Monitor altitude and airspeed. • Ensure recovery controls are applied. • Call out any trend toward terrain contact. • Set the flap lever as directed. WARNING: (1) If the control column does not provide the needed response, stabilizer trim may be necessary. Excessive use of pitch trim can aggravate the condition, result in loss of control, or result in high structural loads. WARNING: (2) Excessive use of pitch trim or rudder can aggravate the condition, result in loss of control, or result in high structural loads.
Which brake limitation is the most obvious?
Do not apply brakes until after touchdown.
Flap Limits (6)
Do not extend flaps above 20,000 ft pressure altitude. In flight, do not extend the speedbrake lever beyond the FLIGHT DETENT. Do not use speedbrakes in flight below 1,000 ft AGL. In flight, do not use speedbrakes with greater than flaps 10. Do not operate the aircraft at speeds in excess of 320 kt at weights over 143,000 lb if the speedbrake wing load alleviation system is inoperative. Flaps Placard Limit Speed (IAS) Flaps (700 / 800) 1 250 250 2 250 250 5 250 250 10 210 210 15 195 200 25 170 190 30 165 175 40 156 162 ALT FLAP EXTEND. 230 230
When must the Escape Slides be armed?
During taxi/takeoff/landing on revenue flights, all escape slide retention bars (girt bars) must be armed.
What are the three categories of Engine Failure Procedure (EFPs)?
EFPs are categorized as Standard, Simple-Special, or Complex-Special. Standard-If navaid is listed, hold on the inbound radial using a direct entry and standard holding procedures. If heading is listed, fly heading until a minimum safe altitude is attained. This path is an extension of the Captain's emergency authority and must be stated as such to ATC as soon as practical. Simple-Special EFPs are listed on the TLR after the ACARS RUNWAYS section, ACARS TAKEOFF DATA pages, and Jeppesen -7 pages. Simple-Special EFPs differ from standard procedures in that a turn to a navaid or heading is required before reaching 1,000 ft. If radar vectors are not available in IMC, comply with the special procedure until 3,000 ft AAE and then proceed on course (as applicable). Complex-Special EFPs are listed on the Jeppesen -7 pages. Complex-Special EFPs are mandatory under IMC and VMC.
What are the three types of ETOPS Maintenance Review flights?
ETOPS Verification Flights (EVF) Prior to ETOPS Entry Point (PEEP)* ETOPS Significant System Operational Review (SSOR) * must be performed by ETOPS crew an require coordination with Dispatch prior to ETOPS Entry Point. All require release remarks and post flight logbook entry.
What operational requirements are associated with using VNAV for a ground based non-precision approach?
Either Pilot may fly the approach and land. Approaches must be flown to DDA minima. If using LNAV, all underlying navaids must be operational, and no restricting facility or procedural NOTAMs may exist. If using LNAV, underlying navaid raw data must be monitored. Verify LNAV, VOR/LOC, or HDG (LOC BC only) when cleared for the approach and established on an intercept heading or on a published segment of the approach. If using VOR LOC mode, call, "VOR LOC capture and VNAV PTH" no later than the FAF. If using VNAV, set NAV radios and course selectors and verify the FMC missed approach point altitude. If FMC missed approach point altitude is higher than DDA, fly approach using V/S mode. For LOC BC approaches, set the front course. For ground-based non-precision approach using VNAV, select/ WARNING: When using LNAV to intercept the localizer (VOR/LOC armed), LNAV might parallel the localizer without capturing it. The aircraft may then descend on the VNAV path without the localizer captured. Additional Missed Approach Considerations If a single failure of an autopilot, flight director, ADIRU, IRS, or PFD/ND display occurs between the FAF and the MAP, execute a go around/missed approach unless a safer course of action can be taken (e.g., in visual conditions from the point of failure to the landing). FMC Operational Requirements Load and fly approach from the FMC database. Do not add, remove, or modify waypoints or altitudes from the FAF to the missed approach point unless required for cold temperature altitude corrections. Other waypoints between the IAF and missed approach holding point may be modified only when necessary to comply with an ATC clearance. Verify a coded GP is displayed on the final approach segment of the LEGS page. Verify the missed approach point in the FMC is at or prior to the approach end of the runway (i.e., RWxx, MXxx, coded missed approach point). When the glideslope is out of service for an ILS approach and there is a published stepdown fix between the FAF and the missed approach point, load the LOC (only) approach in the FMC. The GP displayed ensures that the VNAV path complies with the stepdown fix minimum altitude. Note: Do not use VOR LOC or APP guidance modes when flying a LOC (BACK CRS) course approach because the flight director provides inaccurate and contradictory course guidance. Use LNAV or HDG SEL for these approaches.
What steps must the Flight Deck Crew follow when performing a crossbleed start?
Ensure that the area behind the aircraft is safe to accomplish the crossbleed start. Parking Brake ................................. Set Engine Bleed Air Switches ............. ON APU Bleed Air Switch .................... OFF Air Conditioning Packs ................ OFF Isolation Valve............................. AUTO Op Engine Thrust Lever...Advance Advance thrust lever to obtain 30 psi minimum. Non-Operating Engine ................. Start Use normal start procedures. After starter cutout, reduce thrust to idle.
Which departure climb gradients must you enter into PWB?
Enter the published climb gradient/altitude, if it continues above 1,000 ft AAE. No entry is required if there is climb gradient ending prior to 1,000 ft AAE.
8 Logbook Phases of Flight
GATE TAXI TAKEOFF CLIMB CRUISE DESCENT APPROACH LANDING taxi gate
When must you evaluate Quick Turnaround Weight?
Evaluate maximum quick turnaround weight for all: 1) flap 15 landings, 2) tailwind landings, and 3) high elevation airports. If the actual landing weight exceeds the maximum quick turnaround weight, then the aircraft must wait a minimum of 48 minutes at the gate (or parking area) with the parking brake released. CAUTION: The minimum wait time for aircraft equipped with carbon brakes, that have exceeded the maximum quick turnaround weight, is 48 minutes. Unlike conventional brakes, the temperatures cannot be measured to reduce the wait time.
Two-tone siren followed by WINDSHEAR-WINDSHEAR-WINDSHEAR. Red WINDSHEAR on both attitude indicators.
Excessive windshear at the current aircraft position detected by GPWS. Enabled below 1,500 ft RA. GPWS windshear detection begins at rotation.
Exemption 15466
Exemption 15466 (as amended) provides relief from the requirements of 14 CFR Part 121.619 by applying one of the following rules and associated limitations. Note: Exemption 15466 (as amended) may be applied to destinations within the 48 contiguous United States only, including returning international flights dispatched under OpSpec A012. Note: Exemption 3585 (as amended) may not be used in conjunction with Exemption 15466. Note: Operations under this exemption are permitted by Dispatchers and PICs, but are not required. While operating under Exemption 15466, the following additional Pilot reports to Dispatch (via ACARS or radio) are required for either the 1-1-2 Rule or 1-1-3 Rule: ● Lateral deviations from the planned route by greater than 100 NM ● Vertical deviations from the planned altitude by greater than 4,000 ft ● ETA will exceed planned by greater than 15 minutes ● Fuel consumption in excess of planned that may have a negative effect on trip fuel requirements ● Fuel system component failure or apparent malfunction that may have a negative effect on trip fuel requirements ● The flight encounters weather significantly different than forecast, including turbulence ● The flight is assigned en route or arrival holding ● Unplanned or sustained use of deicing or anti-icing systems causing an increase in fuel consumption over planned 1-1-2 Rule An alternate airport is required if the destination airport's weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them indicate that for at least one hour before and one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination, either of the following weather conditions exist: ● The ceiling is less than 1,000 ft above the airport elevation. ● The visibility is less than 2 SM (3,200 m). The following are limitations for the 1-1-2 Rule: ● Use of this exemption is prohibited if thunderstorms (TS) are forecasted or reported for at least one hour before and one hour after the estimated time of arrival, to include when listed in PROB or TEMPO conditional portions of the forecast. ● The destination airport must have a suitable CAT II or CAT III approach that is available for use. ● The aircraft must be CAT II or CAT III capable. ● ACARS must be functional. ● The Flight Deck Crew must be current and qualified to conduct CAT II and CAT III approaches. ● The Dispatch Release must contain the remark, "Dispatched under Exemption 15466 1-1-2 Rule." 1-1-3 Rule An alternate airport is required if the destination airport's weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them indicate that for at least one hour before and one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination, either of the following weather conditions exist: ● The ceiling is less than 1,000 ft above the airport elevation. ● The visibility is less than 3 SM (4,800 m). The following are limitations for the 1-1-3 Rule: ● Use of this exemption is prohibited if thunderstorms (TS) are forecasted or reported for at least one hour before and one hour after the estimated time of arrival, to include when listed in PROB or TEMPO conditional portions of the forecast. ● The destination airport must have at least one operational CAT I ILS approach that is available for use. ● The aircraft must be CAT I ILS capable. ● ACARS must be functional. ● The Flight Deck Crew must be qualified to conduct CAT I approaches. Note: Exemption 15466 may be used in conjunction with Exemption 5549. ● The Dispatch Release must contain the remark, "Dispatched under Exemption 15466 1-1-3 Rule."
Exemption 3585
Exemption 3585 (as amended) permits Southwest Airlines to dispatch an aircraft to a destination airport and list an alternate for that destination airport, when the TAF for either or both of those airports indicates, by the use of conditional words such as "BECMG," "PROB," or "TEMPO" in the TAF, that the weather could be below authorized landing minimums at the time of arrival, provided that the information contained in the "main body" of the TAF indicates that the weather for those airports will be at or above authorized landing minimums at the time of arrival. To use this exemption, all of the following conditions must apply: ● A second alternate airport must be listed in the Dispatch Release when weather conditions at the destination or first alternate airport are forecast, by use of conditional language in the Remarks section of the TAF, to be less than authorized weather minimums for those airports. ● With respect to the destination airport. The forecast weather conditions, in the Remarks section of the TAF, must not be less than one-half of the lowest weather minimum visibility value established for the instrument approach procedure expected to be used. ● With respect to the first alternate airport. The forecast weather conditions, in the Remarks section of the TAF, must not be less than one-half of the lowest alternate weather minimum ceiling and visibility values specified in the OpSpecs for that airport. ● With respect to the second alternate airport. The forecast weather conditions, in the main body and the Remarks section of the TAF, must be at or above the lowest alternate weather minimum ceiling and visibility values specified in the OpSpecs for that airport. ● Each "BECMG" change indicator in the TAF that is "deteriorating" must be considered valid at the first minute of the becoming period. Each "BECMG" change indicator in the TAF that is "improving" is not valid until the last minute of the becoming period. ● The aircraft has enough fuel to fly to the airport to which it is dispatched, thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport, taking into consideration the anticipated ATC routing, and thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. ● While en route, the Captain must ensure by way of air-to-ground communication with Dispatch, that they are receiving the most current weather reports for the destination and alternate airports. This current weather information must be used when making a decision to proceed to an alternate airport for landing. Note: Exemption 3585 applies to CAT I minimums only.
What are the Landing Gear airspeed limits?
Extension 270 kt/0.82 Mach Retraction 235 kt Extended 320 kt/0.82 Mach
For a visual approach, what four items must you brief?
Final approach course Navaid frequency on the charted approach Runway lighting Runway touchdown zone elevation (TDZE)
What are the speed limitations for each flap setting?
Flaps (700 / 800) 1 250 2 250 5 250 10 210 15 195 200 25 170 190 30 165 175 40 156 162 Alt Flap Ext 230 230
Which tripped circuit breakers must never be reset?
Flight Deck Crews must not reset tripped fuel quantity indicator, fuel pump, or fuel pump control circuit breakers.
GPWS Terrain/Obstacle CAUTIONS
GPWS terrain/obstacle cautions include the following: • "TERRAIN" • "TOO LOW TERRAIN" • "CAUTION TERRAIN" • "CAUTION OBSTACLE" For all GPWS terrain/obstacle cautions, accomplish the following: PF • Correct the flight path. • Be prepared to accomplish the Terrain Avoidance Maneuver. • If on approach, initiate a go-around for any of the following: • Night • IMC • Unable to acquire terrain visually.
Flight Deck Door Access System Test
Flight Deck Crews will complete the following procedure anytime they complete the WN-966 Aircraft Security Checklist or on the first flight of the day. FLIGHT DECK ACCESS SYSTEM Switch.................................. NORM Flight Deck Door .................................................. Open FLT DK DOOR Lock Selector.......................................... AUTO Emergency Access Code........................................... Enter ENT Key .......................................................... Press Verify alert sounds. Verify AUTO UNLK light illuminates. FLT DK DOOR Lock Selector.......................................... DENY Verify AUTO UNLK light extinguishes. FLT DK DOOR Lock Selector......................................... UNLKD FLIGHT DECK ACCESS SYSTEM Switch................................... OFF Verify LOCK FAIL light illuminates. FLIGHT DECK ACCESS SYSTEM Switch......................... NORM/Guarded Verify LOCK FAIL light extinguishes.
What are required for all approaches at or above ¾ SM (4000 RVR)?
Flight directors are required, if available. But Autopilot use is only recommended.
What are the Oil Quantity Limits?
Flights < 2 hours —-> 60 % Flights >= 2 hours —-> 70 % Flights from a Maintenance base/station 70 % The Captain must arrange for engine oil servicing when terminating at a non-Maintenance base if < 65 % Note: With oil quantities of less that 65 percent, low quantity alerts may be experienced during initial takeoff and climb. The above oil quantities are based on flight deck oil quantity indicator readings within 30 minutes of engine shutdown.
What are Narrow Runways and what is their limitation?
For B737 aircraft, narrow runways are defined as runway widths less than 45 m down to and including 30 m. (147-98 feet) Landing on a narrow runway creates the illusion of being higher, resulting in a tendency to flare too late and causing a hard landing. Pilots must be aware of this illusion when approaching a narrow runway to prevent a hard landing. The steady crosswind limitation is reduced from 35 kt to 25 kt. Of course, unless further restricted by other conditions.
What are the three HGS modes and which is preferred in CAT I weather?
For an HGS approach, the Captain must hand-fly the approach using the HGS in the PRI, IMC, or AIII mode. Use of the PRI or IMC modes is encouraged for CAT I weather conditions, particularly in gusty wind conditions, to avoid illumination of the APCH WARN light.
If the autopilot (and not HGS) is used for ILS approaches below ¾ SM or 4000 RVR, until what three points must it be coupled?
For an autopilot-coupled ILS approach, the PF must engage the autopilot coupler in APP mode and use it to 1) DA 2) Initiation of go-around/missed approach 3) Adequate runway visual references are established.
What are the Reverse Thrust detents and when are each utilized?
For normal landings, detent 2 is the minimum reverse thrust level to be used by the Pilot for landing and the reverse thrust level used by the PWB System in landing performance computations. Special situations require maximum reverse thrust levels to be used by the Pilot as follows (brake/remark/1 rev): • The use of maximum reverse thrust is required when 3-MED or less braking is reported. • When PWB landing data includes the remark THR REV MAX, the Pilot must use maximum reverse thrust during landing. • When only one thrust reverser is available for landing. WARNING: The Pilot must use reverse thrust on the operating engine/reverser during landing at a level commensurate with directional control.
