VTNE review

When is a puppy first able to adapt to exploring new environments? A: 3 to 8 weeks B: 5 to 12 weeks C: 10 to 12 weeks D: 10 to 36 weeks

10-12 weeks

What is the maximum length of time for using a hog snare to handle a pig? A: 3 to 5 minutes B: 8 to 10 minutes C: 15 to 20 minutes D: 25 to 30 minutes

15-20

Which age represents the most critical period for a kitten's socialization to humans? A: 2 to 3 weeks B: 3 to 6 weeks C: 7 to 8 weeks D: 14-plus weeks

2-3 weeks

Which is the approximate spatial resolution for diagnostic ultrasound (expressed as lines per millimeter)? A: 2.0 B: 3.0 C: 4.0 D: 9.0

2.0

How many hours must items sterilized in an ethylene oxide chamber be ventilated to remove residual ethylene oxide? A: 24 B: 18 C: 12 D: 2

24

What is a normal finding in the bone marrow evaluation of a young colt? A: 25% fat B: 40% fat C: 55% fat D: 75% fat

25%

the prepatent period for Techuris vulpis is 3 mo 2 wk 5-10 wk 5-6 mo

3 mo

when assessing a patients diet, which urine specimen collection time is likely to be most helpful 5 and 10 minutes intervals postprandial 30 and 60 min intervals postprandial 1 to 2 hours postprandial 3 to 6 hours postprandial

3 to 6 hours postprandial

urine samples should be analyzed within __ for maximum valid information 2 min 30 min 1 hour 12 hours

30 min

How long should an accelerated hydrogen peroxide be applied to a surface before it has sanitized the surface? A: 30 seconds B: 60 seconds C: 2 minutes D: 5 minutes

30 seconds

What size of clipper blade should be used for patient preparation before a cardiac ultrasound? A: 10 B: 20 C: 30 D: 40

40

What magnification is best for assessing wave motion in sperm? A: 20x magnification B: 40x magnification C: 80x magnification D: 100x magnification

40x magnification

it is recommended that urine sample size be standardized. An adequate sample of fresh urine is considered to be 1ml 5ml 10ml 20 ml

5 ml

At what age do dogs generally become sexually mature? A: 2.5 to 3 months B: 4 to 5 months C: 6 to 9 months D: 18 to 36 months

6-9 months

QUESTION: A 12-year-old female cat presents with increased levels of PLI. What percentage of sensitivity for pancreatitis does this indicate? A: 50% B: 60% C: 80% D: 100%

80%

to maintain proper anticoagulant to blood ratio, sample tubes should be filled to at least what capacity 90% 75% 60% 50%

90%

What is a prokaryote? A: A cell that has a membrane-bound nucleus B: A cell that lacks a true membrane-bound nucleus and organelles C: A cell that contains many different membrane-bound organelles D: A cell that consists of a double phospholipid layer with interspersed proteins (fluid-mosaic model); also contains carbohydrate chains and cholesterol

A cell that lacks a true membrane-bound nucleus and organelles

Which teardrop-shaped, paired intracellular parasite is a piroplasmid protozoan of mammals, fish, and reptiles? A: Babesia spp. B: Aegyptianella spp. C: Mycoplasma haemofelis D: Haemoproteus (Hemoproteus) spp.

Babesia spp.

Which vertebral formula represents the vertebral column of the cat? A: C7 T13 L7 S3 Cd 6-23 B: C7 T18 L6 S5 Cd 16-18 C: C7 T12 L5 S5 Cd 4-5 D: C5 T13 L8 S3 Cd 20-23

C7 T13 L7 S3 Cd 6-23

A cat shows signs of bronchitis, including some blood and mucus detected in the bronchioles. Centrifugal fecal flotation reveals rough, granular, thick-walled, barrel-shaped, straw-colored egg with asymmetrical bipolar plugs. Which diagnosis is most likely? A: Strongyloides stercoralis B: Eucoleus aerophilus C: Capillaria feliscati D: Physaloptera spp.

Eucoleus aerophilus

MCHC is calculated by multiplying dividend of PCV/RBCs by 1000 Hb by 10 and dividing by product of total RBC count Hb concentration by 100 and dividing by PCV PCV by 10 and dividing product by total RBC count

Hb concentration by 100 and dividing by PCV

Which antibody class is produced during the secondary immune response? A: IgM B: IgG C: IgA D: IgE

IgG

Which pairing identifies (a) the structure containing receptors for hearing and (b) where that structure is found? A: Stapes/cochlea B: Cochlea/middle ear C: Organ of Corti/inner ear D: Organ of Corti/middle ear

Organ of Corti/inner ear

Which of the following is a strong protective covering of the heart? A: Endocardium B: Myocardium C: Postcava D: Pericardium

Pericardium

Which test is performed by either labeling the antigen or antibody with radioactive isotope? A: LA B: FA C: RIA D: ELISA

RIA

during contraction, the electrical impulse in the heart travels through several structures. Which of the following is the correct order of transmission purkinje fibers, bundle of His, SA node, AV node AV node, SA node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers, bundle of His SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers

SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers

A veterinarian is assessing total liver function in a dehydrated cow. What blood content is measured using total dye binding in an automated serum analyzer? A: TS/TP B: Bilirubin C: Urobilinogen D: Globulin fractions

TS/TP

What happens in pinocytosis? A: A cell's membrane extends around solid particles B: Specialized membrane receptors bind to substances entering a cell C: A cell takes a liquid into itself by extending around fluid droplets D: Waste products are excreted from a cell as useful products are secreted into the extracellular space

a cell takes a liquid into itself by extending around fluid droplets

A bacterium that grows only on the TSA/blood agar plate is which of the following? A: A gram-positive organism B: A gram-negative organism C: A fastidious organism D: Micrococci

a fastidious organism

Which best describes antigenic drift? A: A virus mutates so that preexisting antibodies can no longer bind and become useless B: Vaccines may not be effective when administered to certain populations of animals, such as animals that are incubating disease C: A young animal that is immunologically compromised may succumb to illness from a live vaccine or may not develop immunity to killed or other vaccines D: There is no way of knowing what the animal's immune status is unless an antibody titer test is done

a virus mutates so that preexisting antibodies can no longer bind and become useless

Ultrasound uses sound that is in what range of frequency of human hearing? A: Within B: Below C: Above D: Equal to

above

when diagnosing Dirofilaria immitis on a Knotts test, the microfilaria must be differentiated from which of the following nonpathogenic filarial larvae onchocerca cervicalis acanthocheilonema stephanofilaria stilesi aelurostrongylus abstrusus

acanthocheilonema

To provide maximal immunity to the neonate, when should all vaccines be given? A: Just before parturition B: Immediately after parturition C: Before the dam becomes pregnant D: According to the vaccine protocol

according to the vaccine protocol

Which of the following chemical constituents in urine is the result of fatty acid catabolism? A: Acetone B: Bilirubin C: Glucose D: Hemoglobin

acetone

Which type of immunity is acquired through ingestion of colostrum? A: Acquired artificial passive immunity B: Acquired natural passive immunity C: Acquired natural active immunity D: Innate immunity

acquired natural passive immunity

What is the purpose of the time-gain compensation (TGC)? A: Make tissues look alike B: Decrease contrast of the image C: Adjust brightness of the image D: Increase speed of the returning echoes

adjust brightness of the image

the life stage of the flea found on the skin of its host is the pupal stage larval stage egg stage adult stage

adult stage

which of the following is best diagnosed using the Baermann test aelurostrongylus abstrusus toxoscaris leonina ancylostoma braziliense physaloptera spp.

