Research: Chapter 8, 9, 10, 11, 13 Practice Questions

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A nurse studies the effects of teaching the MyPlate.gov materials to preschoolers by providing this education to preschoolers in a single day care center and then following their BMI scores over a 5-year period and comparing their scores to those of children from another day care center. In this study, which element is represented by the O in the PICOS acronym? a. BMI scores b. Five-year follow-up c. MyPlate.gov materials d. Preschoolers

A

A parameter is a characteristic of a. a population. b. a frequency distribution. c. a sample. d. a normal curve.

A

A researcher administers two instruments known to measure opposite concepts and performs correlational analyses on the results. The original measure has a negative correlation of -0.6 with the new measure. This indicates a. both measures are valid. b. neither measure is valid. c. only the first measure is valid. d. only the second measure is valid.

A

A researcher collects scores measuring weight among school-age children who are in an obesity prevention program and notes that several students are morbidly obese with most students falling within or below the 85th percentile for weight. The scores from the morbidly obese children will affect which measure of central tendency the most? a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. All the above are affected equally.

A

A researcher conducts a study and calculates a mean value of 100 in a set of scores ranging from 90 to 300. Which other measure will the researcher report when describing central tendency in this data set? a. Median b. Mode c. Range d. Variance

A

A researcher conducts a study to examine the effects of breastfeeding on infant weight at age 6 months. Which type of measurement is used to measure the infants' weight? a. Direct b. Indirect c. Nominal d. Ordinal

A

A researcher evaluates whether a tool addresses the major elements of the construct being studied. This helps to ensure a. content validity. b. equivalence. c. internal consistency. d. readability level.

A

A researcher is analyzing the following data set. Which value represents the range? a. 43 b. 46 c. 46 d. 57 e. 67 f. 69 g. 78 a. 35 b. 46 c. 57 d. 58

A

A researcher may use which strategy to reduce the potential for measurement error when evaluating obesity in study subjects? a. Measure weight, abdominal girth, and BMI on all subjects. b. Train multiple data collectors to take measurements. c. Use scales in several different clinical settings to obtain data. d. Utilize a single measure, such as BMI, applied to all subjects.

A

A researcher reports that a measure is highly sensitive when diagnosing patients. The reviewer understands that this test a. has a low percentage of false negatives. b. has a low percentage of false positives. c. has a high percentage of false negatives. d. has a high percentage of false positives.

A

A researcher studying subjects who have pulmonary disease presents a data set to describe the different conditions the subjects experience and reports the following data. Which number represents the mode for this data set? Asthma 4 COPD 6 Chronic bronchitis 4 Pulmonary hypertension 7 a. 4.0 b. 5.25 c. 6.5 d. 7.0

A

A researcher studying the effects of an intervention on symptoms measures the time from intervention to absence of symptoms and reports this in the number of days. This measure represents which level of measurement? a. Interval b. Nominal c. Ordinal d. Ratio

A

A researcher tests a measurement tool's validity by administering it to a group of subjects who don't have health insurance and a group who have health insurance to examine attitudes about access to health care. The researcher is looking for evidence of validity from a. contrasting groups. b. convergence. c. divergence. d. readability.

A

A researcher uses a checklist of questions to ask participants while collecting data for a study. This represents which type of data collection? a. Structured interview b. Structured questionnaire c. Unstructured interview d. Unstructured questionnaire

A

A researcher wishes to evaluate the reliability of a visual analog pain scale in a group of postoperative patients. The best way to do this is to compare results a. to results of the test when given to another set of subjects. b. to results from the same subjects using the FACES rating scale. c. to results from a previous measure with a different visual analog scale. d. to results from a group of subjects who have minimal or no pain.

A

A researcher wishes to present data identifying pain scores for a group of subjects using a grouped frequency distribution table. Which is true about using this method? a. Each group must have equivalent ranges in scores. b. Ranges may overlap from one group to the next. c. Some data may not fit into any group. d. There should be no more than five groups of scores.

A

After a clinical drug trial to measure the effects of atorvastatin administration on low-density lipoprotein levels, which of the following conclusion statements is acceptable in the research report? a. Findings of clinical drug tests suggest that atorvastatin works to reduce low-density lipoprotein levels in study subjects. b. Results of this clinical drug trial demonstrate that atorvastatin works to reduce low-density lipoprotein levels in all adults over age 65. c. The negative correlation between atorvastatin administration and low-density lipoprotein levels indicates that atorvastatin causes a decrease in LDL levels. d. The study proved that atorvastatin decreases low-density lipoprotein levels.

A

An instrument that detects the presence of streptococcal antibodies is negative. Before reporting the absence of disease, the researcher must determine whether this result might be a a. false negative. b. false positive. c. gold standard. d. true positive.

A

Based on study data, a researcher predicts that a population mean will fall within a specific range of data. This is called the a. confidence interval. b. range. c. standard deviation. d. validity measure.

A

In a study to examine motivational techniques to help adolescent smokers to quit smoking, the null hypothesis states that the intervention will have no effect on this population. The researcher establishes a level of significance of 0.01. When analyzing the data, the researcher concludes that there is a significant difference between subjects receiving the intervention and those who do not. In this study, a type I error means there is a a. 1% chance that the conclusion is wrong. b. 1% chance that the conclusion is correct. c. 99% chance that the conclusion is wrong. d. 99% chance that the null hypothesis is correct.

A

The median scores of two groups participating in a study are exactly the same for a particular variable. This suggests that the a. average score is the same for both groups. b. the middle score is the same for both groups. c. the most frequent score is the same for both groups. d. groups are very much alike in relation to the variable.

A

The nurse researcher understands that nonparametric analyses are conducted if the variables are measured at what two levels? a. Nominal and ordinal b. Nominal and interval c. Nominal and ratio d. Ordinal and ratio

A

The type of validity that focuses on the extent to which an individual's score on an instrument or scale can be used to estimate his or her present or concurrent performance on another variable or criterion is known as a. concurrent validity. b. content validity. c. construct validity. d. predictive validity.

A

To develop a clinical question when reviewing the effectiveness of nursing interventions, the nurse will use which format? a. PICOS b. PRISMA c. Study design d. Systematic review

A

What must a researcher describe to identify that a comprehensive, systematic literature search was conducted? a. All key search terms and databases used in the search b. A list of gray literature sources used in the review c. The date restrictions applied to the literature search d. The use of literature only from prestigious journals

A

When a researcher concludes that study findings are applicable to the total population, this is an example of a. generalization. b. inference. c. probability. d. significance.

A

When using the Stetler Model of Research Utilization, the nurse researcher critically appraises the research reports to determine their soundness. Which part of the model is this? a. Phase II: Validation b. Phase III: Comparative Evaluation c. Phase IV: Translation/Application d. Phase V: Evaluation

A

Which describes an outlier? a. A data point with a value outside what is predicted by other data points b. Any data point far from the median point, but still within 2 standard deviations from the mean c. A study result that is directly attributable to randomness d. A study score from a subject lost to attrition after the study begins

A

Which is an accurate statement about measurement error? a. Some error is always present in any measurement strategy. b. There is no difference between the true measure and what is actually measured. c. Direct measures, which generally are expected to be highly accurate, are not subject to error. d. With indirect measures, the element being measured can be seen directly.

A

Which is the strongest source of research and evidence for developing evidence-based guidelines? a. Meta-analyses of specifically focused research questions b. Panels of experts sharing their opinions on best practices c. Quasi-experimental studies d. Rigorous experimental studies

A

Which is true about a sample that is heterogeneous? a. It has a wide variation in scores. b. Scores will be clustered around the mean. c. The measure of range will be small. d. The standard deviation cannot be calculated.

A

Which is true about a test that is highly specific? a. It is good at identifying patients who do not have a disease. b. It is good at identifying patients who have a disease. c. It results in an increased number of false negatives. d. It results in an increased number of false positives.

A

Which is true about using data from an existing database? a. It allows larger sampling and complex analyses. b. The burden on participants is higher than when primary data collection is used. c. The researcher can draw upon data that are specific to a study. d. Research reports do not have to describe data collection procedures.

A

Which statement is true about using a questionnaire to collect data? a. Questions are presented consistently with less chance for bias than with an interview. b. Questionnaires are generally more expensive than interviewing techniques. c. Subjects usually give more in-depth answers when responding to questionnaires. d. The response rate is generally higher than when using interviews to collect data.

A

Which statement is true about validity? a. Validity evaluates an instrument for a specific group or purpose. b. Validity occurs when an instrument is valid across situations. c. Validity measures are absolute. d. Validity measures are independent of reliability.

