Quizzes Ch. 13, 14, 15, 16, & 17
What is a common site for an avulsion fracture of the pelvis?
Anterior inferior iliac spine
Which one of the following is a complication of a hip dislocation?
Avascular necrosis
Which one of the following is an incorrect statement about an acute femur fracture?
Bone displacement is usually due to the great strength of the hamstrings
Which statement is correct regarding an injury to the lateral collateral ligament?
Can be managed the same as an injury to the MCL
A hip sprain is best revealed through the athlete's inability to do what action?
Circumduct the thigh
What symptom is associated with stress fractures?
Complaints of pain that increases after activity
Which of the following conditions occurs 12 hours after injury and is most intense after 24 to 48 hours?
DOMS
Which phase of the healing process involves scar formation and repair?
Fibrobalstic
Which endpoint indicates a first-degree sprain to a ligament?
Firm with little or no instability and some pain present
The most common mechanism of injury that leaves the posterior cruciate ligament at greatest risk for injury is which of the following?
Landing on the anterior aspect of the bent knee with the foot plantar flexed
An avascular necrosis of the femoral head seen in children 3 to 12 years of age is called what?
Legg-Perthes disease
Which ligament protect the knee from valgus stress and external tibial rotational forces?
Medial collateral
What is a general term to describe pain in the ball of the foot?
Metatarsalgia
What is a condition in which nerves are entrapped between the metatarsal heads producing swelling with distal, radiating pain?
Morton's neuroma
Repeated stress on the pubic symphysis and adjacent bony structures by the pull of muscles in the area causes what condition?
Osteitis pubis
Which one of the following injuries would NOT cause a joint effusion?
Patellar tendinitis
The anterior cruciate ligament prevents which one of the following?
Posterior movement of the femur on the tibia in weight-bearing
An irritation located between the calcaneus and the Achilles tendon is commonly called a "pump bump." It is also known as what?
Retrocalcaneal bursitis
Fractures of the phalanges are usually the bone-crushing type, such as those that may be incurred by kicking an object or stubbing the toe.
True
Which of the following is not a sign of anterior compartment syndrome?
Weakness in the gastrocnemius
Which one of the following is a common cause of chondromalacia?
abnormal patellar tracking
Which one of the following mechanisms causes a transverse fracture?
bending
What is the condition when tissue fluid pressure has increased because of the confines of the fascia and/or bone resulting in compression of the muscles, nerves, and blood vessels?
compartment syndrome
Movements at the hip include all the the following EXCEPT:
eversion
What is a bunion formation also known as?
exostosis
The quadriceps muscles primary job is to:
extend the knee
Which best describes tendinosis?
failed healing of the tendon
Acute injuries are caused by repetitive running, throwing, or jumping while chronic injuries are caused by trauma.
false
Jumper's knee is tendinitis of the hamstring tendon caused by repeated landing stress.
false
Morton's toe is a condition in which the second metatarsal is abnormally long.
false
Osgood-Schlatter disease is more prevalent in older athletes.
false
Treatment for a compartment syndrome includes ice, compression, and elevation
false
Vigorous stretching of a quad strain should begin immediately after the injury.
false
The lateral malleolus is part of what bone?
fibula
A bunion is usually associated with a bone growth on what part of the foot?
first toe
After a first time patellar dislocation, the athlete is commonly immobilized for a minimum of how many weeks?
four
In the lower leg there are how many separate compartments containing muscles, tendons, blood vessels, and nerves?
four
What type of fracture is characterized by an incomplete break in a bone that has not completely ossified such as bones in young children?
greenstick fractures
A positive Thomas Test indicates tightness in which muscle group?
hip flexors
What motions occur at the subtalar joint?
inversion and eversion
All of the following statements about a high ankle sprain are true EXCEPT:
it is quick to heal and easy to treat
A painful condition involving partial or complete separation of a piece of articular cartilage or subchondral bone is which of the following?
joint mice
Which of the following is a common site for osteoarthritis?
knee lumbar spine hips all of the above
When working together, the biceps femoris, gracilis, sartorius, and popliteus muscles are responsible for:
knee flexion
The hamstring muscle group is responsible for:
knee flexion and hip extension
What is the most frequently injured aspect of the ankle?
lateral
Hip injuries are best prevented or minimized by:
maintain strenght and flexibility of the hip muscles
What is a stress fracture of the 2nd metatarsal?
march fracture
Which phase of the healing process may take several years to complete?
maturation
Which one of the following complications is a result of repeated blows to the same area?
myositis ossificans
The presence or absence of point tenderness is determined during which portion of the foot assessment?
palpation
A fallen medial longitudinal arch is associated with what condition?
pes planus
What is another name for flat feet?
pes planus
A common foot condition with a sudden onset of pain in the arch region that is relieved by becoming non weight-bearing and presents with extreme point tenderness at the plantar surface of the calcaneus may be indicative of what condition?
plantar fascia strain
Which muscle extendS the knee?
rectus femoris
A condition which involves a chronic inflammation at the attachment of the Achilles tendon on the posterior calcaneus in young athletes is known as what condition?
severs disease
Which one of the following would be considered an acute injury?
shoulder subluxation
What type of injury occurs when a bone comes partially out of its normal articulation then goes right back into place?
subluxation
Eversion ankle sprains are associated with which of the following?
tearing of the deltoid ligament
Why is the shin vulnerable to contusions?
the close proximity of tibia to the surface of the skin
What degree classification of a ligament sprain involves total tearing of tissue?
third degree
A Jones fracture involves the 5th metatarsal while a March fracture involves the 2nd metatarsal.
true
Pain of the pubic symphysis (termed osteitis pubis) is common in runners, soccer players, football players, and wrestlers.
true
Proper footwear can prevent some of the common ankle injuries
true
Proper physical conditioning is a critical component of preventing knee injuries.
true
Stress fractures in the tibia of a runner most commonly occurs in the middle of the shaft.
true
Tenosynovitis is the inflammation of the tendon sheath causing the sliding tendon to adhere to the synovial sheath.
true
The function of the pelvis is to support the spine and trunk and to transfer their weight to the lower limbs.
true
The innominate bones of the pelvis are made up of the ilium, ischium, and pubis.
true
The medial meniscus is much more commonly torn or injured than the lateral meniscus.
true
The two most commonly contused muscles are the quadriceps and the biceps group.
true
Tibia fractures require a longer immobilization time compared to fibular fractures because the tibia is a weight bearing bone.
true
Turf toe is a hyperflexion injury of the great toe
true
A first time dislocation should be considered and treated as a fracture.
ture