aelurostrongylus abstrusus

Which of the following statements regarding canine aggression is false? A: Dogs may have more than one type of aggression B: Aggression cannot be curbed by performing surgeries C: Obedience training and puppy classes may help owners recognize early signs D: Avoiding the opportunity for the dog to express its aggression, regardless of cause, should be the first step

aggression cannot be curbed by performing surgeries

What role does trypsin play in the small intestine? A: Aids in digestion of proteins B: Aids in digestion of disaccharides C: Aids in digestion of all nucleic acids D: Aids in digestion and coagulation of milk in the young

aids in digestion of proteins

QUESTION: Which of the following enzymes is considered a liver-specific enzyme in dogs and cats? A: Alkaline phosphatase B: Glutamate dehydrogenase C: Alanine aminotransferase D: Aspartate aminotransferase

alanine aminotransferase

The use of _____ on a contaminated open wound may result in the formation of a coagulum. A: Iodine B: Alcohol C: Peroxide D: Quaternary ammonium compound

alcohol

Which chemical disinfectant is least damaging for stainless steel tables? A: Bleach B: Alcohol C: Iodine solution D: Peroxygen compound

alcohol

Which of the following disinfectants has sporicidal activity? A: Aldehydes B: Alcohols C: Phenols D: Seventh-generation quats

aldehydes

Which mode of action is used by an ethylene oxide sterilization chamber? A: Alkylation of proteins, DNA, and RNA B: Contact with saturated steam for appropriate time at appropriate temperatures C: Gradual displacement of air with steam through continued application of heat to create pressure D: Exposure of items in a vacuum to an electromagnetic field and chemicals such as hydrogen peroxide to produce free-radical plasma

alkylation of proteins, DNA, and RNA

In radiography, what effect does a lower kV have on the image? A: Total absorption of the energy of the incoming x-ray photon B: Increased patient dose C: Increased contrast D: All of the above

all of the above

Which is the most likely finding during vaginal cytological examination during estrus? A: All superficial cells, many appearing to be anuclear, with some RBCs, but no neutrophils B: Parabasal and intermediate cells replacing superficial cells; both neutrophils and RBCs present C: Mixture of parabasal, intermediate, and superficial cells, and both neutrophils and RBCs present D: Smaller cells, basophilic cytoplasm, and large, round nuclei; cells are intermediate or parabasal with some neutrophils, but no RBCs

all superficial cells, many appearing to be anuclear, with some RBCs, but no neutrophils

normal freshly voided urine of many species is clear. Exceptions include which of the following species rabbit horse hamster all the above

all the above

Which is false concerning hyperglycemia? A: May be induced by stress B: Often accompanies pancreatitis C: Always leads to a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus D: Must be accompanied by glycosuria to confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus

always leads to a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus

Which is not one of this course's ''six simple steps'' for dealing with conflict? A: Separate the person from the problem B: Identify options for possible solutions C: Focus on the interest, not the position D: Always walk away from the source of the conflict

always walk away from the source of the conflict

What is a sterile abscess? A: An abscess that has no bacterial cause and whose culture will result in no growth B: An abscess that usually contains only one type of pathogen—the causative agent C: An abscess that contains multiple opportunistic pathogens, bacterial or fungal D: An abscess that has been cleaned of all infectious exudates

an abscess that has no bacterial cause and whose culture will result in no growth

Which of the following cannot be used to sterilize a bacteriology loop? A: An incubator B: An alcohol lamp C: A Bunsen burner D: An electric heating element

an incubator

Which of the following is the term for a variation in the size of erythrocytes? A: Microcytosis B: Anisocytosis C: Poikilocytosis D: Normocytosis

anisocytosis

Which is the electrically positive portion of the x-ray tube? A: Anode B: Target C: Cathode D: Filament

anode

Which type of viral infection demonstrates clinical signs, as opposed to being more covert or symptomless? A: Silent B: Apparent C: Subclinical D: Nonapparent

apparent

To restrain a cat it is important to do which of the following? A: Immediately apply the maximum restraint possible B: Apply the least restrictive restraint first, gradually increasing control as needed C: Blow into the cat's face first, for distraction, then apply the maximum restraint D: Immediately apply distraction technique for 10 seconds, then apply the least restrictive restraint

apply the least restrictive restraint first, gradually increasing control as needed

schwann cells: form myelin in the central nervous system are part of the immune system are supportive and protective only are also known as the nodes of Ranvier

are supportive and protective only

Which of the following is a multiunit smooth muscle? A: Arrector muscle of hair B: Intestinal wall muscle C: Myocardium D: Sphincter

arrector muscle of hair

which of the following contains hyaline cartilage? articular cartilage in a long bone the pinna of the ear ligaments pubic symphysis

articular cartilage in a long bone

Where is the safest place to stand when you are next to a cow? A: Slightly in front and to the left of the head B: Slightly in front of the back leg C: Next to the abdomen D: At the shoulder

at the shoulder

which part of the ECG is represented by the P wave atrial systole ventricle systole atrial diastole ventrical diastole

atrial systole

Which accurately represents the order of the viral replication cycle? A: Attachment, penetration, uncoating, replication, assembly, and release B: Attachment, penetration, assembly, uncoating, replication, and release C: Attachment, uncoating, penetration, assembly, replication, and release D: Attachment, penetration, replication, assembly, uncoating, and release

attachment, penetration, uncoating, replication, assembly, and release

Which part of the x-ray machine contains a major kV selector and a minor kV selector with a kV meter on the control console that indicates the chosen kilovoltage? A: Milliamperage selector B: Autotransformer C: Time circuit D: Cathode

autotransformer

NRBCs are normal in which species of animals ruminant and equine avian and reptile equine and reptile avian and equine

avian and reptile

which of the following tests is best for removing lungworm larvae from small samples of feces centrifugation technique mcmaster technique baermann technique direct smear technique

baermann technique

Which of the following is usually not viewed as an electrolyte though it does carry an electrical charge? A: Sodium B: Hydrogen C: Bicarbonate D: Magnesium

bicarbonate

Which test is based on feeding of a high-fat meal after obtaining the fasted blood sample? A: Albumin B: Bilirubin C: Bile acids D: Urine urobilinogen

bile acid

A patient's urine specimen is yellow-brown to greenish and foams when shaken. What is most likely present in this patient's urine? A: Low SG B: High SG C: Bile pigments D: Hemoglobin or RBCs

bile pigments

During collection of a punch biopsy specimen taken from the surface of the skin, which step comes first? A: Immerse or float specimen in fixative B: Allow tissue to dry on the splint C: Gently flush with sterile saline D: Blot on a paper towel

blot on a paper towel

Which is true of Campylobacter spp.? A: Can be presumptively identified on a Gram stain by their shape B: Require a microaerophilic environment to grow C: Are gram-positive D: Both a and b

both a and b

Which tube media is a broth used to bring bacteria to a certain turbidity level when performing diffusion antibiotic sensitivity testing? A: Bile esculin agar (BE) B: Brain heart infusion (BHI) C: Dermatophyte test medium (DTM) D: Oxidation fermentation medium with dextrose (OF)

brain heart infusion

Which test involves centrifuging a blood-filled microhematocrit tube for 3 minutes after evaluation of a packed cell volume (PCV) and before total protein evaluation? A: ELISA B: Buffy coat method C: Commercial filter method D: Modified Knott's method

buffy coat method

Which heat source can be used to heat-fix slides for staining procedures? A: Alcohol lamp B: Bunsen burner C: Incubator light D: Electric heating element

bunsen burner

Which of the following pairs of electrolytes have an inverse relationship in the body, such that one is negatively charged and the other is positively charged? A: Potassium and magnesium B: Calcium and phosphorus C: Chloride and phosphorus D: Sodium and calcium

calcium and phosphorus

While performing an acid-fast stain test, multiple solutions are applied to the slide, either directly or as part of the specimen smear. Which stain or solution is applied after the slide is heat-fixed, according to this text? A: Saline B: Acid alcohol C: Carbol fuchsin D: Malachite green

