vtp

which of these therapies would prevent weight-bearing of a limb? a. mason-meta splint b. ehmer sling c. schroeder-thomas splint d. fiberglass cast

B

a 6 yr old doberman cardiac arrested and was resuscitated. however, the dog has a consistently low systolic bp of 60 mmhg. what drug may be prescribed to increase the blood pressure and via what route? a. dopamine via IV infusion b. dopamine via IM administration c. terbutaline via SQ administration d. hydromorphone via IV administration

a

a cat presents with difficulty breathing and evidence of pleural effusion on radiographs. thoracentesis is performed, and milky fluid is obtained. what condition does this patient have? a. chylothorax b. hemothorax c. pneumothorax d. pneumonia

a

chronic exposure to which hormone leads to a pyometra? a. progesterone b. testosterone c. estrogen d. luteinizing hormone

a

horses with laminitis should be fed which type of diet? a. mostly grass hay b. grains only c. mixed hay and high quality grains d. alfalfa only

a

ivermectin is effective against which organisms? a. nematodes b. protozoa c. trematodes d. cestodes

a

perioperative antibiotics are essential in preventing unwanted infections. what is the best time to administer the antibiotic? a. 30 mins prior to making an incision b. immediately after surgery c. 1 hr prior to anesthesia d. at the time of the incision

a

the heart rate of an adult cat should range between which of the following? a. 150-220 bpm b. 30-60 bpm c. 120-150 bpm d. 80-120 bpm

a

what is the "chief complaint" of a client? a. the reason why they brought the pet b. another term for signalment c. most severe problem the animal has d. the medical bill

a

what is the purpose of polishing the teeth after a dental cleaning? a. to smooth the microscopic defects on the tooth surface b. to remove any remaining calculus on teeth c. to prevent cavity formation d. to strengthen enamel

a

what purpose is the administration of the drug guaifenesin typically used for in horses? a. muscle relaxation b. antimicrobial c. expectorant d. anti-inflammatory

a

where is the best place to give an intramuscular injection in a dog? a. epaxial muscle b. semitendinosus muscle c. sternohyoid muscle d. any muscle will do

a

which of the following description of the properties of an inhalant anesthetic is true? a. drugs with low minimum alveolar concentrations are most potent b. drugs with high solubility (blood/gas solubility coefficients) are most potent c. drugs with high minimum alveolar concentrations are most potent d. drugs with low solubility are most potent

a

which of the following drugs is an anticonvulsant? a. phenobarbital b. xylazine c. acepromazine d. butorphanol

a

A dog refuses a rectal temperature. You take his temperature under the axillary region and get a reading of 99.5F. What is likely his core body temperature? a. 102.1 F b. 101.5F c. 98.7F d. 99.5F

b

Lincosamides (such as lincomycin and clindamycin) are contraindicated for use in which species of animal? a. feline b. equine c. canine d. swine

b

Linear artifacts on a film are usually due to which of the following? a. film b. grid c. intensifying screen d. processing machine

b

What is the usual vector of western equine encephalitis? a. lice b. mosquito c. soft ticks d. biting flies

b

When a horse is feeling threatened or is resisting restraint, what is its first instinct to do? a. kick with back legs b. run away c. bite d. raise up on its back legs

b

Bacteria differ from animal cells in that they lack which of the following? a. they are unable to metabolize glucose b. they lack cell walls c. they lack a true membrane-bound nucleus d. they lack ribonucleic acid

c

Which species regurgitates food for remastication? a. pigs b. horses c. cattle d. lagomorphs

c

Why is nitrous oxide contraindicated in gastrointestinal surgeries? a. causes hypersegmentation of the bowel b. causes vomiting c. causes nitrous build up in the GI tract d. longer recovery due to delayed GI emptying

c

You are enrolled in a technician training session at a laboratory primate center and are observing the handling of macaque monkeys for blood sampling. You are required to wear personal protective equipment, mostly to prevent possible exposure to which disease? a. influenza A b. HIV c. herpes B virus d. hepatitis b

c

a "boxing glove" shape of air in a dog's abdomen is indicative of what emergency? a. pnuemothorax b. splenic torsion c. gastric dilation and volvulus d. bladder rupture

c

a dog presents with lethargy, fever, stiffness, and decreased appetite. his ehrlichia snap test is positive. ehrlichia canis is most commonly transmitted by which parasite? a. deer tick (ixodes) b. dog flea (ctenocephalides) c. brown dog tick (rhipicephalus) d. lone star tick (amblyomma)

c

a reticulocyte count should be included on a cbc count in which of the following instances? a. a 3 yr old dog with a total wbc count of 32000/ul b. 8 yr old cat with a platelet count of 30000/ul c. a 13 yr old cat with a pcv of 19% d. a 9 yr old horse with a total wbc count of 2000/ul

