1460 MOD6

A patient states that she has been experiencing a high level of stress lately. Which hormone level is most likely increased due to stress? A) Cortisol B) Calcitonin C) Oxytocin D) Prolactin

A) Cortisol

The nurse correctly identifies an example of exocrine glands when stating the name of which glands? A) Mammary B) Salivary C) Sweat D) Thyroid E) Bartholin F) Pancreas

A) Mammary B) Salivary C) Sweat E) Bartholin

The nurse is completing an admission assessment and identifies which findings that are most likely related to hormonal imbalances? A) Thinning hair B) Dry skin C) Changes in pigmentation D) Malformation of fingernails E) Female facial hair F) Unsteady gait

A) Thinning hair B) Dry skin C) Changes in pigmentation D) Malformation of fingernails E) Female facial hair

2. A client wants to lose 1.5 pounds a week. After reviewing a diet history, the nurse determines the client typically eats 2450 calories a day. What should the client's calorie goal be to achieve this weight loss? (Record your answer using a whole number.) __ calories/day

ANS: 1700 calories/day To encourage a weight loss of 1 pound (2.2 kg) a week, 500 calories per day would be subtracted. To encourage a weight loss of 2 pounds (4.4 kg) a week, 1000 calories each day are subtracted. In this scenario, to lose 1.5 pounds a week the client needs to cut 750 calories per day from the diet: 2450 - 750 = 1700 calories.

3. A client is receiving continuous tube feeding at 70 mL/hr. When the bag is empty, how much formula does the nurse add? (Record your answer using a whole number.) _____ mL

ANS: 280 mL The nurse never adds more than 4 hours' worth of formula to a hanging bag of enteral feedings. 70 mL/hr × 4 hr = 280 m

1. A client weighs 228 pounds (103.6 kg) and is 5'3" (160 cm) tall. What is this client's body mass index (BMI)? (Record your answer using a decimal rounded up to the nearest tenth.) _____

ANS: 40.4 Using the formula : BMI= [WT(LBS)/HT(CM)squared] x 703

4. During a nutritional assessment, the nurse calculates that a female patient's BMI is 27. The nurse would advise the patient to follow which of these recommendations? a. This measurement indicates that the patient is overweight and should follow a plan of diet and exercise to lose weight. b. This measurement indicates that the patient is underweight and will need to take measures to gain weight. c. This measurement indicates that the patient is morbidly obese and may be a candidate for bariatric surgery. d. This measurement indicates that the patient is of normal weight and should continue with current lifestyle.

ANS: A A BMI of 25 to 29.9 is in the overweight range. A BMI of <18.5 is in the underweight range. A BMI of 30 to 34.9 is obesity class I, a BMI of 35 to 39.9 is obesity class II, and a BMI of >40 is obesity class III (morbid obesity). A BMI of 19 to 24 is in the normal range.

13. While assessing a client with Graves' disease, the nurse notes that the client's temperature has risen 1° F. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Turn the lights down and shut the client's door. b. Call for an immediate electrocardiogram (ECG). c. Calculate the client's apical-radial pulse deficit. d. Administer a dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol).

ANS: A A temperature increase of 1° F may indicate the development of thyroid storm, and the provider needs to be notified. But before notifying the provider, the nurse should take measures to reduce environmental stimuli that increase the risk of cardiac complications. The nurse can then call for an ECG. The apical-radial pulse deficit would not be necessary, and Tylenol is not needed because the temperature increase is due to thyroid activity.

6. Which action by the nurse working with a client best demonstrates respect for autonomy? a. Asks if the client has questions before signing a consent b. Gives the client accurate information when questioned c. Keeps the promises made to the client and family d. Treats the client fairly compared to other clients

ANS: A Autonomy is self-determination. The client should make decisions regarding care. When the nurse obtains a signature on the consent form, assessing if the client still has questions is vital, because without full information the client cannot practice autonomy. Giving accurate information is practicing with veracity. Keeping promises is upholding fidelity. Treating the client fairly is providing social justice.

8. A nurse and a registered dietitian are assessing clients for partial parenteral nutrition (PPN). For which client would the nurse suggest another route of providing nutrition? a. Client with congestive heart failure b. Older client with dementia c. Client who has multiorgan failure d. Client who is post gastric resection

ANS: A Clients receiving PPN typically get large amounts of fluid volume, making the client with heart failure a poor candidate. The other candidates are appropriate for this type of nutritional support.

26. A preoperative nurse assesses a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus prior to a surgical procedure. The client's blood glucose level is 160 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse take? a. Document the finding in the client's chart. b. Administer a bolus of regular insulin IV. c. Call the surgeon to cancel the procedure. d. Draw blood gases to assess the metabolic state.

ANS: A Clients who have type 1 diabetes and are having surgery have been found to have fewer complications, lower rates of infection, and better wound healing if blood glucose levels are maintained at between 140 and 180 mg/dL throughout the perioperative period. The nurse should document the finding and proceed with other operative care. The need for a bolus of insulin, canceling the procedure, or drawing arterial blood gases is not required.

4. A nurse wishes to provide client-centered care in all interactions. Which action by the nurse best demonstrates this concept? a. Assesses for cultural influences affecting health care b. Ensures that all the clients' basic needs are met c. Tells the client and family about all upcoming tests d. Thoroughly orients the client and family to the room

ANS: A Competency in client-focused care is demonstrated when the nurse focuses on communication, culture, respect, compassion, client education, and empowerment. By assessing the effect of the client's culture on health care, this nurse is practicing client-focused care. Providing for basic needs does not demonstrate this competence. Simply telling the client about all upcoming tests is not providing empowering education. Orienting the client and family to the room is an important safety measure, but not directly related to demonstrating client-centered care.

2. A nurse is orienting a new client and family to the inpatient unit. What information does the nurse provide to help the client promote his or her own safety? a. Encourage the client and family to be active partners. b. Have the client monitor hand hygiene in caregivers. c. Offer the family the opportunity to stay with the client. d. Tell the client to always wear his or her armband.

ANS: A Each action could be important for the client or family to perform. However, encouraging the client to be active in his or her health care as a partner is the most critical. The other actions are very limited in scope and do not provide the broad protection that being active and involved does.

4. What is the nurse's best response about developing diabetes to the patient whose father has type 1 diabetes mellitus? a. "You have a greater susceptibility for development of the disease because of your family history." b. "Your risk is the same as the general population, because there is no genetic risk for development of type 1 diabetes." c. "Type 1 diabetes is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. Therefore the risk for becoming diabetic is 50%." d. "Because you are a woman and your father is the parent with diabetes, your risk is not increased for eventual development of the disease. However, your brothers will become diabetic."

ANS: A Even though type 1 diabetes does not follow a specific genetic pattern of inheritance, those with one parent with type 1 diabetes are at an increased risk for development of the disease.

1. The nurse instructs a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus to avoid which of the following drugs while taking insulin? a. Furosemide (Lasix) b. Dicumarol (Bishydroxycoumarin) c. Reserpine (Serpasil) d. Cimetidine (Tagamet)

ANS: A Furosemide is a loop diuretic and can increase serum glucose levels; its use is contraindicated with insulin. Dicumarol, an anticoagulant; reserpine, an anti-hypertensive; and cimetidine, an H2 receptor antagonist, do not affect blood glucose levels.

7. Critical Thinking: During a physical examination, the nurse notes that the patient's skin is dry and flaking, with patches of eczema, and suspects a nutritional deficiency. What additional data would the nurse expect to find to confirm the suspicion? a. Hair loss and hair that is easily removed from the scalp b. Inflammation of the tongue and fissured tongue c. Inflammation of peripheral nerves and numbness and tingling in extremities d. Fissures and inflammation of the mouth

ANS: A Hair loss (alopecia) and hair that is easily removed from the scalp (easy pluckability), like dry, flaking skin, is caused by essential fatty acid deficiency. Inflammation of the tongue (glossitis) and fissured tongue are manifestations of a niacin deficiency. Inflammation of peripheral nerves (neuropathy) and numbness and tingling in extremities (paresthesia) are manifestations of a thiamin deficiency. Fissures of the mouth (cheilosis) and inflammation of the mouth (stomatitis) are manifestations of a pyridoxine deficiency.