A

Which type of scale is most commonly used in a survey of patient satisfaction? a. Likert scale b. Numeric rating scale c. Rating scale d. Visual analog scale

A

Which of the following are accurate statements about the data collection process when conducting research? Select all that apply. a. The actual steps of collecting data are specific to each study and depend on the research design, sample, and measurement techniques. b. Study participants may be recruited only at the initiation of data collection, but not throughout the data collection period. c. It is not necessary for the researchers to specify the number and characteristics of subjects who decline to participate in the study. d. The key to accurate data collection in any study is consistency. e. Researchers build controls into their study plan to maximize the influence of intervening forces on the findings.

A,D

Which of the following are true statements about the challenges to evidence-based nursing practice? Select all that apply. a. EBP requires synthesizing research evidence from randomized controlled trials (RCTs), which are still limited in nursing. b. Systematic reviews and meta-syntheses conducted in nursing also are limited when compared with other disciplines. c. All healthcare agencies and administrators do not provide the resources or support necessary for nurses to implement EBP. d. More work is needed to promote the use of evidence-based guidelines with individual patients. e. Lack of support and resources for EBP include unlimited funds to support research projects.

A,D

Which of the following are true statements about a Likert scale? Select all that apply. a. It is designed to determine the opinions or attitudes of study subjects. b. It is the least commonly used of the scaling techniques. c. The original version of the scale included three response categories. d. Sometimes seven options are given on a response scale, sometimes only four. e. It usually consists of 10 to 20 items, each addressing an element of the concept being measures.

A,D,E

Which of the following are true statements about the research outcome addressing implications for nursing'? Select all that apply. a. Implications for nursing are the meanings of conclusions from scientific research for the body of nursing knowledge. b. Implications for nursing include replications or repeating the design with a different or larger sample using different measurement methods. c. Implications for nursing include the formation of hypotheses to further test the framework in use. d. Implications for nursing are restrictions or problems in a study that may decrease the generalizability of the findings. e. Implications for nursing provide specific suggestions for implementing the findings in nursing.

A,E

The benefit to using a sample that utilizes narrow sampling criteria is that there is increased: a. control of extraneous variables. b. generalizability. c. heterogenicity. d. range of values and scores.

ANS: A A sample that is narrowly defined is more homogeneous and has greater control of extraneous variables. The narrower the sample, the less generalizable it is. A narrow sample is homogeneous, not heterogeneous. A narrow sample will have a smaller range of values and scores.

A researcher wishes to study the effects of a nursing intervention on children with cancer and obtains a sample of school-age children hospitalized for cancer treatment in a local hospital. This sample represents the: a. accessible population. b. general population. c. target population. d. theoretical population.

ANS: A An accessible population is the portion of the target population to which the researcher has reasonable access. The sample is obtained from the accessible population. A general population is the population, not just those meeting eligibility criteria. The target population is the entire set of individuals who meet the sampling criteria. The theoretical population is the same as the target population, which is the entire set of individuals who meet the sampling criteria.

Which is a type of probability sampling? a. Cluster b. Convenience c. Network d. Quota

ANS: A Cluster sampling is a type of probability sampling. Convenience, network, and quota sampling are all types of nonprobability sampling.

When conducting a study in which it is not possible to determine the true number of subjects who meet eligibility criteria and obtaining a random sample would be time consuming and expensive, the researcher will use which sampling method? a. Cluster sampling b. Simple random sampling c. Stratified random sampling d. Systematic sampling

ANS: A Cluster sampling is often used when the researcher is unable to identify the individual elements making up the population and when obtaining a random sample is time consuming or expensive. Simple random sampling is the most basic random sampling technique and is usually used when the population is clearly identifiable. Stratified random sampling is used when the researcher knows some of the variables in the population that are critical for achieving representativeness. Systematic sampling is used when an ordered list of all members of the population is available and involves selecting every kth individual on the list.

Which of the following is true about convenience sampling? a. It tends to be less expensive and easier to conduct. b. It requires fewer subjects to achieve a representative sample. c. It is used more often in quantitative research. d. It allows the researcher greater control over extraneous variables.

ANS: A Convenience sampling is less expensive and a relatively easy method of obtaining subjects. The number of subjects needed is not determined by sampling technique but by the type of data collected. Convenience sampling is not used less often in qualitative research. Convenience sampling offers less control over extraneous variables.

A nurse conducts a study to examine the effects of a new intervention on FEV1 levels in patients with COPD and uses all patients admitted to a hospital during a 2-month period. This is an example of which type of sampling method? a. Convenience b. Network c. Quota d. Random

ANS: A In convenience sampling, the researcher uses subjects as they are available until the desired sample size is reached. Network sampling uses social networks to obtain subjects who might not be readily accessible otherwise. Quota sampling involves convenience sampling but adds techniques to ensure that certain subject types are represented. Random sampling attempts to ensure that all potential subjects have equal, random chances to participate.

A researcher plans to utilize a systematic random sampling method from a population of 5000 eligible subjects, using a sample of 200 subjects. Beginning at a randomly selected point on the list of subjects, what is the gap between elements? a. 25 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200

ANS: A In systematic sampling, the researcher selects every kth individual on a list, beginning at a randomly selected starting point. The population size is divided by the desired sample size to give the gap between elements. 5000/200 = 25. A gap of 50 between elements would be correct for a sample size of 100 subjects. A gap of 100 between elements would be correct for a sample size of 50 subjects. A gap of 200 between elements would be correct for a sample size of 25 subjects.

In a qualitative study, a sample may be too small if a. the depth of information is low. b. the effect size is too large. c. the saturation of information is high. d. the scope of the study is narrow.

ANS: A Information gained in a qualitative study must be in depth and of high quality to be meaningful. If the depth or quality is low, the sample size should be increased. The effect size is related to the effects of the independent variables on the dependent variables and is a measure of quantitative studies. When saturation of information levels is low, the sample size is too low. A narrow scope means that a smaller sample may be used.

Which is a type of nonprobability sampling? a. Purposeful b. Simple random c. Stratified random d. Systematic

ANS: A Purposeful sampling is a type of nonprobability sampling. Simple random, stratified random, and systematic sampling are all types of probability sampling.

The goal of appropriate sampling in research is to: a. accurately reflect the characteristics of the target population. b. completely define the traits of the accessible population. c. identify all attributes of the sample population. d. study an entire population

ANS: A Sampling involves selecting a group of people, events, behaviors, or other elements with which to conduct a study. Samples are expected to represent a target population of subjects who meet eligibility criteria for inclusion in the study. The accessible population are those people who are available for participation in the study. The accessible population may not be representative of the target population. The aim of sampling is to represent the target population, not to merely identify characteristics of the sample population. The goal of sampling is to study a representative sample of the larger population on which conclusions about the larger population may be drawn.

A researcher conducting a qualitative study knows that saturation of information has occurred when a. additional sampling reveals redundant information. b. data collected confirms theoretical models. c. subjects participating are representative of the general population. d. the desired sample size has been reached

ANS: A Saturation of information occurs when additional sampling provides no new information, only redundancy of previously collected data. Verification of information occurs when theoretical models or hunches are confirmed. Stratified and quota sampling seek participants who are representative of the general population. Achieving the desired sample size helps to improve the power of the study and improve the significance of findings.

A pilot study reveals a wide variation in measurement values among subjects with an overall mean value that is higher than among the general population. By increasing the sample size in a subsequent study, the researcher expects to a. decrease the variation of scores among subjects. b. increase the variation of scores among subjects. c. decrease the mean value of scores among subjects. d. increase the mean value of scores among subjects.

ANS: A The random variation of scores is the expected difference in values that occurs when different subjects from the same sample are examined. As sample size is increased, this variation decreases. The systematic variation is related to selecting subjects whose measurement values differ from those of the population. Increasing the sample size has no effect on mean scores.

Which setting is the most highly controlled setting? a. A nursing home unit b. A research sleep lab c. A school-based clinic d. An intensive care unit

ANS: B A research sleep lab is a special unit designed to conduct research or to collect data and allows the most control by the researcher. A nursing home unit and an intensive care unit allow for partial control. A school-based clinic allows for the least control.

Which type of research study tends to require a larger sample size than the others? a. Case study b. Descriptive study c. Experimental study d. Quasi-experimental study

ANS: B Descriptive studies often require very large samples. Multiple variables may be examined, and extraneous variables are likely to affect subject response(s) to the variables under study. Case studies are, by definition, composed of a very small sample, possibly even just one individual. Experimental studies often have fewer subjects than a descriptive or correlational study. Quasi-experimental studies often have fewer subjects than a descriptive or correlational study.

In a study of patients who have dementia, a researcher wishes to examine the effects of moderate exercise on patients' abilities to perform self-care. The researcher decides to use subjects between 70 and 80 years of age who have been diagnosed with dementia for less than 1 year. A patient who is 65 years old meets: a. eligibility criteria. b. exclusion criteria. c. inclusion criteria. d. sampling criteria.

