SUSCC Microbiology Chapter 14 Test Bank
19. The most numerous WBCs that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are ______. A. neutrophils B. lymphocytes C. monocytes D. basophils E. eosinophils
a
26. A type of monocyte that has long, thin processes to trap pathogens is a(n) ______. A. dendritic cell B. platelet C. macrophage D. eosinophil E. mast cell
a
26. The granules of eosinophils contain ______. A. peroxidase B. antigens C. histamine D. antibodies E. serotonin
a
26. When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues, they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into ______. A. macrophages B. primary phagocytes C. neutrophils D. killer T cells E. cytotoxic T cells
a
34. The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as ______. A. GALT B. the thymus C. lymph nodes D. tonsils E. the spleen
a
40. All of the following are events of early inflammation except A. macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis. B. chemical mediators and cytokines are released. C. brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation. D. exudate and pus can accumulate. E. capillaries become more permeable, resulting in edema.
a
45. Which of the following is mismatched in relation to inflammation? A. Tumor - cancer B. Rubor - redness C. Dolor - pain D. Calor - warmth
a
46. Which of the following is not a chief function of inflammation? A. Cause a fever B. Start tissue repair C. Block further invasion D. Mobilize and attract immune components to injury site E. Destroy microbes
a
49. Each of the following are benefits of fever except A. it increases the availability of iron. B. it increases metabolism. C. it stimulates hematopoiesis. D. it increases phagocytosis. E. it reduces the ability of temperature-sensitive organisms to multiply.
a
49. What type of molecules act to draw phagocytes to foreign substances? A. PAMPs B. IFNs C. BALTs D. RES E. MALTs
a
73. After loading wood into a fireplace, you realize you have gotten a splinter in your finger. Within a short period of time, your finger is painful, red, and swollen, and is warm to the touch. This is an example of ______. A. nonspecific resistance B. specific resistance C. acquired immunity D. adaptive immunity
a
74. A patient visits your clinic often with recurrent respiratory infections. Based upon their medical history, it appears they have been an active smoker for over 40 years. Select the statement that most accurately reflects how this information may reveal why the patient is highly susceptible to respiratory pathogens. A. Smoking can paralyze the ciliary escalator. B. Smoking decreases the formation and effectiveness of complement proteins. C. Smoking directly inhibits B- and T-cell action. D. Smoking decreases the activity of neutrophils.
a
78. The normal human microbiota is considered part of the 1st line of defense because A. microbial antagonism keeps potential pathogens in check. B. microbiota cause an inflammatory response, eliminating pathogens. C. pathogens and normal biota cannot exist in the same location. D. resident bacterial cells stimulate phagocytosis of pathogens.
a
9. Immune system cells differentiate between self and foreign cells by their ______. A. markers B. sizes C. cell processes D. shapes E. cell walls
a
1. All of the following are physical barriers to pathogens, except ______. A. hairs B. T cells C. unbroken skin D. mucous E. tears
b
1. Which body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with its own normal biota? A. Eyes B. Skin C. Urinary tract D. Digestive tract E. Respiratory tract
b
12. The main function of the mononuclear phagocyte system is to provide A. surveillance cells. B. a connection between tissues and organs. C. filtration of extracellular fluid. D. filtration of blood.
b
13. Which of the following fluid compartments is not a partner in immune function? A. Extracellular fluid B. Intracellular fluid C. Blood stream D. Lymphatic system
b
13. Which of the following is incorrect about blood cells? A. They develop from undifferentiated stem cells. B. They include glial cells. C. They include erythrocytes that, when mature, lose their nuclei. D. After birth, they are produced in red bone marrow sites. E. They include leukocytes that are either granulocytes or agranulocytes.