24. After teaching a client who is recovering from pancreas transplantation, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional education? a. "If I develop an infection, I should stop taking my corticosteroid." b. "If I have pain over the transplant site, I will call the surgeon immediately." c. "I should avoid people who are ill or who have an infection." d. "I should take my cyclosporine exactly the way I was taught."

ANS: A Immunosuppressive agents should not be stopped without the consultation of the transplantation physician, even if an infection is present. Stopping immunosuppressive therapy endangers the transplanted organ. The other statements are correct. Pain over the graft site may indicate rejection. Anti-rejection drugs cause immunosuppression, and the client should avoid crowds and people who are ill. Changing the routine of anti-rejection medications may cause them to not work optimally.

42. A nurse prepares to administer insulin to a client at 1800. The client's medicationadministration record contains the following information: • Insulin glargine: 12 units daily at 1800 • Regular insulin: 6 units QID at 0600, 1200, 1800, 2400 Based on the client's medication administration record, which action should the nurse take? a. Draw up and inject the insulin glargine first, and then draw up and inject the regular insulin. b. Draw up and inject the insulin glargine first, wait 20 minutes, and then draw up and inject the regular insulin. c. First draw up the dose of regular insulin, then draw up the dose of insulin glargine in the same syringe, mix, and inject the two insulins together. d. First draw up the dose of insulin glargine, then draw up the dose of regular insulin in the same syringe, mix, and inject the two insulins together.

ANS: A Insulin glargine must not be diluted or mixed with any other insulin or solution. Mixing results in an unpredictable alteration in the onset of action and time to peak action. The correct instruction is to draw up and inject first the glargine and then the regular insulin right afterward.

15. A nurse cares for a client with diabetes mellitus who is visually impaired. The client asks, "Can I ask my niece to prefill my syringes and then store them for later use when I need them?" How should the nurse respond? a. "Yes. Prefilled syringes can be stored for 3 weeks in the refrigerator in a vertical position with the needle pointing up." b. "Yes. Syringes can be filled with insulin and stored for a month in a location that is protected from light." c. "Insulin reacts with plastic, so prefilled syringes are okay, but you will need to use glass syringes." d. "No. Insulin syringes cannot be prefilled and stored for any length of time outside of the container."

ANS: A Insulin is relatively stable when stored in a cool, dry place away from light. When refrigerated, prefilled plastic syringes are stable for up to 3 weeks. They should be stored in the refrigerator in the vertical position with the needle pointing up to prevent suspended insulin particles from clogging the needle.

18. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with ketoacidosis. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse correlate with this condition? a. Increased rate and depth of respiration b. Extremity tremors followed by seizure activity c. Oral temperature of 102° F (38.9° C) d. Severe orthostatic hypotension

ANS: A Ketoacidosis decreases the pH of the blood, stimulating the respiratory control areas of the brain to buffer the effects of increasing acidosis. The rate and depth of respiration are increased (Kussmaul respirations) in an attempt to excrete more acids by exhalation. Tremors, elevated temperature, and orthostatic hypotension are not associated with ketoacidosis.

5. A client is going to be admitted for a scheduled surgical procedure. Which action does the nurse explain is the most important thing the client can do to protect against errors? a. Bring a list of all medications and what they are for. b. Keep the doctor's phone number by the telephone. c. Make sure all providers wash hands before entering the room. d. Write down the name of each caregiver who comes in the room.

ANS: A Medication errors are the most common type of health care mistake. The Joint Commission's Speak Up campaign encourages clients to help ensure their safety. One recommendation is for clients to know all their medications and why they take them. This will help prevent medication errors.

6. A nurse is caring for a client receiving enteral feedings through a Dobhoff tube. What action by the nurse is best to prevent hyperosmolarity? a. Administer free-water boluses. b. Change the client's formula. c. Dilute the client's formula. d. Slow the rate of infusion.

ANS: A Proteins and sugar molecules in the enteral feeding product contribute to dehydration due to increased osmolarity. The nurse can administer free-water boluses after consulting with the provider on the appropriate amount and timing of the boluses, or per protocol. The client may not be able to switch formulas. Diluting the formula is not appropriate. Slowing the rate of the infusion will not address the problem.

14. A client is in the bariatric clinic 1 month after having gastric bypass surgery. The client is crying and says "I didn't know it would be this hard to live like this." What response by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client's coping and support systems. b. Inform the client that things will get easier. c. Re-educate the client on needed dietary changes. d. Tell the client lifestyle changes are always hard.

ANS: A The nurse should assess this client's coping styles and support systems in order to provide holistic care. The other options do not address the client's distress.

3. A nurse is caring for a postoperative client on the surgical unit. The client's blood pressure was 142/76 mm Hg 30 minutes ago, and now is 88/50 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is best? a. Call the Rapid Response Team. b. Document and continue to monitor. c. Notify the primary care provider. d. Repeat blood pressure measurement in 15 minutes.

ANS: A The purpose of the Rapid Response Team (RRT) is to intervene when clients are deteriorating before they suffer either respiratory or cardiac arrest. Since the client has manifested a significant change, the nurse should call the RRT. Changes in blood pressure, mental status, heart rate, and pain are particularly significant. Documentation is vital, but the nurse must do more than document. The primary care provider should be notified, but this is not the priority over calling the RRT. The client's blood pressure should be reassessed frequently, but the priority is getting the rapid care to the client.

9. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). On assessment, the nurse notes the client's pulse is 128 beats/min, blood pressure is 98/56 mm Hg, and skin turgor is dry. What action should the nurse perform next? a. Assess the 24-hour fluid balance. b. Assess the client's oral cavity. c. Prepare to hang a normal saline bolus. d. Turn up the infusion rate of the TPN.

ANS: A This client has clinical indicators of dehydration, so the nurse calculates the client's 24-hour intake, output, and fluid balance. This information is then reported to the provider. The client's oral cavity assessment may or may not be consistent with dehydration. The nurse may need to give the client a fluid bolus, but not as an independent action. The client's dehydration is most likely due to fluid shifts from the TPN, so turning up the infusion rate would make the problem worse, and is not done as an independent action.

1. A client is in the family practice clinic. Today the client weighs 186.4 pounds (84.7 kg). Six months ago the client weighed 211.8 pounds (96.2 kg). What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask the client if the weight loss was intentional. b. Determine if there are food allergies or intolerances. c. Perform a comprehensive nutritional assessment. d. Perform a rapid bedside blood glucose test.

ANS: A This client has had a 12% weight loss. The nurse first determines if the weight loss was intentional. If not, then the nurse proceeds to a comprehensive nutritional assessment. Food intolerances are part of this assessment. Depending on risk factors and other findings, a blood glucose test may be warranted.

31. A nurse assesses a client who has diabetes mellitus and notes the client is awake and alert, but shaky, diaphoretic, and weak. Five minutes after administering a half-cup of orange juice, the client's clinical manifestations have not changed. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Administer another half-cup of orange juice. b. Administer a half-ampule of dextrose 50% intravenously. c. Administer 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously. d. Administer 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly.

ANS: A This client is experiencing mild hypoglycemia. For mild hypoglycemic manifestations, the nurse should administer oral glucose in the form of orange juice. If the symptoms do not resolve immediately, the treatment should be repeated. The client does not need intravenous dextrose, insulin, or glucagon.