c

abdominal radiographs should be taken at which of the following times? a. diastole b. systole c. full expiration d. full inspiration

c

from youngest to oldest, which is the correct order of the tick's life cycle? a. nymph, egg, larva, adult b. larva, egg, nymph, adult c. egg, larva, nymph, adult d. nymph, larva, egg, adult

c

in a pregnant mare, "red bag" delivery implies what situation? a. delivery of a premature foal b. premature placental separation c. rupture of the chorioallantois d. rupture of the amniotic sac

c

what are the segments of a tapeworm that are sometimes seen in canine feces called? a. scolex b. cysticeroids c. proglottids d. rostellums

c

what is a female mule called? a. doe b. mare c. molly d. jennet

c

what is the minimum volume of water required by mammals to sustain life? a. 20-25 mls/kg/hr b. 10-12 mls/kg/hr c. 2-4 mls/kg/hr d. 30-35 mls/kg/hr

c

when handling a raptor, what is the anatomic structure that can cause the most damage to a handler? a. tails b. beaks c. talons d. wings

c

which of the following analgesics most often causes vomiting as a side effect in dogs? a. fentanyl b. meloxicam c. morphine d. butorphanol

c

which of the following is a classic symptom of a pyometra? a. seizures b. hives c. increased urinating and drinking d. syncope

c

which of the following is not a measured analyte in a urine dipstick a. ketones b. blood c. lactate d. protein

c

which of the following is not considered part of the large intestine? a. rectum b. cecum c. ileum d. colon

c

which of the following is not part of the small intestine? a. jejunum b. ileum c. ascending colon d. duodenum

c

which of the following mostly produces endotoxins? a. gram positive bacteria b. yeast and other fungal organisms c. gram negative bacteria d. intestinal parasites such as roundworms and hookworms

c

An owner rushes her dog to your hospital because she noticed his eye looked red. This condition is sometimes referred to as which of the following? a. raisin eye b. meibomian gland prolapse c. exophtalmus d. cherry eye

d

Cattle, or other livestock, exposed to prolonged rainy conditions are most likely to develop: a. pediculosis b. habronema infestation c. photosensitization d. dermatophilosis

d

For a veterinary X-ray technician, what is the maximum permissible dose of radiation they can receive in one year? a. 100 mrem b. 1 rem c. 10 rad d. 50 mSv

d

How many pairs of cranial nerves are there? a. 15 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12

d

In the typical life cycle of the flea (i.e. Ctenocephalides felis), where does the larva pupate and form into the adult flea? a. in the gastrointestinal tract of the host animal b. on the surface of the host animal c. in a tapeworm intermediate host d. in the environment (off of host)

d

Traumatic reticuloperitonitis or pericarditis in cattle is most commonly known as which of the following conditions? a. white muscle disease b. metal heart disease c. reticulitis d. hardware disease

d

Tularemia would most likely be carried by which animal? a. cows b. guinea pigs c. goats d. rabbits

d

which of the following types of wounds would most benefit from a wet to dry bandage? a. a dog that has a scape on its hock with a large surface b. a dog that has a lick granuloma on its forelimb that is severely inflamed c. a dog with a clean cut on its side from a fence d. a dog hit by a car that has an open wound with gravel debris and macerated tissues

d

Which suture type is non-absorbable and would be ideal for placing skin sutures in a laceration? a. chromic gut b. monocryl c. maxon d. ethilon

D

where should you palpate a standing animal for the urinary bladder? a. rostral b. caudodorsal c. cranioventral d. caudoventral

D

An adult canine patient is in cardiac arrest and it is your job to administer thoracic compressions. How fast should you give compressions? a. 80-120 beats per minute b. 40-60 bpm c. as fast as you can d. 180-220 bpm

a

During an emergency you are assisting with CPCR. What is the best way listed to administer the drugs (atropine, epinephrine, and lidocaine)? You are unable to place an IV catheter despite multiple attempts. a. intratracheally b. via stomach tube c. intraperitoneal d. subcutaneously

a

which of the following is a legally acceptable method to identify a radiograph in the event that the radiograph needs to be used in court? a. lead letters with patient information are placed at the corner of the field during the radiograph exposure b. an adherent label with patient information affixed to the film immediately after processing c. the radiograph itself doesnt need to be labeled, provided that it is kept in a folder that contains all patient information d. a permenant marker is used to write patient information on the film after the film is developed

a

which of the following is a phagocytic cell of the immune system> a. monocyte b. mast cell c. natural killer cell d. b-lymphocyte

a

which of the following is not an acceptable means of euthanasia in reptiles? a. freezing b. carbon dioxide c. anesthetic followed by decapitation d. injectable pentobarbital