ANS: B Exclusion criteria are characteristics that the researcher does not want in the elements or subjects of the study. Inclusion criteria, eligibility criteria, and sampling criteria are those characteristics that the subject or element must possess to be part of the target population.

In qualitative research, the sampling plan is developed to a. decrease systematic bias. b. increase the representativeness of the findings related to the phenomena. c. minimize the need for discussion of cultural elements of the study. d. reduce sampling error.

ANS: B In qualitative research, a sampling plan is developed to increase representativeness of the findings related to the phenomenon, processes, or cultural elements being studied. Decreasing systematic bias and reducing sampling error are the goals of sampling in quantitative research. Decreasing systematic bias and reducing sampling error are the goals of sampling in quantitative research. The cultural elements of the study are unrelated to sample size.

Which of the following is true about sample size in a qualitative study? a. It is determined by the sensitivity of the measurement tools. b. It is considered adequate when the researcher detects no new knowledge. c. It is influenced by the expected effect size and the probability of a type II error. d. It is determined by the number of variables and data analysis techniques.

ANS: B In qualitative research, the researcher looks for data saturation, which is reached when no new information is being discovered from additional subjects. Quantitative research sample size is influenced by the sensitivity of the measurement tools, effect size, probability of a type II error, number of variables, and data analysis techniques.

The goal of sampling theory is to a. clearly define sample types used in research studies. b. determine the best way to achieve representative samples. c. develop methods for collecting data more efficiently. d. provide frameworks for data analysis.

ANS: B Sampling theory was developed to determine the best way to acquire a sample that accurately reflects the population under study. Part of sampling theory is defining sample types, but this is not the goal of sampling theory. Part of sampling theory is developing methods for collecting data, but this is not the goal of sampling theory. Sampling theory does not provide frameworks for data analysis

A researcher enters a list of subjects from a sampling frame into a computer and the computer randomly assigns subjects to control or treatment groups. This is an example of a. cluster sampling. b. simple random sampling. c. stratified random sampling. d. systematic sampling.

ANS: B Simple random sampling is the most basic of the probability sampling plans and is achieved by randomly selecting elements from the sampling frame. It can be done by computer, as in this case. Cluster sampling occurs when the researcher selects subjects from groups of subjects within the larger population, as with groups from specific regions or cities. Stratified random sampling occurs by ensuring that the proportions of characteristics among the population are represented in both the control and experimental groups. Systematic sampling is used when an ordered list of all members of the population is available and involves selecting every kth individual on the list.

A researcher begins a study with 250 subjects, and 50 subjects drop out before the study is concluded. The researcher will declare 20% as the sample a. acceptance rate. b. attrition rate. c. refusal rate. d. retention rate.

ANS: B The sample attrition rate is the percentage of subjects who withdraw from a study after the study has begun. The acceptance rate is the percentage of subjects who meet eligibility requirements who consent to participate. The refusal rate is the percentage of subjects who meet eligibility requirements who refuse to participate. The retention rate is the percentage of subjects who remain in the study after the study has begun.

Which of these sampling techniques is least likely to produce findings that are generalizable to a larger population? a. Cluster b. Convenience c. Quota d. Systematic

ANS: B There is little opportunity to control for bias in a convenience sample. Cluster sampling is a type of random sampling and is much stronger than convenience sampling. Quota provides for a more representative sample than convenience sampling, so it is stronger. Systematic sampling is a type of random sampling and is much stronger than convenience sampling.

A researcher conducts a survey of patients seen in an inner-city ambulatory clinic to determine barriers to receiving health care. The target population includes African-American, Hispanic, and Somali immigrant patients, as well as a variety of foreign-born students from a nearby university. The researcher chooses subjects from the African-American, Hispanic, and Somali immigrant populations to participate. This is which type of sampling? a. Network b. Purposive c. Quota d. Theoretical

ANS: B With purposive sampling, the researcher consciously selects certain participants to include in the study and may or may not include all typical subject types. Network sampling takes advantage of social networks and the fact that friends tend to have characteristics in common. Quota sampling involves techniques to ensure that certain subject types are represented to improve the representativeness of the total population. Theoretical sampling is used in qualitative research to develop a selected theory and subjects are selected based on their ability to provide relevant, varied, and rich information for theory generation.

During a study about nurses' ability to teach lifestyle changes in patients with coronary artery disease, the researcher discovers that many nurses have negative attitudes about obesity. The researcher develops a survey to examine these attitudes. This is an example of a. grounded theory research. b. intraproject sampling. c. saturation of information. d. verification of information.

ANS: B Intraproject sampling is done during data collection and analysis when new information is needed to gain insight into a phenomenon or concept that arises during the study. Grounded theory research is concerned with development of theories. Saturation of information occurs when additional sampling provides no new information, only redundancy of previously collected data. Verification of information occurs when researchers are further able to confirm hunches or theories.

Which type of setting is most commonly used in qualitative research? a. Controlled b. Multiple c. Natural d. Partially controlled

ANS: C A natural, or field, setting is a real-life, uncontrolled environment and is often used for descriptive and correlational quantitative research and in qualitative studies. Controlled and partially controlled settings are more commonly used in quantitative research. Researchers may choose to conduct a study using multiple settings, but this is not as common as using natural settings in qualitative research

A researcher tests a measurement tool in a pilot study and notes a wide variance in scores. To improve the significance of the study's findings in subsequent studies, the researcher will a. apply quota sampling techniques. b. decrease the sample size. c. increase the sample size. d. use cluster sampling techniques.

ANS: C As variance in instrument scores increases, the sample size needed to obtain significance increases, so the researcher should increase the sample size in subsequent studies. Quota and cluster sampling techniques help to increase the representativeness of the sample but do not affect the significance of the measurement findings.

A researcher wishes to identify all school-age children who have type 2 diabetes mellitus in a local community to develop a sampling methodology for a study of this population. Which might serve as a barrier to obtaining this information? a. Affordable Care Act (ACA) b. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) d. Institutional Review Board (IRB)

ANS: C HIPAA contains guidelines about sharing patient information and may serve as a barrier to obtaining names of potential subjects. The ACA does not address the sharing of patient information. COBRA is concerned with healthcare coverage after termination of coverage. IRBs govern the use of human subjects in research.

A researcher will conduct a qualitative study about partners of patients diagnosed with sexually transmitted diseases. This researcher will use which sampling technique to achieve the best representation of this population? a. Accidental sampling b. Cluster sampling c. Network sampling d. Simple random sampling

ANS: C Network sampling is useful for locating samples that are difficult or impossible to obtain in other ways. Network sampling takes advantage of social networks and the fact that friends tend to have characteristics in common. Accidental or convenience sampling would not be likely to yield an adequate sample of individuals with sexually transmitted diseases. Cluster sampling would not be the best method for finding the desired sample in this case. Simple random sampling would not work well because the researcher is looking for a specific subgroup of the general population.

A researcher wishes to examine whether a teaching program for parents increases adherence to a drug regimen among children with seizure disorders. A convenience sample of children in a large teaching hospital is proposed. To prevent confounding of the results by socioeconomic status and type of health insurance, the researcher will utilize which additional sampling technique? a. Cluster b. Network c. Quota d. Theoretical

ANS: C Quota sampling involves convenience sampling but adds techniques to ensure that certain subject types are represented. Cluster sampling occurs when the researcher selects subjects from groups of subjects within the larger population, as with groups from specific regions or cities. Network sampling uses social networks to obtain subjects who might not be readily accessible otherwise. Theoretical sampling is used in qualitative research to develop a selected theory. Subjects are selected based on their ability to provide relevant, varied, and rich information for theory generation.

To decrease the probability of systematic variation in a study to evaluate the effects of a teaching program on disease management, the researcher will use which sampling process? a. Cluster sampling b. Convenience sampling c. Random sampling d. Systematic sampling

ANS: C Random sampling decreases the probability of systematic bias. Cluster, convenience, and systematic sampling increase the risk that the sample population has attributes that differ from the general population.

A researcher begins with a registry of all patients with HIV in the United States. The researcher uses a computer to generate a random sample from the list, and then those individuals agree to participate in a study. What kind of sample has been created? a. Cluster b. Convenience c. Simple random d. Stratified random

ANS: C Simple random sampling is when every member of the population has an equal chance of selection for the sample. Cluster sampling occurs when a researcher develops a sampling frame that consists of a larger division than the one desired and it is chosen randomly; then subjects from the chosen subsets are selected randomly. A convenience sample is based on any member of the target population that is easily accessible to the researcher. In a stratified sample, knowledge about characteristics of the population is used to create a sample that is representative of the larger population.