15. A client has been prescribed lorcaserin (Belviq). What teaching is most appropriate? a. "Increase the fiber and water in your diet." b. "Reduce fat to less than 30% each day." c. "Report dry mouth and decreased sweating." d. "Lorcaserin may cause loose stools for a few days."

ANS: A This drug can cause constipation, so the client should increase fiber and water in the diet to prevent this from occurring. Reducing fat in the diet is important with orlistat. Lorcaserin can cause dry mouth but not decreased sweating. Loose stools are common with orlistat.

4. A nurse provides diabetic education at a public health fair. Which disorders should the nurse include as complications of diabetes mellitus? (Select all that apply.) a. Stroke b. Kidney failure c. Blindness d. Respiratory failure e. Cirrhosis

ANS: A, B, C Complications of diabetes mellitus are caused by macrovascular and microvascular changes. Macrovascular complications include coronary artery disease, cerebrovascular disease, and peripheral vascular disease. Microvascular complications include nephropathy, retinopathy, and neuropathy. Respiratory failure and cirrhosis are not complications of diabetes mellitus.

4. A nurse manager wants to improve hand-off communication among the staff. What actions by the manager would best help achieve this goal? (Select all that apply.) a. Attend hand-off rounds to coach and mentor. b. Conduct audits of staff using a new template. c. Create a template of topics to include in report. d. Encourage staff to ask questions during hand-off. e. Give raises based on compliance with reporting.

ANS: A, B, C, D A good tool for standardizing hand-off reports and other critical communication is the SHARE model. SHARE stands for standardize critical information, hardwire within your system, allow opportunities to ask questions, reinforce quality and measurement, and educate and coach. Attending hand-off report gives the manager opportunities to educate and coach. Conducting audits is part of reinforcing quality. Creating a template is hardwiring within the system. Encouraging staff to ask questions and think critically about the information is allowing opportunities to ask questions. The manager may need to tie raises into compliance if the staff is resistive and other measures have failed, but this is not part of the SHARE model

2. A nurse is interested in making interdisciplinary work a high priority. Which actions by the nurse best demonstrate this skill? (Select all that apply.) a. Consults with other disciplines on client care b. Coordinates discharge planning for home safety c. Participates in comprehensive client rounding d. Routinely asks other disciplines about client progress e. Shows the nursing care plans to other disciplines

ANS: A, B, C, D Collaborating with the interdisciplinary team involves planning, implementing, and evaluating client care as a team with all other disciplines included. Simply showing other caregivers the nursing care plan is not actively involving them or collaborating with them.

5. When working with older adults to promote good nutrition, what actions by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Allow uninterrupted time for eating. b. Assess dentures for appropriate fit. c. Ensure the client has glasses on when eating. d. Provide salty foods that the client can taste. e. Serve high-calorie, high-protein snacks.

ANS: A, B, C, E Older adults need unhurried and uninterrupted time for eating. Dentures should fit appropriately and glasses, if used, should be on. High-calorie, high-protein snacks are a good choice. Salty snacks are not recommended because all adults should limit sodium in their diets.

4. A nurse assesses a client with hypothyroidism who is admitted with acute appendicitis. The nurse notes that the client's level of consciousness has decreased. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Infuse intravenous fluids. b. Cover the client with warm blankets. c. Monitor blood pressure every 4 hours. d. Maintain a patent airway. e. Administer oral glucose as prescribed.

ANS: A, B, D A client with hypothyroidism and an acute illness is at risk for myxedema coma. A decrease in level of consciousness is a symptom of myxedema. The nurse should infuse IV fluids, cover the client with warm blankets, monitor blood pressure every hour, maintain a patent airway, and administer glucose intravenously as prescribed.

5. A nurse collaborates with the interdisciplinary team to develop a plan of care for a client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which team members should the nurse include in this interdisciplinary team meeting? (Select all that apply.) a. Registered dietitian b. Clinical pharmacist c. Occupational therapist d. Health care provider e. Speech-language pathologist

ANS: A, B, D When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, the nurse should collaborate with a registered dietitian, clinical pharmacist, and health care provider. The focus of treatment for a newly diagnosed client would be nutrition, medication therapy, and education. The nurse could also consult with a diabetic educator. There is no need for occupational therapy or speech therapy at this time.

1. A nurse manager wishes to ensure that the nurses on the unit are practicing at their highest levels of competency. Which areas should the manager assess to determine if the nursing staff demonstrate competency according to the Institute of Medicine (IOM) report Health Professions Education: A Bridge to Quality? (Select all that apply.) a. Collaborating with an interdisciplinary team b. Implementing evidence-based care c. Providing family-focused care d. Routinely using informatics in practice e. Using quality improvement in client care

ANS: A, B, D, E The IOM report lists five broad core competencies that all health care providers should practice. These include collaborating with the interdisciplinary team, implementing evidence-based practice, providing client-focused care, using informatics in client care, and using quality improvement in client care.

1. Which of the following would be included in the assessment of a patient with diabetes mellitus who is experiencing a hypoglycemic reaction? (Select all that apply.) a. Tremors b. Nervousness c. Extreme thirst d. Flushed skin e. Profuse perspiration f. Constricted pupils

ANS: A, B, E When hypoglycemia occurs, blood glucose levels fall, resulting in sympathetic nervous system responses such as tremors, nervousness, and profuse perspiration. Dilated pupils would also occur, not constricted pupils. Extreme thirst, flushed skin, and constricted pupils are consistent with hyperglycemia.

3. A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus about foot care. Which statements should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Do not walk around barefoot." b. "Soak your feet in a tub each evening." c. "Trim toenails straight across with a nail clipper." d. "Treat any blisters or sores with Epsom salts." e. "Wash your feet every other day."

ANS: A, C Clients who have diabetes mellitus are at high risk for wounds on the feet secondary to peripheral neuropathy and poor arterial circulation. The client should be instructed to not walk around barefoot or wear sandals with open toes. These actions place the client at higher risk for skin breakdown of the feet. The client should be instructed to trim toenails straight across with a nail clipper. Feet should be washed daily with lukewarm water and soap, but feet should not be soaked in the tub. The client should contact the provider immediately if blisters or sores appear and should not use home remedies to treat these wounds.

1. The nurse understands that malnutrition can occur in hospitalized clients for several reasons. Which are possible reasons for this to occur? (Select all that apply.) a. Cultural food preferences b. Family bringing snacks c. Increased need for nutrition d. Need for NPO status e. Staff shortages

ANS: A, C, D, E Many factors increase the hospitalized client's risk for nutritional deficits. Cultural food preferences may make hospital food unpalatable. Ill clients have increased nutritional needs but may be NPO for testing or treatment, or have a loss of appetite from their illness. Staff shortages impact clients who need to be fed or assisted with meals. The family may bring snacks that are either healthy or unhealthy, so without further information, the nurse cannot assume the snacks are leading to malnutrition.

2. A nurse assesses a client who is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). For which manifestations should the nurse monitor the client? (Select all that apply.) a. Deep and fast respirations b. Decreased urine output c. Tachycardia d. Dependent pulmonary crackles e. Orthostatic hypotension

ANS: A, C, E DKA leads to dehydration, which is manifested by tachycardia and orthostatic hypotension. Usually clients have Kussmaul respirations, which are fast and deep. Increased urinary output (polyuria) is severe. Because of diuresis and dehydration, peripheral edema and crackles do not occur.

3. A nurse teaches a client with hyperthyroidism. Which dietary modifications should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Increased carbohydrates b. Decreased fats c. Increased calorie intake d. Supplemental vitamins e. Increased proteins

ANS: A, C, E The client is hypermetabolic and has an increased need for carbohydrates, calories, and proteins. Proteins are especially important because the client is at risk for a negative nitrogen balance. There is no need to decrease fat intake or take supplemental vitamins.