For which approaches are DDAs used?
For the following non-circle-to-land approaches with MDA minima: A) Non-precision approaches based on ground-based navaids (e.g., LOC, VOR). B) RNAV (GPS) approaches to LNAV-only MDA minima.
Dispatch Use of NGRVR
For the purpose of Dispatch Release only, flights may be dispatched to any regular SWA airport using Next Generation Runway Visual Range (NGRVR) provided the following: ● en route time of 60 minutes or less. ● The airport is served by an operating ATC tower. ● The runway of intended use is suitable. ● The runway of intended use is served by an approved instrument approach, and the approach minimums contained in that approach are controlled by RVR. ● The minimum required RVR sensors are operational and reporting. ● The intended instrument approach is operational. ● The runway has the required minimum runway and approach lighting system. ● The weather will be at or above authorized landing minimums at the estimated time of arrival at the intended destination. Exemption 3585, if applicable, may be used. ● The RVR and observable trend data reported in NGRVR indicate that the reported RVR is at or above authorized minimums for the runway of intended use. ● At least two authorized alternates are listed in the Dispatch Release, and the forecasted weather at each listed alternate remains at or above prescribed alternate minimums when the aircraft will arrive at the respective alternate airport. ● The aircraft has enough fuel to fly to the airport to which it is dispatched, considering any holding fuel that may be required for any potential air traffic delays; to complete an instrument approach and missed approach; to fly to the most distant alternate; and thereafter to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. ● The Captain and Dispatcher both agree that a reasonable expectation exists that the weather at the estimated time of arrival will be at or above authorized minimums. ● The Dispatcher includes initials and the reported NGRVR time used to authorize the flight movement on the Dispatch copy of the Dispatch Release (e.g., NGRVR YIH 1755Z).
What fuel types are permitted?
Fuel Types JET A, A1, JP-5, JP-8, F-24 Use of Jet B or JP-4 is prohibited
How should the electrical panel be set up on preflight?
GALLEY Power (as installed)—ON CAB/UTIL (as installed)—ON IFE/PASS SEAT (as installed)—ON STANDBY POWER—AUTO/guarded Generator Drive DISCONNECT Switches—Guarded and safetied Bus Transfer Switch—AUTO/guarded
GPWS Terrain/Obstacle WARNINGS
GPWS terrain/obstacle warnings include the following: • "PULL UP" • "TERRAIN, TERRAIN PULL UP" • "OBSTACLE, OBSTACLE" PF • Disengage autopilot (if engaged). • Disengage autothrottle (if engaged). • Aggressively apply emergency thrust. • Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate to an initial pitch of 20°. • Retract speedbrakes (if extended). • If terrain contact is still a threat, continue rotation up to pitch limit indicator if installed or respect the stick-shaker or initial buffet. • When terrain contact is no longer a factor (monitor radio altimeter and/or EGPWS display for sustained or increasing terrain separation): • Gear and flap configuration may be changed. • Slowly decrease pitch attitude and accelerate. PM • Ensure emergency thrust. • Ensure recovery controls are applied. • Monitor vertical speed and altitude. • Call out any trend toward terrain contact. • Call out significant airspeed changes. Note: Do not use flight director commands. Note: Aft control column force will increase as the airspeed decreases. In all cases, the pitch attitude that results in intermittent stick shaker or initial buffet is the upper pitch limit. Flight at intermittent stick shaker may be required to obtain positive terrain separation. Smooth, steady control inputs will avoid a pitch attitude overshoot, which could result in a stall.
Lightning Strikes
Generally, lightning strikes result in very minor damage to the aircraft and associated components. The radome, forward fuselage, pitot heads, wing tips, stabilizers, and control surfaces are the principal areas affected by most lightning strikes. However, every lightning strike must be considered serious and the Flight Deck Crew is required to accomplish the following: ● Make an aircraft logbook entry and inspect the aircraft. ● If a radome strike occurs, fly at a reduced airspeed, particularly during descent, to prevent more serious damage or possible radome collapse, until the extent of the damage can be determined. ● Following any lightning strike, check communication and navigation equipment. The possibility always exists that they may have been damaged. ● Time and flight conditions permitting, make in-flight checks of all navigation and communication equipment on as many frequencies as practicable. ● Notify Dispatch if damage has occurred. ● Conduct a check of the magnetic and directional gyro compass systems to determine if either of them have been affected. The most convenient time to conduct this check is during the landing roll, by checking the compass readings against a known runway heading. If this check is satisfactory, a note to this effect should be entered in the aircraft logbook to assist Maintenance with the required conditional inspection and subsequent aircraft logbook lightning strike defect entry. If not satisfactory, the defect should be entered in the aircraft logbook as a separate entry. Note: After a lightning strike/static discharge event, note in the aircraft logbook any malfunctioning systems including fuel quantity, VHF COMM and NAV (VOR/ILS), weather radar, radio altimeter, DME, ATC, marker beacon, ACARS, intercom, air data (airspeed/altimeter), FMS, and TCAS. If all systems are operating normally, note in the aircraft logbook "ALL FLIGHT CONTROLS AND SYSTEMS OPERATING NORMALLY" to prevent unnecessary Maintenance checks on these systems.
What two warnings may appear on the HSI?
HDG The heading source has failed and the compass rose is removed. LOC and VOR The navigation data source has failed.
What are hazards with regards to our safety management system?
Hazards are anything that can cause injury or damage. Programs like the Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP), available to Pilots, and the Safety Reporting System (SRS), available to all Employees, allow for confidential reporting.
What are the eight Anti Ice and Rain Limits?
Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is prohibited. Do not operate wing anti-ice on the ground when the OAT is above 10°C (50°F). Do not use wing anti-ice as a substitute for ground deicing/anti-icing and inspection procedures which are necessary to comply with operating rules. Window heat inoperative maximum speed is 250 kt below 10,000 ft. Probe heat must be on for all phases of flight. Do not operate the weather radar during fueling, near fuel spills, or near people. The wing anti-ice switch will be turned OFF prior to beginning the takeoff roll. Wait one minute prior to turning engine and APU bleeds on after deicing
What are all employees responsible for regarding our safety management system or SMS?
Identifying and reporting hazards, which guide and inform our SMS. Knowing our Safety & Security Commitment which affirms how the Safety and Security of our Customers and Employees is the number one priority for all levels of management. Following documented procedures because they represent the level of risk Southwest is willing to accept.
Why must you wait until receiving an approach clearance prior to tying the approach to the arrival routing?
If a discontinuity is closed improperly, waypoint coding may be lost. RF and flyby vs. flyover waypoint coding are not user enterable. The RF coding is visible and verifiable on the FMC; however, the flyby vs. flyover coding is not. A discontinuity must only be manually closed when the new routing is part of an ATC clearance, i.e., do not close a discontinuity between a STAR that ends with a heading or lateral track with an approach transition until actually cleared for the approach. Additionally, if the discontinuity/heading occurs immediately after the active waypoint, shown in magenta as the first waypoint on the LEGS 1/X page, the discontinuity can only be closed by placing the corresponding approach transition waypoint immediately below the active waypoint, not on top of the active waypoint. If you attempt to overwrite the active waypoint with itself, the discontinuity will not be closed.
How do you respond to a Predictive Windshear (PWS) Caution on approach?
Initiate a normal go-around. Be prepared to execute the windshear recovery procedure.
How far from a STARs runway transition point will ATC be required to provide vectors if a runway has not been assigned?
If a runway assignment is not received prior to 10 NM from the runway transition waypoint, radar vectors to final must be provided by ATC.
When is an Engine Failure turn into more than that?
If an engine failure is accompanied by: 1) a fire warning, 2) N1 indicating zero, or 3) an abnormal engine vibration, accomplish the ENGINE FIRE or Engine Severe Damage or Separation.
What must you do if on preflight you discover both the active and inactive dates for the RNAV database have expired?
If both ACTIVE and inactive dates have expired: 1) Immediately notify Dispatch to change the aircraft navigation capability (navigation suffix) on all subsequent flight plans. 2) Make a defect entry in the Aircraft Logbook as directed in FOM 19.1.2 Reporting/Coordinating Maintenance Items.
What if there are two published climb gradients for a departure?
If on a SID (e.g., KRNO), request takeoff data for the first published climb gradient that is applicable to an altitude above 1,000 ft AAE. If not operating on a SID, enter the most restrictive published climb gradient associated with the specific runway, DVA, or Obstacle DP sections of the Jeppesen -9 page that is applicable to an altitude above 1,000 ft AAE.
How big must hail be reported to require a conditional inspection?
If reported greater than or equal to ¼ inch in diameter, a conditional inspection is required.
What speed should you maintain whenever you suspect possible structural damage to the aircraft?
If structural damage exists or is suspected, limit airspeed to current speed or less.
What are the procedures if Windshear is encountered during the takeoff roll after V1?
If takeoff is continued: 1) Disengage the autothrottle. 2) Press either TO/GA switch. 3) Aggressively apply emergency thrust. If windshear is encountered before V1, there may not be sufficient runway remaining to stop if an RTO is initiated at V1. At VR, but no later than 2,000 ft remaining: Rotate at normal rate toward 15°. When airborne, continue with Windshear Escape Maneuver. WARNING: Do not accelerate to the increased VR, if calculated. WARNING: Do not delay rotation past 2,000 ft of usable runway remaining, even if airspeed is low. If windshear is encountered near the normal rotation speed and airspeed suddenly decreases, there may not be sufficient runway left to accelerate back to normal takeoff speed. Higher than normal attitudes may be needed to lift off in the remaining runway.
After an aborted engine start, what three factors should the Captain evaluate?
If the EGT start limit was not exceeded, the Captain should evaluate relevant factors such as -tailwind conditions, -inadequate air source, -improper bleed, pack, or anti-ice configuration to determine if an additional start attempt is warranted.
When does a VERIFY POSITION message appear in the scratchpad perhaps indicating a possible typographical error?
If the last FMC position differs from the new IRS alignment position by more than 4 NM. Confirm and re-enter the new latitude/longitudecoordinates
When must you not use LNAV approaches?
If the message "UNABLE REQD NAV PERF-RNP" is active.
On a go around, when must full go-around thrust be used?
If the missed approach has a published missed approach climb gradient.
When must full go-around thrust be used on a missed approach?
If the missed approach has a published missed approach climb gradient.
What are MXxx Waypoints?
If the published missed approach point is prior to the runway threshold, an MXxx results. Note: In some cases, a coded waypoint is used as the missed approach point. VNAV approved MXxx points are located before the approach end of the runway. Just prior to crossing a MXxx point, the HUD FD guidance cue and PFD FD pitch bar command a level flight segment and a VNAV disconnect occurs at the MXxx point. The majority of MXxx points are after the DDA when on the visual segment. Disregard FD pitch guidance and maintain a stabilized approach during the visual segment. If desired, when on the visual segment, V/S mode may be selected just prior to reaching the MXxx. This prevents loss of reference guidance.
What could cause the STANDBY PWR OFF Light?
Illuminated (amber)—One or more of the following buses are unpowered: AC standby bus DC standby bus Battery bus
Immediate Action Items
Immediate Action items are time critical steps that must be committed to and accomplished from memory (per AFM or Southwest Airlines directive.) Immediate action items must be stated in the proper order, but need not be recited verbatim. Immediate action items are listed above a red separator symbol both in the QRH and on the Quick Reference Card (QRC). Non-normal checklists that contain immediate action items are: • Aborted Engine Start (SWA) • APU Fire (AFM) • CABIN ALTITUDE WARNING or Rapid Depressurization (AFM)
When are the APP WARN and HGS FAIL lights operative on a CAT III approach?
In AIII Mode and below 500 ft AGL.
What 3 things can an Engine Bleeds Off Takeoff accomplish?
Increase ATOG, Increase initial climb performance Improve runway-stopping margin with the APU operating. Right Pack Switch ................................................. AUTO Isolation Valve Switch............................................. CLOSE Left Pack Switch.............................................. AUTO/HIGH Left Engine Bleed Air Switch ........................................ OFF APU Bleed Air Switch ................................................ ON Right Engine Bleed Air Switch ....................................... OFF The right bleed switch may be left ON prior to completing the Before Takeoff checklist to allow better cabin air conditioning.
How do you respond to a Predictive Windshear (PWS) Warning on approach?
Initiate a normal go-around. Be prepared to execute a windshear recovery.
The following limitation items do not require memorization:
Items that are placarded in the aircraft. Instruments markings. However, if there are instrument markings for which there are time limitations that are not placarded, then the associated time limitation must be known. Values readily available onboard the aircraft, such as the Dispatch Release. An example of this would be aircraft structural weight limitations provided in the Dispatch Release. Values that are only available from the B737 AOM are not considered to be "readily available" unless they are pre-departure or post flight items, such as environmental envelope for takeoff and landing.
Conditions When the Captain Must Land
L An engine is shut down. L Required by New Pilot landing restrictions.
What is Landing Distance Available (LDA)?
Landing Distance Available (LDA) is the runway length declared available and suitable for a landing airplane. If necessary to satisfy runway design standards (e.g., where the airport operator uses a portion of the runway to achieve the Runway Safety Area requirement), the LDA may be shorter than the physical length of the runway or the length of the runway remaining beyond a displaced threshold. The LDA is used when showing compliance with the landing performance calculations (e.g., AeroData calculations). However, during the actual landing operation, it is permissible for the airplane to roll beyond the unmarked end of the LDA. An aircraft is not prohibited from operating beyond a declared distance limit during the takeoff, landing, or taxi operation, provided the runway surface is appropriately marked as usable runway. An example of a runway where the LDA is shorter than the runway length due to runway safety design standards is DAL 31R. Runway 31R useable length is 7,752 ft; however, the LDA is 6,952 ft due to the proximity of Bachman Lake to the end of the runway.
When must you land at the nearest suitable airport (8 items)?
Landing at the nearest suitable airport is required when directed by a QRH checklist. In addition, landing at the nearest suitable airport must be accomplished when there is: • Engine failure Note: Subsequently restarting the engine does not relieve this requirement for landing at the nearest suitable airport. • Engine fire • APU fire • Wheel well fire • Cabin smoke/fire that persists • One main AC power source remaining (i.e., engine or APU) • One hydraulic system remaining (the standby system is considered a hydraulic system) • Any other situation the Captain determines may adversely affect safety if the flight is continued It must be stressed that for smoke that continues or a fire that cannot be positively confirmed to be completely extinguished, the earliest possible descent, landing, and evacuation must be done. The following terms are defined for clarity to support the Captain's decision making: • •
The IRS ALIGN lights flash under any what conditions?
Movement of the aircraft has occurred during the alignment period. During the initial alignment process an aircraft position has not been entered. There is a significant difference between the position entered and the last position known to the IRS (i.e., the wrong position was entered or the aircraft has moved since it was shut down). When an ALIGN light is flashing either before or after the present position has been entered, select the POS INIT page on the CDU and re-enter the present position on the SET IRS POS line using the most accurate latitude and longitude information available. It may be necessary to enter the position several times in order to stop the flashing ALIGN light. Note: The IRS Display Unit (ISDU) may also be used for entering present position.