carbol fuchsin

Which is an epithelial cell tumor that usually exfoliates in clusters of cells? A: Seroma B: Sarcoma C: Carcinoma D: Hematoma

carcinoma

these striated cells are joined by intercalated disks and have a single, centrally located nucleus: flat bone smooth muscle cardiac muscle neurons

cardiac muscles

In which of the following species can some degree of IgG antibody cross the placental barrier? A: Horse B: Cattle C: Cat D: Pig

cat

the stomach is __ to the heart distal rostral cranial caudal

caudal

during inhalation, the diaphragm moves ventrally dorsally caudally cranially

caudally

Which method uses high-frequency sound waves passed through a solution to create thousands of bubbles to pull debris from instruments? A: Fluid filtration B: Air filtration C: Cavitation D: Radiation

cavitation

Which is a feature of the capillary technique in a fine needle biopsy? A: Requires 22- to 25-gauge needle attached to a 3- to 12-mL syringe with plunger B: Cells are forced into the hub of the needle from the pressure of the puncture C: Negative syringe pressure pulls cells into the hub of the needle D: All of the above

cells are forced into the hub of the needle from the pressure of the puncture

Which technique is best for detecting Giardia spp.? A: Centrifugal flotation technique B: Regular flotation technique C: OVC Puddle technique D: Modified Knott's

centrifugal flotation technique

which subgroup do tapeworms fall under thorny-headed helminths nematodes cestodes trematodes

cestodes

Which parasite is the same as a sheep hookworm? A: Chabertia ovina B: Haemonchus C: Ostertagia D: Cooperia

chabertia ovina

How does a technician know that the contents of an autoclaved pack are sterile? A: Dated label on the autoclave tape B: Chemical sterilization indicator C: Type of outer wrap present D: Double-peel on pack

chemical sterilization indicator

which of the following is the parasite that is called "walking dandruff" reduviid bug cheyletiella spp culicoides spp glossina spp

cheyletiella spp

Which factor is least important to consider when selecting a pet? A: Grooming requirement B: Exercise requirement C: Financial resources D: Child's preferences

child's preference

Which of the following disinfectants is inactivated by the presence of organic debris? A: Phenols B: Chlorine C: Aldehydes D: Biguanides

chlorine

QUESTION: Which condition is most associated with acute pancreatitis? A: Chronic hyperlipidemia B: Hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia C: Normal blood lipase or amylase D: Abnormal blood or urine glucose

chronic hyperlipidemia

Which of the following is characteristic of hyaline casts? A: Composed primarily of neutrophils B: Fragile, but appear yellow to orange-red in fresh, unstained urine C: Easily visually confused with renal tubular cell casts, especially if the tubular cells are degenerated D: Clear, colorless, refractive, and composed of mucoprotein or plasma protein; cylindrical with relatively symmetrical sides and rounded ends

clear, colorless, refractive, and composed of mucoprotein or plasma protein; cylindrical with relatively symmetrical sides and rounded edges

Which term describes the scattering of radiation that occurs when an incoming photon ejects an outer-shell electron from the atom, causing the photon to lose energy and change direction, often leaving the anatomic part? A: Compton effect B: Absorption effect C: Photoelectric effect D: Bremsstrahlung radiation

compton effect

The owner of two cats complains about feces found outside of the litter box. Which of the following is least likely to resolve the problem? A: Provide two more litter boxes B: Avoid perfumed litter substrate C: Clean the litter boxes more frequently D: Confine both cats in the same room as the litter box

confine both cats in the same room as the litter box

QUESTION: Which of the following is a by-product of muscle metabolism that is produced at a constant rate and filtered out almost entirely by the glomeruli? A: Lipase B: Bilirubin C: Creatinine D: Tetraiodothyronine

creatinine

Which is an exogenous substance in qualitative or semi-qualitative urinalysis? A: Hormones B: Electrolytes C: Amino acids D: Creatinine clearance

creatinine clearance

Which term describes cells that have sharp, evenly spaced projections around the margin and often appear as the result of slow drying of the blood film? A: Target cells B: Acanthocyte C: Schistocyte D: Crenation

crenation

Which technique involves two leashes placed around a dog's neck and held taut in opposite directions? A: Hog snare B: Cross-tie C: Bow line D: Sheet bend knot

cross tie

A technician notes that during a patient's bath, the rinse water is filled with little specks of blackish ''dirt'' that are actually larvae and pupae. Which infestation might this indicate? A: Ctenocephalides canis B: Ancylostoma caninum C: Strongylus vulgaris D: Oxyuris equi

ctenocephalides canis

which urine collection method is optimal for bacterial culture manual expression cystoentesis midstream litter pan pour-off

cystocentesis

Which best describes a mesothelial cell? A: Abundant blue cytoplasm with vacuoles B: Giant cells with nuclei uniform in size and shape C: Oval-to-pleomorphic nucleus with lacy to condensed chromatin D: Cytoplasm is slightly basophilic and may contain phagocytic debris

cytoplasm is slightly basophilic and may contain phagocytic debris

Which is the best description of Taenia spp. ova? A: Smooth, clear, thick-walled, larvated B: Different colors compared with other ova C: Dark brown and nearly spherical with striations evident D: Rough, striated, thick-walled, barrel-shaped, amber-colored with asymmetric bipolar plugs

dark brown and nearly spherical with striations evident

how is toxocara canis identified microscopically in the diagnostic stage clear, smooth, and thin-walled eggs yellow-brown thick-walled eggs with striated shells and symmetric plugs dark brown, thick-walled egg, with a pitted eggshell L1 with S-shaped tail lacking a dorsal spine

dark brown, thick-walled egg, with a pitted eggshell

Which is the least effective procedure to prevent barking? A: Counter-conditioning B: Head halter devices C: Desensitization D: Debarking

debarking

which radiography error is more likely to cause a white or clear mark than a black mark on a radiographic image? A: Linear dots from too low humidity B: Debris in the cassette C: Static electricity D: Light leak

debris in the cassette

mean corpuscular hemoglobin is defined as mean weight of the RBC compared to Hb within the cell defined as mean weight of Hb contained within the average RBC recorded as femtoliters recorded as g/dl

defined as mean weight of Hb contained within the average RBC

If mAs represents the blackening of an image, it actually measures the degree of which factor? A: Density B: Contrast C: Radiolucent D: Radiopaque

density

one of the great advantages of centrifugal flotation technique is to: detect giardia oocysts and trichuris ova more efficiently than regular flotation technique detect protozoa in feces determine the number of eggs present per gram of feces determine the specifc gravity of parasitic material and fecal debris

detect giardia oocysts and trichuris ova more efficiently than regular flotation technique

What is a Coombs' test used for? A: Uses antibodies of known specificity that bind viral antigens; binding can then be visualized through conjugation (labeled) with a fluorescent dye. B: Detects the presence of antibody against red blood cells to subsequently diagnose immune-mediated hemolytic anemia C: Detects parvovirus from fecal samples of ill dogs or rotavirus in the feces of various species with rotaviral diarrhea D: Adsorbs a known specific antibody to test for feline leukemia virus (FeLV), parvovirus, and heartworm

detects the presence of antibody against red blood cells to subsequently diagnose immune-mediated hemolytic anemia