5. A nurse teaches a client who is prescribed an unsealed radioactive isotope. Which statements should the nurse include in this client's education? (Select all that apply.) a. "Do not share utensils, plates, and cups with anyone else." b. "You can play with your grandchildren for 1 hour each day." c. "Eat foods high in vitamins such as apples, pears, and oranges." d. "Wash your clothing separate from others in the household." e. "Take a laxative 2 days after therapy to excrete the radiation."

ANS: A, D, E A client who is prescribed an unsealed radioactive isotope should be taught to not share utensils, plates, and cups with anyone else; to avoid contact with pregnant women and children; to avoid eating foods with cores or bones, which will leave contaminated remnants; to wash clothing separate from others in the household and run an empty cycle before washing other people's clothing; and to take a laxative on days 2 and 3 after receiving treatment to help excrete the contaminated stool faster.

1. A nurse assesses clients at a health fair. Which clients should the nurse counsel to be tested for diabetes? (Select all that apply.) a. 56-year-old African-American male b. Female with a 30-pound weight gain during pregnancy c. Male with a history of pancreatic trauma d. 48-year-old woman with a sedentary lifestyle e. Male with a body mass index greater than 25 kg/m2 f. 28-year-old female who gave birth to a baby weighing 9.2 pounds

ANS: A, D, E, F Risk factors for type 2 diabetes include certain ethnic/racial groups (African Americans, American Indians, Hispanics), obesity and physical inactivity, and giving birth to large babies. Pancreatic trauma and a 30-pound gestational weight gain are not risk factors.

1. An African American is at an increased risk for which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Vitamin D deficiency b. Type 1 diabetes c. Celiac disease d. Type 2 diabetes e. Hypertension f. Metabolic syndrome

ANS: A, D, E, F Type 1 diabetes and celiac disease are more common in Northern European heritage.

1. The home care nurse is assessing an older patient diagnosed with mild cognitive impairment (MCI) in the home setting. Which information is of concern? a. The patient's son uses a marked pillbox to set up the patient's medications weekly. b. The patient has lost 10 pounds (4.5 kg) during the last month. c. The patient is cared for by a daughter during the day and stays with a son at night. d. The patient tells the nurse that a close friend recently died.

ANS: B A 10-pound weight loss in 1 month could indicate cancer or may be an indication of further progression of memory loss. Depression is also another common cause of weight loss. The use of a marked pillbox and planning by the family for 24-hour care are appropriate for this patient. It is not unusual that an older patient would have friends who have died.

3. A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for several clients. Which value causes the nurse to conduct nutritional assessments as a priority? a. Albumin: 3.5 g/dL b. Cholesterol: 142 mg/dL c. Hemoglobin: 9.8 mg/dL d. Prealbumin: 28 mg/dL

ANS: B A cholesterol level below 160 mg/dL is a possible indicator of malnutrition, so this client would be at highest priority for a nutritional assessment. The albumin and prealbumin levels are normal. The low hemoglobin could be from several problems, including dietary deficiencies, hemodilution, and bleeding.

3. Critical Thinking: The nurse is doing a nutritional assessment on a patient with hypertension. What foods would be recommended for this patient? a. regular diet b. low sodium diet c. pureed diet d. low sugar diet

ANS: B A low sodium diet will prevent water retention which could increase blood pressure. Patients with hypertension would not be on a regular diet due to sodium content. A pureed diet is indicated for stroke patients who may have impaired swallowing. A low sugar diet is indicated for patients with diabetes.

14. After teaching a client who is recovering from a complete thyroidectomy, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional instruction? a. "I may need calcium replacement after surgery." b. "After surgery, I won't need to take thyroid medication." c. "I'll need to take thyroid hormones for the rest of my life." d. "I can receive pain medication if I feel that I need it."

ANS: B After the client undergoes a thyroidectomy, the client must be given thyroid replacement medication for life. He or she may also need calcium if the parathyroid is damaged during surgery, and can receive pain medication postoperatively.

43. A nurse prepares to administer prescribed regular and NPH insulin. Place the nurse's actions in the correct order to administer these medications. 1. Inspect bottles for expiration dates. 2. Gently roll the bottle of NPH between the hands. 3. Wash your hands. 4. Inject air into the regular insulin. 5. Withdraw the NPH insulin. 6. Withdraw the regular insulin. 7. Inject air into the NPH bottle. 8. Clean rubber stoppers with an alcohol swab. a. 1, 3, 8, 2, 4, 6, 7, 5 b. 3, 1, 2, 8, 7, 4, 6, 5 c. 8, 1, 3, 2, 4, 6, 7, 5 d. 2, 3, 1, 8, 7, 5, 4, 6

ANS: B After washing hands, it is important to inspect the bottles and then to roll the NPH to mix the insulin. Rubber stoppers should be cleaned with alcohol after rolling the NPH and before sticking a needle into either bottle. It is important to inject air into the NPH bottle before placing the needle in a regular insulin bottle to avoid mixing of regular and NPH insulin. The shorter-acting insulin is always drawn up first.

1. A new nurse is working with a preceptor on an inpatient medical-surgical unit. The preceptor advises the student that which is the priority when working as a professional nurse? a. Attending to holistic client needs b. Ensuring client safety c. Not making medication errors d. Providing client-focused care

ANS: B All actions are appropriate for the professional nurse. However, ensuring client safety is the priority. Up to 98,000 deaths result each year from errors in hospital care, according to the 2000 Institute of Medicine report. Many more clients have suffered injuries and less serious outcomes. Every nurse has the responsibility to guard the client's safety.

18. A nurse is caring for a morbidly obese client. What comfort measure is most important for the nurse to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Designating "quiet time" so the client can rest b. Ensuring siderails are not causing excess pressure c. Providing oral care before and after meals and snacks d. Relaying any reports of pain to the registered nurse

ANS: B All actions are good for client comfort, but when dealing with an obese client, the staff should take extra precautions, such as ensuring the siderails are not putting pressure on the client's tissues. The other options are appropriate for any client, and are not specific to obese clients.

12. A nurse cares for a client newly diagnosed with Graves' disease. The client's mother asks, "I have diabetes mellitus. Am I responsible for my daughter's disease?" How should the nurse respond? a. "The fact that you have diabetes did not cause your daughter to have Graves' disease. No connection is known between Graves' disease and diabetes." b. "An association has been noted between Graves' disease and diabetes, but the fact that you have diabetes did not cause your daughter to have Graves' disease." c. "Graves' disease is associated with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, but not with a disease such as diabetes mellitus." d. "Unfortunately, Graves' disease is associated with diabetes, and your diabetes could have led to your daughter having Graves' disease."

ANS: B An association between autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis and diabetes mellitus has been noted. The predisposition is probably polygenic, and the mother's diabetes did not cause her daughter's Graves' disease. The other statements are inaccurate.

23. A nurse cares for a client who is diagnosed with acute rejection 2 months after receiving a simultaneous pancreas-kidney transplant. The client states, "I was doing so well with my new organs, and the thought of having to go back to living on hemodialysis and taking insulin is so depressing." How should the nurse respond? a. "Following the drug regimen more closely would have prevented this." b. "One acute rejection episode does not mean that you will lose the new organs." c. "Dialysis is a viable treatment option for you and may save your life." d. "Since you are on the national registry, you can receive a second transplantation."

ANS: B An episode of acute rejection does not automatically mean that the client will lose the transplant. Pharmacologic manipulation of host immune responses at this time can limit damage to the organ and allow the graft to be maintained. The other statements either belittle the client or downplay his or her concerns. The client may not be a candidate for additional organ transplantation.