Conditions When Landing is Not Authorized
Landing is not authorized under the following weather and lighting conditions: L Weather conditions are below FAA-established minima. L Wind limitations are exceeded. Refer to B737NG AOM 3 Limitations or B737MAX AOM 3 Limitations for aircraft wind limitations and considerations. L During night operations, when all runway lights (edge and centerline) are inoperative. Landing is allowed with partial runway lighting if the Captain determines there is adequate lighting to permit a safe landing. Note: FAA-approved temporary lighting may be substituted for portions of normal lights, provided corresponding minima reductions are applied. Note: Check NOTAMs for runway light outages and/or taxiway/runway closures. Partial runway lighting may not cause the runway to be closed by the airport authority. L Runway contamination limits are exceeded (e.g., water, slush, snow, braking action). Refer to B737NG AOM 3 Limitations or B737MAX AOM 3 Limitations. L Greater than light freezing rain at the airport. The precipitation intensity stated in weather reports (e.g., ASOS, ATIS, weather briefer) or when received from an ATC controller "moderate" unless it is modified by "light (-)" or "heavy (+)." Exceptions to this are ice crystals and hail, which do not receive intensifiers. L Known or probable severe icing conditions. A combination of forecasts, PIREPs, aircraft types, times, locations, and altitudes must be considered. No aircraft will be dispatched, en route operations continued, or a landing attempted when in the opinion of the Captain and/or Dispatcher icing conditions exist or are anticipated, which might adversely affect the safety of the flight. Flights may be dispatched into light to moderate icing conditions only if all anti-icing equipment for the aircraft is in operable condition. L Known or probable severe turbulence. A combination of forecasts, TAPS reports, PIREPs, aircraft types, times, locations, and altitudes must be considered.
Enroute Alternates
Loss of engine thrust during the flight must be considered either through the selection of alternate airports available for landing (drift-down method) or through a limitation to the takeoff gross weight (en route method). Either method may be used provided the Dispatch Release indicates the method selected. The drift-down method permits an aircraft with an inoperative engine to drift-down from a cruising altitude for a landing at a suitable alternate airport while clearing all terrain by 2,000 ft while maintaining a positive climb gradient at 1,500 ft above the drift-down alternate. The alternate(s) selected for the drift-down method must be listed in the Dispatch Release and meet alternate weather minimums. The en route method requires the aircraft flight path clear the en route terrain by 1,000 ft within five statute miles on each side of the intended track to the original destination.
What is considered the lowest safe altitude in an emergency descent?
Lowest safe altitude is either the minimum en route altitude (MEA) or minimum off route altitude (MORA).
What are the three sources of Wind Reports?
METAR: Wind velocity in a METAR is stated as the measured mean recorded velocity over a ten-minute period. In the case of speed, variations from the mean wind speed (both above and below it) are reported when the variation from the mean speed has exceeded 10 knots. ATIS: Wind velocity is latest two-minute mean prior to the time of issue of the ATIS. ATIS may use gust data from METARs under certain circumstances. ATIS broadcasts are usually only updated between the regular change times unless the wind direction changes by more than 30 degrees or the two-minute average wind speed changes by more than 5 knots over a five-minute interval. ATC Reported: Display of wind velocity information to ATC at major airports is usually either 'average wind' - that over a two- minute period updated every minute - and/or 'instant wind' - the value at that exact time. The latter is usually used only where high wind speeds and their associated greater fluctuations in speed and direction prevail. ATC may proactively initiate such 'wind checks' or this action may be requested by a Flight Crew. The ATC TWR at most international and major domestic airports have digital displays of wind velocity, which can be specific to the sensor site or integrated from several sites and can show a selection of trend and extremes data.
What should you do if you initiate a go-around prior to arriving at the Missed Approach Point (MAP)?
Maintain the lateral approach path to the MAP prior to commencing any direction change specified in the published missed-approach procedure.
What four types of flights begin with FLT numbers 87XX?
Maintenance Ferries Promotional or Cargo Ferries Maintenance Check Pilot Training
What are the APU Altitude Limits?
Max Altitude for Operation 41,000 ft Max Altitude Electric Only 41,000 ft Max Altitude Bleed Air Only 17,000 ft Max Altitude Bleed\Electric 10,000 ft
What are the Engine EGT limits?
Max EGT 950 C (5 min) Max Continuous EGT 925 C
What are the Engine RPM limits?
Max RPM N1 104.0% (104.7% for 20 seconds) N2 105.0%
What are the new Max Landing Weights and Landing ZFW for both the -800s and Max aircraft when using Flight Suite?
Maximum Landing Weight (Increase) -800 146,300 (2,300) Max 151,500 (700) Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (Increase) -800 138,300 (1,800) Max 145,000 (700)
What is the maximum brake temperature for ground turnaround with non-carbon brakes?
Maximum brake temperature for ground turnaround is 425°F. Temperature must be measured between 10 and 15 minutes after arrival parking.
Microbursts
Microbursts can occur wherever thunderstorms, rain showers, or virga are present. It is very important to remember that flight through or near a microburst area should be avoided at all times. Some facts about microbursts—Approximately five percent of thunderstorms produce microbursts. More than one microburst can occur in the same weather system. Microburst downdrafts are usually between 200 and 3,000 ft wide. Microburst winds intensify for about five minutes after ground contact and typically dissipate about 10 to 20 minutes after ground contact. The average wind speed change that a Pilot might expect when flying through a microburst at its peak intensity is about 45 kt. For additional information about microbursts, refer to the Meteorology section of the Jeppesen Airway Manual.
What guidance is there for initiating manual breaking in order to approximate autobrakes?
Minimum braking (AUTOBRAKE 2) can be approximated by accomplishing a normal landing using spoilers and reverse thrust, with light manual braking initiated at approximately 80 kt. Medium braking (AUTOBRAKE 3) can be approximated by accomplishing a normal landing using spoilers and reverse thrust, with moderate manual braking initiated at nose wheel touchdown. Maximum braking (AUTOBRAKE MAX) can be approximated by accomplishing a normal landing using spoilers and reverse thrust, with maximum manual braking initiated at nose wheel touchdown.
It says to "begin manual braking at an appropriate speed", but when exactly should you begin braking for each manual braking category (min, med, max)?
Minimum braking (AUTOBRAKE 2) can be approximated by accomplishing a normal landing using spoilers and reverse thrust, with light manual braking initiated at approximately 80 kt. Note: Any time the Min(2) stopping margin is negative (dashes), begin manual braking immediately after nose wheel touchdown. Medium braking (AUTOBRAKE 3) can be approximated by accomplishing a normal landing using spoilers and reverse thrust, with moderate manual braking initiated at nose wheel touchdown. Maximum braking (AUTOBRAKE MAX) can be approximated by accomplishing a normal landing using spoilers and reverse thrust, with maximum manual braking initiated at nose wheel touchdown. Note: When Max(M) braking produces the only positive stopping margin, it does not mean that maximum manual braking must be used, just that medium braking is insufficient. The actual amount of braking required is between medium and maximum, with braking requirements increasing as the Max(M) stopping margin decreases
How is the DA usually set using CAT II ILS approach?
Minimums are normally set using RA and may be slightly above or below 100 ft DH due to the position of the aircraft over terrain.
What are the two seasonal cities in Colorado? When does SWA serve them?
Montrose, CO (MTJ) Steamboat Springs, CO (HDN). Service will be seasonal, starting on December 19 through April 5, with daily service to DEN and weekend-only service to DAL.
What is the definition of nearest airport?
Nearest airport in point of time. Two airports of different distances may be considered equal airports if a normal descent requires the same amount of time to arrive at either airport. If persistent smoke, fire or other potentially catastrophic situation is encountered, an emergency descent may be appropriate, in which case the closer airport may be the better choice.
Are RNAV approaches are authorized with remote altimeter settings?
No
Are jet bridges and air stair trucks considered ground equipment with regards to hot brakes?
No
Are the F/O and Captain seatbelts interchangeable?
No
Should you turn aggressively to avoid the windshear icon?
No - Avoid excessive maneuvering just to avoid the windshear icon. Due to Doppler radar limitations, the windshear icon shows the rain shaft (radar reflectivity) which may not be fully aligned with the microburst rain shaft. It may be more desirable to minimize maneuvering and fly through the windshear icon given that with less bank there is more lift available for the aircraft.
Is the autopilot required for approaches below ¾ SM or 4000 RVR?
No, but you must be using the HGS if you are not using it.
Does the exterior entry door handle need to be seated?
No, the handle will "spring" to the close position once airborne and with airflow over it.
Does a rejected takeoff need to be moving and rejected on the roll?
No. Anytime a Takeoff Clearance has been received but a Takeoff not completed, it is by definition an RTO.
Can Dispatch provide RVR using NGRVR for your takeoff minimums? If not, what must you use?
No. NGRVR is used by Dispatch for the purpose of dispatching flights to an airport and not for takeoff minimums. Tower METAR is controlling for departure takeoff minimums.
If an aborted engine start occurs, may you switch igniters and attempt another start?
No. Switching the ignition source after one aborted engine start would constitute troubleshooting and could mask a failed ignitor. Troubleshooting beyond checklist directed actions is rarely helpful and has caused further loss of system function or failure. Aborted Engine Starts: ""
Non-Normal Checklist Use
Non-normal checklist use starts when the aircraft flight path and configuration are correctly established. Only a few situations need an immediate response (such as CABIN ALTITUDE WARNING or Rapid Depressurization). Usually, time is available to assess the situation before corrective action is started. All actions must then be coordinated under the Captain's supervision and done in a deliberate, systematic manner. Flight path control must never be compromised. When a non-normal situation occurs: 1. (PF) Maintain aircraft control and situational awareness. Use automation as appropriate to reduce the workload. 2. (PF/PM) Announce the situation as soon as it is recognized. 3. (PM) Silence aural alerts and reset the MASTER CAUTION once the non-normal situation is identified and the PM has ensured the PF is aware of the warning. 4. (CA) Call for or announce the appropriate QRH or QRC checklist that is to be accomplished when the aircraft flight path and configuration are safely established. 5. (PF/PM) Accomplish immediate action items from memory or quick reference items via the QRC, if required: 6. (PM) Accomplish the QRH checklist. The "Challenge-Response- Response" method shall be used: a. (PM) Read the checklist item and then give the response. b. (PF) Confirm/guard critical items or systems and then repeat the response. c. (PM) Accomplish the action. Note: Checklist steps that do not direct the movement of a switch, a lever or a system (steps that do not include a "...") will be accomplished by the PM reading the step and the PF verbally acknowledging. The Crew will accomplish the step if required or appropriate. Note: If the QRC was used to verify immediate action items or accomplish quick reference items, enter the appropriate non-normal checklist at the first step below the red/black separator symbol respectively. 7. (CA) Assign the Pilot Flying duties to maximize situational awareness and workload management after the aircraft is stabilized and the QRH checklist is complete. (Transfer of control may occur sooner at the Captain's discretion if critical decision making is required.) Consider the following: a. PF duties should be assigned to the FO if: Coordination with external resources is required. Complex decision making is required. b. The PF should coordinate with ATC. c. The PM should coordinate with other external resources. The word "Confirm" is added to checklist items when both Crew Members must verbally agree before action is taken. Critical Items - Items or systems that causes consequential error if misidentified (e.g., start levers, fire switches or other items at the Captain's discretion, depending on phase of flight). Checklists include an Inoperative Items table only when the condition of the items is needed for planning the rest of the flight. The inoperative items, including the consequences (if any), are read aloud by the Pilot Monitoring. The Pilot Flying does not need to repeat this information but must acknowledge that the information was heard and understood. After completion of the non-normal checklist, normal procedures are used to configure the aircraft for each phase of flight. When there are no "Deferred Items" (steps to be accomplished later in the checklist), the DESCENT and BEFORE LANDING normal checklists are used to verify that the configuration is correct for each phase of flight. When there are deferred items, the non-normal checklist will include the item "Checklist Complete Except Deferred Items." The Pilot Flying is to be made aware when there are deferred items. These items are included in the Deferred Items section of the checklist and may be deferred until the usual point during descent, approach or landing. The deferred items are to be accomplished via the Challenge-Response-Response method except as described under Non-Normal Checklist Use. When there are deferred items, the Deferred Items section of the non-normal checklist will include the Descent and Before Landing normal checklists. These checklists should be used instead of the usual DESCENT, APPROACH and BEFORE LANDING normal checklists. If a normal checklist item is changed as a result of the non-normal situation, the changed response is printed in bold type.
Non-Normal Checklist Assumptions
Non-normal checklists assume: • During engine start and before takeoff, the associated non-normal checklist is done if a non-normal situation is identified. After completion of the checklist, contact Dispatch and Maintenance to determine if Minimum Equipment List dispatch relief is available. • System controls are in the normal configuration for the phase of flight before the start of the non-normal checklist. • If the MASTER CAUTION and system annunciator lights illuminate, all related amber lights are reviewed to assist in recognizing the cause(s) of the alert. • Aural alerts are silenced and the master caution system is reset by the Flight Deck Crew as soon as the cause of the alert is recognized. • The EMERGENCY position of the oxygen regulator is used when needed to supply positive pressure in the masks and goggles to remove contaminants. The 100% position of the oxygen regulator is used when positive pressure is not needed but contamination of the flight deck air exists. The Normal position of the oxygen regulator is used if prolonged use is needed and the situation allows. Normal boom microphone operation is restored when oxygen is no longer in use. • Indicator lights are tested to verify suspected faults. After engine start and before takeoff, illumination of a red warning light, an amber caution light, an alert or other indication requires completion of the associated checklist. In certain cases, amber caution lights illuminate during MASTER CAUTION recall to inform the Flight Deck Crew of the failure of one element in a system with redundant elements. If system operation is maintained by a second element, the amber caution light will extinguish when MASTER CAUTION is reset. In these situations, the amber caution light alerts the Flight Deck Crew that normal system operation will be affected if another element fails. If an amber caution light illuminates during MASTER CAUTION recall, but extinguishes after MASTER CAUTION reset, completion of the associated checklist is not required.
What is Go Around Thrust and what is difference between go-arounds using and not using the Autothrottles?
Normally used during a go-around/missed approach. Go-around thrust is automatically computed by the FMC and is indicated by the N1 bugs. When TO/GA is selected, the N1 bugs indicate the full go-around N1 thrust limit. With the autothrottle engaged, two levels of go-around thrust are available as follows: ● Initial selection of TO/GA advances thrust to a reduced go-around N1 to produce 1,000 to 2,000 fpm climb rate (FMA indicates GA). ● With the second push of either TO/GA switch (after the autothrottle reaches reduced go-around thrust), the autothrottle advances to full go-around N1 limit (FMA indicates N1). With the autothrottle not engaged, TO/GA selection results in the FMA annunciating N1.
What are the common Class B airspaces which we routinely fly under?
ORD with Midway LAX with SNA SFO with OAK
How do you manually program ISA Deviation?