In a study investigating type 2 diabetic patients' ability to make lifestyle changes, the researcher randomly selects a sample from a list of all patients diagnosed with type 2 diabetes in the United States. The researcher also selects the sample by randomly selecting patients diagnosed for 3 years or longer and those who are newly diagnosed. What sampling technique is used in this study? a. Cluster b. Quota c. Stratified random d. Systematic

ANS: C Stratified random sampling is used when certain characteristics of the group are identified and then proportionately included in the randomly chosen sample. In cluster sampling, a researcher develops a sampling frame that includes a list of all the possible elements of the identified population, and those are randomly selected. Then the sample is randomly selected from those groups. Quota sampling is a type of convenience sampling in which a predetermined number of subjects is drawn from groups within the population to ensure appropriate representation. Systematic sampling is selecting every kth individual from a listing of the population

A researcher who wishes to study the effects of a prenatal breastfeeding education program on the length of time African-American inner-city women breastfeed infants learns that 70% of women in the target population are unmarried. To achieve stratified random sampling in a sample of 50 subjects, the researcher will a. conduct the study using unmarried subjects only. b. randomly assign all subjects to control versus experimental groups. c. select a random sample of 35 unmarried and 15 married subjects. d. select 25 subjects who are married and 25 who are not married.

ANS: C Stratified random sampling is used when the researcher knows some of the variables in the population that are critical for achieving representativeness, such as marital status. In this case, subjects are randomly selected, but stratification by marital status to match the target population proportions helps to improve generalizability of the findings. Using only married subjects makes the results ungeneralizable to unmarried subjects. Randomly assigning subjects without stratification does not make the groups representative. Having equal numbers from each group is possible if subjects are randomly assigned and not selected.

Which statement is true about systematic sampling? a. A nonrandom starting point is used when selecting subjects. b. It can be used when the desired sample size is unknown. c. It provides a random chance for inclusion as a subject. d. Subjects have an equal chance for inclusion in the study.

ANS: C Systematic sampling provides a random but not equal chance for inclusion. A random starting point is used in this type of sampling. Systematic sampling is used when the desired sample size is known. Subjects do not have an equal chance for inclusion.

Prior to initiating a research study, a researcher conducts a power analysis to determine the sample size necessary for a power level of 0.8 and an alpha of 0.05. The researcher will a. apply a quota sampling technique to improve generalizability. b. decrease the sample size to minimize costs. c. increase the sample size to avoid a type II error. d. use stratified random sampling to minimize error.

ANS: C The minimum acceptable level of power for a study is 0.8, which results in a 20% chance of a type II error. This study has a 40% chance of such an error and is unacceptable. To increase the power, the researcher should increase the sample size. Quota sampling and stratified random sampling do not necessarily affect a study's power.

A researcher wishes to conduct a survey of attitudes about illness among young adults with cystic fibrosis. The researcher contacts a nearby regional medical cystic fibrosis clinic, where 250 young adults who have cystic fibrosis are seen. A group of 50 young adults are selected to complete the survey. These 50 people are the a. accessible population. b. elements of the population. c. sample population. d. target population.

ANS: C A sample is that group of people who are representing the entire population and participating in the study. Samples are expected to represent an entire population. The accessible population is that portion of the entire population that the researcher can use; which, in this case, would be the 250 patients at this medical center. The target population is the entire set of individuals who meet the sampling criteria. An element is an individual unit of a study population.

A nurse researcher compares the outcomes of administration of a bronchodilator either via nebulizer or by metered-dose inhaler and collects data on subjects in a pediatric inpatient hospital unit. This is an example of which type of setting? a. Controlled b. Field c. Natural d. Partially controlled

ANS: D A partially controlled setting is an environment that is manipulated or modified in some way by the researcher. A hospital unit allows researchers control over the environment in this way. A controlled setting is an artificially controlled environment that allows a high level of control by the researcher and usually involves research centers or laboratories. A natural, or field, setting occurs naturally, without control by the researcher.

In order to decrease the time needed to achieve saturation in information in a qualitative study, the researcher will: a. broaden the scope of the study. b. increase the number of theoretical concepts. c. keep definitions of concepts vague. d. narrow the study's scope.

ANS: D If a topic is difficult to define and has a broad scope, it will take more subjects to obtain quality data. To decrease the time needed for data collection, the researcher will narrow the scope of the study. Increasing the number of concepts, using vague definitions, and broadening the scope of the study will all result in increased time needed to collect data.

researcher uses a sample whose members have characteristics like those of the population from which it is drawn. This is an example of a a. cluster sample. b. purposive sample. c. random sample. d. representative sample.

ANS: D Representativeness means that the sample, accessible population, and target populations are alike in as many ways as possible. Knowing a sample as a cluster sample, purposive sample, or random sample tells how it was created but does not define a representative sample.

A researcher conducts a pilot study using a convenience sample of children with seizure disorders. A reviewer of this study's manuscript may conclude that the findings of this study a. are generalizable to most children with seizures. b. have little credibility; they are extremely biased. c. provide no useful information. d. should be replicated using a wider population.

ANS: D Representativeness of the sample is a concern in convenience sampling, and generalizability is therefore limited. In a convenience sample, representativeness of the sample is a concern, and generalizability is therefore limited. Not all studies with a convenience sample are more biased than studies with other sampling methods. Intervention studies with a convenience sample can certainly provide useful information, even though further testing might be needed to be able to apply the findings to a large population.

A researcher wishes to conduct a study to determine the effects of an intervention on high school students. In this study, high school students represent the a. accessible population. b. elements of the population. c. sample population. d. target population.

ANS: D The target population is the entire set of individuals who meet the sampling criteria. An accessible population is the portion of the target population to which the researcher has reasonable access. An element is an individual unit of a study population. A sample is that group of people who are representing the entire population and participating in the study. Samples are expected to represent an entire population.

A researcher wishes to evaluate the management of chemotherapy side effects in children with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL). Children with ALL in this study are an example of which of the following? a. Accessible population b. Element of the population c. Sample population d. Target population

ANS: D The target population is the entire set of individuals who meet the sampling criteria. The accessible population is that portion of the entire population that the researcher can use. An element is an individual unit in a study. A sample is a subset of the population that represents that population.

During the data collection phase of a qualitative study, the researcher notes previously untheorized links among concepts. The researcher will continue to collect data until: a. a quota of each subject type is achieved. b. saturation of information is noted. c. the desired sample size is attained. d. verification of information occurs.

ANS: D Verification of information occurs when theoretical models or hunches are confirmed. When new links are noted during the study, data collection should continue until verification of this information has occurred. Quota sampling seeks participants who are representative of the general population. Saturation of information occurs when additional sampling provides no new information, only redundancy of previously collected data. Achieving the desired sample size helps to improve the power of the study and improve the significance of findings.

When using stratified random sampling, the researcher can a. achieve greater control over subject selection. b. avoid discussion of the effects of extraneous variables. c. lower the costs associated with sampling. d. use a smaller sample size.

ANS: D With stratification, the researcher can use a smaller sample size and achieve the same degree of representativeness in relation to the stratified variable as a large sample acquired through simple random sampling. The researcher does not achieve greater control of subject selection, since random selection is still used. Discussion of extraneous variables should always occur, even with stratified random sampling techniques. There is no guarantee that costs will be less with this type of sampling technique.

5. A nurse conducts a study to see whether there are differences in the number of books Latino parents and the number of books African-American parents read to their toddlers each week. Which type of study will this researcher utilize? a. Comparative descriptive b. Correlational c. Cross-sectional d. Longitudinal

Ans: A A comparative descriptive design is used to describe variables and to examine differences in variables in two or more groups that occur naturally in a setting that may have been formed using gender, age, or socioeconomic status.

3. A nurse researcher wishes to identify rates of pertussis infection in children less than one year of age and then again at 6 years of age to examine the relationship of immunization status on infection rates in this population. This is an example of which type of study design? a. Correlational, longitudinal b. Correlational, cross-sectional c. Descriptive, longitudinal d. Descriptive, cross-sectional

Ans: A A correlational study design looks at predictive relationships between variables. A longitudinal study design refers to data collection from the same subjects at different points in time.

11. A study in which subjects are assigned by the researcher into experimental and control groups increases: a. bias. b. control. c. manipulation d. validity.

Ans: A Bias occurs when the attitudes or motivations of the researcher cause a deviation from a true measurement of the study variables. This may occur when researchers control assignment to study groups.

14. A researcher conducts a quasi-experimental study to determine whether there is improved weight gain among premature infants who are fed according to cue-based protocols. The researcher trained neonatal intensive care nurses to apply cue-based feeding to orally fed infants and notes a statistical difference in weight gain between infants fed according to cue-based protocols and those fed according to standard protocols. The reviewer notes that components of cue-based feedings are not clearly identified. This is a threat to: a. construct validity. b. external validity. c. internal validity. d. statistical conclusion validity.