9. A nurse assesses clients for potential endocrine disorders. Which client is at greatest risk for hyperparathyroidism? a. A 29-year-old female with pregnancy-induced hypertension b. A 41-year-old male receiving dialysis for end-stage kidney disease c. A 66-year-old female with moderate heart failure d. A 72-year-old male who is prescribed home oxygen therapy

ANS: B Clients who have chronic kidney disease do not completely activate vitamin D and poorly absorb calcium from the GI tract. They are chronically hypocalcemic, and this triggers overstimulation of the parathyroid glands. Pregnancy-induced hypertension, moderate heart failure, and home oxygen therapy do not place a client at higher risk for hyperparathyroidism.

36. After teaching a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I need to have an annual appointment even if my glucose levels are in good control." b. "Since my diabetes is controlled with diet and exercise, I must be seen only if I am sick." c. "I can still develop complications even though I do not have to take insulin at this time." d. "If I have surgery or get very ill, I may have to receive insulin injections for a short time."

ANS: B Clients with diabetes need to be seen at least annually to monitor for long-term complications, including visual changes, microalbuminuria, and lipid analysis. The client may develop complications and may need insulin in the future.

28. A nurse reviews the medication list of a client with a 20-year history of diabetes mellitus. The client holds up the bottle of prescribed duloxetine (Cymbalta) and states, "My cousin has depression and is taking this drug. Do you think I'm depressed?" How should the nurse respond? a. "Many people with long-term diabetes become depressed after a while." b. "It's for peripheral neuropathy. Do you have burning pain in your feet or hands?" c. "This antidepressant also has anti-inflammatory properties for diabetic pain." d. "No. Many medications can be used for several different disorders."

ANS: B Damage along nerves causes peripheral neuropathy and leads to burning pain along the nerves. Many drugs, including duloxetine (Cymbalta), can be used to treat peripheral neuropathy. The nurse should assess the client for this condition and then should provide an explanation of why this drug is being used. This medication, although it is used for depression, is not being used for that reason in this case. Duloxetine does not have anti-inflammatory properties. Telling the client that many medications are used for different disorders does not provide the client with enough information to be useful.

16. Several nurses have just helped a morbidly obese client get out of bed. One nurse accesses the client's record because "I just have to know how much she weighs!" What action by the client's nurse is most appropriate? a. Make an anonymous report to the charge nurse. b. State "That is a violation of client confidentiality." c. Tell the nurse "Don't look; I'll tell you her weight." d. Walk away and ignore the other nurse's behavior.

ANS: B Ethical practice requires the nurse to speak up and tell the other nurse that he or she is violating client confidentiality rules. The other responses do not address this concern.

4. A client is receiving bolus feedings through a Dobhoff tube. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Auscultate lung sounds after each feeding. b. Check tube placement before each feeding. c. Check tube placement every 8 hours. d. Weigh the client daily on the same scale.

ANS: B For bolus feedings, the nurse checks placement of the tube per institutional policy prior to each feeding, which is more often than every 8 hours during the day. Auscultating lung sounds is also important, but this will indicate a complication that has already occurred. Weighing the client is important to determine if nutritional goals are being met.

10. A nurse plans care for a client with hyperparathyroidism. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Ask the client to ambulate in the hallway twice a day. b. Use a lift sheet to assist the client with position changes. c. Provide the client with a soft-bristled toothbrush for oral care. d. Instruct the unlicensed assistive personnel to strain the client's urine for stones.

ANS: B Hyperparathyroidism causes increased resorption of calcium from the bones, increasing the risk for pathologic fractures. Using a lift sheet when moving or positioning the client, instead of pulling on the client, reduces the risk of bone injury. Hyperparathyroidism can cause kidney stones, but not every client will need to have urine strained. The priority is preventing injury. Ambulating in the hall and using a soft toothbrush are not specific interventions for this client.

1. A nurse assesses a client with hyperthyroidism who is prescribed lithium carbonate. Which assessment finding should alert the nurse to a side effect of this therapy? a. Blurred and double vision b. Increased thirst and urination c. Profuse nausea and diarrhea d. Decreased attention and insomnia

ANS: B Lithium antagonizes antidiuretic hormone and can cause symptoms of diabetes insipidus. This manifests with increased thirst and urination. Lithium has no effect on vision, gastric upset, or level of consciousness.

13. A morbidly obese client is admitted to a community hospital that does not typically care for bariatric-sized clients. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Assess the client's readiness to make lifestyle changes. b. Ensure adequate staff when moving the client. c. Leave siderails down to prevent pressure ulcers. d. Reinforce the need to be sensitive to the client.

ANS: B Many hospitals that see bariatric-sized clients have appropriate equipment for this population. A hospital that does not typically see these clients is less likely to have appropriate equipment, putting staff and client safety at risk. The nurse ensures enough staffing is available to help with all aspects of mobility. It may or may not be appropriate to assess the client's willingness to make lifestyle changes. Leaving the siderails down may present a safety hazard. The staff should be sensitive to this client's situation, but safety takes priority.

7. A student nurse asks the faculty to explain best practices when communicating with a person from the lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, and queer/questioning (LGBTQ) community. What answer by the faculty is most accurate? a. Avoid embarrassing the client by asking questions. b. Don't make assumptions about their health needs. c. Most LGBTQ people do not want to share information. d. No differences exist in communicating with this population.

ANS: B Many members of the LGBTQ community have faced discrimination from health care providers and may be reluctant to seek health care. The nurse should never make assumptions about the needs of members of this population. Rather, respectful questions are appropriate. If approached with sensitivity, the client with any health care need is more likely to answer honestly.

19. A client is awaiting bariatric surgery in the morning. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Answering questions the client has about surgery b. Beginning venous thromboembolism prophylaxis c. Informing the client that he or she will be out of bed tomorrow d. Teaching the client about needed dietary changes

ANS: B Morbidly obese clients are at high risk of venous thromboembolism and should be started on a regimen to prevent this from occurring as a priority. Answering questions about the surgery is done by the surgeon. Teaching is important, but safety comes first.

35. A nurse cares for a client who has diabetes mellitus. The nurse administers 6 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin at 0700. At which time should the nurse assess the client for potential problems related to the NPH insulin? a. 0800 b. 1600 c. 2000 d. 2300

ANS: B Neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) is an intermediate-acting insulin with an onset of 1.5 hours, peak of 4 to 12 hours, and duration of action of 22 hours. Checking the client at 0800 would be too soon. Checking the client at 2000 and 2300 would be too late. The nurse should check the client at 1600.

29. A nurse assesses a client with diabetes mellitus. Which clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to decreased kidney function in this client? a. Urine specific gravity of 1.033 b. Presence of protein in the urine c. Elevated capillary blood glucose level d. Presence of ketone bodies in the urine

ANS: B Renal dysfunction often occurs in the client with diabetes. Proteinuria is a result of renal dysfunction. Specific gravity is elevated with dehydration. Elevated capillary blood glucose levels and ketones in the urine are consistent with diabetes mellitus but are not specific to renal function.

30. A nurse develops a dietary plan for a client with diabetes mellitus and new-onset microalbuminuria. Which component of the client's diet should the nurse decrease? a. Carbohydrates b. Proteins c. Fats d. Total calories

ANS: B Restriction of dietary protein to 0.8 g/kg of body weight per day is recommended for clients with microalbuminuria to delay progression to renal failure. The client's diet does not need to be decreased in carbohydrates, fats, or total calories.

8. A nurse is calling the on-call physician about a client who had a hysterectomy 2 days ago and has pain that is unrelieved by the prescribed narcotic pain medication. Which statement is part of the SBAR format for communication? a. A: "I would like you to order a different pain medication." b. B: "This client has allergies to morphine and codeine." c. R: "Dr. Smith doesn't like nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory meds." d. S: "This client had a vaginal hysterectomy 2 days ago."