On a standard day, the temperature at FL 180 is approximately -21°C. Refer to the enroute wind and temperature summary at the back of the dispatch release and determine the ISA deviation at FL 180 by calculating the difference between the forecast temperature at FL 180 and the ISA temperature (-21°). Enter this value as the ISA DEV on the DES FORECAST page, followed by the QNH value from the ATIS. Example. 18000 01/020M07 Would equate to a +14 ISA deviation.
Who initially ensures the Photoluminescent Floor Emergency Lighting is charged and for how long?
On originating flights (first flight of the day), an Operations Agent accomplishes the initial 10-minute minimum charging time. If the minimum charging time is not met, the Operations Agent must coordinate with the Flight Attendants to ensure this requirement is met prior to boarding. Bins closed decreases charging time by roughly 50%.
What PWB feature allows you to estimate Max Runway Takeoff weight prior to receiving version 1?
On the TO CONDITIONS 2/2 page, select MAX TOW under the REQUEST field. This sends a request to the PWB system for the MRTW for each runway based on the entered inputs. The MAX TOW assumes bleeds off and maximum thrust. This provides a way to check the MRTW for a runway(s) before the final PWB data arrives so any necessary coordination with Dispatch and the Ops Agent can occur earlier in the process.
Must you use maximum manual breaking if Max(M) produces the only positive stopping margin?
Only Max(M) being positive does not mean that maximum manual braking must be used, just that medium braking is insufficient. The actual amount of braking required is between medium and maximum, with braking requirements increasing as the Max(M) stopping margin decreases.
Engine Stabilization and Shutdown
Operate engines at or near idle, after rollback, for a minimum of two minutes prior to applying takeoff thrust. On the first flight of the day, operate engines at or near idle, after rollback, for a minimum of five minutes prior to applying takeoff thrust. When operational conditions permit, engines should be operated at or near idle for three minutes prior to shutdown. At a minimum, operate engines at or near idle for one minute prior to shutdown.
What are the two types of PWS alerts?
PWS Caution: Windshear icon on the navigation display and aural "Monitor Radar Display" "Monitor Radar Display" often catches Crews off-guard because often they are not actually experiencing windshear conditions and the caution does not verbally direct a go-around. However, Southwest procedures require a go-around in this situation PWS Warning: Windshear icon on the navigation display and aural "GO AROUND, WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD"
Center tank fuel pumps must not be ON unless?
Personnel are available on the flight deck to monitor low pressure lights.
Aircraft Monitoring
Pilots may leave the aircraft on gate services under any of the following conditions: ● During through flights with Passengers and Flight Attendants remaining onboard ● During ground time with only Flight Attendant(s) remaining onboard ● During ground time where the inbound Pilot(s) will be operating the subsequent flight on the same aircraft In all cases, the following conditions must be met: ● Aircraft is at a Southwest Airlines station. ● Cabin temperature is suitable for Passenger comfort. ● Remaining Passenger and/or Crew Member needs are met. ● External ground power is connected and stable. ● External ground air is connected and suitable, in accordance with 18.6.1 Requirements. ● The "A" Flight Attendant and/or Operations Agent are notified that both Pilots are leaving with gate services connected. The Terminating checklist must be accomplished under the following circumstances: ● When the aircraft will not be released to a qualified Southwest Airlines Employee (or approved vendor). ● When requested by the Operations Agent for operational considerations. Passenger boarding is allowed without the assigned, outbound Pilot(s) present except in the following situations: ● On originating flights (first flight of the day) ● If the aircraft has been previously terminated ● On any international flight
Who must be informed if Cold Temperature adjustments are performed?
Pilots must advise ATC of altitude corrections identified on the airport/approach specific Cold Temperature Adjustment Tables.
Adverse Weather Policies
Pilots must contact the Dispatcher as soon as practical whenever there is a significant difference between actual and forecast winds so that the Dispatcher can apply the current information received to other Southwest Airlines flights. P Aircraft will not be dispatched or flown into known or probable severe icing conditions. A combination of forecasts, PIREPs, aircraft types, times, locations, and altitudes must be considered in determining known or probable severe icing conditions. Flights may continue into light to moderate icing conditions only if all deicing equipment for the aircraft is operable. A combination of forecasts, PIREPs, aircraft types, times, locations, and altitudes must be considered. P If hail (reported as GR in a METAR, or present but not reported in a METAR) greater than or equal to ¼ inch in diameter strikes an aircraft, a conditional inspection must be performed by Maintenance. If hail less than ¼ inch in diameter or other frozen precipitation (reported as GS in a METAR) strikes an aircraft, a conditional inspection is not required. Anytime unforecast weather conditions are encountered, the Flight Deck Crew must report them, as soon as possible, to the appropriate ATC facility as specified in the CFR. ATC, an appropriate ground station, and Dispatch will be notified whenever meteorological conditions are encountered during flight and are considered essential to the operation of other flights. These conditions include but are not limited to: ● Moderate or severe ice ● Moderate or severe turbulence Selected flights, originating at the beginning of the day, may be requested to provide a brief en route weather summary directly to Dispatch or via operations stations. These weather summaries should contain a general description of the en route conditions to include: ● Sky cover (e.g., clear, partly cloudy, overcast) ● Obstructions to visibility (e.g., rain, snow, thunderstorms) ● Icing ● Turbulence, windshear ● Tops and bases of overcast present over 50 percent or more of the route
What should you do first if an Emergency Descent is performed because of a rapid loss of cabin pressure and the aircraft is above 14,000 ft?
Pilots should perform the immediate action items and checklist items for the CABIN ALTITUDE WARNING or Rapid Depressurization checklist on the Quick Reference Card.
Wing Anti Ice
Primary Method (Deicer)—Uses wing anti-ice as a deicer by allowing ice to accumulate prior to activation. Wing anti-ice may be required when ice accumulates on the flight deck window frames, windshield center post, below the windshield wiper blade, or on the windshield wiper arm. Use of the wing anti-ice system as a deicer provides the cleanest airfoil surface, the least possible runback ice formation, and the least thrust and fuel penalty. Normally, it is only necessary to repeatedly shed ice when extended flight through icing conditions is required. Secondary Method (Anti-Icer)—Uses wing anti-ice as an anti-icing system prior to ice accumulation. Operate the wing anti-ice system as an anti-icer only during extended operation in moderate to severe icing conditions. Generally, anti-ice is not required during climb and cruise when the temperature is below -40°C SAT. At high altitudes when wing anti-ice is no longer needed, it should be turned off. Prolonged operation in icing conditions with the leading edge and trailing edge flaps extended is not recommended.
Who and what five things must be briefed prior to performing a Ground Airstart?
Prior to performing an airstart, advise the "A" Flight Attendant that the flight deck door may remain open during the start procedure. In addition, a briefing between the Pushback Driver and the Captain is required via headset or face-to-face to discuss the following: 1 - Type of airstart unit (e.g., continuous flow or air bottle) 2 - Which engine is to be started at the gate (normally Engine #1) 3 - Any conditions affecting the operation 4 - Disconnection communication 5 - Removal of PC air used for aircraft cooling and subsequent securing of any associated hoses prior to starting engines
Which is a more popular deicing chemical, propylene or ethylene glycol?
Propylene (rather than ethylene) glycol is used in most manufacturers' formulas because of its lower toxicity.
Quick Reference Items
Quick Reference items are time sensitive steps that are to be completed by use of the Quick Reference Card. Quick reference items are listed above a black separator symbol both in the QRH and on the QRC. Refer to the end of this chapter for instructions on using the Quick Reference Card.
What is the RNP Availability Forecast and where do you find it?
RNP Availability Forecast (RAF) is a forecast of RNP availability. The forecast predicts unavailability of GPS position integrity for various RNP levels (e.g., RNP 0.10 NM unavailable from 1901Z to 1912Z). This forecast is applicable to RNAV procedures associated with the airport for which the RAF is issued. It can either be received via ACARS or found in the weather packet.
What are RWxx Waypoints and where are they located?
RWxx are usually associated with RNAV, RNP, and localizer approaches to provide VNAV path to the runway threshold. RWxx waypoints coincide with the approach end of the runway.
What conditions are indications of windshear encounters?
Red WINDSHEAR warning light and two-tone siren followed by the aural alert, "WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR." Inadvertent windshear encounter or other situation resulting in unacceptable flight path deviations are recognized as uncontrolled changes from normal steady state flight conditions below 1,000 ft AGL, in excess of the following: ● + or - 15 knots indicated airspeed ● + or - 500 fpm vertical speed ● + or - 5° pitch attitude ● + or - 1 dot displacement from the glideslope ● Unusual thrust lever position for a significant period of time
What are the six Winsdhear Indications?
Red WINDSHEAR warning light; two-tone siren followed by the aural alert, "WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR." + or - 15 knots indicated airspeed + or - 500 fpm vertical speed + or - 5° pitch attitude + or - 1 dot from the glideslope Unusual thrust lever position for a significant period of time
What valid three Certificates are required onboard? What is a fourth that may be required on international flights?
Registration Radio Airworthiness Noise (not required for domestic ops) Notify Dispatch / Maintenance Control if any document is missing. Note: The Noise Certificate may be located behind the Certificate of Registration on some aircraft due to a lack of available document holders.
Do not start the APU while airborne unless when?
Required by a QRH procedure or by PWB performance considerations.
Pilot Responses to TCAS Annunciations
Response to a TA Look for traffic using the traffic display as a guide. Call out any conflicting traffic. • If traffic is sighted, maneuver if needed. • Do not deviate from the assigned ATC clearance unless visual contact with the conflicting traffic requires other action. Response to a "Monitor" or "Maintain" RA. This includes the following alerts: • "Monitor Vertical Speed" • "Maintain Vertical Speed, Maintain" • "Maintain Vertical Speed, Crossing Maintain" Look for traffic using the traffic display as a guide. Call out any conflicting traffic. • Maneuver as needed to satisfy the RA. • The autopilot may remain engaged. • The autothrottle may remain engaged • Follow the planned lateral flight path unless contact with the conflicting traffic requires other action. • Advise ATC of TCAS deviation as soon as possible. Response to other than a "Monitor" or "Maintain" RA (except a Climb RA in landing configuration) If maneuvering is required: • Disengage the autopilot (if engaged). • Disengage the autothrottle (if engaged). • Smoothly adjust pitch and thrust to satisfy the RA command. • Follow the planned lateral flight path unless contact with the conflicting traffic requires other action. • Advise ATC of TCAS deviation as soon as possible. Attempt to establish visual contact. Call out any conflicting traffic. • Adjust response for any increase, reversal or downgrade of TCAS guidance. • Return to previous clearance as soon as "Clear of conflict" is heard and traffic conflict is resolved.
What are the six Thrust Reverse Limits?
Reverse thrust is for ground use only. Use of reverse thrust for rearward taxi operation is not authorized. Use of reverse thrust to reduce speed is not authorized. Takeoff and landing are not authorized if either thrust reverser is inoperative and the runway is contaminated with clutter OR the braking action is less than 5-GOOD. Dispatch from/to runways less than 45 m wide is not allowed in case of rudder pedal nose wheel steering inoperative or one thrust reverser inoperative. Reverse thrust, if operative, must be used on all landings at a minimum of detent 2 unless a higher level is specified
What are Risk factors and what are their three categories?
Risk factors are anything that increase risk and decrease performance. Task Loading—The perceived amount of time available to accomplish the required tasks. Crew Members should remain vigilant in recognition of task overloading; Crew Members should also avoid task under-loading, as long periods of low task loading can lead to inattention or complacency and increase risk. Additive Conditions—Any factor that adds to task loading or causes a distraction (e.g., the environment, equipment problems, operational problems, organizational influences). Unpredictable situations or lack of information are additive conditions that can increase risk. Crew Members should beware of focused attention and/or tunnel vision from themselves and others. Crew Factors—The physiological elements of Crew Members that negatively impact operational effectiveness and safety (e.g., fatigue, stress, fear, illness, experience). Additionally, group mindsets and attitudes, such as "press on regardless," can negatively impact the performance of an individual or Crew.
WARNING: The use of runway Mu friction reports as the primary source for landing distance assessments may result in significantly greater than expected landing distances.
Runway Mu values can vary significantly for the same contaminant condition due to measuring techniques, equipment calibration, effects of contamination on the friction-measuring device, and amount of time since the measurement was taken. Due to these design limitations, runway Mu friction measurements should only be used to determine runway condition trends.
What are the Windshear Escape Maneuver responsibilities for the pilot monitoring?
Verify emergency thrust. Verify all needed actions have been completed and call out any omissions. Monitor vertical speed and altitude. Call out any trend toward terrain contact, descending flight path, or significant airspeed changes.
What are the maximum allowable on-the-ground altimeter differences for RVSM operation?
Sea level to 5,000 ft: 50 ft 75 ft 5,001 to 10,000 ft: 60 ft 75 ft
What are the procedures for a fast realignment of the IRS?
Select the ALIGN position, then NAV. Check that the ALIGN lights are illuminated. Select the appropriate present position coordinates and line select the coordinates to the SET IRS POS (4R). The IRS position must be entered within 30 seconds to realign the IRSs and zero out the ground speed. Verify that the ALIGN lights extinguish within 30 seconds. When the ALIGN lights extinguish, all heading and attitude flags should disappear, and the HSIs/ISDU ground speed value is zero (0), indicating the IRSs are in the navigation mode.
What are the DA and RVR minimums associated with a CAT II ILS (CAT II)?
Southwest Airlines is authorized to conduct CAT II instrument approach and landing operations to as low as 100 ft DH and 1200 RVR using the limitations, provisions, procedures, and minimums specified within this section.
What are the DA and RVR minimums for a CAT III ILS?
Southwest Airlines is authorized to conduct CAT III instrument approach and landing operations as low as 50 ft DH and TDZ, MID and ROLLOUT minimums as low as 600, 600, and 300 RVR.
What are the DA and RVR minimums associated with a Special Authorization CAT I ILS (SA CAT I)?
Southwest Airlines is authorized to use ILS Special Authorization (SA) CAT I landing minimums as low as 150 ft decision height (DH) and 1400 RVR using the requirements, provisions, procedures, and minimums specified within this section.
What type of air is typically used for ground air starts?
Southwest Airlines uses continuous flow units (trailer-mounted diesel engine driven air compressor) for starting engines if the APU bleed is inoperative. Note: Air bottles may be used at offline locations.
What is our policy on service animals?
Southwest accepts service dogs that are individually trained to do work or perform tasks for the benefit of a person with a disability. The types of disability include a physical, sensory, psychiatric, intellectual, or other mental disability, and only dogs will be accepted—no other species will be accepted as a trained service animal.
Why are certain extremely disabled passengers, who would need substantial assistance by ABPs or Crew members in an evacuation, permitted to fly?
Southwest currently operates under a portion of 14 CFR known as the Air Carrier Access Act (ACAA). The purpose of the ACAA is to ensure that air carriers are "accessible to and/or accommodate the needs of Customers with disabilities." Essentially, Southwest cannot refuse transportation to any individual with a disability unless, in the opinion of the Captain, "transporting the person would be inimical to the safety of the flight."