b
18. Which white blood cells comprise 20% to 30% of the circulating WBCs and are the cells that function in the body's specific immune system? A. Monocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Neutrophils D. Eosinophils E. Basophils
b
26. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called _____ because they have prominent cytoplasmic inclusions that appear with identifying, characteristic colors in a stained blood smear. A. agranulocytes B. granulocytes C. monocytes D. leukocytes
b
26. The granules of basophils contain ______. A. digestive enzymes B. histamine C. antigens D. antibodies E. lysozyme
b
46. A person will typically experience the sensation of _____ when fever is starting to occur in the body. A. pain B. chills C. sweating D. heat
b
49. All of the following pertain to interferon except A. it inhibits viruses, tumors, and cancer gene expression. B. it increases capillary permeability and vasodilation. C. it is produced by certain white blood cells and tissue cells. D. it includes alpha, beta, and gamma types. E. it is a protein.
b
49. Which of the following is not a type of phagocyte? A. Monocyte B. Lymphocyte C. Macrophage D. Neutrophil E. Kupffer cell
b
86. You cut your finger dicing chicken for dinner. Which of the following is not a source of chemicals that stimulate the inflammatory response that results from the injury? A. Bacterial cells that infect the wound B. Antibody-producing plasma cells C. Localized leukocytes D. Host tissues damaged by the knife
b
16. The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme, and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are ______. A. basophils B. lymphocytes C. eosinophils D. monocytes E. neutrophils
c
25. All of the following are granulocytes except _____. A. neutrophils B. eosinophils C. lymphocytes D. basophils E. All of the choices are granulocytes.
c
44. The leakage of vascular fluid into tissues is called ______. A. pus B. chemotaxis C. edema D. vasoactivity E. diapedesis
c
49. The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells and viruses. A. lymphoid B. cell-mediated C. complement D. humoral immunity
c
49. Which of the following is not an event of phagocytosis? A. Ingestion B. Destruction C. Diapedesis D. Chemotaxis E. Phagolysosome formation
c
58. What is the first step in the major events of the inflammatory process? A. Activation of complement B. Vascular reactions C. Injury and mast cells releasing chemical mediators D. Formation of pus and edema E. Scar formation and/or resolution
c
60. Which protein can be produced by a virus-infected cell, in order to communicate with other cells that need to produce antiviral proteins? A. Albumin B. Histamine C. Interferon D. Complement E. Lysozyme
c
74. Mycobacterium tuberculosis has chemicals in its cell wall that inhibit the fusion of phagocytic vacuoles with lysosomes. Which statement is true? A. Complement proteins will take over to destroy the bacteria. B. Antibodies produced by the cells can more effectively kill the bacteria. C. The bacterium can survive and replicate inside of the phagocytic cell. D. The bacterium can produce chemicals which can destroy the macrophage housing the bacterium.
c
74. You have severe itching problems when bitten by an insect. Your friend gives you an ointment to spread on your skin around the bite so that the redness and itching do not bother you. The likely mechanism of this medication would be A. the inactivation of neutrophils. B. the destruction of phagocytic cells. C. to act as an antagonist of histamine. D. the inhibition of lysozyme.
c
78. Microbial antagonism is the A. prevention of immune responses by the resident microbiota. B. suppression of the complement cascade by microbes. C. competition for nutrients, oxygen, and space between the resident microbiota and potential pathogens. D. inhibition of T cell binding to microbes.
c
81. Genetic markers that distinguish a self cell from a foreign invader are typically ______. A. DNA or RNA B. lipids or lipoproteins C. proteins or glycoproteins D. polysaccharides
c
81. The mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS) is an intricate network throughout the body that comprises A. connective tissue and monocytes. B. connective tissue and lymphocytes. C. connective tissue fibers and phagocytic white blood cells. D. connective tissue fibers, mast cells, and basophils.
c
86. If an individual has a genetic disorder whereby they lack the ability to make complement protein C3, the likely consequence is A. excessive fever development. B. enhanced inflammation. C. a higher incidence of bacterial and viral infections. D. an inability to synthesize antibodies.