Ans: A Construct validity is concerned with the fit between conceptual and operational variables and requires adequate conceptual and operational definitions.

28. In a quasi-experimental study design, the group that receives standard care is usually referred to as the: a. comparison group. b. control group. c. experimental group. d. treatment group.

Ans: A In a quasi-experimental study, the group that does not receive treatment is usually referred to as the comparison group.

25. In order to increase participation among potential subjects of a larger population, the researcher will: a. limit the time and effort required to participate in the study. b. provide demographic information about those who refuse to participate. c. provide instruments that are detailed to increase the amount of data collected. d. offer potential subjects a financial incentive to participate in the study.

Ans: A Limiting the investment demands on subjects helps to improve participation.

31. When using Consolidated Standards for Reporting Trials (CONSORT) guidelines to critically appraise a randomized controlled trial (RCT), the nurse will make sure that the study: a. is designed to definitively test a hypothesis. b. is conducted in a laboratory to minimize setting bias. c. uses subjects selected by the researcher for participation. d. uses a descriptive or correlational design.

Ans: A RCTs should be designed to be a definitive test of the hypothesis that the intervention caused the defined dependent variables.

22. Which action will the researcher take to improve construct validity? a. Allow data collectors to know which subjects are assigned to which groups b. Ensure that operational definitions reflect theoretical constructs c. Make sure that the researcher is involved in data collection d. Utilize only one measurement method to measure study variables

Ans: B Construct validity depends on adequate definition and measurement of constructs. The conceptual definition should emerge from the concept analysis and the operational definition should clearly reflect both.

16. A researcher conducts a quasi-experimental study to determine whether there is improved weight gain among premature infants who are fed according to cue-based protocols. The researcher trained neonatal intensive care nurses to apply cue-based feeding to orally fed infants and notes a statistical difference in weight gain between infants fed according to cue-based protocols and those fed according to standard protocols. The reviewer notes that parents who gave consent to participate in the study were from a higher socioeconomic class than the population as a whole. This is a threat to: a. construct validity. b. external validity. c. internal validity. d. statistical conclusion validity.

Ans: B External validity is concerned with the extent to which findings can be generalized beyond the study sample.

24. Multiple replications of an initial study conducted in different populations produce findings that do not match those in the initial study. The initial study may lack which type of validity? a. Construct validity b. External validity c. Internal validity d. Statistical conclusion validity

Ans: B External validity is concerned with the extent to which findings can be generalized beyond the study sample.

6. A researcher wishes to conduct a correlational study to determine whether there is a relationship between stress levels and relapse rates among patients who have chronic conditions. In order to determine the existence of a relationship between these two variables, the researcher will attempt to: a. manipulate the level of stress in study subjects. b. obtain a large range of possible scores. c. provide lengthy descriptions of subjects behaviors. d. randomly assign subjects to study groups.

Ans: B In correlational designs, a large range in the variable scores is necessary to determine the existence of a relationship.

12. In a quasi-experimental study examining the effects of nonpharmacologic treatments on postoperative pain management, the researcher trains nursing staff so that all experimental group subjects receive the same types of treatments. This is an example of: a. bias. b. manipulation. c. reliability. d. validity.

Ans: B Manipulation is a form of control used in quasi-experimental and experimental studies and may involve control of the intervention so that it is applied consistently.

17. A researcher develops a 7-point Likert scale to evaluate feelings of well-being in patients who are undergoing chemotherapy. The researcher administers this measure to other, similar patients in other medical centers. This is done in order to: a. decrease mono-operation bias. b. improve the test-retest reliability. c. increase interrater reliability. d. strengthen the operational definition of constructs.

Ans: B To improve the reliability of the measurement tool, it should be tested in various settings to determine whether it gives consistent measures each time it is used.

7. If a researcher wishes to describe variables and to examine many relationships in a study, which type of study design will the researcher employ? a. Correlational b. Descriptive c. Descriptive correlational d. Descriptive cross-sectional

Ans: C A descriptive correlational design is used to describe variables and examine relationships among these variables. Using this design facilitates the identification of many interrelationships in a situation.

18. In a research study, ambulatory clinic nurses teach children with asthma how to monitor peak expiratory flow volumes and how to use metered-dose inhalers to determine whether asthma control scores improve. The researcher discovers inconsistencies in how these measures were taught and how well the children understood the concepts. This represents a lack of: a. control of extraneous variables. b. internal validity. c. intervention fidelity. d. precision of measurement.

Ans: C Consistent implementation of the treatment is referred to as intervention fidelity. If the method of administering a research intervention varies from one person to another, the chance of identifying a true difference based on the independent variables decreases.

4. Which statement is true about a descriptive study design? a. It is not possible to operationally define variables in this type of study. b. Sample selection and size cannot be controlled in descriptive studies. c. This type of design is used to identify problems occurring in practice. d. Variables may be manipulated to avoid bias in this type of study.

Ans: C Descriptive designs may be used to develop theories and identify problems with current practice.

15. A researcher conducts a quasi-experimental study to determine whether there is improved weight gain among premature infants who are fed according to cue-based protocols. The researcher trained neonatal intensive care nurses to apply cue-based feeding to orally fed infants and notes a statistical difference in weight gain between infants fed according to cue-based protocols and those fed according to standard protocols. Which might be a threat to internal validity in this study? a. The concept of cue-based feeding is not well defined. b. The study sample is homogeneous. c. Some infants developed gastroenteritis. d. Not all nurses received cue-based protocol education.

Ans: C Internal validity looks at the influence of extraneous variables on study outcomes.

20. A researcher reviews demographic characteristics of potential study subjects, such as age and gender, to determine whether these characteristics may influence the outcome of the study. This is done to help ensure: a. construct validity. b. external validity. c. internal validity. d. statistical conclusion validity.

Ans: C Internal validity looks at the influence of extraneous variables on study outcomes.

29. In a quasi-experimental study using a convenience sample of subjects from a local high school, the researcher asks potential subjects to volunteer for placement in either a low sugar diet program or a regular sugar diet program. This technique for assigning participation may compromise: a. construct validity. b. external validity. c. internal validity. d. statistical conclusion validity.

Ans: C Internal validity looks at the influence of extraneous variables on study outcomes.

23. A researcher wishes to study the effects of effective sleep hygiene on sleep quality and behavior among children diagnosed with attention deficit disorder. To minimize mono-operation bias, the researcher will: a. accurately describe conceptual and operational definitions. b. adequately discuss construct validity in the introduction. c. evaluate multiple sleep hygiene techniques. d. utilize a double-blind data collection methodology.

Ans: C Mono-operation bias occurs when only one method of measurement is used to assess a construct and can be minimized with the use of multiple measures.

10. A researcher conducts a study to examine possible contributors to glycemic control in a group of subjects who have type 2 diabetes mellitus in a local community. A convenience sample of patients includes patients from 28 to 65 years old who range in weight from normal to obese, with time since diagnosis ranging from several months to several years. To determine causality in this study, the researcher will: a. discuss outcomes in terms of the probability that education will improve glycemic control. b. increase the manipulation of the independent variable to allow greater control by the researcher. c. identify multicausal variables that may influence the outcome of glycemic control measures. d. limit the study to younger persons only to minimize the effects of extraneous variables.

Ans: C Multicausality is the presence of multiple causes for an effect. In this study, patient age, weight, and length of time of diagnosis may all influence the outcome and should be addressed as factors that may alter the results.

9. A researcher theorizes a set of relationships among concepts used to describe why patients with chronic illness are often depressed. To test the accuracy of these hypothesized relationships, which type of study will be used? a. Descriptive correlational b. Grounded theory c. Model testing d. Predictive correlational

Ans: C The model testing design requires all concepts relevant to the model be measured and the relationships among these concepts examined.

26. In order to attribute causality of a posttest measure in an experimental study, the independent variable will be: a. administered to control group subjects only. b. administered to subjects selected by the researcher. c. administered to treatment group subjects. d. defined loosely to avoid bias.

Ans: C To improve determinations of causality, the independent variable should be administered consistently to all subjects in the treatment group.

1. Which type of research design focuses on implementation of a treatment by the researcher? a. Correlational b. Descriptive c. Experimental d. Longitudinal

Ans: C. Quasi-experimental and experimental studies are designed to examine causality between a researcher-implemented treatment and a study outcome.

8. A nurse researcher conducts a study to determine whether women who breastfeed their infants experience better sleep in the first two postpartum months. This study will employ which type of research design? a. Correlational b. Descriptive c. Descriptive correlational d. Predictive correlational

Ans: D A predictive correlational design is used to predict the value of one variable based on the values obtained for another variable or variables.