What is our policy on emotional support animals?
Southwest no longer accepts emotional support animals. Instead, some of these animals may be eligible to travel under our pet policy.
Can you spray fluid into the engine intakes if deicing is required?
Spraying deicing/anti-icing fluid into the engine intake is prohibited. Warm/heated air must be used to deice the engine inlet, fan blades, and spinner.
Static Discharges
Static discharges most frequently occur near or within thunderstorms. They tend to be most severe near the freezing level, in areas of severe turbulence, and when updrafts and downdrafts are present. Discharges are often preceded by St. Elmo's Fire and sharp increases in radio static. The following should be accomplished after a static discharge: ● Check the magnetic compass for accuracy against other flight deck indicators. ● Check the communication and navigation radio equipment for normal operation. Electrical instruments should be monitored for erratic or sluggish operation. ● Verify an aircraft logbook entry is made and conditional inspection is performed by Maintenance.
SMGCS
Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) refers to equipment installations and control procedures at U.S. airports conducting operations when visibility is less than 1200 RVR. It is designed to minimize confusion on the ground in low visibility conditions. A surface movement surveillance system (SMSS) should be installed for operations below 600 RVR. Ground radar (ASDE II or III) is installed at some airports to augment visual observation. These systems are the primary means of monitoring airport ground movements. Procedures for establishing aircraft position are required when the SMSS is inoperative. ATC may initiate or terminate SMGCS procedures when dictated by visibility. Specific SMGCS procedures are developed for each participating airport. There may be different requirements for operations between 1200 RVR and 600 RVR and operations below 600 RVR. More information may be found in the Jeppesen low visibility taxi route charts for applicable airports. Additional information may be required concerning apron/ramp operations at some airports. If the RVR value drops below charted SMGCS minima: ● Aircraft that have entered the movement area are permitted to continue to taxi by ATC (i.e., reported visibility of 500 RVR after entering the movement area, with a SMGCS charted minima of "Less than RVR 1200 to 600"). ● Aircraft that have either passed the final approach fix or landed may be permitted to taxi by ATC.t Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) refers to equipment installations and control procedures at U.S. airports conducting operations when visibility is less than 1200 RVR. It is designed to minimize confusion on the ground in low visibility conditions. A surface movement surveillance system (SMSS) should be installed for operations below 600 RVR. Ground radar (ASDE II or III) is installed at some airports to augment visual observation. These systems are the primary means of monitoring airport ground movements. Procedures for establishing aircraft position are required when the SMSS is inoperative. ATC may initiate or terminate SMGCS procedures when dictated by visibility. Specific SMGCS procedures are developed for each participating airport. There may be different requirements for operations between 1200 RVR and 600 RVR and operations below 600 RVR. More information may be found in the Jeppesen low visibility taxi route charts for applicable airports. Additional information may be required concerning apron/ramp operations at some airports. If the RVR value drops below charted SMGCS minima: ● Aircraft that have entered the movement area are permitted to continue to taxi by ATC (i.e., reported visibility of 500 RVR after entering the movement area, with a SMGCS charted minima of "Less than RVR 1200 to 600"). ● Aircraft that have either passed the final approach fix or landed may be permitted to taxi by ATC. ****If the aircraft position is in doubt, immediately stop the aircraft and notify ATC.
What are the two normal TDZ minimums for a CAT II ILS?
TDZ minimums of 1600 or 1200 are authorized based on equipment availability.
When would you expect to see a tail stand? On which model aircraft?
Tail stands may be installed during deplaning in accordance with Ground Operations procedures. A tail stand is not required to be installed on originating flights or during Passenger boarding. Only on -800 models that are NOT MAX.
When is a takeoff with anti-skid inoperative permitted?
Takeoff with anti-skid inoperative is only allowed on dry runways.
An INSTR SWITCH on the altimeter display indicates what?
That both the Captain's and First Officer's displays are using the same source of IRU data. Displayed when the IRS switch on the overhead panel is not in the normal position.
Fuel may be transferred from tank to tank or the aircraft may be defueled with Passengers onboard, provided what?
That fuel quantity in the tank from which fuel is being taken is maintained at not less than 2,000 lb. Deplane all Passengers and non-essential Crew when defueling a tank or transferring fuel from a tank that has a fuel quantity below 2,000 lb until the process has been completed and the respective fuel boost pumps are turned off.
Below ¾ mile or 4000 RVR what wind limit comes into play?
The 15 kt crosswind limit.
When is the Brake Cooling module utilized?
The Brake Cooling module is used to determine brake cooling requirements any time: 1) a rejected takeoff (RTO) has been performed, 2) the MQTW has been exceeded, or 3) a non-normal condition for landing has been selected. Hint: RQ-Non
What is the definition of Immediate Notification?
The Captain contacts Dispatch as soon as practical via the most expeditious means available (e.g., ACARS, radio, telephone). The Captain advises Dispatch of any irregularity occurring on a flight as soon as practical, especially anytime the MEL or QRH/Quick Reference Card is referenced for a system failure or other significant occurrence."
LAHSO
The Captain is ultimately responsible for determining the capability of accepting a LAHSO clearance. The following limitations and provisions apply: ● The runway must be dry (no visible moisture). ● LAHSO is not authorized to a runway that does not have visual or electronic vertical guidance. At night, LAHSO is not authorized to a runway that does not have a visual glideslope indicator (PAPI or VASI). ● LAHSO weather minima requires a prevailing weather condition consisting of the following: - Ceiling and visibility no less than 1,500 ft and 5 SM. - LAHSO weather minima may be lowered to a ceiling and visibility of no less than 1,000 ft and 3 SM where a PAPI or VASI is installed and operational. - At locations where a rejected landing procedure (RLP) is published, the ceiling and visibility minima may differ. Reference the applicable SIP. - LAHSO is not authorized if windshear has been reported within the previous 20 minutes prior to the LAHSO clearance being issued. - The tailwind component must be less than 3 kt. - Night LAHSO is conducted only where an FAA-approved lighting configuration for LAHSO is installed. LAHSO is not authorized when any of the following apply: ● There is an MEL item or aircraft malfunction that impacts aircraft stopping capability. ● Accepting or determining whether to accept LAHSO interferes with flight safety. ● SIP guidance is not available. ● LAHSO landing data is not available. ● For a given LAHSO runway and hold short point, the runway list does not specifically include LAHSO in the Notes column. WARNING: Performance calculations must be made using the respective LAHSO runway and hold short point to ensure LAHSO performance requirements are met. ● ATC requests LAHSO below 1,000 ft HAT.
When may you cycle a Circuit Breaker?
The Flight Deck Crew should not cycle (pull and reset) a circuit breaker at any time unless the cycle meets one or more of the following criteria: ● Directed by the QRH. ● Directed by a procedure listed in the B737NG AOM, B737MAX AOM, FOM, MEL, or Operations Binder. ● Coordinated and approved by Maintenance Control. Note: Any time a circuit breaker is cycled by a Flight Deck Crew Member, an Info Only entry is required in the Aircraft Logbook. The Maintenance Controller's name must be included in the entry. Refer to FOM 19 Maintenance for additional information on entering Info Only items in the Aircraft Logbook.
How can you prevent Call Sign Mismatch (CSMM)?
Verify or enter the SWA prefix followed by the flight number in LSK 2R on the RTE page. Insert the SWA prefix prior to the flight number when manually populating the FMC RTE Page 1/X FLT NO. field during preflight.
Which runway does brake cooling calculate for? Does a runway calculation by dispatch affect this?
The Crew's most recent runway request. No. Dispatch requests are independent and will no longer inhibit Pilot data requests.
When does the RNAV Database in the FMC expire?
The FMC database expires at 0900Z the day after the expiration date.
What must be done if during taxi out your fuel drops belo MIN TAKEOFF?
The Flight Deck Crew confers with the Dispatcher to determine appropriate action (e.g., amend Dispatch Release or add fuel).
How do you determine number of ELTs on an aircraft?
The Remarks section of the Dispatch Release will note "AC EQUIP ELTS" when at least two ELTs are installed on the aircraft (e.g., one fixed and one portable). If the Release does not have this note, the aircraft is not equipped with a portable ELT.
At what altitude does the GP cross the runway threshold?
The GP typically crosses the runway threshold at 50 ft. A VNAV disconnect occurs at the RWxx waypoint, resulting in the removal of the PFD flight director pitch command bar. WARNING: VNAV obstacle clearance is certified to the DDA. Below DDA, obstacle clearance is the responsibility of the Pilots.
What is up with the cockpit flashlight on the Max?
The MAX AOM requires Crews preflight the cockpit flashlight, which includes verifying a momentary blink of a tiny green LED. This is surprisingly hard to do! The flashlight is mounted on the front frame of the side jump seat, directly behind the Captain's seatback pocket. This check is best accomplished while checking seat-back pockets and circuit breakers. It is nearly impossible to do while sitting in the seat. The MAX sim has these same flashlights, but they are mounted differently.
Predictive Windshear System (PWS)
The PWS provides windshear cautions and warnings. The alert level is based on windshear position relative to aircraft flight path and has nothing to do with the severity of the windshear. PWS Caution A PWS Caution displays the windshear icon on the navigation display and sounds an aural alert "Monitor Radar Display" when windshear is detected in the caution region. Crew response to a PWS Caution: • On takeoff - continue the takeoff and use the precautionary takeoff profile. Be prepared to execute the windshear recovery procedure. • On approach - initiate a normal go-around. Be prepared to execute the windshear recovery procedure. PWS Warning A PWS Warning displays the windshear icon on the navigation display and sounds the aural alert, "WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD," on takeoff or, "GO AROUND, WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD," on approach. Crew response to a PWS Warning: • On takeoff: • Before starting the takeoff roll, delay the takeoff. • After starting the takeoff roll, reject the takeoff if it can be done safely, or continue the takeoff using the precautionary takeoff profile. Be prepared to execute a windshear recovery. • On approach: • Initiate a normal go-around. Be prepared to execute a windshear recovery. Note: Avoid excessive maneuvering just to avoid the windshear icon. Due to Doppler radar limitations, the windshear icon shows the rain shaft (radar reflectivity) which may not be fully aligned with the microburst air shaft. It may be more desirable to minimize maneuvering and fly through the windshear icon given that with less bank there is more lift available for the aircraft.
What is the difference between the TDZ vs. PWB Stopping Margin and how are they used to determine LTP?
The TDZ is the lesser of 3,000 ft past the threshold/displaced threshold or 1/3 of the usable landing length. This is the TDZ limit. Insufficient PWB stopping performance occurs when the aircraft touches down past 1,500 ft plus the PWB stopping margin (for the level of autobrakes selected or approximated) on the runway. Either the performance limit or the TDZ limit will be more restrictive. This is the latest touchdown point (LTP), which should be known before starting the approach. The intent is not that Pilots should attempt to reference an exact distance; rather, Pilots rather should use existing runway markings (or other reference points) to determine a visual reference point for where the LTP is on the runway. Consider all additive conditions (e.g., variable wind, contamination, precipitation rate) when selecting a reference point.
What is the purpose of the Terminal Arrival Area?
The Terminal Arrival Area (TAA) provides a seamless and efficient transition from the en route structure to the terminal environment to an underlying RNAV instrument approach procedure for FMS and/or GPS equipped aircraft. Minimum altitudes depict standard obstacle clearances compatible with the associated instrument approach procedure. If course reversal is not required for particular TAA area, it is annotated (e.g., NoPT). Otherwise, the Pilot is expected to execute the course reversal, unless the term "Straight-In" is used in the approach clearance. TAAs are not found on all RNAV procedures, particularly in areas with a heavy concentration of air traffic. When the TAA is published, it replaces the MSA for that approach procedure.
What is the only Flight Deck Door limitation?
Verify that an operational check of the flight deck door access system has been accomplished according to approved procedures once each flight day. Note: To comply with this limitation, Flight Deck Crews will complete the Flight Deck Door Access System Test whenever the WN-966 Aircraft Security Checklist is required or on the first flight of the day.
What should you verify when turning on the IRS?
Verify the ON DC lights illuminate momentarily. Verify the ALIGN lights illuminate. Verify that the amber GPS light is not illuminated. Verify that both align lights extinguish after the seven-minute alignment period has ended. When the align lights extinguish, all heading and attitude flags disappear, and the HSI/ISDU ground speed value is zero (0), indicating the IRSs are in the navigation mode.
How would you maintain course if you lost both Autopilot and Flight Director guidance?
WARNING: If autopilot and flight director guidance is lost, maintain the path (magenta line) by using the navigation display raw data until ATC can provide an amended clearance. Note: RNAV 1 operations (SIDs and STARs with RNAV 1 in the chart notes) have an RNP of 1.0 NM. The maximum crosstrack deviation is 1 x RNP.
Plan and brief an instrument approach when any of the following criteria apply:
● The runway is not expected to be in sight by the FAF/GSIA. ● Rain is reported or visible in the airport vicinity. ● Significant weather is reported or apparent in the airport vicinity (e.g., thunderstorm, fog, blowing dust, snow). ● Restricted visibility is reported or apparent in the airport vicinity (e.g., haze, mist, low sun angles).
What are the four Aircraft Equipment Requirements for ILS Approaches below ¾ SM or 4000 RVR?
● Two flight directors ● Two VHF NAV systems ● Two ILS receivers ● Autopilot or HGS placarded for at least CAT I operations.
What three warnings are associated with ground air starts?
WARNING: To minimize the hazard to Ground Crew, external air should be disconnected and Engine #2 started using the Engine Crossbleed Start procedure. WARNING: To preclude hot starts, possible severe engine damage, and fire during the start, close coordination is required between the Ground Crew and Flight Deck Crew. WARNING: To minimize the hazard to Ground Crew, never operate engines above idle thrust when conducting this procedure.
What two warnings associated are associated with going below minimums?
WARNING: VNAV obstacle clearance is certified to the DDA. Below DDA, obstacle clearance is the responsibility of the Pilots. WARNING: The flight director may not provide reliable vertical or lateral guidance to the runway below minimums.
How long do you wait until turning off the battery switch on the terminating checklist?
Wait at least 2 minutes after the APU GEN OFF BUS light extinguishes prior to positioning the battery switch OFF.
What are the three GPWS Warnings and what do they require?
Warnings "PULL UP" "TERRAIN, TERRAIN PULL UP" "OBSTACLE, OBSTACLE PULL UP" Immediately accomplish the Terrain Avoidance Maneuver.
What are three methods to limit airspeed while using VNAV for airspace or ATC restrictions?
● After VNAV is engaged, use SPD INTV to set the speed restriction. ● Program the CLB page SPD REST to the speed restriction. On departure, when the speed restriction is no longer applicable, reset the SPD REST to 250 kt below 10,000 ft MSL. ● Enter speed restriction(s) at appropriate waypoints only if more restrictive than the LARGE font speeds on the LEGS page.
What four things must you pass to ATC for any Communication, Navigation, and Approach Equipment Malfunctions?
● Aircraft identification ● Equipment affected ● Degree to which the capability of the Pilot to operate is impaired (under IFR in the ATC system) ● Any assistance desired from ATC Who What Why How?