c
9. The term _____ is given to any foreign substance that stimulates a specific immune system response. A. antibody B. allergen C. antigen D. foreign body
c
1. Components of the first line of defense include all of the following, except A. the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin. B. the flushing action of tears and blinking. C. nasal hairs. D. phagocytic white blood cells. E. the flushing action of urine.
d
1. Keratin is an important aspect of nonspecific defense because it A. is toxic to pathogens. B. destroys pathogens. C. physically restricts pathogens to a specific region. D. creates a physical barrier against pathogens.
d
1. Lysozyme is found in ______. A. tears B. salivary secretions C. sweat from sweat glands D. All of the choices are correct.
d
1. The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the ______. A. digestive tract B. eyes C. skin D. respiratory tract E. urinary tract
d
19. Hematopoiesis is the A. production of only red blood cells. B. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging. C. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues. D. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. E. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.
d
19. Plasma cells A. are derived from T lymphocytes. B. function in cell-mediated immunity. C. function in blood clotting. D. produce and secrete antibodies.
d
19. Which white blood cells comprise 3-7% of circulating WBCs, are phagocytic, and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages? A. Basophils B. Eosinophils C. Neutrophils D. Monocytes E. Lymphocytes
d
24. Which type of white blood cell is particularly attracted to sites of parasitic worm infections? A. Basophils B. Neutrophils C. Lymphocytes D. Eosinophils E. Monocytes
d
26. The granules of neutrophils contain ______. A. histamine B. antigens C. peroxidase D. digestive enzymes E. antibodies
d
34. Diapedesis is the A. production of only red blood cells. B. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding. C. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. D. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues. E. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.
d
34. The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all of the following except ______. A. pain B. redness C. warmth D. chills E. swelling
d
34. Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood and has hormones that function in maturation of T lymphocytes? A. GALT B. Spleen C. Lymph nodes D. Thymus E. Tonsils
d
34. Which of the following lymphoid organs or tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood? A. Tonsils B. Thymus C. Lymph nodes D. Spleen E. GALT
d
43. Each of the following is a term reflecting a process involved in the migration of white blood cells except ______. A. chemotaxis B. vasodilation C. motility D. phagocytosis E. diapedesis
d
49. The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves A. initiation of the cascade. B. the production of inflammatory cytokines. C. C1q binding to surface receptors on a membrane. D. a ring-shaped protein digesting holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes. E. the cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b.
d
49. Which of the following is incorrect about complement? A. It acts in a cascade reaction. B. It is composed of at least 20 blood proteins. C. It involves a classical pathway. D. It only appears in the blood during a response to a pathogen. E. It involves an alternate pathway.
d
74. Your 81-year old grandfather has been diagnosed with cancer of the thymus. The doctor is urging surgical removal of the cancer, but you and the family are worried about the consequences of removing an entire organ such as the thymus. Which statement is correct? A. Your grandfather would not be able to produce complement proteins necessary for pathogen control and inflammation. B. Your grandfather will have a loss of T lymphocytes and will have an immune deficiency. C. Your grandfather would not have sufficient phagocytic cells and would not be able to contain bacterial infections. D. There is nothing to worry about; thymus removal will not affect your grandfather's immune status at his age.
d
81. All of the following comprise the second line of defense except ______. A. phagocytosis B. fever C. inflammation D. antibody production E. complement proteins
d
81. One of the major differences between the first and second line of defense is that A. the first line defenses involve complement proteins whereas the second line defenses involve antibodies. B. the first line defenses involve the respiratory tract whereas the second line defenses involve the gastrointestinal tract. C. the first line defenses are mechanisms whereas the second line defenses are physical barriers to infection. D. the first line defenses are anatomical barriers whereas the second line defenses are mechanisms.
d
9. A properly functioning immune system is responsible for A. surveillance of the body. B. recognition of foreign material. C. destruction of foreign material. D. All of the choices are correct.
d
1. Nonspecific chemical defenses include A. lysozyme. B. lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat. C. the skin's acidic pH and fatty acids. D. stomach hydrochloric acid. E. All of the choices are correct.