ANS: B SBAR is a recommended form of communication, and the acronym stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation. Appropriate background information includes allergies to medications the on-call physician might order. Situation describes what is happening right now that must be communicated; the client's surgery 2 days ago would be considered background. Assessment would include an analysis of the client's problem; asking for a different pain medication is a recommendation. Recommendation is a statement of what is needed or what outcome is desired; this information about the surgeon's preference might be better placed in background.

2. When a diabetic patient asks about maintaining adequate blood glucose levels, which of the following statements by the nurse relates most directly to the necessity of maintaining blood glucose levels no lower than about 74 mg/dl? a. "Glucose is the only type of fuel used by body cells to produce the energy needed for physiologic activity." b. "The central nervous system cannot store glucose and needs a continuous supply of glucose for fuel." c. "Without a minimum level of glucose circulating in the blood, erythrocytes cannot produce ATP." d. "The presence of glucose in the blood counteracts the formation of lactic acid and prevents acidosis."

ANS: B The brain cannot synthesize or store significant amounts of glucose; thus a continuous supply from the body's circulation is needed to meet the fuel demands of the central nervous system.

44. A nurse reviews the chart and new prescriptions for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis: Blood pressure: 90/62 mm Hg Pulse: 120 beats/min Respiratory rate: 28 breaths/min Urine output: 20 mL/hr via catheter Serum potassium: 2.6 mEq/L Potassium chloride 40 mEq IV bolus STAT Increase IV fluid to 100 mL/hr Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer the potassium and then consult with the provider about the fluid order. b. Increase the intravenous rate and then consult with the provider about the potassium prescription. c. Administer the potassium first before increasing the infusion flow rate. d. Increase the intravenous flow rate before administering the potassium.

ANS: B The client is acutely ill and is severely dehydrated and hypokalemic. The client requires more IV fluids and potassium. However, potassium should not be infused unless the urine output is at least 30 mL/hr. The nurse should first increase the IV rate and then consult with the provider about the potassium.

41. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with diabetes mellitus who is prescribed an intensified insulin regimen: • Fasting blood glucose: 75 mg/dL • Postprandial blood glucose: 200 mg/dL • Hemoglobin A1c level: 5.5% How should the nurse interpret these laboratory findings? a. Increased risk for developing ketoacidosis b. Good control of blood glucose c. Increased risk for developing hyperglycemia d. Signs of insulin resistance

ANS: B The client is maintaining blood glucose levels within the defined ranges for goals in an intensified regimen. Because the client's glycemic control is good, he or she is not at higher risk for ketoacidosis or hyperglycemia and is not showing signs of insulin resistance.

10. A newly graduated nurse in the hospital states that, since she is so new, she cannot participate in quality improvement (QI) projects. What response by the precepting nurse is best? a. "All staff nurses are required to participate in quality improvement here." b. "Even being new, you can implement activities designed to improve care." c. "It's easy to identify what indicators should be used to measure quality." d. "You should ask to be assigned to the research and quality committee."

ANS: B The preceptor should try to reassure the nurse that implementing QI measures is not out of line for a newly licensed nurse. Simply stating that all nurses are required to participate does not help the nurse understand how that is possible and is dismissive. Identifying indicators of quality is not an easy, quick process and would not be the best place to suggest a new nurse to start. Asking to be assigned to the QI committee does not give the nurse information about how to implement QI in daily practice.

5. A nurse cares for a client who presents with bradycardia secondary to hypothyroidism. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed to the client? a. Atropine sulfate b. Levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) c. Propranolol (Inderal) d. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

ANS: B The treatment for bradycardia from hypothyroidism is to treat the hypothyroidism using levothyroxine sodium. If the heart rate were so slow that it became an emergency, then atropine or epinephrine might be an option for short-term management. Propranolol is a beta blocker and would be contraindicated for a client with bradycardia.

11. A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed pioglitazone (Actos). After 6 months of therapy, the client reports that his urine has become darker since starting the medication. Which action should the nurse take? a. Assess for pain or burning with urination. b. Review the client's liver function study results. c. Instruct the client to increase water intake. d. Test a sample of urine for occult blood.

ANS: B Thiazolidinediones (including pioglitazone) can affect liver function; liver function should be assessed at the start of therapy and at regular intervals while the client continues to take these drugs. Dark urine is one indicator of liver impairment because bilirubin is increased in the blood and is excreted in the urine. The nurse should check the client's most recent liver function studies. The nurse does not need to assess for pain or burning with urination and does not need to check the urine for occult blood. The client does not need to be told to increase water intake.

33. A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus about sick day management. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "When ill, avoid eating or drinking to reduce vomiting and diarrhea." b. "Monitor your blood glucose levels at least every 4 hours while sick." c. "If vomiting, do not use insulin or take your oral antidiabetic agent." d. "Try to continue your prescribed exercise regimen even if you are sick."

ANS: B When ill, the client should monitor his or her blood glucose at least every 4 hours. The client should continue taking the medication regimen while ill. The client should continue to eat and drink as tolerated but should not exercise while sick.

19. A nurse assesses a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which arterial blood gas values should the nurse identify as potential ketoacidosis in this client? a. pH 7.38, HCO3- 22 mEq/L, PCO2 38 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg b. pH 7.28, HCO3- 18 mEq/L, PCO2 28 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg c. pH 7.48, HCO3- 28 mEq/L, PCO2 38 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg d. pH 7.32, HCO3- 22 mEq/L, PCO2 58 mm Hg, PO2 88 mm Hg

ANS: B When the lungs can no longer offset acidosis, the pH decreases to below normal. A client who has diabetic ketoacidosis would present with arterial blood gas values that show primary metabolic acidosis with decreased bicarbonate levels and a compensatory respiratory alkalosis with decreased carbon dioxide levels.

3. The nurse utilizing evidence-based practice (EBP) considers which factors when planning care? (Select all that apply.) a. Cost-saving measures b. Nurse's expertise c. Client preferences d. Research findings e. Values of the client

ANS: B, C, D, E EBP consists of utilizing current evidence, the client's values and preferences, and the nurse's expertise when planning care. It does not include cost-saving measures.

37. Which children admitted to the pediatric unit would the nurse monitor closely for development of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) (Select all that apply)? a. A newly diagnosed preschooler with type 1 diabetes b. A school-age child returning from surgery for removal of a brain tumor c. An infant with suspected meningitis d. An adolescent with blunt abdominal trauma following a car accident e. A school-age child with head trauma

ANS: B, C, E Childhood SIADH usually is caused by disorders affecting the central nervous system, such as infections (meningitis), head trauma, and brain tumors. Type 1 diabetes and blunt abdominal trauma are not likely to cause SIADH.

4. A client's small-bore feeding tube has become occluded after the nurse administered medications. What actions by the nurse are best? (Select all that apply.) a. Attempt to dissolve the clog by instilling a cola product. b. Determine if any of the medications come in liquid form. c. Flush the tube before and after administering medications. d. Mix all medications in the formula and use a feeding pump. e. Try to flush the tube with 30 mL of water and gentle pressure.

ANS: B, C, E If the tube is obstructed, use a 50-mL syringe and gentle pressure to attempt to open the tube. Cola products should not be used unless water is not effective. To prevent future problems, determine if any of the medications can be dispensed in liquid form and flush the tube with water before and after medication administration. Do not mix medications with the formula.

1. A nurse evaluates the following laboratory results for a client who has hypoparathyroidism: Calcium 7.2 mg/dL Sodium 144 mEq/L Magnesium 1.2 mEq/L Potassium 5.7 mEq/L Based on these results, which medications should the nurse anticipate administering? (Select all that apply.) a. Oral potassium chloride b. Intravenous calcium chloride c. 3% normal saline IV solution d. 50% magnesium sulfate e. Oral calcitriol (Rocaltrol)

ANS: B, D The client has hypocalcemia (treated with calcium chloride) and hypomagnesemia (treated with magnesium sulfate). The potassium level is high, so replacement is not needed. The client's sodium level is normal, so hypertonic IV solution is not needed. No information about a vitamin D deficiency is evident, so calcitriol is not needed.