For ground operation, center tank fuel pump switches must not be positioned to ON unless the center tank fuel quantity exceeds 1,000 lb, with what two exceptions?
When defueling or transferring fuel.
When is the Engine Run-up During Takeoff Procedure required?
When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3°C or below. An engine run-up to a minimum of 70 percent N1 and confirm stable engine operation before the start of the takeoff roll. A 30-second run-up is highly recommended whenever possible if airport congestion and runway surface conditions allow. If runway surface conditions do not allow for engine run-up, continue the takeoff normally.
What does VVMI stand for and when is it used?
When making autoflight systems inputs: ● Verbalize—Announce MCP mode changes and FMC inputs. ● Verify—Confirm these inputs and the appropriate mode annunciation. ● Monitor—Monitor mode annunciations, expected aircraft performance, and compliance with ATC clearances. ● Intervene—Verbalize unanticipated or improper FMA, MCP, or FMC mode changes.
On a CAT III ILS approach, what four situations require you execute a go-around prior to the arriving at the DA?
● An HGS malfunction inside the FAF. ● After passing the FAF, the primary approach guidance system in use becomes inoperative or any other airborne equipment required for the particular CAT III operation being conducted becomes inoperative. ● Before arriving at the DH, any of the required elements of the CAT III ground system becomes inoperative. ● The crosswind component at touchdown is expected to be greater than 15 kt.
What four requirements apply for approaches from 1,000 Ft Ceiling or 3 Mile Visibility Down to ½ Mile or 1800 RVR?
● Autopilot use is recommended but not required. ● Flight directors, if available, must be used. ● Either Pilot may fly the approach and land. ● Below ¾ mile or 4000 RVR, the 15 kt crosswind limit applies. Refer to 3.2.7 Wind for limitations. Note: Suitable ground equipment and FAF, or approved marker substitutes, must be available and operative.
Crew Members are eligible to cross KCM checkpoints in what scenarios?
When scheduled for a primary Crew Seat When traveling on DeadHead status When traveling to/from Training When traveling domestically for leisure
How does the flight deck get conditioned air?
The flight deck gets conditioned air from the left pack (right pack if the left pack is inoperative) and the mix manifold and is distributed through nine flight deck outlets. On the -700, the flight deck conditioned air is supplemented by the recirculation fan, which draws from the collector shroud through a HEPA filter to use with pack air. On the -800 and MAX, the left recirculation fan pulls in air from the distribution deck through a HEPA filter while the right recirculation fan pulls in air from the collector shroud through a HEPA filter to use with pack air.
What are the four RRM Principles?
The following four principals improve the odds of reaching goals: 1-Accept no unnecessary risk. Different levels of risk are inherent when operating in a complex environment. No risk level that requires operating outside of the established policies and procedures should be accepted. 2-Anticipate and manage risk by planning. Proactive management looks forward and develops strategies and resources that can be deployed during execution to minimize risk. 3-Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost. RRM balances risk with the potential gains to be made. 4-Make risk decisions at the right level. Effective RRM requires good situational awareness.
Why, when the glideslope is out of service for an ILS approach and there is a published stepdown fix between the FAF and the missed approach point, must you load the LOC (only) approach in the FMC?
The glidepath displayed ensures that the VNAV path complies with the stepdown fix minimum altitude.
When may LNAV be armed for takeoff?
● The origin runway is entered in the flight plan. ● The active route is entered in the FMC. ● The track of the first leg is within 5° of the runway heading. Remember Runway-Route-5 ! LNAV must be selected prior to selecting TO/GA. When armed, the FMA roll mode indicates LNAV in white (ARMED). On takeoff, LNAV becomes active at 50 ft AGL.
An ALT on the altimeter display indicates what?
The barometric altitude or barometric correction has failed. All altimeter symbols are removed except the ALT alert annunciation and the barometric setting.
If Tower ATC is closed at an airfield, how should weather updates be obtained?
When the ATC Tower is closed, the METAR is the controlling weather source. While it is helpful to receive RVR information via ACARS from Dispatch, the data is advisory only. The Runway Visual Range (RVR) obtained from Air Traffic Control (ATC) is the OFFICIAL RVR." Regarding NGRVR used by Dispatch, it is only allowed for planning a Dispatch Release to a Southwest Airlines airport using NGRVR based on the guidance contained in FOM 17.1.4
What must be entered for published climb gradients expressed in percentages?
The decimal point
What four things should you consider in an Emergency Descent?
The emergency descent is normally made with the landing gear up. If structural integrity is in doubt and airspeed must be limited, extension of the landing gear may provide a more satisfactory rate of descent. Advise the Flight Attendants of the impending emergency descent. Consider squawking 7700 to immediately alert ATC. Check for the lowest safe altitude, notify ATC, and obtain an altimeter setting. Level off at the lowest safe altitude or 10,000 ft, whichever is higher. Both Pilots should verify that all items in the Emergency Descent checklist in QRH have been accomplished and call out any items not completed.
What are the steps for a Manual Start?
The engine start valve is operated manually by Maintenance Personnel. The Captain must brief Maintenance Personnel on the procedures to be used. Close coordination is imperative to perform this procedure safely. The Captain will direct the Mechanic to open the start valve by saying, "Start number _____" and to close the start valve by saying, "Release start valve." Establish service interphone contact with the individual positioning the start valve at the engine, prior to engine start. Engine Start Switch....................... GRD Captain calls on service interphone, "Start number _____." Advise the mechanic when N2 is observed or engine is rotating. Normal Start Procedures. ....... Observe At 56 percent N2 the Captain calls, "Release start valve." Engine Start Switch..................................... OFF Verify that the start switch moves to OFF and the duct pressure decreases to the prestart value.
When must you accomplish the Cabin Altitude Warning or Rapid Depressurization checklist?
Whenever the intermittent warning horn sounds or the CABIN ALTITUDE warning light (if installed and operative) illuminates at an aircraft altitude above 10,000 ft MSL, accomplish the CABIN ALTITUDE WARNING or Rapid Depressurization checklist.
LAHSO Procedure
The following includes information regarding LAHSO procedures: ● ATIS includes an alert or ATC advises on initial contact (or as soon as practicable) to expect a LAHSO clearance. ● Select appropriate runways with LAHSO and review landing performance. Note: If there is no published rejected landing procedure, use normal missed approach procedures. ● Review the LAHSO reference on the SIP. ● If applicable, review the RLP. - When conducting an instrument approach, cleared to land and hold short, and a go-around is required, Pilots are expected to: ○ If below 1,000 ft and in VMC, execute the published RLP. ○ If on the approach at or above 1,000 ft, execute the published missed approach for the instrument procedure being flown. - When conducting a visual approach, are cleared to land and hold short, and a go-around is required, Pilots are expected to, if below 1,000 ft, execute the published RLP. - Heading and/or altitude assignments must be flown as published until directed otherwise by ATC. ● The Captain determines if LAHSO can be accepted and has final authority to accept or decline any LAHSO clearance. ● If LAHSO cannot be accepted, notify ATC as soon as practical. ● Ensure stabilized approach criteria is met no later than 1,000 ft above TDZE. If not stabilized at 1,000 ft, a go-around must be accomplished. ● Landing performance is based upon touchdown 1,500 ft from the landing runway threshold. If touchdown occurs beyond 1,500 ft, the ability to stop prior to the hold short point may be compromised and a rejected landing may be necessary. Promptly notify tower of the rejected landing. Accomplish a rejected landing if touchdown is not guaranteed during the first third of the runway, but is in no case greater than 3,000 ft.
What are the three remedies for removing CSFF?
The following methods are used for CSFF removal: 1) Type I deice—The Type I deice option is available at certain stations; consult the SIP. If Type I deice is available, it can be applied with either a conventional deice truck or a Trailer-Mounted Deicer (i.e., Hot Shot). Note: Deice the affected wing areas symmetrically. If a Trailer-Mounted Deicer is used for deicing prior to Flight Deck Crew arrival, a WN-654 is clipped to the Captain's yoke (e.g., environmental frost removal). 2) Radiant heating—Wait and allow atmospheric conditions to warm the fuel and wing which removes the CSFF thermally. 3) Add fuel—Add additional wing fuel to bring the aircraft fuel tank temperature to 5°C or above.
Windshear
The following procedure is accomplished immediately whenever windshear conditions are encountered. The following conditions are indications of windshear encounters: • Red WINDSHEAR warning light; two-tone siren followed by the aural alert, "WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR." • Inadvertent windshear encounter or other situation resulting in unacceptable flight path deviations. An unacceptable flightpath deviation is any uncontrolled change from normal, steady state flight conditions during a takeoff or an approach in excess of the following: • + or - 15 knots indicated airspeed • + or - 500 fpm vertical speed • + or - 5° pitch attitude • + or - 1 dot displacement from the glideslope • Unusual thrust lever position for a significant period of time If Windshear is Encountered PF • Disengage autopilot (if engaged). • Disengage autothrottle (if engaged). • Press either TO/GA switch. • Aggressively apply emergency thrust. • Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate to an initial pitch of 15°. • Retract speedbrakes (if extended). • Follow flight director guidance. • (1) If terrain contact is still a threat, continue rotation up to pitch limit indicator or respect the stick-shaker or initial buffet. • When windshear is no longer a factor: • Gear and flap configuration may be changed. • Slowly decrease pitch attitude and accelerate. PM • Ensure emergency thrust. • Ensure recovery controls are applied. • Monitor vertical speed and altitude. • Call out any trend toward terrain contact. • Call out significant airspeed changes. Note: (1) Aft control column force will increase as the airspeed decreases. In all cases, the pitch attitude that results in intermittent stick shaker or initial buffet is the upper pitch limit. Flight at intermittent stick shaker may be required to obtain positive terrain separation. Smooth, steady control inputs will avoid a pitch attitude overshoot which could result in a stall. WARNING: Severe windshear may exceed the capabilities of the flight director guidance.
Thunderstorm Analysis Questions and Avoidance
The following questions can help identify hazardous weather associated with thunderstorms. As a general rule of thumb, the higher the number of "YES" answers, the higher the threat and the greater the avoidance distance should be. ● Is the local atmosphere significantly unstable? ● Is the dewpoint greater than 10°C? ● Is the temperature/dewpoint spread greater than 17°C? ● Is the weather moving at greater than 10 kt? ● Is there visible evidence of a hazard? ● Is this the southernmost cell in a line? ● Is the cell greater than 15,000 ft tall? ● Is the gradient and shape of the cell asymmetrical? ● Is it casting a shadow? Use the following guidelines to avoid flight near or through thunderstorm activity: ● When the temperature at flight level is 0°C or higher, avoid all echoes by 5 NM. ● When the temperature at flight level is less than 0°C, avoid all echoes by 10 NM. ● Avoid all echoes by 20 NM if the aircraft clears the tops by less than 5,000 ft. All weather with radar tops above 15,000 ft may be hazardous. ● All weather with radar tops above 20,000 ft is ●When flying above 23,000 ft, avoid all echoes by 20 NM. ● Never fly near an echo with a radar top above 30,000 ft. ● If possible, circumnavigate echoes by flying on the upwind side. ● Circumnavigate all echoes with steep or asymmetrical gradients. ● Assume that all magenta radar returns are severe thunderstorms. ● Never assume that ATC will provide warning of hazardous weather. ● Never assume that a PIREP will provide warning of hazardous weather. ● Never continue flight toward a radar shadow. Note: Although a general or severe thunderstorm may have a well defined base, hazards often exist from the ground to the base of the convective cell, even in VMC.
What should you check about the freezing point provided by Iceman?
The freeze point is provided by the Iceman in °F and must be at least 10°C/18°F below the OAT.
What are the differences in ice pellets and snow regarding allowance time?
The ice pellet intensity, mixture of precipitation and intensity, and temperature must be listed in the chart. If it is not, allowance time cannot be used and takeoff is not authorized. Allowance time cannot be extended by a Cabin Check. If takeoff is not accomplished within the applicable allowance time, the aircraft must be completely deiced, and if frozen precipitation is still present, anti-iced again prior to takeoff. If precipitation stops at or before the time limit of the applicable allowance time and does not restart, takeoff may be accomplished up to 90 minutes after the start of the allowance time. For the conditions listed below, use of this provision also requires that OAT must remain constant or increase: Light ice pellets mixed with light or moderate freezing drizzle Light ice pellets mixed with light freezing rain Light ice pellets mixed with light or moderate rain
What are the six Circuit Breaker Limitations?
The in-flight reset of a tripped circuit breaker should only be accomplished when directed by the QRH. Allow approximately two minutes for cooling before resetting. Resetting a tripped circuit breaker other than when directed by the QRH must be done as follows: A tripped circuit breaker may only be reset once. Allow approximately two minutes for cooling before resetting. An in-flight reset should only be accomplished if, in the judgment of the Captain, regaining use of that system is critical to the safe conduct of flight. The Flight Deck Crew should not reset a tripped circuit breaker on the ground until Maintenance has determined that it is safe to reset. Any time a tripped circuit breaker is reset in-flight by a Flight Deck Crew Member, Maintenance must be notified and a defect entry is required in the Aircraft Logbook.
If there is HAZMAT on board, what is required?
Verify there is a Dispatch Release remark similar to HAZMAT ON FLIGHT - REFER TO NOTAC. If there is no remark, notify the flight's Dispatcher and make a pen and ink amendment to the Dispatch Release. Verify the flight number and destination information is correct. Sign both copies of the NOTAC and/or NOTAC - Revenue indicating awareness that HAZMAT is onboard. Note: Although not required, the original NOTAC prints on paper with red hatchings; in the event it is needed due to irregular operations, the NOTAC may be reprinted or copied on an alternate paper stock. Maintain one copy of the NOTAC(s) and/or NOTAC - Revenue for the duration of the flight leg. Return the second copy to the Operations Agent.
What is the definition of suitable airport?
The most suitable airport to handle the non-normal situation. Several factors should be evaluated to determine airport suitability. Dispatch can be a valuable source of information in determining airport assets and operational status of those assets.
What is the only controlling minimum for straight-in approaches?
Visibility Neither tower visibility nor Pilot reported visibility (PIREP) can be used to determine approach or landing minimums.
Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)
The normal TCAS operating mode is TA/RA. Under certain circumstances, the TA ONLY mode may be appropriate. By selecting TA ONLY, the Flight Deck Crew effectively takes responsibility for ensuring safe separation and is required to operate at a heightened state of traffic awareness. The TA ONLY mode should be selected under the following circumstances: • During single-engine operations. • During visual approaches to closely spaced parallel runways if annotated on the respective airport's Station Information Page (SIP). The SIP provides guidance as to when TA ONLY is selected. Do not cancel an RA by selecting TA ONLY. If an RA is received prior to selecting TA ONLY, the Flight Deck Crew must maneuver in response to the RA. WARNING: Comply with the RA if there is a conflict between the RA and air traffic control. WARNING: Once an RA has been issued, safe separation could be compromised if current vertical speed is changed, except as necessary to comply with the RA. This is because TCAS II-to-TCAS II coordination may be in progress with the intruder aircraft, and any change in vertical speed that does not comply with the RA may negate the effectiveness of the other aircraft's compliance with the RA. Note: If a stall or initial buffet occurs, or a stick-shaker activates during the maneuver, immediately accomplish the stall recovery procedure. Note: If high speed buffet occurs during the maneuver, relax control wheel pitch force as necessary to reduce buffet, but continue the maneuver. Note: Do not use flight director commands until clear of the conflict. Note: If an RA is received while in cruise at the aircraft maximum operating altitude, the Flight Deck Crew is expected to follow the RA guidance and then return to the cruise altitude when the RA is resolved
How are the galleys and cabin air distribution systems different?