a

which of the following methods involves collecting nematode larvae by allowing them to pass through a wire net or cheesecloth? a. baermann technique b. mcmaster technique c. sheather's solution technique d. wisconsin technique

a

which of the following types of shock may cause brick red MM color? a. septic shock b. hypovolemic shock c. cardiogenic shock d. obstructive shock

a

which of the following would be elevated in a pet with regenerative anemia? a. reticulocyte count b. lymphocyte count c. hematocrit d. hemoglobin concentration

a

your vet tells an owner that their dog has cushings disease. what does their dog have? a. hyperadrenocorticism b. hypoadrenocorticism c. acromegaly d. diabetes mellitus

a

Which is the dental formula for a cat? a. 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3)= 42 b. 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1)= 30 c. 2 (I 2/2 C 1/1 P 3/3 M 2/1)= 30 d. 2 (I 3/2 C 2/2 P 3/3 M 0/1)= 32

b

Which of the following are treatments for hyperthyroidism? a. levamisole and I-131 b. methimazole and radioactive iodine c. levothyroxine and I-131 d. metronidazole and levothyroxine

b

You are viewing a blood sample in a compound microscope at a 20X objective lens. This microscope (as with most compound microscopes) has an ocular lens that has 10X magnification. What is the total magnification at which you are viewing the sample? a. 10x b. 200x c. .5x d.20x

b

a 7 year old saint bernard dog has a lesion on the left distal radius that is highly suspicious for a bone tumor (osteosarcoma). prior to surgery, a bone scan is ordered to performed. what is the main reason for this study? a. to provide greater anatomic detail regarding the lesion in the left distal radius b. to identify possible additional bone lesions (other than the left distal radius) that may represent bony metastases c. to identify possible pulmonary metastatic lesions d. to confirm the diagnosis of osteosarcoma of the left distal radius

b

a conure breeder has been having difficulty with the eggs surviving. dr. smith has identified nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism and has asked you to dispense the prescriptions to the owner. what will you tell the owner? a. give the prescribed amount of selenium supplement in fresh food as directed and make sunlight available a few hours per day b. give the prescribed amount of calcium supplement in fresh food as directed and make sunlight available for a few hours per day c. give the prescribed amount of beta-carotene supplement in fresh food and make sunlight available a few hours per day d. give the prescribed amount of iodine supplement in fresh food and make sunlight available a few hours per day

b

rocky mountain spotted fever is a disease carried by what vector? a. lice b. tick c. fleas d. mosquito

b

the term endometritis refers to inflammation of which of the following? a. cervix b. uterine lining c. mammary glands d. ovaries

b

what is the ideal time period to withhold food in large ruminants prior to general anesthesia for an elective procedure? a. ruminants shouldnt be fasted prior to anesthesia b. 24-48 hours c. 8-12 hours d. 4-6 hours

b

what is the name for the muscle group that includes the rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius? a. triceps b. quadriceps c. gluteals d. hamstrings

b

what is the term given to the end of the spinal cord? a. spinous terminata b. cauda equina c. corte finale d. cordus altus

b

which is true of "red bag" during birth in the mare? a. it indicates a tear of the uterus, and a c-section needs to be performed immediately b. it is a protrusion of the chorioallantois and is an emergency c. it is the appearance of the normal placenta as the mare is giving birth d. it indicates a breech position of the goal and assistance for delivery is needed

b

which of the following best describes a seroma? a. a mass of immune cells that forms due to tissue injury that can occur from trauma or surgery b. a fluid pocket at an incision site that is not infected c. a fluid pocket an incision site containing pus d. a pocket or distribution of air under the skin

b

which of the following conditions in rats results from living in an area with the humidity too low? a. chronic respiratory disease b. ringtail c. red tears d. mycoplasma

b

which of these antibiotic choices is bacteriostatic? a. penicillin b. doxycycline c. enrofloxacin d. cephalexin

b

which parasite is the most important cause of parasitic gastritis in cattle and is commonly known as the brown stomach worm? a. anclyostoma braziliense b. ostertagia ostertagi c. haemonchus contortus d. strongylus vulgaris

b

you are riding along on an emergency call to assist the vet with a sick foal who was born two days ago. the foal appeared normal at birth but is now lethargic and icteric. it has a fever of 102 F. the PCV is down to 15%. which of the following diseases leads to jaundice and anemia in young foals? a. congenital portocaval shunt b. neonatal isoerythrolysis c. viral hepatitis d. bacterial hepatitis

b

which of the following statements is not included in navta's code of ethics for the profession of veterinary technology? a. safeguard the public and the profession against individual deficient in professional competence or ethics b. assist with efforts to ensure conditions of employment consistent with the excellent care for animals c. the veterinarian must assume accountability for individual professional actions and judgements of the veterinary technician d. aid society and animals through providing excellent care and services for animals