3. A nurse is designing a community education program to meet the Healthy People 2020objectives for nutrition and weight status. What information about these goals does the nurse use to plan this event? (Select all that apply.) a. Decrease the amount of fruit to 1.1 cups/1000 calories. b. Increase the amount of vegetables to 1.1 cups/1000 calories. c. Increase the number of adults at a healthy weight by 25%. d. Reduce the number of adults who are obese by 10%. e. Reduce the consumption of saturated fat by nearly 10%.

ANS: B, D, E Some of the goals in this initiative include increasing fruit consumption to 0.9 cups/1000 calories, increasing vegetable intake to 1.1 cups/1000 calories, increasing the number of people at a healthy weight by 10%, decreasing the number of adults who are obese by 10%, and reducing the consumption of saturated fats by 9.5%.

15. A nurse plans care for a client who has hypothyroidism and is admitted for pneumonia. Which priority intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Monitor the client's intravenous site every shift. b. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) for fever. c. Ensure that working suction equipment is in the room. d. Assess the client's vital signs every 4 hours.

ANS: C A client with hypothyroidism who develops another illness is at risk for myxedema coma. In this emergency situation, maintaining an airway is a priority. The nurse should ensure that suction equipment is available in the client's room because it may be needed if myxedema coma develops. The other interventions are necessary for any client with pneumonia, but having suction available is a safety feature for this client.

34. A nurse assesses a client who is being treated for hyperglycemic-hyperosmolar state (HHS). Which clinical manifestation indicates to the nurse that the therapy needs to be adjusted? a. Serum potassium level has increased. b. Blood osmolarity has decreased. c. Glasgow Coma Scale score is unchanged. d. Urine remains negative for ketone bodies.

ANS: C A slow but steady improvement in central nervous system functioning is the best indicator of therapy effectiveness for HHS. Lack of improvement in the level of consciousness may indicate inadequate rates of fluid replacement. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses the client's state of consciousness against criteria of a scale including best eye, verbal, and motor responses. An increase in serum potassium, decreased blood osmolality, and urine negative for ketone bodies do not indicate adequacy of treatment.

11. A nurse is talking with a client who is moving to a new state and needs to find a new doctor and hospital there. What advice by the nurse is best? a. Ask the hospitals there about standard nurse-client ratios. b. Choose the hospital that has the newest technology. c. Find a hospital that is accredited by The Joint Commission. d. Use a facility affiliated with a medical or nursing school.

ANS: C Accreditation by The Joint Commission (TJC) or other accrediting body gives assurance that the facility has a focus on safety. Nurse-client ratios differ by unit type and change over time. New technology doesn't necessarily mean the hospital is safe. Affiliation with a health professions school has several advantages, but safety is most important.

28. A child with hypopituitarism is being started on growth hormone (GH) therapy. Nursing considerations should be based on which of the following? a. Treatment is most successful if it is started during adolescence. b. Treatment is considered successful if children attain full stature by adulthood. c. Replacement therapy requires daily subcutaneous injections. d. Replacement therapy will be required throughout the child's lifetime.

ANS: C Additional support is required for children who require hormone replacement therapy, such as preparation for daily subcutaneous injections and education for self-management during the school-age years. Young children, obese children, and those who are severely GH deficient have the best response to therapy. When therapy is successful, children can attain their actual or near-final adult height at a slower rate than their peers. Replacement therapy is not needed after attaining final height. They are no longer GH deficient.

12. A client just returned to the surgical unit after a gastric bypass. What action by the nurse is the priority? a. Assess the client's pain. b. Check the surgical incision. c. Ensure an adequate airway. d. Program the morphine pump.

ANS: C All actions are appropriate care measures for this client; however, airway is always the priority. Bariatric clients tend to have short, thick necks that complicate airway management.

6. Critical Thinking: During a physical examination, the nurse notes that the patient's skin is dry and flaking, with patches of eczema. Which nutritional deficiency might be present? a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin B c. Essential fatty acid d. Protein

ANS: C Dry and scaly skin is a manifestation of essential fatty acid deficiency. Vitamin C deficiency causes bleeding gums, arthralgia, and petechiae. Vitamin B deficiency is too large a category to consider. Specific categories of vitamin B deficiency have been identified, such as pyridoxine and thiamine. Protein deficiency causes decreased pigmentation and lackluster hair.

8. A nurse cares for a client who has hypothyroidism as a result of Hashimoto's thyroiditis. The client asks, "How long will I need to take this thyroid medication?" How should the nurse respond? a. "You will need to take the thyroid medication until the goiter is completely gone." b. "Thyroiditis is cured with antibiotics. Then you won't need thyroid medication." c. "You'll need thyroid pills for life because your thyroid won't start working again." d. "When blood tests indicate normal thyroid function, you can stop the medication."

ANS: C Hashimoto's thyroiditis results in a permanent loss of thyroid function. The client will need lifelong thyroid replacement therapy. The client will not be able to stop taking the medication.

6. A nurse plans care for a client with hypothyroidism. Which priority problem should the nurse plan to address first for this client? a. Heat intolerance b. Body image problems c. Depression and withdrawal d. Obesity and water retention

ANS: C Hypothyroidism causes many problems in psychosocial functioning. Depression is the most common reason for seeking medical attention. Memory and attention span may be impaired. The client's family may have great difficulty accepting and dealing with these changes. The client is often unmotivated to participate in self-care. Lapses in memory and attention require the nurse to ensure that the client's environment is safe. Heat intolerance is seen in hyperthyroidism. Body image problems and weight issues do not take priority over mental status and safety.

6. A diabetic patient is brought into the emergency department unresponsive. The arterial pH is 7.28. Besides the blood pH, which clinical manifestation is seen in uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and ketoacidosis? a. Oral temperature of 38.9° Celsius b. Severe orthostatic hypotension c. Increased rate and depth of respiration d. Extremity tremors followed by seizure activity

ANS: C Ketoacidosis decreases the pH of the blood, stimulating the respiratory control area of the brain to buffer the effects of the increasing acidosis. The rate and depth of respirations are increased (Kussmaul's respirations) to excrete more acids by exhalation.

2. A nursing student is studying nutritional problems and learns that kwashiorkor is distinguished from marasmus with which finding? a. Deficit of calories b. Lack of all nutrients c. Specific lack of protein d. Unknown cause of malnutrition

ANS: C Kwashiorkor is a lack of protein when total calories are adequate. Marasmus is a caloric malnutrition.

3. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a subtotal thyroidectomy. On the second postoperative day the client states, "I feel numbness and tingling around my mouth." What action should the nurse take? a. Offer mouth care. b. Loosen the dressing. c. Assess for Chvostek's sign. d. Ask the client orientation questions.

ANS: C Numbness and tingling around the mouth or in the fingers and toes are manifestations of hypocalcemia, which could progress to cause tetany and seizure activity. The nurse should assess the client further by testing for Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign. Then the nurse should notify the provider. Mouth care, loosening the dressing, and orientation questions do not provide important information to prevent complications of low calcium levels.

9. A nurse working on a cardiac unit delegated taking vital signs to an experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Four hours later, the nurse notes the client's blood pressure is much higher than previous readings, and the client's mental status has changed. What action by the nurse would most likely have prevented this negative outcome? a. Determining if the UAP knew how to take blood pressure b. Double-checking the UAP by taking another blood pressure c. Providing more appropriate supervision of the UAP d. Taking the blood pressure instead of delegating the task

ANS: C Supervision is one of the five rights of delegation and includes directing, evaluating, and following up on delegated tasks. The nurse should either have asked the UAP about the vital signs or instructed the UAP to report them right away. An experienced UAP should know how to take vital signs and the nurse should not have to assess this at this point. Double-checking the work defeats the purpose of delegation. Vital signs are within the scope of practice for a UAP and are permissible to delegate. The only appropriate answer is that the nurse did not provide adequate instruction to the UAP.