Which of the following is not a cause of inappropriate urination in the house? A: Diet change B: Territorial marking C: Separation anxiety D: Medical condition

diet change

By what means do oxygen and carbon dioxide enter and exit a cell? A: Osmosis B: Filtration C: Diffusion D: Facilitated diffusion

diffusion

Which of the following is a zoonotic parasite? A: Trichuris vulpis B: Cystoisospora canis C: Parascaris equorum D: Dipylidium caninum

dipylidium caninum

which of the following has a prostate but no bulbourethral gland cat cow dog horse

dog

Which is true of canine vision? A: Dogs cannot distinguish colors B: Canine visual acuity is fair to good C: Dogs have good vision in dim light D: Canines have poorer lateral vision than humans

dogs have good vision in dim light

Which of the following is not true of good e-mail policy? A: You should never e-mail a co-worker when you are very angry B: E-mail is a great way to share jokes and humorous stories C: E-mail should not take the place of conversation D: Message should be short and concise

e-mail is a great way to share jokes and humorous stories

Which best describes thermionic emission? A: An electron cloud is formed B: Electrons are boiled off the filament C: Alternating current is converted to a direct current D: Negative electrons are rapidly attracted to the positive anode

electrons are boiled off the filament

Which step is most useful in preparing a dog for lateral saphenous venipuncture? A: Place the dog in sternal recumbency B: Elevate the front legs so the dog is resting on its shoulder C: Grasp the rear leg in the area just proximal to the stifle joint D: Squeeze to occlude the saphenous vein as you gently bend the leg

elevate the front legs so the dog is resting on its shoulders

Which of the following is a function of bile? A: Secretion of sucrase B: Emulsification of fat C: Digestion of starch D: Breakdown of proteins

emulsification of fat

ancylostoma caninum can be contracted by which route entry through the skin autoinfection by remigration through the rectum a bite from an infected mosquito ingestion of a flea

entry through the skin

A transtracheal wash reveals Curschmann's spirals from the small bronchioles, indicating a chronic bronchiolar problem. What do Curschmann's spirals look like? A: Twisted pink amorphous sheets B: Whorled blue amorphous sheets C: Eosinophilic, spiral mucus casts D: Cone-shaped, elongated columnar cells

eosinophilic, spiral mucus casts

which of the following hormones is responsible for stimulating the sympathetic nervous system epinephrine calcitonin thyroxin prolactin

epinephrine

basophilic stippling is the presence of small, blue staining granules within erythrocytes leukocytes platelets basophils

erythrocytes

A cat's urine is cloudy, yet tests indicate it is normal. Which is the most likely cause of the cloudy appearance? A: Fat B: Mucus C: Calcium salts D: Calcium carbonate crystals

fat

Fluorescent antibody (FA) test can be performed using all but which type of samples? A: Fecal smears B: Blood smears C: Tissue imprints D: Tissue scrapings

fecal smears

giardia and leishmania are examples of ameba ciliates flagellates sporozoa

flagellates

Which is an intermediate host for Dipylidium caninum? A: Infective egg B: Mosquito C: Rodent D: Flea

flea

the intermediate host of dipylidium caninum is the squirrel tick cow flea

flea

Which is true of a standard vial gravitation flotation technique? A: Place a drop of saline or water on the slide with an equal amount of feces B: Either Lugol iodine or new methylene blue stain can be added to a drop of saline C: Place tea strainer or cheesecloth over second paper cup and empty the fecal mixture into it D: Flotation solution must have a higher specific gravity than that of the parasitic material

flotation solution must have specific gravity than that of the parasitic material

Which is the best description of a trematode? A: Fluke or flatworm in the platyhelminthic family B: Coccidian whose adult stage is not motile C: A one-celled ciliate in the protozoa family D: A roundworm in the nematode family

fluke or flatworm in the platyhelminthic family

At which area does the ultrasound beam reach its narrowest point? A: Reverberation point B: Focal point C: Near field D: Far field

focal point

Which is most likely to result from not following proper safelight procedures in the x-ray dark room? A: Fogging of the film B: Underexposure of the film C: A dark border around the edges of the film D: Clearing of the film when it is developed and fixed

fogging of the film

Which best describes pollakiuria? A: Frequent urination B: Difficulty or pain on urination C: Decrease in the formation or elimination of urine D: Formation or excretion of large volumes of urine

frequent urination

pollakiruia is defined as complete absence of urine formation increased urine excretion frequent urination decreased urine formation

frequent urination

Which mood is reflected in the following canine behavior: white around the eyes, sharp movements of the head and ears, trembling lips, and boisterous behavior? A: Frightened B: Hostile C: Happy D: Eager

frightened

Which swab is generally considered more appropriate for anaerobic specimens? A: Gel-containing swab B: Culturette C: Sterile cotton-tipped swab D: Prepackaged sterile swab with liquid

gel-containing swab

Which step is most helpful in restraining a dog for cephalic venipuncture? A: In sternal restraint, hold the leg used for the venipuncture firmly against the restrainer B: Place the dog in lateral recumbency; move the hand nearest the head so it is under the mandible C: Grasp the leg to be used so that the elbow is sitting in your palm and the leg is extending out D: The thumb should run parallel to the vessel and should apply enough pressure to make the vein visible

grasp the leg to be used so that the elbow is sitting in your palm and the leg is extending out

s the contrast of a radiograph decreases, which of the following results? A: Black and white radiograph with few grays but greater differences between each gray B: Black and white radiograph with many steps but fewer differences between each step C: Grayer radiograph with few steps but greater differences between each step D: Grayer radiograph with many steps but fewer differences between each step

grayer radiograph with many steps but fewer differences between each step

Which can be a playful behavior in a dog? A: Whimpering B: Growling C: Whining D: Howling

growling

An owner trains his dog by continually exposing the animal to a stimulus; then when a behavior follows, there is no reward, and eventually there is no response on the animal's part. Which kind of behavior modification is this? A: Pavlovian conditioning B: Classical conditioning C: Desensitization D: Habituation

habituation

Which tool is considered the main tool(s) of restraint on a horse? A: Halter and lead rope B: Stanchion C: Stocks D: Lariat

halter and lead rope

Which is the best description of cancellous bone? A: Has very few spaces, appears solid, and provides strength and support B: Made of haversian systems, each containing canaliculi (very small canals) C: Has large spaces between latticelike pieces of bone known as trabeculae; these spaces are filled with marrow D: Strong, solid bone containing a network of small spaces, called lacunae, that house osteocytes (mature bone cells)

has large spaces between latticelike pieces of bone known as trabeculae; these spaces are filled with marrow

which of the following houses osteocytes in compact bone lacunae haversian canal lamellae canaliculi

haversian canal

signs that would indicate a dog has a severe infection of otodectes cynotis would include head tilt, otitis media circling, seizures shaking head, scratching ears skin becomes thick and wrinkled; emaciation sets in severe tail, leg, or scrotal mange

head tilt, otitis media circling, seizures

Which is an example of a noninflammatory, nonneoplastic lesion? A: Hematoma B: Metastasis C: Fibroma D: TVT

hematoma

Which condition is signified by the presence of intact RBCs in the urine? A: Oliguria B: Azotemia C: Hematuria D: Myoglobinuria

hematuria

Which is a normal finding in hepatobiliary cytology? A: Vacuoles B: Hemosiderin C: Granulation changes D: Unstained areas within the cytoplasm

hemosiderin

which is the preferred anticoagulant for conducting hematology in a parrot heparin EDTA potassium chloride Acid-citrate dextrose (ACD)

heparin

In visual examination of cellular samples, which power can be used to determine predominant cell types, but not to describe cellular characteristics? A: Low power (100x) B: Medium power (200x) C: High power (400x) D: Oil immersion (1000x)

high power (400x)

QUESTION: What is the function of trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI)? A: Highly specific assay for hyperadrenocorticism B: Test of choice for detecting pancreatitis in nonfasting animals C: Highly specific assay for canine exocrine pancreatic insufficiency D: Test of choice for determining canine endocrine pancreatic insufficiency

highly specific assay for canine exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