c

you are reading a cardiologist report discussing tricuspid valve insufficiency and grade 3 murmur. the mitral valve is said to be normal. if you listened to this patient, where would you expect to hear the murmur the loudest? a. left side caudal portion of the chest b. sternal c. right side d. left side cranial portion of chest

c

you are responsible for anesthetizing an adult cat. what size endotracheal tube would you have ready for this patient? a. 2 b. 6 c. 4 d. 8

c

youre on a farm call where a flock of lactating sheep on lust pasture are suffering from muscle spasms, drooling, and stiff gaits. which deficiency might explain their symptoms? a. iron b. vitamin b12 c. magnesium d. thiamine

c

which of the following species has a double row of incisors? a. guinea pig b. chinchilla c. ferret d. rabbit

d

which of the following terms desribe a dialated pupil? a. miotic b. sympathetic c. fixed d. mydriatic

d

Which of the following is a reason why a tick should not be removed without an effective removal device? a. partial removal of tick may increase the risk of transmission of certain rickettsial diseaes b. improperly squeezing the tick may cause the animal to have an anaphylactic reaction c. ticks should never be removed manually and should be allowed to fall out in time or killed with in acaricide d. mouthparts may be left embedded and create a focus for infection

d

a jamshidi needle is used for which of the following procedures? a. joint tap b. bone marrow aspirate c. liver core biopsy d. bone marrow core biopsy

d

a novice owner has asked you to calculate the forage needed for the new stallion she's bought for her ranch. He is a norewegian fjord, and aside from breeding, he will be doing cart work on the ranch. what percentage of his body weight should she feed him at a minimum? a. 1.0% b. 1.5% c. 5% d. 2.0$

d

a urine:protein:creatinine ratio may be requested for which purpose? a. test for bilirubin in the urine b. look for urinary tract infection c. measure glomerular filtration rate d. quantify urine protein

d

an animal with pleural effusion may require which procedure for stabilization? a. radiographs b. abdominocentesis c. orogastric tube d. thoracocentesis

d

anticholinergics can be used in small mammals as part of a preanesthetic protocol. of the following, which anticholinergic is the best choice for use in rabbits? a. midazolam b. atropine c. diazepam d. glycopyrrolate

d

during surgery, which is NOT considered sterile? a. surgical gloves b. surgical insturments c. surgical drape d. back of surgical gown

d

if a horse receives a cut on the leg from barbed wire and is not vaccinated, what is the protocol for preventing tetanus? a. no vaccine can be given after exposure, wash the wound with 2% chlorhexidine solution daily b. antibiotics c. tetanus toxoid 2 weeks after injury d. tetanus antitoxin within 24 hours

d

in a fetus, blood is shunted from the pulmonary artery to the aorta via what structure? a. foramen magnum b. ductus venosus c. foramen ovale d. ductus arteriosus

d

it is estimated that BUN and creatinine levels become elevated when what percentage of kidney function is lost? a. 50% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75%

d

its spring and you assist your veterinarian on a farm call. you see a 19 year old, overweight mare standing in lush pasture with her forelimbs extended, rocking her weight onto her rear limbs. when forced to move, she is stiff and painful. what is her most likely diagnosis? a. heaves b. colic c. rear foot abscess d. laminitis

d

what is a normal cvp reading? a. less than 0 cm h20 b. 90-120 cm h20 c. 10-15 cm h20 d. 0-10 cm h20

d

what is the approximate minute volume of a 4kg cat? a. 40 ml b. 4 l c. 250 ml d. 1 l

d

what is the average gestation length of a cow? a. approx 120 days b. approx 350 days c. approx 200 days d. approx 285 days

d

what organism causes diamond skin disease in pigs? a. streptococcus suis b. staphylococcus hyicus c. haemophilus pasasuis d. erysipelas rhusiopathiae

d

which clinical symptom can be an indicator of vestibular disease? a. head bob b. aggression c. hypermetric gait d. head tilt

d

which is true regarding umbilical hernias? a. they should not be repaired at the same time as a spay or neuter procedure b. they usually progress until a loop of bowel is strangulated through the defect and should be repaired as an emergency procedure c. the best treatment for all umbilical hernias is benign neglect d. they usually consist of a small piece of fat protruding through the body wall and are not life-threatening

d

which of the following hormones is produced by the adrenal glands? a. TSH b. ACTH c. GH d. cortisol

d

which of the following is expected from a positive inotropic drug? a. decrease in adrenal gland stimulation b. prevention of arrhythmias c. dramatic decrease blood pressure d. increase in cardiac contractility

d