21. An important measure to decrease threats to internal validity in an experimental study is to: a. apply the intervention consistently. b. improve the precision of measurement methods. c. increase the sample size. d. randomly assign subjects to study groups.

Ans: D An important threat to internal validity is any concern about subject selection and assignment to groups. Randomly assigning subjects to treatment and control groups helps to minimize this threat.

27. In a study to examine the effects of a newly modified anxiety-reducing nursing action on a group of subjects who have cancer, the control group will receive: a. an alternative intervention. b. no intervention. c. the newly modified intervention. d. the standard intervention.

Ans: D In many nursing studies, offering no intervention (when one exists) to subjects in the control group is considered unethical. Subjects in this group generally receive the standard intervention as a comparison to those in the treatment group.

2. A researcher administers a written test to evaluate knowledge of insulin administration and glucose monitoring to a group of subjects at annual intervals over the next decade. This is an example of which type of study design? a. Correlational b. Cross-sectional c. Descriptive d. Longitudinal

Ans: D Longitudinal design refers to data collection from the same subjects at different points in time.

19. A researcher wishes to conduct a study of a small number of subjects on a large hospital intensive care unit. To minimize problems associated with extraneous variables in the study setting, the researcher will: a. ensure double-blind data collection methods. b. randomly assign subjects to treatment and control groups. c. test the reliability of study measures. d. train a small number of nurses to administer the intervention.

Ans: D One way to reduce the effect of extraneous variables is to train a small number of staff to administer the intervention to improve consistency.

30. Which type of study is considered strongest for testing the effectiveness of an intervention? a. Experimental b. Pretest/Posttest c. Quasi-experimental d. Randomized controlled trial

Ans: D Randomized controlled trials are noted to be the strongest methodology for testing the effectiveness of a treatment due to the elements of the design that limit the potential for bias.

13. A researcher conducts a quasi-experimental study to determine whether there is appropriate weight gain among premature infants who are fed according to cue-based protocols. The researcher trained neonatal intensive care nurses to apply cue-based feeding to orally fed infants and notes a statistical difference in weight gain between infants fed according to cue-based protocols and those fed according to standard protocols. The reviewer critiquing the study notes that not all nurses completed the cue-based feeding module. This would affect which type of validity? a. Construct validity b. External validity c. Internal validity d. Statistical conclusion validity

Ans: D Statistical conclusion validity is concerned with whether the conclusions based on statistical analyses are an accurate reflection of the real world. This can be threatened by anything interfering with consistent implementation of a variable, including inadequate training of individuals who implement the intervention.

A data set is found to approximate a normal curve and has a mean of 72.5 and a standard deviation of 10.8. In which range of numbers will 99% of the scores fall? a. 35.8 - 112.6 b. 44.6 - 100.4 c. 51.3 - 93.7 d. 61.7 - 83.3

B

A nurse conducts a study to evaluate the likelihood that single adolescent mothers will breastfeed their newborn infants if they are given materials about the benefits of breastfeeding. The results show a P value of .18. The nurse may conclude that a. the value is too low to be able to draw meaningful conclusions. b. there is an 18% probability that this population will breastfeed their infants. c. there is an 18% probability that this population will not breastfeed their infants. d. there is an 82% probability that this population will breastfeed their infants.

B

A researcher conducts a study to identify the relationship of lifestyle choices to the development of chronic diseases. The researcher surveys subjects and identifies diabetes mellitus, coronary artery disease, and renal disease in study subjects. These measures represent which level of measurement? a. Interval b. Nominal c. Ordinal d. Ratio

B

A researcher conducts an experimental study on patients at different outpatient clinics, including clinics in inner city, suburban, and rural locations. To help ensure that differences in scores are not related to clinic location, the researcher will apply which technique? a. ANOVA b. ANCOVA c. Bivariate correlation analysis d. Factor analysis

B

A researcher correlates self-confidence measures with obesity rates and determines an r value of 0.8. What can the reviewer conclude when evaluating this research? a. There is a 36% chance that variation in one score is the result of variation in the other score. b. There is a 64% chance that variation in one score is the result of variation in the other score. c. There is a 64% chance that variation in one score is the result of variation in something other than the other score. d. There is a weak correlation between these two variables.

B

A researcher develops a new instrument to measure coping skills and conducts a pilot study to compare the new tool with an existing tool that measures this concept. This is an example of evidence of validity from a. contrasting groups. b. convergence. c. divergence. d. readability.

B

A researcher evaluates scores of a paper and pencil instrument with dichotomous variables using the Kuder-Richardson formula. This is a test of a. alternate forms reliability. b. internal consistency reliability. c. interrater reliability. d. test-retest reliability.

B

A researcher has calculated a variance of 9 for a data set. What is this data set's standard deviation? a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

B

A researcher identifies that 2 subjects in an experimental group had scores like those in the control group, while the other 20 experimental group subjects had scores far different from those in the control group. The researcher would consider the scores for the two subjects as a. control group findings. b. outlier scores. c. unexpected findings. d. ungrouped participants.

B

A researcher notes a reliability score of 0.75 between two observers in a clinical drug trial evaluating whether the drug decreases anxiety. This score means that a. there is 25% random error. b. there is 75% random error. c. this is an acceptable measure of reliability. d. this measurement tool is not reliable.

B

A researcher studies the effects of a nursing intervention on a desired patient outcome and discovers a statistically significant difference between groups receiving the intervention and those not receiving the intervention. The researcher concludes that the intervention is effective. This researcher has made a a. generalization. b. statistical inference. c. type I error. d. type II error.

B

A review of demographic data shows that mothers with higher levels of education have fewer children. In this example, the r value is likely to be a. = 0. b. <0. c. >0. d. not definable.

B

A review of demographic data shows that mothers with higher levels of education have fewer children. This represents which type of relationship? a. Asymmetrical b. Negative c. Positive d. Symmetrical

B

A reviewer reads a research report and notes that the number of subjects in the original sample is larger than the number in the final analysis. Besides attrition of subjects, this discrepancy is likely because a. data from the control group are not included in the analysis. b. essential data is missing from subjects no longer included. c. subjects producing outlying data have been excluded from the results. d. the final analysis usually discusses data from the experimental group only.

B

In a discussion that includes the analysis of data collected during a pilot study, the researcher discusses the relationships and differences in data sets and makes predictions based on this analysis. The researcher will use which process? a. Descriptive analysis b. Inferential analysis c. Reliability testing d. Validity testing

B

In a meta-analysis, the researcher displays a symmetrical funnel plot of the data from a group of studies. This indicates a. heterogenicity of study samples. b. limited publication bias. c. methodological bias. d. reporting bias.

B

In a study involving multiple data collectors, the researcher helps to ensure consistency in data collection by a. describing the study participant recruitment process in the research summary. b. detailing the training process of the data collectors in the research report. c. discarding data that includes even minor deviations in data collection methods. d. minimizing the influence of intervening forces on the study findings.

B

The analysis of a nondirectional hypothesis is called a a. one-tailed test of significance. b. two-tailed test of significance. c. three-tailed test of significance. d. no-tailed test of significance.

B

What type of information is typically found in an administrative database? a. Data collected for a specific research study b. Demographic information about a population c. Journal accounts of subjects' responses to surveys d. Statistical results of experimental studies

B

When critically appraising a study, the researcher understands that the data analysis process involves the management of numerical data and the statistical analysis of these data to produce study results. Which statement is true regarding the steps of the data analysis process? a. Researchers always use computers for data analysis. b. Researchers present as complete a picture of the sample as possible in their report. c. Researchers need to report the validity of the measurement methods used in their study. d. Researchers typically do not indicate whether outliers are identified during data analysis.

B

Which EBP model is provided to assist nurses in determining the quality of evidence-based guidelines and the steps for using these guidelines in practice? a. The Iowa Model of Evidence-Based Practice b. The Grove Model for Implementing Evidence-Based Guidelines in Practice c. The Stetler Model of Research Utilization to Facilitate Evidence-Based Practice d. The Idaho Model of Evidence-Based Practice

B

Which can be measured using direct measurement? a. Anxiety level b. Blood pressure c. Diagnosis d. Feelings

B

Which data represent the lowest form of measurement? a. Levels of anxiety on a scale from mild to severe b. Race and ethnicity classification c. Temperature of subjects after an intervention d. Weight, height, and body mass index

B

Which generally is an advantage of using primary data in a research study? a. It allows researchers to conduct more longitudinal studies. b. It has greater specificity to the study purpose. c. It puts less burden on study participants. d. It reduces the cost of data collection.