Which best describes a humane twitch, used to distract a horse during a procedure? A: Long leather strap with about 2 feet (0.75 m) of flat chain attached to it, with a snap on the end B: Hinged pair of long handles that squeeze over the sides of the lip and then can be secured at the bottom C: Padded straps held with a chain or an angled piece of metal that slips on the back side of the legs just above the hocks D: Chain with handles at each end; after it is looped over the horse's muzzle, the handles are twisted until the twitch is fitted snugly

hinged pair of long handles that squeeze over the sides of the lips and then can be secured at the bottom

Which step is most useful in conducting a skin scraping to test for the presence of Cheyletiella? A: While scraping for this parasite, hold the blade as nearly horizontal as possible B: Hold and scrape the affected skin until blood begins to seep from the abrasion C: Hold and scrape the skin superficially to collect loose scales and crusts D: Make two superior slides; subsequent slides will decrease in accuracy

hold and scrape the skin superficially to collect loose scales and crusts

How should the x-ray beam be directed for a lateral view of a snake's GI tract? A: Vertical B: Horizontal C: Ventrodorsal D: Rostrocaudal

horizontal

Which is defined as a decomposition reaction in which chemicals react with the H+ and OH- of a water molecule? A: Protein denaturation B: Hydrolysis C: Reduction D: Oxidation

hydrolysis

Which disorder is characterized by hypophosphatemia? A: Anuria B: Renal failure C: Hyperinsulinism D: Excessive vitamin D intake

hyperinsulinism

Which of the following is rare, except in cases of dehydration? A: Hypernatremia B: Hyponatremia C: Hyperkalemia D: Hypokalemia

hypernatremia

Examination and blood tests for a dog with iron-deficit anemia demonstrate decreased mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and an increased level of central pallor. Which is the most likely secondary diagnosis for this patient? A: Hypochromasia B: Hyperchromasia C: Normochromasia D: Hemoglochromasia

hypochromasia

Which of the following erythrocyte findings is commonly caused by an iron deficiency? A: Polychromasia B: Hypochromasia C: Macrocytosis D: Basophilic stippling

hypochromasia

For which feline disorder is there no vaccine? A: Feline respiratory complex: rhinotracheitis (FRV) B: Feline respiratory complex: calicivirus (FCV) C: Immunodeficiency virus (lentivirus) D: Panleukopenia (parvovirus)

immunodeficiency virus (lentivirus)

which is true of reticulocytes they are mature erythrocytes that still contain ribosomes wrights stain causes a polychromatophilic in cats, only the aggregate form should be counted in a reticulocyte count a and c

in cats, only the aggregate form should be counted in a reticulocyte count

the auditory ossicles are located in the cochlea in the outer ear in the middle ear in the inner ear

in the middle ear

Which strategy is least desirable in conducting leukocyte evaluation and differentiation? A: Focus on a monolayer of cells B: Include feathered edge counting C: Put the coverslip on immersion oil D: Report leukocyte differentials as absolutes

include feathered edge counting

Which disease can dogs often be vaccinated against with a polyvalent vaccine? A: Distemper B: Infectious hepatitis C: Parvoviral enteritis D: Infectious tracheobronchitis

infectious tracheobronchitis

What is mange? A: Hair loss B: Rough hair coat C: Infestation by lice D: Infestation by mites

infestation by mites

Which is an inappropriate route for injecting technetium-99m for nuclear scintigraphy? A: Intravenously B: Intramuscularly C: Transcolonically D: Aerosol insufflation

intramuscularly

the colored part of the eye is the pupil lens iris cornea

iris

Which best describes the effect of guilt in the grieving process? A: It is the first stage of grieving B: It inhibits progress toward resolution C: It is usually targeted at the veterinarian D: It is with a person forever; you never get over it but can move on to the other stages

it inhibits progress toward resolution

Which most accurately describes the nature of the conjugated form of bilirubin? A: It is lipid soluble B: It is bound to serum proteins C: It is found mainly as glucuronic acid D: It is carried to the liver in prehepatic form

it is found mainly as glucuronic acid

Which statement is not true about stress? A: It causes physical as well as mental symptoms B: It creates a feeling of tension and pressure C: It is a response to a loss of equilibrium D: It is never healthy

it is never healthy

Which rule applies to proper nomenclature for a viral genus? A: It must end in the suffix -viridae B: It must end in suffix -virus C: It must be underlined D: It must be in italics

it must end in suffix -virus

Which structure is that part of a synovial joint that encloses the joint in a strong fibrous covering? A: Synarthrosis B: Hyaline C: Joint capsule D: Synovial ligaments

joint capsule

Which best describes a wavelength in ultrasonography? A: Length of the compression and rarefaction cycles B: Number of cycles per unit time C: Speed through the medium D: Loss of intensity

length of the compression and rarefaction cycles

What occurs with an increase in the object-film distance? A: Sharper image that is smaller B: Sharper image that is larger C: Less sharp image that is smaller D: Less sharp image that is larger

less sharp image that is larger

an increased WBC count is indicative of anisocytosis agglutination leukocytosis leukopenia

leukocytosis

Which is an ectoparasite? A: Lice B: Flukes C: Cestodes D: Roundworms

lice

For which purpose is a lead shank least useful in working with a horse? A: Lifting up the horse's leg B: Increasing restraint C: Distraction D: Training

lifting up the horses leg

blood samples collected immediately postprandial may be icteric high in TPP lipemic low in RBCs

lipemic

Which is an important step in setting up a budget?A: Just list household expenses B: List all expenses and income C: Include only your salary as income D: Make sure you have more expenses than income

list all expenses and income

Which is the anticoagulant of choice for collecting samples for electrolyte determination? A: Potassium B: Lithium heparin C: Sodium fluoride D: Sodium citrate

lithium heparin

the outer cortex of the kidney contains all of the following except bowmans capsule loop of henle proximal convuluted tubules distal convoluted tubules

loop of Henle

What is attenuation? A: Ability of tissue to resist or impede the transmission of sound B: Quality or factor that makes an organ more heterogeneous than normal C: Loss of intensity of the ultrasound beam as it travels both into and out of tissue D: Ability to separately identify small structures on the ultrasound image or the detail of the image

loss of intensity of the ultrasound beam as it travels both into and out of tissue

For which diagnosis is the Baermann technique most useful? A: Cryptosporidium oocysts B: Lungworm larvae C: Microfilariae D: Mites

lungworm larvae

ixodes scapularis is the vector for rocky mountain spotted fever lyme disease tularemia Q fever

lyme disease

A fluid aspirate sample from thoracocentesis in a Siamese cat is determined to contain an increased number of lymphocytes. What does this indicate? A: Lymphosarcoma B: Infectious pleuritis C: Feline infectious peritonitis D: Systemic lupus erythematosus

lymphosarcoma

which order do the biting lice belong too hemiptera anoplura diptera mallophaga

mallophaga

Which is an external marketing tool? A: Media routes for advertising services available B: Building appearance and equipment C: Staff and veterinarian knowledge D: Sales point displays

media routes for advertising services available

Which condition is characterized by the presence of cells with prominent dark black granules? A: Purulent inflammation B: Mast cell tumor C: Mesothelioma D: Melanoma

melanoma

Which of the following is not an example of olfactory communication in cats? A: Rubbing B: Meowing C: Urine spraying D: Feces in obvious locations

meowing

which of the following would be found in abundance in a skeletal muscle cell? golgi complex mitochondria lysosomes smooth endoplasmic reticulum

mitochondria

Under a microscope, a technician sees a collection of white blood cells with variable nuclear shapes, diffuse chromatin, and blue-gray cytoplasm, some with vacuoles. Which type of cells is this technician seeing? A: Lymphocytes B: Monocytes C: Codocytes D: NRBCs

monocytes

Which demonstrates good supervisory skills? A: Motivate and provide constructive criticism B: Tell people what to do at the start of each day C: Delegate only those things that they do not want to do D: Control employees' activities so the job is done correctly

motivate and provide constructive criticism

A veterinary technician is working with a horse when the ears are suddenly pinned back. What should the technician do? A: Offer words of comfort B: Grip the halter and be ready for a flight response C: Move quickly out of the way to avoid being kicked or struck D: Notify the veterinarian that this animal needs pain relief immediately

move quickly out of the way to avoid being kicked or struck

Which is the most likely cause of physiological thrombocytosis? A: Presence of younger or reactive giant (macro-, mega-) platelets B: Chronic and extremely elevated platelet count caused by a bone marrow disorder C: Movement of platelets from the storage pools (e.g., spleen) as a result of stress and exercise D: Transient sequelae to trauma, splenectomies, specific medications, and various diseases not originating in the bone marrow

movement of platelets from the storage pools (ex spleen) as a result of stress and exercise