e
1. The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is ______. A. lactic acid B. bile C. histamine D. hydrochloric acid E. lysozyme
e
13. Plasma A. is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended. B. is mostly water. C. contains albumin and globulins. D. contains fibrinogen. E. All of the choices are correct.
e
16. The least numerous of all white blood cells that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions are ______. A. eosinophils B. lymphocytes C. neutrophils D. monocytes E. basophils
e
19. All of the following pertain to platelets, except A. they are not whole cells but are pieces of cells. B. they originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes. C. they function in blood clotting and inflammation. D. they function primarily in hemostasis. E. they contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.
e
26. Humoral immunity involves ______, while _____ function in cell-mediated immunity. A. T cells; B cells B. monocytes; basophils C. B cells; neutrophils D. basophils; T cells E. B cells; T cells
e
26. Place the following cells in order from greatest to least phagocytic activity: neutrophils, eosinophils, macrophages. A. Macrophages, eosinophils, neutrophils B. Neutrophils, macrophages, eosinophils C. Eosinophils, macrophages, neutrophils D. Neutrophils, eosinophils, macrophages E. Macrophages, neutrophils, eosinophils
e
34. What structures are found along lymphatic vessels and are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck? A. Spleen B. Thymus C. GALT D. Tonsils E. Lymph nodes
e
40. Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all A. mediators that increase chemotaxis. B. mediators of T-cell activity. C. fever inducers. D. mediators of B-cell activity. E. vasoactive mediators.
e
40. Which of the following is incorrect about inflammation? A. Serotonin causes smooth muscle contraction. B. Inflammation can last hours to years. C. Basophils and mast cells release histamine. D. Fever could be beneficial to inhibiting the pathogen. E. Pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability.
e
46. The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are ______. A. interferons B. lysozymes C. complement D. leukotrines E. pyrogens
e
49. Which of the following is a chemical used by phagocytes to destroy ingested foreign substances? A. Hydrogen peroxide B. Nitric oxide C. Lactic acid D. Superoxide anion E. All of these are used.
e
59. During what process are hypochlorite and hydrogen peroxide produced in order to destroy bacteria and inhibit viral replication? A. Complement production B. Inflammation C. Interferon production D. Lysozyme production E. Phagocytosis
e
86. Which of the following represents the correct order of activity in the complement cascade? A. Amplification, initiation, membrane attack, and polymerization B. Polymerization, initiation, membrane attack, and amplification C. Initiation, membrane attack, polymerization, and amplification D. Membrane attack, initiation, polymerization, and amplification E. Initiation, amplification, polymerization, and membrane attack
e
61. A low to moderate fever in an otherwise healthy person should be treated immediately with antipyretic drugs. True False
f
61. B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland. True False
f
61. During phagocytosis, intracellular digestion begins as soon as the phagosome is formed. True False
f
61. Inflammatory responses are orchestrated by the immune system and are part of the body's third line of defense. True False
f
61. Plasma is also called lymph. True False
f
70. Complement proteins are produced by the spleen. True False
f
70. The production of interferon will protect the host cell from a viral infection. True False
f
80. Despite not being a physical barrier, the resident microbiota are considered part of the first line of defense since they stimulate inflammation and fever, enhancing pathogen removal. True False
f
90. Monocytes are the mature form of macrophages; they are found in tissues. True False
f
90. The alternate complement pathway uses complement proteins C1, C2, and C4. True False
f
61. During inflammation, a high neutrophil count is a common sign of bacterial infection. True False
t
61. Endotoxin is an exogenous pyrogen. True False
t
61. Genetic differences among species and within a species can convey genetic immunity to certain diseases. True False
t
61. Monocytes and lymphocytes are agranular leukocytes. True False
t
70. Certain complement components stimulate inflammation and phagocytosis. True False
t
85. The second line of defense includes inflammation, phagocytosis, fever, and antimicrobial proteins. True False
t
89. Interferons do not protect the cell that secretes them. True False
t