B

Which method will a researcher use to evaluate a group of qualitative studies? a. Meta-analysis b. Meta-synthesis c. Mixed-methods systematic review d. Systematic review

B

Which of the following is not one of the components of power analysis? a. Effect size b. Error type c. Power d. Sample size

B

Which type of research literature would be included in gray literature sources? a. Book chapters b. Dissertations c. Journal articles d. Textbooks

B

A nurse educator explains the importance of following evidence-based practice (EBP) competencies to a group of prelicensure nursing students. Which statement by a nursing student indicates the need for further teaching? a. "Adhering to institutional review board (IRB) guidelines is recognized as an EBP competency." b. "EBP competencies involve participating effectively in appropriate data collection and other research activities." c. "Consulting with clinical experts after deciding to deviate from evidence-based protocols is necessary." d. "Reading original research and evidence reports related to area of practice is necessary."

C

A nursing professor administers three versions of a final examination to a class of students and compares the examinations for reliability. This is a measure of a. homogeneity. b. interrater reliability. c. equivalence. d. test-retest reliability.

C

A researcher administers a scale measuring self-confidence and one measuring self-doubt to a group of subjects and performs a correlational analysis of the results. This is a test of validity from a. contrasting groups. b. convergence. c. divergence. d. readability.

C

A researcher analyzes scores from two studies in which patients' temperatures were measured after antipyretic medications are given. One study measures temperatures in centigrade and the other in Fahrenheit. The researcher will a. calculate standard deviation measures for each study using their scale values. b. compile all data regardless of scale and calculate measures of central tendency. c. determine a Z-score and then calculate measures of central tendency. d. realize that studies using different measures cannot be compared.

C

A researcher calculates a Pearson product-moment coefficient of 0.2. The reviewer understands that this value represents a. a moderate positive correlation. b. a moderate negative correlation. c. a weak positive correlation. d. a weak negative correlation.

C

A researcher collects the following scores on a set of ranked data. Which is the median score? a. 2 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 e. 10 f. 15 g. 18 h. 21 a. 7 b. 10 c. 8.5 d. 10.5

C

A researcher conducts a power analysis for a study in which there was no difference between control and experimental group scores and identifies a power level of 0.75 and a level of significance of 0.05. What will this researcher do? a. Alter measurement methods to detect larger changes in scores. b. Conclude that the null hypothesis is true. c. Consider repeating the study using a larger sample. d. Lower the level of significance to 0.01.

C

A researcher develops a study to examine the effects of Keep Yourself Safe Screening (KYSS) on the incidence of intimate partner violence (IPV). The study level of significance is 0.05. The null hypothesis, that KYSS will have no effect on IPV, is found to be true. When reviewing the study for type II errors, the reviewer understands that a. a level of significance of 0.01 would decrease the risk of a type II error. b. the level of significance does not affect the chance of a type II error. c. there is a 5% chance that the null hypothesis is false. d. there is a 5% chance that the null hypothesis is true.

C

A researcher evaluating the weight of subjects who are obese ensures that the scales used are maintained and calibrated according to the manufacturer's recommendations. This is to ensure a. accuracy. b. convergence. c. precision. d. validity.

C

A researcher performs a series of pilot studies to evaluate whether a measurement tool produces consistent results. This is an evaluation of a. accuracy. b. precision. c. reliability. d. validity.

C

A researcher presents data to examine the relationship between income and weight and uses a scatterplot to display the results. The researcher places income level intervals along the vertical line in the graph. The reviewer knows that a. data about income represent the independent variable. b. income data are presented along the X axis. c. the plot will show whether the relationship is negative or positive. d. weight values will occur along the Y axis.

C

A researcher studying children identifies the following age groups: Birth to age 12 months 12 months to 3 years 3 years to 5 years 5 years to 12 years 12 years to 18 years These categories are not a. empirical. b. equal. c. exclusive. d. exhaustive.

C

A researcher wishes to display scores representing the relationship between two variables. Which will the researcher use? a. Grouped data table b. Pie chart c. Scatterplots d. Z-score

C

A screening test has a specificity of 92%. This means that there is a(n) a. 92% chance of a true positive. b. 92% chance of a false positive. c. 8% chance of a false positive. d. 8% chance of a true positive.

C

Among subjects with coronary artery disease, a researcher identifies three levels of symptoms which can be categorized by severity. This represents which level of measurement? a. Interval b. Nominal c. Ordinal d. Ratio

C

An appropriate level of significance for nursing research is either a. 0.5 or 0.1. b. 0.03 or 0.003. c. 0.05 or 0.01. d. 0.005 or 0.001.

C

An important goal of inferential statistical analysis is to a. analyze and describe data collected during a study. b. determine whether theoretical constructs are valid. c. generalize results from the study to the target population. d. measure the reliability and validity of measurement tools.

C

Clinicians now can calculate a person's myocardial infarction risk by evaluating several known risk factors, such as cholesterol levels and diabetes. This is possible because of a. bivariate correlation analysis. b. factor analysis. c. multiple regression analysis. d. simple linear regression analysis.

C

In a data set that has a normal distribution what percent of scores will be within two standard deviations above or below the mean? a. 34 b. 68 c. 95 d. 99

C

In a pilot study to help train a group of data collectors who will evaluate children's pain using a FACES rating scale, the researcher examines the reliability of the scores of each data collector. This is an example of which type of reliability measure? a. Alternate forms reliability b. Internal consistency reliability c. Interrater reliability d. Test-retest reliability

C

In a study comparing weight gain between small-for-gestational-age (SGA) infants who were breastfed and SGA infants who were fed formula, researchers noted increased weight gain in infants who were held more regardless of how they were fed. This finding is an example of a a. mixed result. b. nonsignificant result. c. serendipitous result. d. significant result.

C

In a study measuring oxygen saturation levels in infants, the researcher notes that data collectors record low saturation levels that occur when the heart rate is erratic and the infants are irritable and actively moving around. This will likely result in which type of measurement error? a. Environmental b. Equipment c. Interpretation

C

In statistical analysis of data, the alpha value is used to a. describe the degree of generalizability of the findings. b. determine the risk of a type I error. c. reveal whether the P value meets criteria for statistical significance. d. speculate on the frequency distribution of study values.

C

The concept of degrees of freedom refers to a. the level of significance for a study. b. the standard deviation from the mean among data. c. the variability of a given score based on other scores. d. whether statistical analysis is one- or two-tailed.

C

The electronic database covering the English-language journal literature for nursing and allied health is known as a. PsycINFO. b. MEDLINE. c. CINAHL. d. MEDLINE with MeSH.

C

The nurse researcher understands that the levels of measurement, from low to high, are a. nominal, interval, ratio, and ordinal. b. nominal, ordinal, ratio, and interval. c. nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio. d. nominal, interval, ordinal, and ratio.

C

What is the mean value in the following set of scores? a. 128 b. 128 c. 130 d. 135 e. 144 a. 128 b. 130 c. 133 d. 132.8

C

What is the purpose of the PRISMA statement? a. To help researchers develop a clinical question before a review b. To help determine whether studies reviewed should be replicated c. To improve reporting of meta-analyses and systematic reviews d. To outline the abstract when reporting on meta-analyses and other reviews

C

What is the purpose of using exploratory analysis in a research report? a. To compare control and experimental groups b. To develop testable hypotheses c. To examine and describe data d. To identify theoretical constructs

C

What is true about a meta-analysis? a. It helps to determine whether studies should be replicated. b. It identifies and appraises previous research. c. It pools results from previous studies into a single quantitative analysis. d. It replicates previous studies to confirm statistical results.

C

When comparing a study with a level of significance of 0.05 with a study having a level of significance of 0.01, the researcher knows that the study with the level of significance of 0.05 is more likely to have a a. correct null hypothesis. b. generalizable finding. c. type I error. d. type II error.

C

When using the Iowa Model of Evidence-Based Practice, the nurse researcher develops a team to gather and appraise evidence. Which step of the model is this? a. Step 1 b. Step 2 c. Step 3 d. Step 4

C

When using the Stetler Model of research utilization, the nurse researcher reviews the risks, resources, and readiness of staff associated with making changes in practice based on evidence. Which part of the model is this? a. Phase I: Preparation b. Phase II: Validation c. Phase III: Comparative Evaluation d. Phase IV: Translation/Application

C

Which circumstance will call for the use of analysis of variance (ANOVA)? a. A researcher wishes to compare differences in means between four groups. b. A researcher wishes to compare the difference in variance between two groups. c. A researcher wishes to compare the difference in variance among four groups. d. A researcher wishes to compare the difference in correlation between two groups.

C

Which is a true statement about measurement theory? a. A measurement method used by one individual will consistently produce different results when used by another individual. b. Measurement theory was recently developed by musicians, statisticians, and other scholars to guide how things are measured. c. The purpose of measurement is to obtain trustworthy data that can be used to address the study purpose and objectives, questions, or hypotheses. d. The levels of measurement, from low to high, are ratio, interval, nominal, and ordinal.