MCV is calculated by multiplying Hb by 10 and divide by total RBC count Dividing PCV by RBC count and multiply by 1000 multiplying PCV (%) by 10 and dividing by total RBC count multiplying Hb concentration by 100 and dividing by PCV

multiplying PCV (%) by 10 and dividing by total RBC count

What are the four primary body tissues? A: Dense, muscle, nervous, bone B: Epithelial, bone, muscle, areolar C: Nervous, cartilage, connective, reticular D: Muscle, nervous, epithelial, connective

muscle, nervous, epithelial, connective

Which is a feature of appeasement signaling in a dog? A: Muzzle becomes loose, with mouth closed B: Tail is held on the horizontal or higher C: Eyes are focused, making contact D: Ears are rigid and/or erect

muzzle becomes loose, with mouth closed

sucking lice have which characteristic body laterally compressed, broad head scutum ornate narrower head than thorax basis capitulum

narrower head than thorax

Which is the most unusual finding in examination of ear canal secretions? A: Neoplasia B: Otobius sp. C: Otodectes sp. D: Malassezia spp.

neoplasia

A sample from a thoracic effusion indicates an inflammatory disorder. Which cells most likely predominate in this sample? A: Neutrophils B: Macrophages C: Lymphocytes D: Mesothelial cells

neutrophils

Which stain is used specifically for determining the presence of nucleated cells, bacteria, fungi, and mast cells? A: New methylene blue B: Romanowsky C: Gram stain D: Giemsa

new methylene blue

What stains are used in assessing sperm morphology? A: Nigrosin and eosin B: Gram and trichrome C: Eosin and Lugol iodine D: Lugol iodine and modified acid-fast

nigrosin and eosin

Which is a key difference in avian imaging, as opposed to canine or feline radiography? A: Shorter scale of contrast with lower kV B: No measuring of the animal C: Greater exposure factors D: Longer exposure times

no measuring of the animal

Which best describes Simonsiella sp.? A: Infectious agent commonly found on the tongue B: Infectious agent that forms on the conjunctiva C: Normal flora of the intestinal tract D: Normal oral flora

normal oral flora

a "smudge cell" is a fragmented erythrocyte small, dark-stained erythrocyte nucleated cell that has ruptured as a result of damage to cell during smear making tissue cell with granules

nucleated cell that has ruptured as a result of damage to cell during smear making

Which description best fits the nature of a virus? A: Smallest form of life B: Classified as cellular C: Obligate intracellular parasites D: Always very difficult to disinfect

obligate intracellular parasites

What is the goal of streaking for isolation? A: Sterilize the loop used for streaking B: Cover the surface of the bacterial plate as evenly as possible C: Determine whether bacteria are gram-positive or gram-negative D: Obtain bacterial colonies that are isolated from each other so they can be identified

obtain bacterial colonies that are isolated from each other so they can be identified

A veterinary technician must obtain a blood sample to measure oxygenation levels. Which step is most important? A: Obtain blood from an artery B: Remove serum or plasma from cells immediately C: Keep blood at specified body temperature until processing D: Use nonhemolyzed serum or plasma only to avoid false elevations

obtain blood from an artery

Which best describes a latent infection? A: One that never causes clinical signs B: Often dormant until the host is stressed C: Caused by a cancer-causing oncogenic virus D: One against which the animal is previously vaccinated

often dormant until the host is stressed

which of the following is likely the most representative method of analyzing urine solute osmolar concentration urine pH cystocentesis osmometry specific gravity

osmometry

for which parasite is the cellophane tape method useful thelazia californiensis eimeria spp oxyuris equi balantidium coli

oxyuris equi

in the digestive system, which cells produce the necessary hydrochloric acid parietal cells chief cells schwann cells melanocytes

parietal cells

Which best describes Western blotting? A: Similar to ELISA tests B: Can be used for pregnancy determination C: Particularly helpful in detection of viruses such as FIV and FeLV D: Determines animal's immune reaction to a particular infectious agent

particularly helpful in detection of viruses such as FIV and FeLV

In glomerular filtration, what happens to metabolic waste in the plasma? A: Passes into the distal convoluted tubule B: Remains in the plasma C: Passes into peritubular capillaries D: Passes into Bowman's capsule

passes into the Bowman's capsule

Which best describes the cause of the genetically based condition known as type 1 atopy? A: Patient does not possess IgE antibody B: Patient produces an excess of IgE antibody C: Patient has an overreactive immune system D: Patient is deficient in cell-mediated immunity.

patient produces an excess of IgE antibody

Which of the following disinfectants is most toxic to cats? A: Phenols B: Alcohols C: Anionic soaps D: Quaternary ammonium compounds

phenols

in qualitative and semi-quantitative urine analysis, which type of substance is exogenous uric acid phenolsulfonphthalein amino acid hormone

phenolsulfonphthalein

A mechanical sector transducer consists of one or more crystals mechanically moved to produce what type of image? A: Rectangular B: Pie-shaped C: Parallel D: Linear

pie-shaped

The transducer uses crystals that can transform electrical energy into ultrasound. Which describes the nature of these crystals? A: Electromagnetic B: Piezoelectric C: Attenuation D: Impedance

piezoelectric

hyostrongylus rubidus is the red stomach worm of pig cat dog horse

pig

ADH (vasopressin) causes water reabsorption and is released by which gland pituitary adrenal medulla adrenal cortex spleen

pituitary

A veterinary technician wishes to remove a potentially hostile cat from its carrier using the gauntlet method. Which is the first step to be taken? A: Place one hand partially in a gauntlet, and pull the other gauntlet on completely B: Open the cage door slightly and shake the first gauntlet, enticing the cat to bat at it C: Always don both leather gauntlets all the way up to the elbows before approaching the carrier or cage. D: Hold one gauntlet open in the cage door's entrance, ready to envelop the cat's head, as you gently prod its rump through the carrier's open grill.

place one hand partially in a guantlet, and pull the other gauntlet on completely