The outflow process differs slightly between the cabin and galleys. Cabin air is pulled down through the recirculation system via filters, while galley air is dispelled through the door seals and ventilation system. Even though the galleys do not have the same recirculation return vents found in the cabin, the air is still continually being drawn out and replenished.
Thunderstorm Shapes and Radar Returns
The shape and color of radar returns can provide valuable clues to the Pilot. It is important to remember that the size of an echo is not a valid measurement of its intensity. Below are some important facts to remember about thunderstorm shapes and radar returns. ● Small thunderstorm cells can be just as dangerous as large ones. ● During the growth stage, a thunderstorm can build for 45 minutes or more. In this period, it may grow to a height in excess of 40,000 ft at a rate in excess of 6,000 ft per minute. Be very cautious about flying over any echo with crisp, well-defined return lines. Round or Oval Shapes Convective showers and thunderstorms usually produce a round or oval echo. The more the shape deviates from round or oval, the greater the recommended deviation distance. Steep Gradient Returns An echo's gradient is the distance from the outer edge of the radar return to the maximum color intensity in the center of the echo. The rain gradient depicted in an echo is an indication of the vertical shear potential. The steeper the gradient, or the quicker the color radar return changes from green to magenta, the greater the potential for extreme vertical and horizontal shears. Asymmetrical Gradient Be especially cautious of echoes with lopsided or asymmetrical gradients Notches, Fingers, and Hooks Any type of U or V shaped notch is an indication of an extreme vertical shear. "Fingers" are a characteristic of hail producing storms. If the finger appears to curl into a loop, suspect a tornado. Be especially cautious of an echo with a large hook protruding from the southwest edge of the return. Pendant and Frying Pan Shapes Most major tornado producing storms are pendant shaped. Typically, these returns are oriented with the large end northeast, and the small end southwest. A notch in the large end indicates strong winds aloft that are moving from the small end towards the large end. Variations of the pendant shape include the "spearpoint" and the "frying pan" shapes, both of which also produce hail and extreme wind gusts. Scalloped Edges A wavy, scalloped edge on the echo is typical of a hail producing storm. Square turns within the gradient indicate extreme conductive activity. Protrusions, fingers, and hooks on the far side of the contour, pointing toward the radar antenna, suggest extreme hail shafts. Dissipating and Building Echoes An indistinct, fuzzy appearance along the outer periphery of an echo indicates that the storm has begun to dissipate. Echoes with well defined, crisp lines indicate that the storm is in the growth stage. Hourglass Shape Echoes shaped like an hourglass usually contain two cells and should be avoided. One cell will usually become dominant and draw in energy and moisture from the weaker cell. This can result in an atmospheric explosion, producing severe microbursts, surface gusts in excess of 70 kt, and heavy rain. Crescent Shape Crescent-shaped echoes have a bowed shape that arches opposite the direction of the radar range marks. It is a shadow-producing, severe thunderstorm. A variation of the crescent shape is an echo that has a "dip" on the back side of the echo. Radar Shadows Always avoid radar shadows. They are easily identified by selecting the appropriate range and adjusting the antenna tilt down to a position that shows ground return on the outer third of the indicator. Radar shadows are the black areas at the outer extremity of the displayed range.
Where do you find the Date/Time information for manual programming?
The time and date are also shown on the POS INIT page. Confirm the correct UTC time and date are displayed. Whole and tenths of minutes and the month/day are taken from the First Officer's clock. The hours are manually programmable via a scratchpad entry even though no dash or box prompts exist.
What is the definition of Touchdown Zone?
The touchdown zone is the area of the runway 500 ft to 3,000 ft beyond the landing threshold not to exceed the first one-third of the usable length beyond the threshold.
What does LNAV use during the final approach segment require?
The use of both flight directors.
What is the only EPGWS limitation (and one that you will never use) ?
The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions is prohibited within 15 NM of takeoff, approach, or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain database. The look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions must be inhibited by selecting the TERR INHIBIT switch to INHIBIT. Note: All hard-surfaced runways longer than 3,500 ft are in the EGPWS database so this most likely only applies to checkairmen flying planes after emergencies or mistakes.
Predictive Windshear Alerts
The weather radar uses radar imaging to detect disturbed air prior to entering a windshear. Note: The weather radar provides windshear alerts for windshear events containing some level of moisture or particulate matter. Note: The weather radar detects microbursts and other windshears with similar characteristics. The weather radar does not provide alerting for all types of windshear. The Flight Deck Crew must continue to rely on traditional windshear avoidance methods.
Where is the wireless system components located in the cabin? What are the associated circuit breakers?
The wireless broadband system cabin components are installed in the cabin ceiling in the vicinity of Rows #4 and #19. P6-1 panel, positions B13, B14, B15, B16, and B17
Land at Nearest Suitable Airport
There are some situations where the Flight Deck Crew must land at the nearest suitable airport. Landing at the nearest suitable airport is required when directed by a QRH checklist. In addition, landing at the nearest suitable airport must be accomplished when there is: • Engine failure Note: Subsequently restarting the engine does not relieve this requirement for landing at the nearest suitable airport. • Engine fire • APU fire • Wheel well fire • Cabin smoke/fire that persists • One main AC power source remaining (i.e., engine or APU) • One hydraulic system remaining (the standby system is considered a hydraulic system) • Any other situation the Captain determines may adversely affect safety if the flight is continued It must be stressed that for smoke that continues or a fire that cannot be positively confirmed to be completely extinguished, the earliest possible descent, landing, and evacuation must be done. The following terms are defined for clarity to support the Captain's decision making: • Nearest Airport - Nearest airport in point of time. Two airports of different distances may be considered equal airports if a normal descent requires the same amount of time to arrive at either airport. If persistent smoke, fire or other potentially catastrophic situation is encountered, an emergency descent may be appropriate, in which case the closer airport may be the better choice. • Suitable Airport - The most suitable airport to handle the non-normal situation. Several factors should be evaluated to determine airport suitability. Dispatch can be a valuable source of information in determining airport assets and operational status of those assets. The following are a few (but not necessarily all) factors that should be evaluated to determine the suitability of an airport: Emergency Response: • Are medical/crash/fire/rescue assets available at the airport? • Are they operational and manned (late at night or holidays)? • Are they required? Airport Facilities: • Are the appropriate navaids and approaches available and operational for the current weather? • Is the runway of sufficient length to allow for a safe landing based on the non-normal situation? • If the Passengers must be deplaned (other than an emergency evacuation), does the airport have jetways or airstairs available? Does the airport have facilities to accommodate the Passengers in extreme or inclement weather so they do not have to remain onboard? Weather: • Will the current weather conditions allow a safe approach and landing? • Will the non-normal situation, remaining aircraft systems and Flight Deck Crew workload and situational awareness allow a safe approach and landing? • Are the current weather conditions stable or deteriorating? • Are there significant crosswinds that may adversely affect the landing based on the non-normal situation? On-line versus Off-line Airport: • All factors being equal, landing at an on-line airport may be desirable. • Discounting important factors just to choose an on-line airport over an off-line airport or to enhance Passenger convenience is not appropriate. Immediate Landing - An immediate landing implies immediate diversion to a runway. Anytime a smoke, fire or fumes situation becomes uncontrollable, an immediate landing should be considered. In severe situations, Flight Deck Crews should consider an otherwise unsuitable runway, an off-airport landing or a ditching. Checklists directing an engine shutdown must be evaluated by the Captain to determine whether an actual shutdown or operation at reduced thrust is the safest course of action. Consideration must be given to the probable effects of running the engine at reduced thrust. There are no non-normal checklists for the loss of an engine indication or automatic display of the secondary engine indications. Continue normal engine operation unless a limit is exceeded
What note dictates how you must you fly a Special Authorization (or Reduced Lighting) CAT II ILS?
These approaches are identified with the title "Special Authorization CAT II ILS" and/or "SA CAT II ILS" and an additional chart note that states: "Reduced lighting: Requires OPSPEC, MSPEC, or LOA approval and use of HUD in AIII mode to touchdown."
How do you determine Window Damage to the inner (structural) pane?
To complete the Window Damage Forward (L1, L2, R1, R2) or Window Damage - Unheated Side (L3, R3) checklists, Pilots may need to determine if the inner pane of the affected window is cracked or shattered (because the inner pane is the load-bearing member). This is done by placing the point of an object (e.g., a pencil) on the crack, and then moving the head while focusing on the point of the object. If the crack appears to move relative to the point of the object, the crack is not in the inner pane. If the crack does not appear to move relative to the point of the object, the crack is in the inner pane. A crack in the inner pane may also be detected by running a fingernail across the window's surface. If Pilots are uncertain which pane is cracked or shattered on windows #1 and/or #2, assume that the inner pane is cracked or shattered, and continue with the checklist. If both forward windows delaminate or if forward vision is unsatisfactory, accomplish an ILS approach in AIII mode, if available.
On the Max, passing what altitude after takeoff are you expected to delete a de-rated power?
Trick question. The max does it automatically. Don't do anything.
How many ELTs are required for ETOPS flights?
Two (one fixed in the tail and one portable) ELTs are required for ETOPS.
What concentrations may Type IV fluids be applied?
Type IV fluids are applied only at 100 percent concentration at Southwest Airlines stations.
Which HGS mode is preferred for a CAT II ILS?
Use of the IMC mode is encouraged for CAT II weather conditions, particularly in gusty wind conditions, to avoid illumination of the APCH WARN light.
If flying an arrival with a low cost index, what must you verify?
Verify altitude and speed restriction and adjust any necessary speed inputs to the VNAV DES page in order to comply with speed restrictions on the STAR. If no speed is associated with the STAR, set XX/280.
What happens when the IRS is put in ATT mode?
When ATT is selected, the IRS loses its navigation capability and the ability to automatically produce magnetic heading. These capabilities can only be recovered by turning the system OFF and performing a normal 10-minute IRS alignment cycle with the aircraft parked. To ensure that takeoffs are not accomplished in the ATT mode, Flight Deck Crews should be aware of the following IRS ATT mode indications: ● ATT and HDG flags appear. ● The IRS ALIGN light illuminates steady and after approximately 30 seconds extinguishes. ●The ATT flag retracts and the HDG flags remain in view unless magnetic heading has been manually entered into the IRS.
What are the two possible minimums if you only have a standard CAT II chart but you need to fly it like a Special Authorization (or Reduced Lighting) CAT II ILS?
When TDZ and/or CL lights are inoperative when using a CAT II instrument approach chart, Southwest Airlines is authorized to use the procedures for a Special Authorization CAT II approach (i.e., AIII mode to touchdown) with the standard CAT II chart to published minimums no lower than the following: ● If only TDZ RVR is available—1600 RVR minimum ● If TDZ RVR and rollout RVR available—TDZ 1200 RVR minimum The absence of the TDZ and/or CL lights is mitigated by the use of the HGS in the AIII mode to touchdown. Note: The Standard CAT II approach charts will not have a special note authorizing reduced lighting.
What are some actions Flight Crews can take to reduce brake temperatures and prevent fuse plugs from melting?
When Taxiing: Closely monitor taxi speed during taxi out and in, particularly when the active runway is some distance from the gate. Normal taxi speed is approximately 20 knots, adjusted for conditions. On long, straight taxi routes, speeds up to 30 knots are acceptable. On a dry surface, for turn angles greater than those typically required for high speed runway turnoffs, use approximately 10 knots. Avoid prolonged brake application to control taxi speed, which causes high brake temperatures and increased brake wear. Taxiing long distances with continuous light brake pressure can also cause the wheel fuse plugs to melt and deflate the tires. If taxi speed is too high, reduce speed with a steady brake application and then release the brakes to allow them to cool. Braking to approximately 10 knots and then releasing the brakes results in less heat build-up in the tires and brakes than constantly applying the brakes. During Flight: "Wheels in the well" brake cooling on the B737 is one-third the brake cooling rate of still-air ground cooling at the gate. Extending the landing gear below 10,000' when anticipating an uninterrupted descent to landing is about 10 times more effective than still-air ground cooling at the gate. When Landing: Reduce the amount of energy that goes into the brakes for landing by using reverse detent 2, minimum autobrake level consistent with operational requirements, and a longer rollout on long runways.
When can you take a Pilot Precipitation Assessment?
When an assessment is made indicating that no precipitation is present, request a new weather observation. If departure is imminent and a new weather observation is not issued confirming no precipitation, accomplish the following: Send a message to Dispatch through ACARS (or via radio) stating "No Precipitation Confirm the aircraft is free of precipitation by performing a Flight Deck Check
WINDSHEAR AHEAD Red WINDSHEAR on both attitude indicators RED windshear symbol on navigation display Red WINDSHEAR message on navigation display (all modes)
Windshear close to and directly ahead of the aircraft detected by the weather radar. Enabled during takeoff, below 1,200 ft RA. Predictive windshear symbol on the navigation display shows windshear position (expanded MAP, center MAP, expanded VOR or expanded APP modes only).
Windshear Indications
Windshear is indicated by activation of the GPWS WINDSHEAR warning or may be indicated by the following uncontrolled flight path deviations from normal steady state flight conditions during takeoff or on approach: ● ± 15 kt indicated airspeed ● ± 500 fpm vertical speed ● ± 5° pitch attitude ● ± 1 dot displacement from glideslope ● Unusual thrust lever position for a significant period of time Execute the windshear recovery procedure located in the QRH when windshear is encountered.
GO AROUND, WINDSHEAR AHEAD Red WINDSHEAR on both attitude indicators RED windshear symbol on navigation display Red WINDSHEAR message on navigation display (all modes)
Windshear within 1.5 miles and directly ahead of the aircraft detected by the weather radar. Enabled during approach, below 1,200 ft RA. Predictive windshear symbol on the navigation display shows windshear position (expanded MAP, center MAP, expanded VOR or expanded APP modes only)
MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY RED windshear symbol on navigation display Amber WINDSHEAR message on navigation display (all modes)
Windshear within 3 miles and ahead of the aircraft detected by the weather radar. Enabled during takeoff and approach, below 1,200 ft RA. Predictive windshear symbol on thenavigation display shows windshear position (expanded MAP, center MAP, expanded VOR, or expanded APP modes only).
What are the max usable fuel quantities in both the wing and center tanks?