C

Which is true about a Z-score? a. It identifies the confidence interval for a group of data. b. It is a method for calculating variance. c. It is a standardized score used when data measures use different scales. d. It represents the median data point in any set of data.

C

Which is true about a correlational analysis technique? a. It is most desirable for small samples with homogeneous scores. b. It is used to determine cause and effect among sets of variables. c. It measures the relationship among variables. d. It usually involves comparing data from two subjects.

C

Which is true about a test that is highly sensitive for detecting a disease? a. There is a high probability of having a false negative result. b. There is a high probability of having a false positive result. c. There is a low probability of having a false negative result. d. There is a low probability of having a false positive result.

C

Which is true about the literature search criteria for a meta-analysis? a. They include only published works from refereed journals. b. They include the full range of related sources based on the topic. c. They usually are narrowly focused around the research question. d. They use works from a single database to remain consistent.

C

Which is true about the variance for scores in a data set? a. A larger variance value usually indicates a smaller dispersion of scores. b. It can be calculated for nominal scores. c. The calculated score has no absolute value. d. The variance indicates the range of scores.

C

Which standards were developed to help nursing students develop the skills, knowledge, and attitudes needed to continuously improve quality and safety? a. EBP b. IRB c. QSEN d. ANCC Magnet

C

Which statements would the nurse researcher recognize as being true when using descriptive statistics? Select all that apply. a. The researcher might see analysis techniques identified as parametric or nonparametric. b. Descriptive statistics are conducted to examine relationships, make predictions, and determine causality or differences in studies. c. Descriptive statistics allow researchers to organize numerical data in ways that give meaning and facilitate insight. d. Measures of central tendency that are commonly used in statistical analyses are the mode, median, and margin. e. Researchers report descriptive statistics in tables and in the narrative of the results section of their study.

C,E

A new research methodology (termed "bench to bedside") developed to improve the application of research evidence in practice is known as a. grounded theory research. b. historical research. c. mixed-methods research. d. translational research.

D

A researcher evaluates a measurement tool by administering the tool to a group of subjects every 2 weeks for 8 weeks. This is a measure of the tool's a. alternate forms reliability. b. internal consistency reliability. c. interrater reliability. d. test-retest reliability.

D

A researcher evaluates data from a variety of studies, including those involving qualitative and quantitative research, and uses findings from qualitative studies to interpret synthesized quantitative studies. This is an example of a. meta-synthesis. b. mixed-method synthesis. c. multilevel synthesis. d. parallel synthesis.

D

A researcher evaluates the internal consistency (reliability) a newly developed scale used in a pilot study and notes a Cronbach alpha coefficient of space 0.72. The researcher will a. compare the measure with scores from another group of subjects. b. test the scale for validity prior to using it in another study. c. try another measure with better reliability in another pilot study. d. use the scale in the larger study and continue to monitor coefficient results.

D

A researcher plans to apply a one-tailed test of significance when analyzing data from a study. Which is true about using this test? a. The researcher will be unable to predict whether differences are greater than or less than the mean value. b. This is a nondirectional hypothesis, so values will not tend to vary in a specific direction. c. This may increase the possibility of a type I error when evaluating the significance of the findings. d. This will decrease the possibility of a type II error when drawing conclusions about the data.

D

A researcher reviews study data about head circumference in newborns and notes that study personnel are measuring from the end of the measuring tape and not from the zero point, which is 1 cm from the end. This is an example of which type of measurement error? a. Indirect b. Random c. Reliability d. Systematic

D

A researcher will present demographic data about ethnicity, gender, and diagnoses about a study population using which method? a. Continuous frequency distribution b. Grouped frequency distribution c. Percentage frequency distribution d. Ungrouped frequency distribution

D

A researcher wishes to study the effects of preoperative teaching on anxiety levels among toddlers and preschoolers undergoing surgery. To reduce the potential for measurement error, the researcher will a. ask study subjects to describe feelings of anxiety. b. develop a new tool to measure anxiety levels in children. c. rely on multiple observers to collect data for this study. d. use a standardized checklist of anxiety behaviors.

D

A study measuring the effects of a new diuretic medication records hourly urine output of subjects. This measure represents which level of measurement? a. Interval b. Nominal c. Ordinal d. Ratio

D

A study yielding negative results is withheld for publication for several years, contributing to which type of bias? a. Citation bias b. Location bias c. Outcome-reporting bias d. Time-lag bias

D

Assuming a normal distribution, what range of numbers would include two thirds of the scores if they ranged from 50 to 99, M = 75, and SD = 5? Between a. 55 and 95 b. 65 and 85 c. 68 and 82 d. 70 and 80

D

In a meta-analysis, a researcher wishes to examine differences in temperatures of subjects in two groups but notes that one study uses a centigrade scale and the other study uses a Fahrenheit scale. Which statistic will the researcher apply in this case? a. Dichotomous data reporting b. Funnel plot c. Mean difference d. Standardized mean difference

D

In a study evaluating pulse oximetry measures in infants, a researcher notes that the pulse oximeter probes are attached to infants' feet in different ways. This represents which type of measurement error? a. Environmental b. Equipment c. Subject d. User

D

In research, the probability that any data score will be within a certain range of a mean value is calculated based on the theory of a. frequency. b. inference. c. levels of significance. d. the normal curve.

D

It is important to know the demographic variables among study subjects to a. calculate central tendency and standard deviation of study scores. b. ensure that control and experimental subjects are different. c. ensure that outcomes are not caused by independent variables. d. understand how well the sample represents the target population.

D

To measure test-retest reliability of an instrument, a researcher may use the a. Cronbach alpha coefficient. b. Fischer's exact test. c. Kuder-Richardson score. d. Pearson's correlation statistic.

D

What is true about reporting the mean difference between two groups in a meta-analysis? a. It is a measure of differences between nominal data for the two groups. b. It is an estimate of the effect of differences between the two groups of subjects. c. It is not used to examine differences in ratio-level data. d. It is appropriate only when the same scale is used to measure outcomes.

D

What is true about the Chi-square test of independence? a. Chi-square test of independence results are important calculations in most studies. b. In a relatively small sample size, the Chi-square test of independence can reduce the chance of a type II error. c. The Chi-square test of independence is a powerful test used to examine differences in studies with two subjects. d. The Chi-square test of independence is used to determine whether two variables are related or independent.

D

What statement is accurate about decision theory in understanding the statistical analysis process? a. The level of significance falls within a range based on the degrees of significance. b. It assumes that the groups in a study used to test a hypothesis are components of different populations relative to the variables under study. c. It is used to explain the extent of a relationship, the probability that an event will occur in each situation, or that an event can be accurately predicted. d. It requires that the cutoff point selected for a study be absolute.

D

When a data set has a normal distribution curve, which statement is true about the data? a. The mean is the lowest value. b. The median is the highest value. c. The mode is the central value. d. The mode, median, and mean are equal values.

D

When addressing a healthcare question to determine best practice, the nurse identifies and appraises quality research using a structured, comprehensive synthesis of the research literature to determine the best research evidence available. This is an example of a a. literature review. b. meta-analysis. c. meta-synthesis. d. systematic review.

D

When documenting reports that previous research has demonstrated the accuracy of a physiological measure, the researcher is addressing the measure's a. equivalence. b. homogeneity. c. reliability. d. validity.

D

Which describes the mode of a data set? a. The appropriate measure of central tendency for interval data b. The appropriate measure of central tendency for ordinal data c. The exact center of scores for nominal data d. The score value occurring with greatest frequency

D

Which is important when using observational measurement to produce reliable data? a. Data collectors will record observations in their own words. b. Each subject should have different observers to record responses. c. Observations will be spontaneously recorded as they occur. d. Researchers will develop checklists of notable behaviors for observers to use.

D

Which is true about evidence-based practice? a. Evidence-based guidelines are unrelated to accreditation regulations. b. Evidence-based practice is determined only through experimental studies. c. Most nursing interventions are based on evidence-based principles. d. The use of evidence-based practice results in improved patient outcomes.

D

Which is true about the measure of a data set's range? a. It is an average score. b. It is calculated using central scores. c. It is determined only for interval-level data. d. It is sensitive to outliers in a data set.

D

Which possible outcome of a screening test for a disease indicates accurately that a disease is not present? a. True positive b. False positive c. True negative d. False negative

D

Which research discipline seeks to develop practical applications based on research knowledge? a. Meta-analysis b. Meta-synthesis c. Rigorous experimental studies d. Translational research

D

Which situation will involve the use of inferential statistics? a. A comparison of independent variables in a quasi-experimental study b. A discussion about demographic data c. An analysis of demographic variables of the target population d. An examination of the differences between control and experimental group scores

D


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