In which species do the placentae allow 100% of the maternal IgG antibody to cross, protecting the fetus from systemic infection? A: Dogs and cats B: Primates and humans C: Sheep, goats, and cattle D: Pigs, horses, and donkeys

primates and humans

Which microbial agent has the highest level of resistance to microbial control methods? A: Fungi B: Prions C: Coccidia D: Vegetative bacteria

prions

Which of the following is a precursor erythrocyte? A: Myeloblast B: Prorubricyte C: Band blood cell D: Metamyelocyte

prorubricyte

Which statement is the best advice for cat owners who do not want to declaw their cat? A: Buy leather furniture instead of fabric furniture B: Get a second cat to entertain the first one C: Provide an alternative scratching post D: Rub the furniture with mothballs

provide an alternative scratching post

Which best describes the actions of a biguanide such as chlorhexidine gluconate? A: Provides microbial control by denaturing protein, disrupting cell membranes, and dissolving lipids of microbes B: Provides microbial control obtained through the inactivation of proteins C: Provides microbial control through inhibition of cell membranes D: Impairs protein synthesis and alters cell membranes of microbes

provides microbial control through inhibition of cell membranes

which vessel contains oxygenated blood vena cava jugular vein pulmonary vein pulmonary artery

pulmonary vein

A lactose-fermenting bacterial colony is what color on MacConkey agar? A: Black B: Clear C: Pink D: Purple

purple

Which may be a signal that a cat is anxious? A: Chirr B: Purr C: Hiss D: Call

purr

Which is the best classification for a cytology sample that contains few macrophages and greater than 85% neutrophils? A: Purulent B: Eosinophilic C: Granulomatous D: Pyogranulomatous

purulent

What is the correct term for a condensed neutrophil nucleus? A: Hypersegmentation B: Karyorrhexis C: Karyolysis D: Pyknosis

pyknosis

Which of the following is considered the least reliable method of determining urine specific gravity? A: Urinometer B: Refractometer C: Reagent test strips D: All of these are equally reliable

reagent test strips

Infections with Histoplasma or Balantidium organisms are commonly identified using which of the following? A: Rectal mucosal scraping B: Fine needle aspiration C: Intestinal biopsy D: Fecal smear

rectal mucosal scraping

Which best describes the antimicrobial actions of peracetic acid? A: Denatures protein, disrupting cell membranes and dissolving lipids of microbes B: Impairs protein synthesis and alters cell membranes of microbes C: Releases oxygen in response to cellular debris to kill anaerobes D: Inhibits cell membranes

releases oxygen in response to cellular debris to kill anaerobes

The purpose of an aluminum filter in an x-ray machine is to do which of the following? A: Limit the frequency of the x-ray beam B: Focus the x-ray beam to the focal spot C: Remove interference ions from the x-rays in the beam D: Remove the lower-energy wavelength x-rays from the x-ray beam

remove the lower-energy wavelength x-rays from the x-ray beam

Which is a common neoplasm in cats? A: Feline infectious peritonitis B: Renal lymphosarcoma C: Pyelonephritis D: Carcinoma

renal lymphosarcoma

Which best illustrates active listening? A: Repeat what you hear now and then, capturing the feelings along with the message B: Actively participate by interrupting the speaker to interject your thoughts C: Encourage everyone in the room to participate in the conversation D: Speak in a loud, clear voice with many hand gestures

repeat what you hear now and then, capturing the feelings along with the message

Which provides ideal conditions for growing fungal cultures? A: 98.6° F (37° C) under ambient light B: Room temperature under ultraviolet lights C: Room temperature, in a darkened environment D: 98.6° F (37° C) in normal rhythms of sunlight and darkness (e.g., on a windowsill)

room temperature, in a darkened environment

How should the transducer be manipulated to obtain a transverse ultrasound image of the stomach? A: Rotate clockwise and move cranially B: Fan or rock from cranial to caudal C: Fan or rock from left to right D: Rotate counterclockwise

rotate clockwise and move cranially

Which is the common name for Toxascaris leonina? A: Whipworm B: Lung fluke C: Roundworm D: Tapeworm

roundworm

In bone marrow, which cells usually account for 80% to 90% of the erythroid cells? A: Myeloblasts and rubriblasts B: Rubricytes and metarubricytes C: Promyelocytes and prorubricytes D: Metarubricytes and metamyelocytes

rubricytes and metarubicytes

food travels through the stomach of the ruminants in what order reticulum, rumen, omasum, abomasum rumen, reticulum, abomasum, omasum rumen, omasum, reticulum, abomasum rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum

rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum

Which behavior indicates feline offensive aggression? A: Head and neck withdrawn to a tense body position B: Tail is tucked into body C: Flattened whiskers D: Rump elevated

rump elevated

For which of these behavior problems is drug therapy not a solution? A: General anxiety disorder B: Running away/escaping C: Separation anxiety D: Aggression

running away/escaping

The lid pops off a blood specimen from a horse 6 days after inoculation. What is most likely the cause? A: Technician forgot to use an EDTA tube B: Needle of vacutainer was accidentally left in place C: Sample has produced anaerobic, gas-producing bacteria D: The blood was collected directly into a TSB tube from venipuncture

sample has produced anaerobic, gas producing bacteria

Which is a mesenchymal cell tumor that usually exfoliates single cells? A: Seroma B: Sarcoma C: Carcinoma D: Hematoma

sarcoma

Which bovine disease has a vaccine that is best given to the dam to be passed to a calf through colostrum? A: Spongiform encephalopathy B: Infectious rhinotracheitis C: Scours complex D: Leukemia

scours complex

Which is not a goal of Salmonella-Shigella agar? A: Select gram-positive bacteria B: Select pathogenic enteric bacteria C: Differentiate on the basis of lactose fermentation D: Differentiate on the basis of hydrogen sulfide production

select gram-positive bacteria

A laboratory technician needs to grow only gram-negative organisms. Which type of media will be most helpful? A: Agonist media B: Nutritive media C: Selective media D: Differential media

selective media

What is the best way to preserve parasitic samples for shipping to a laboratory? A: Send fresh or mixed at a ratio of 1:3 with 10% formalin B: Preserve segments or whole parasites in 10 to 12 mL of lysing solution C: Whole parasites, never segments, can be preserved in alcohol or formalin D: Place 1 mL of feces in a 15-mL conical centrifuge tube; add 9 mL of 2% formalin and mix by inversion

send fresh or mixed at a ratio of 1:3 with 10% formalin

Which strategy is most likely to help achieve personal goals? A: Set priorities B: Use procrastination to your advantage C: Wait to start to determine whether the goal will change—you never know D: Give all responsibility for completing the goal to someone else who is faster

set priorities

In ultrasonography, which term describes an error in which the majority of the ultrasound beam is reflected or absorbed at the interface and no sound wave penetrates into the deeper tissues? A: Refraction B: Shadowing C: Mirror image D: Reverberation

shadowing

Which of the following cells would most likely have the largest number of mitochondria? A: Osteocytes B: Adipocytes C: Smooth muscle cells D: Skeletal muscle cells

skeletal muscle cells

During ultrasonography of a urinary bladder, part of the ultrasound beam's width falls outside the bladder and echoes resulting from this part of the beam are erroneously placed within the structure, creating echoes on the image that mimic sediment. Which term best describes this artifact? A: Slice thickness artifact B: Far-field enhancement C: Acoustic shadowing D: Refraction

slice thickness artifact

Which tube media is a sterile solution used for diluting gram-negative bacteria for API identification testing? A: Urea agar slant (UREA) B: Trypticase soy broth (TSB) C: Sodium chloride 0.85% (NaCl 0.85%) D: Thioglycollate broth (THIO) without indicator -135

sodium chloride 0.85% (NaCl 0.85%)

which of the following uses active transport diffusion osmosis sodium-potassium pump facilitated diffusion

sodium-potassium pump

Which term describes a structure that permits the majority of the sound to pass through to deeper regions, with only a few echoes being reflected back? A: Hyperechoic B: Sonolucent C: Echogenic D: Isoechoic

sonolucent

What is the sheep's main means of defense? A: Speed and flocking instinct B: Teeth and hooves C: Hooves and head D: Speed and head

speed and flocking instinct

In ultrasonography, which organ is the most echogenic? A: Bladder B: Liver C: Kidney D: Spleen

spleen

Microscopic examination of a skin scraping sample shows the presence of infectious gram-positive cocci within a group of phagocytic cells. Which must be the infectious agent? A: Staphylococcus sp. B: Actinomycetes sp. C: Pseudomonas sp. D: Nocardia sp.

staphylococcus sp.