Wing 1,288 gal. (8,114-9,144 lb) Center 4,299 gal. (27,084-30,522 lb)
Single Engine F/D Go-Around
With a push of either TO/GA switch: ● F/D roll commands hold current ground track at or below 50 ft AGL. Above 50 ft AGL, LNAV will engage. The Roll Mode annunciation will display LNAV engaged above 50 ft AGL. ● Pitch mode engages in TO/GA and the Pitch Engaged Mode annunciation on the FMA indicates TO/GA. ● The F/D target speed is displayed on IAS/Mach display. ● The F/D target speed is displayed on the airspeed cursor. ● F/D pitch commands 13° nose up. As climb rate increases, F/D pitch commands maintain a target speed. - If engine failure occurs prior to go-around engagement, then F/D target speed is the selected MCP speed. - If engine failure occurs after go-around engagement, then F/D target speed depends on whether ten seconds have elapsed since go-around engagement: ○ If prior to ten seconds, the MCP selected approach speed becomes target speed. ○ If after ten seconds and the airspeed at engine failure is within 5 kt of the go-around engagement speed, the airspeed that existed at go-around engagement becomes target speed. ○ If after ten seconds and the airspeed at engine failure is more than 5 kt above go-around engagement speed, then the current airspeed becomes target speed. Note: The target speed is never less than V2 speed based on flap position unless in windshear conditions. F/D commanded acceleration cannot occur until a higher speed is selected on the MCP IAS/Mach display. 4.2.4.3.9 Go-Around Roll Mode - LNAV in Lieu of Track Hold Revised: 05/21/2015 When multiple arm modes such as LNAV and VOR/LOC are set, they will appear on the FMA side by side in white. When a missed approach exists in the flight plan and the FCCs are capable of entering go-around, LNAV arm will be annunciated on the FMA. The roll go-around track hold mode will automatically transition to LNAV during a missed approach. During an approach, if TO/GA is pressed with LNAV arm annunciated on the FMA, the flight director LNAV mode will engage when the aircraft is above 50 ft. Below that altitude the mode will be track hold. Single channel autopilot minimum engage and use heights are not affected. This feature is recommended to support RNP RNAV operations for terminal procedures requiring definitive course guidance.
What are the four Pressurization System Limits?
With engine bleed air switches ON, do not operate the air conditioning packs in HIGH for takeoff, approach, or landing. *** The fire protection non-normal procedures (QRH) take precedence System safety relief differential pressure: 9.10 psi Maximum cabin differential pressure for takeoff/landing: 0.125 psi Aircraft will not be dispatched on revenue flights if the aircraft must remain unpressurized.
A DISPLAYS CONTROL PANEL on the altimeter display indicates what?
With the control panel select switch on the overhead panel in: ● BOTH ON 1—Left (CA) EFIS control panel has failed ● NORMAL—Corresponding EFIS control panel has failed ● BOTH ON 2—Right (FO) EFIS control panel has failed. Altitude information is removed
The amber BAT DISCHARGE light may illuminate during an APU start. Is this considered normal?
Yes
Can you continue a start if a fuel leak from an engine drain is reported during an engine start? When should you discontinue the start?
Yes The Captain may decide to start or continue the start and run the engine at idle for up to five minutes. The Captain may terminate any engine start at any time if he feels it is the safest course of action. If the fluid leak stops within five minutes, continue normal operations and make an Info Only entry that lists the affected engine and the duration of the fluid leak. Discontinue start if: A) The fluid spill will exceed approximately 50 sq ft, shut down the engine. Note: A 50 sq ft puddle is created by approximately 3 to 4 gallons of fluid dependent on the surface. The ground foot print of an engine cowl on a B737 is approximately 100 sq ft. B) The fluid leak continues after five minutes, shut down the engine using normal procedures and complete a defect entry in the Aircraft Logbook and contact Dispatch and Maintenance Control.
May you still operate an aircraft with an expired RNAV database?
Yes, LNAV use may still be allowed with a database out of currency, provided the following conditions are met: ● Current enroute charts are used to verify the status and suitability of navigation database waypoints/fixes used to define the route prior to departure. ● Approach navigation radios are manually tuned and identified. ● RNAV (GPS) approaches and RNAV (RNP) approaches are not conducted. Go Old School !
The forward service door was open with no jetbridge attached to the aircraft. Is this situation allowed?
Yes. The service door can be open prior to the jet bridge being connected. A change was made in the procedure for when they may disarm the aircraft doors. Specifically, the Flight Attendant Manual (FAM) states "the FASTEN SEAT BELT sign turning off now acts as a trigger to Flight Attendants to disarm doors."
Does HEPA filter operation require the RECIRC FANS?
Yes. Use of RECIRC FANS is required for HEPA filter operation and to ensure that air entering the cabin, galley, and flight deck will always be a combination of HEPA filtered and fresh, outdoor air. Regardless of position or location on the aircraft, the entire passenger cabin air volume is completely exchanged and filtered every 2 to 3 minutes— both while on the ground and while in flight.
How do you determine Quick Turnaround Weight?
You don't. It is determined for you and PWB alone will determine if it has been exceeded.
What are the differences between ATOG, MRTW and PTOW + 2000?
You must delay takeoff until enough fuel is burned to get the GW below the ATOG. You may not takeoff above the ATOG. Alternatively, you can coordinate with your flight's Dispatcher to determine if re-planning the flight can increase the ATOG (a Dispatch Release amendment is required for this option). The displayed MRTW is the maximum weight capability for the environmental conditions, selected runway and runway conditions used in the takeoff data calculations. The displayed MRTW is typically just a bit higher than the TOW. If the takeoff data returned a reduced thrust solution, the MRTW will increase when the new takeoff data is computed using MAX thrust. PTOW+2000 is primarily a planning limit enforced by PWB when the Operations Agent computes weight and balance. If exceeded, the planned cruise altitude may be affected resulting in an increased fuel burn, and the Operations Agent will notify the flight's Dispatcher who will issue a new Dispatch Release using a more accurate PTOW.
Fly Off Segment
a short, level segment between the FAF and the final glide path
Observe the following maximum holding speeds and timing rules:
● 200 kt—Up to and including 6,000 ft (timing one minute) ● 230 kt—Above 6,000 up to and including 14,000 ft (timing one minute) ● 265 kt—Above 14,000 ft (timing one and a half minutes) When operational considerations require holding at greater speeds, ensure that ATC is advised. The minimum holding speed for Southwest Airlines aircraft in the clean configuration is the flaps up maneuvering speed unless otherwise specified in the B737NG AOM or B737MAX AOM.
What are the factors that should be evaluated to determine the suitability of an airport for landing in an emergency?
• Emergency Response: • Are medical/crash/fire/rescue assets available at the airport? • Are they operational and manned (late at night or holidays)? • Are they required? • Airport Facilities: • Are the appropriate navaids and approaches available and operational for the current weather? • Is the runway of sufficient length to allow for a safe landing based on the non-normal situation? • If the Passengers must be deplaned (other than an emergency evacuation), does the airport have jetways or airstairs available? Does the airport have facilities to accommodate the Passengers in extreme or inclement weather so they do not have to remain onboard? • Weather: • Will the current weather conditions allow a safe approach and landing? • Will the non-normal situation, remaining aircraft systems and Flight Deck Crew workload and situational awareness allow a safe approach and landing?
What conditions must be satisfied to continue an approach below DA, DDA, or MDA?
● (All Approaches) The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and where that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone. ● Do not descend below MDA until the aircraft has reached the visual descent point, if published, except where a descent to the runway cannot be made using normal procedures or rates of descent if descent is delayed until reaching that point. ● (CAT III) Controlling RVR must be reporting at or above minimums for the landing runway. ● (CAT I) Flight visibility is not less than the visibility published on the standard instrument approach procedure being used. Flight visibility is the forward visibility from the flight deck as assessed by the Flight Deck Crew at DA, DDA, or MDA. ● At least one of the following sufficient visual references (as applicable) is distinctly visible and identifiable: - Approach lighting system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 ft above the TDZE using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable - Threshold - Threshold markings - Threshold lights - Runway end identifier lights - Visual approach slope indicator - Touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings - Touchdown zone lights - Runway or runway markings (CAT I only) - Runway lights (CAT I only)
If touchdown occurs beyond 1,500 ft past the threshold/displaced threshold, from which three distances is the latest touchdown point (LTP) derived and a go-around is required if touchdown occurs beyond?
● 1,500 ft plus PWB stopping margin (for the level of autobrake selected or approximated) ● 3,000 ft ● 1/3 of the usable landing length.
What operational requirements are associated with the three different RNAV approaches (RNP/GPS/GNSS)?
● Both flight directors must be operative and used for the approach. ● RNAV (RNP), RNAV (GPS), and RNAV (GNSS) must be listed in the approach chart title. ● Either Pilot may fly the approach and land. ● LNAV and VNAV MCP modes must be used (LNAV/VNAV PATH on the FMAs). Select/verify LNAV when cleared for the approach. ● RNAV (RNP) approaches must be flown to the DA minima. ● RNAV (GPS) approaches are flown to the following minima: - LNAV/VNAV—DA - LNAV—DDA ● Ensure landing configuration prior to 1,000 ft TZDE. The FAF on RNAV (RNP) approaches can be below 1,000 ft TDZE. ● Monitor Navigation Performance Scales. The NPS pointer must be maintained between the ANP bar limits. Note: The HGS does not display Navigation Performance Scales. For approaches with RF legs during the final approach segment, use the approach category applicable to VTARGET. If not displayed in large font, manually enter the chart-depicted speeds. "MAX" speeds should be entered as "at or below" (e.g., 210B/6000). For example, a Category C B737 must slow to 140 KIAS at the FAF. A missed approach prior to the DA(H) requires the current segment speed to be maintained for the RF leg. RF legs must be flown at or below the speed reflected in the FMC.
The PIREP braking descriptors are as follows:
● DRY ● GOOD ● GOOD TO MEDIUM ● MEDIUM ● MEDIUM TO POOR ● POOR ● NIL Similar to Runway Condition Codes except without numbers. P Provide a PIREP when braking action advisories are in effect or any time actual braking action is less than GOOD (if braking action advisories are not in effect).
Under which three conditions must you discontinue RNAV operations?
● FMC message "UNABLE REQD NAV PERF-RNP" is displayed. ● There is no operable FMC. ● There is no operable CDU. Advise ATC of inability to continue RNAV procedures, and request vectors.
When must the APU Bleed Valve be closed?
● Ground air is connected and isolation valve is OPEN. ● Engine Bleed Valve #1 is OPEN. ● Isolation valve and Engine Bleed Valve #2 are OPEN. APU bleed valve may be OPEN during engine start provided engine power is not above idle.
What are the seven Ground-Based Non-Precision Approaches that can be flown in VNAV?
● LOC ● LOC/DME ● LOC (BC) ● LDA ● LDA/DME ● VOR ● VOR/DME
What are the six Mandatory Pilot Reports to Dispatch?
● Lateral deviations from the planned route by greater than 100 NM ● Vertical deviations from the planned altitude by greater than 4,000 ft ● ETA will exceed planned by greater than 15 minutes Remember: 100/4000/15 ● Fuel system component failure/malfunction, use of deicing or anti-icing systems or other consumption in excess of planned that may have a negative effect on trip fuel requirements. ● The flight encounters weather significantly different than forecast, including turbulence ● The flight is assigned en route or arrival holding Remember: Fuel, Weather and Holding
When must an Engine Start be aborted (7 conditions)?
● No N1 before the start lever is raised to idle ● No increase in EGT within 15 seconds (ground) or 30 seconds (in flight) after the start lever is raised to idle ● EGT rapidly approaching the start limit ● EGT exceeding the start limit ● Engine tail pipe fire ● No/very slow increase in N1 or N2 after EGT indication ● No oil pressure indication by the time the engine has stabilized at idle
Any time the Flight Deck Crew suspects an altimetry system error or assigned altitude deviation of 200 ft or more, the Captain must:
● Notify ATC. Refer to 10.3.12 RVSM—Weather Encounters and Aircraft System Failures. ● Notify the Dispatcher within Network Operations Control (NOC) as soon as workload permits. Provide the Dispatcher with the cause of the altitude-keeping error and the actual altimetry error or altitude deviation. ● File an Irregularity Report (SOPI IR). Refer to 22 Accident/Incident/Safety Reporting. Include information provided to NOC/Dispatch and all causal factors that may have contributed to the error. An ASAP report cannot be used in lieu of the required Irregularity Report.
Hazardous weather phenomena are grouped into four levels of intensity:
● Occasional Moderate (OCNL MOD/MDT)—Isolated reports of or the forecast of turbulence that causes slight, rapid, and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness without appreciable changes in altitude or attitude (FPG chart only). ● Moderate (MOD/MDT)—Multiple reports of or the forecast of turbulence that causes intermittent, rapid, and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness without appreciable changes in altitude or attitude (WSI SIGMET and FPG charts). ● Occasional Severe (OCNL SVR)—Isolated reports of or the short-term forecast of turbulence that causes large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude and usually results in large variations in indicated airspeed. The aircraft may be momentarily out of control (WSI SIGMET chart only). ● Severe (SVR)—Multiple reports of or the short-term forecast of turbulence that causes large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude and usually results in large variations in indicated airspeed. The aircraft may be momentarily out of control (WSI SIGMET chart only).
What are the meanings of the four possible Flight Attendant Chimes?
● One ring—on the ground, indicates approximately one minute until takeoff and the Flight Attendants should be seated and strapped in. After takeoff, one ring indicates climbing through 10,000 ft MSL. Prior to landing, one ring notifies the Flight Attendants to secure the cabin for landing, prior to descending below 10,000 ft MSL. ● Two rings—answer service interphone (flight deck or Flight Attendant). ● Three rings—Alert—Flight Attendant contacts the flight deck as soon as duties permit. If flight deck entry is required, use normal access procedures. ● Four rings—Emergency—"A" Flight Attendant contacts the flight deck immediately. "B" and "C" Flight Attendants begin preparing the cabin by cleaning up, checking slides, and reviewing emergency procedures. If the Flight Attendant rings four times, there is an emergency in the cabin that requires immediate communication, via the service interphone, with the flight deck
What are the CAT II RVR requirements for transmissometers?
● TDZ RVR reports must be no lower than the approach chart minimums. ● TDZ RVR is required and controlling for all CAT II operations. ● MID RVR, if available, is controlling below 1600 RVR. ● Rollout RVR is required and controlling below 1600 RVR except in the following cases: 1) MID RVR may be substituted for rollout RVR if rollout RVR is unavailable. If substituted, MID RVR must report 600 RVR or greater. 2) Far End RVR is advisory unless substituted for an unavailable rollout RVR. If substituted, Far End RVR must report 300 RVR or greater.
A Dispatcher may not plan cost differential fueling:
● When the anti-skid system is inoperative. ● When reverse thrust is inoperative. ● When braking action at the departure or arrival airport is reported less than 5-GOOD. ● Within 1,000 lb of the Dispatch landing performance limit. ● When Max Quick Turn Weight will be exceeded. ● Into California or Florida when the flight time exceeds two hours 30 minutes, except for terminating aircraft. Note: When conditions unexpectedly change, the flight may be operated without defueling provided the Captain and Dispatcher agree that the takeoff, en route, and Dispatch landing limits will not be exceeded.