Which is true when collecting virology samples for diagnosis? A: Sterile skim milk can be used as a transport medium B: Sections should be no smaller than 5 mm thick and fixed in 10% formalin C: Antibiotics must never be added to the specimen for fear of contamination D: When bleeding an animal, a change in titer means immunity from previous recovery from the disease

sterile skim milk can be used as a transport medium

Which tail position most often indicates that a horse is in pain? A: Wringing B: Circling C: Straight down D: Clamped tight between the gluteals

straight down

which of the following layers of skin contains "water-proofing" cells stratum corneum stratum germinativum stratum granulosum corium

stratum granulosum

Which of the following is the recommended method of quality control for disinfection of the surgical suite in the veterinary clinic? A: Thermocouple B: Bowie-Dick test C: Surface sampling D: Biological testing

surface sampling

Which category requires a ''dry'' cycle? A: Surgical pack autoclaving B: Surgical tray autoclaving C: ''Flash'' autoclaving D: Liquids autoclaving

surgical pack autoclaving

a hexacanth is the detectable, infective stage of a tick mite pinworm tapeworm

tapeworm

What does it most likely mean when a cat begins to hide in its litter box or under a towel? A: The cat is depressed or lonely from lack of freedom or interaction B: The cat is becoming aggressive and is about to attack C: A second cat is using the litter box D: The cat has early signs of rabies

the cat is depressed or lonely from lack of freedom or interaction

Which is the best description of the lipid envelope surrounding a virus? A: Enveloped viruses are very difficult to kill B: The freezing and thawing process will render the enveloped virus inert C: Enveloped viruses are more refractory than so-called naked viruses D: The lipid envelope enables the virus to bind to a cell's receptor sites and then digest the membrane and enter the cell intact

the freezing and thawing process will render the enveloped virus inert

A patient's blood sample reveals the presence of an IgM antibody titer to a particular antigen. What does this infer? A: The patient has had a recent initial vaccination or has the disease currently B: The animal has recovered from this disease at some time in the past C: Booster vaccines have been administered at some time previously D: The test is in error because IgM does not last long in the body

the patient has had a recent initial vaccination or has the disease currently

In ultrasonography, what causes reverberation? A: Increased time for the echo to be returned is interpreted as being further away, so the image is displaced further cranially B: The ultrasound beam is reflected back from the gas and then bounces back and forth between the probe and the gas C: The ultrasound beam interacts with a large curvilinear interface D: Part of the ultrasound beam's width is outside a cystic structure

the ultrasound beam is reflected back from the gas and then bounces back and forth between the probe and the gas

Which of the following is true regarding the analysis of viral samples? A: The virus is most easily cultured from animals just before and just after the onset of clinical signs B: It is usually performed to determine a course of treatment C: It is always performed in a clinic D: Previous history is not needed

the virus is most easily cultured from animals just before and just after the onset of clinical signs

Which is most helpful when trying to identify oocysts of Cryptosporidium? A: They may be confused with certain protozoa B: They are uniformly pear-shaped and orange C: They are between 3 and 4 μm in diameter D: They are up to 5 μm in diameter and slightly pink

they are up to 5 um in diameter and slightly pink

What is the main function of microvilli in an absorptive cell? A: They increase surface area B: They promote surface movement C: They are used for movement of the cell itself D: They use protein and RNA to promote protein synthesis

they increase surface area

Which of the following is true about viral samples? A: They should be frozen to ensure stability B: They survive up to 3 weeks without refrigeration C: They are inherently unstable and must be submitted as soon as possible D: Only naked virus samples can be shipped because they are very refractory

they survive up to 3 weeks without refrigeration

Liquids to be autoclaved must be placed in a container at least _______ time(s) the size as the liquid volume. A: One B: Two C: Three D: Seven

three

Which diagnostic procedure requires that the patient be placed in sternal or lateral recumbency, with the shaved region of interest situated over a hole in the table? A: Three-dimensional abdominal ultrasound B: Three-dimensional cardiac ultrasound C: Flexor radiograph of equine limb D: Equine navicular radiograph

three-dimensional cardiac ultrasound

which of the following describes an elevated platelet count caused by bone marrow dysfunction or pathology thrombocythemia thrombocytosis reactive thrombocytosis physiological thrombocytosis

thrombocythemia

What is displayed on the horizontal axis of the M-mode ultrasound display screen? A: Pixels that depend on the intensity of the returning echo B: Depth of the reflecting interface C: Position of a reflector D: Time

time

Why are all media plates incubated upside down? A: To keep the face of the plate against the incubator floor B: To prevent condensation from dripping onto cultures C: To prevent contamination D: Both a and b

to prevent condensation from dripping onto cultures

Why is a second vaccine administered to elicit a secondary immune response in a patient? A: To stimulate the production of more phagocytes B: To stimulate the production of an increased IgM antibody titer C: To cause the patient to produce an acquired artificial passive immunity D: To result in a stronger, faster immunity by causing a secondary immune response

to result in a stronger, faster immunity by causing a secondary immune response

Which of the following causes quantum mottle on a radiographic image? A: Patient too thick B: Film speed too fast C: Intensifying screen speed too fast D: Too few photons (reduced mAs) producing the image

too few photons (reduced mAs) producing the image

What is the main function of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)? A: Transportation of proteins B: Synthesizing steroid-based hormones C: Synthesizing cholesterol and transporting fats D: Detoxification of drugs, breaking down of glycogen

transportation of proteins

Which agar is also referred to as ''blood agar plate''? A: Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep's blood (TSA) B: Salmonella-Shigella agar (SS) C: Mueller-Hinton agar (MH) D: Hektoen enteric agar

trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep's blood (TSA)

A surgeon removes a sample from an external lesion for multiple imprint analysis. What is the best way to prepare this cytological specimen for examination? A: Centesis B: Tzanck method C: Swab technique D: Fine needle biopsy

tzanck method

Which body area, when healthy, is nonsterile—that is, it contains resident bacteria and fungi (normal flora) that must be distinguished from disease-causing organisms? A: Upper respiratory tract B: Spinal fluid C: Joint fluid D: Urine

upper respiratory tract

QUESTION: Which is not commonly measured in a liver function profile? A: Total bilirubin B: Total protein C: Urea D: AP

urea

Which organ is anechoic? A: Urinary bladder B: Renal medulla C: Renal cortex D: Pancreas

urinary bladder

Which of the following is a severe adverse vaccine reaction? A: Urticaria B: Lethargy C: Anorexia D: Slight fever

urticaria

What method works best to move a pig from one place to another? A: Use a whip B: Use an electric cattle prod C: Use a hurdle or plastic pipe D: Use a bucket placed over its head, then tap it in the opposite direction

use a hurdle or plastic pipe

Which best describes killed or inactivated vaccines? A: Usually require repeated administration to produce a healthy level of immunity B: May cause a mild form of the disease in some patients C: Cause abortions in pregnant patients D: Do not store well

usually require repeated administration to produce a healthy level of immunity

Which of the following contains valves? A: Arteries and veins B: Veins and lymphatic vessels C: Veins and capillaries D: Arteries and lymphatic vessels

veins and lymphatic vessels

On what body surface is a cat's umbilicus? A: Medial B: Ventral C: Anterior D: Proximal

ventral

Which of the following is an example of positive contrast media that may be injected intravascularly? A: Water-soluble barium B: Water-soluble iodine C: Nonsoluble barium D: Both a and b

water-soluble iodine

A veterinary technician approaches a stack of cages and is about to remove a nervous-looking dog from the highest cage. Which action is most likely to be helpful? A: Reach around its trunk and slide it toward you, lining its body parallel to your body B: Open the door wide, using the door as a barrier to prevent the dog from escaping C: Open the cage door and slip your arm under and around the dog's neck D: Wear gauntlets but take your fingers out of the finger holes

wear gauntlets but take your fingers out of the finger holes