40. After teaching a client who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I should increase my intake of vegetables with higher amounts of dietary fiber." b. "My intake of saturated fats should be no more than 10% of my total calorie intake." c. "I should decrease my intake of protein and eliminate carbohydrates from my diet." d. "My intake of water is not restricted by my treatment plan or medication regimen."

ANS: C The client should not completely eliminate carbohydrates from the diet, and should reduce protein if microalbuminuria is present. The client should increase dietary intake of complex carbohydrates, including vegetables, and decrease intake of fat. Water does not need to be restricted unless kidney failure is present.

45. At 4:45 p.m., a nurse assesses a client with diabetes mellitus who is recovering from an abdominal hysterectomy 2 days ago. The nurse notes that the client is confused and diaphoretic. The nurse reviews the assessment data provided in the chart below: Capillary Blood Glucose Testing (AC/HS) and Dietary Intake At 0630: 95 At 1130: 70 At 1630: 47 Breakfast: 10% eaten - client states she is not hungry Lunch: 5% eaten - client is nauseous; vomits once After reviewing the client's assessment data, which action is appropriate at this time? a. Assess the client's oxygen saturation level and administer oxygen. b. Reorient the client and apply a cool washcloth to the client's forehead. c. Administer dextrose 50% intravenously and reassess the client. d. Provide a glass of orange juice and encourage the client to eat dinner.

ANS: C The client's symptoms are related to hypoglycemia. Since the client has not been tolerating food, the nurse should administer dextrose intravenously. The client's oxygen level could be checked, but based on the information provided, this is not the priority. The client will not be reoriented until the glucose level rises.

17. A nurse attempted to assist a morbidly obese client back to bed and had immediate pain in the lower back. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Ask another nurse to help next time. b. Demand better equipment to use. c. Fill out and file a variance report. d. Refuse to assist the client again.

ANS: C The nurse should complete a variance report per agency policy. Asking another nurse to help and requesting better equipment are both good ideas, but the nurse may have an injury that needs care. It would be unethical to refuse to care for this client again.

5. A client having a tube feeding begins vomiting. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Administer an antiemetic. b. Check the client's gastric residual. c. Hold the feeding until the nausea subsides. d. Reduce the rate of the tube feeding by half.

ANS: C The nurse should hold the feeding until the nausea and vomiting have subsided and consult with the provider on the rate at which to restart the feeding. Giving an antiemetic is not appropriate. After vomiting, a gastric residual will not be accurate. The nurse should not continue to feed the client while he or she is vomiting.

7. A nurse is caring for four clients receiving enteral tube feedings. Which client should the nurse see first? a. Client with a blood glucose level of 138 mg/dL b. Client with foul-smelling diarrhea c. Client with a potassium level of 2.6 mEq/L d. Client with a sodium level of 138 mEq/L

ANS: C The potassium is critically low, perhaps due to hyperglycemia-induced hyperosmolarity. The nurse should see this client first. The blood glucose reading is high, but not extreme. The sodium is normal. The client with the diarrhea should be seen last to avoid cross-contamination.

25. A nurse assesses a client with diabetes mellitus 3 hours after a surgical procedure and notes the client's breath has a "fruity" odor. Which action should the nurse take? a. Encourage the client to use an incentive spirometer. b. Increase the client's intravenous fluid flow rate. c. Consult the provider to test for ketoacidosis. d. Perform meticulous pulmonary hygiene care.

ANS: C The stress of surgery increases the action of counterregulatory hormones and suppresses the action of insulin, predisposing the client to ketoacidosis and metabolic acidosis. One manifestation of ketoacidosis is a "fruity" odor to the breath. Documentation should occur after all assessments have been completed. Using an incentive spirometer, increasing IV fluids, and performing pulmonary hygiene will not address this client's problem.

3. The nurse associates which assessment finding in the diabetic patient with decreasing renal function? a. Ketone bodies in the urine during acidosis b. Glucose in the urine during hyperglycemia c. Protein in the urine during a random urinalysis d. White blood cells in the urine during a random urinalysis

ANS: C Urine should not contain protein. Proteinuria in a diabetic heralds the beginning of renal insufficiency or diabetic nephropathy with subsequent progression to end stage renal disease. Chronic elevated blood glucose levels can cause renal hypertension and excess kidney perfusion with leakage from the renal vasculature. This leaking allows protein to be filtered into the urine.

10. A client tells the nurse about losing weight and regaining it multiple times. Besides eating and exercising habits, for what additional data should the nurse assess as the priority? a. Economic ability to join a gym b. Food allergies and intolerances c. Psychosocial influences on weight d. Reasons for wanting to lose weight

ANS: C While all topics might be important to assess, people who lose and gain weight in cycles often are depressed or have poor self-esteem, which has a negative effect on weight-loss efforts. The nurse assesses the client's psychosocial status as the priority.

2. A nurse has delegated feeding a client to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). What actions does the nurse include in the directions to the UAP? (Select all that apply.) a. Allow 30 minutes for eating so food doesn't get spoiled. b. Assess the client's mouth while providing premeal oral care. c. Ensure warm and cold items stay at appropriate temperatures. d. Remove bedpans, soiled linens, and other unpleasant items. e. Sit with the client, making the atmosphere more relaxed.

ANS: C, D, E The UAP should make sure food items remain at the appropriate temperatures for maximum palatability. Removing items such as bedpans, urinals, or soiled linens helps make the atmosphere more conducive to eating. The UAP should sit, not stand, next to the client to promote a relaxing experience. The client, especially older clients who tend to eat more slowly, should not be rushed. Assessment is done by the nurse.

2. A nurse cares for a client with elevated triiodothyronine and thyroxine, and normal thyroid-stimulating hormone levels. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer levothyroxine (Synthroid). b. Administer propranolol (Inderal). c. Monitor the apical pulse. d. Assess for Trousseau's sign. e. Initiate telemetry monitoring.

ANS: C, E The client's laboratory findings suggest that the client is experiencing hyperthyroidism. The increased metabolic rate can cause an increase in the client's heart rate, and the client should be monitored for the development of dysrhythmias. Placing the client on a telemetry monitor might also be a precaution. Levothyroxine is given for hypothyroidism. Propranolol is a beta blocker often used to lower sympathetic nervous system activity in hyperthyroidism. Trousseau's sign is a test for hypocalcemia.

5. During an interview, the nurse is discussing dietary habits with a patient. Which tool would be the best choice to use as a quick screening tool to assess dietary intake? a. Food diary b. Calorie count c. Comprehensive diet history d. 24-hour recall

ANS: D A 24-hour recall is useful as a quick screening tool to assess dietary intake. A food diary provides detailed information, but it is not convenient and requires a follow-up visit. A calorie count requires several days to collect data and requires a trained dietician to analyze the results. A comprehensive diet history may provide more accurate reflection of nutrient intake, but it is time consuming to acquire and requires a trained/skilled dietary interviewer.

21. A nurse is weighing and measuring a client with severe kyphosis. What is the best method to obtain this client's height? a. Add the trunk and leg measurements. b. Ask the client how tall he or she is. c. Estimate by measuring clothing. d. Use knee-height calipers.

ANS: D A sliding blade knee-height caliper is used to obtain the height of a client who cannot stand upright, such as those with kyphosis or lower extremity contractures. The other methods will not yield accurate data.

20. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assessing blood glucose as directed b. Changing the IV dressing each day c. Checking the TPN with another nurse d. Performing appropriate hand hygiene

ANS: D Clients on TPN are at high risk for infection. The nurse performs appropriate hand hygiene as a priority intervention. Checking blood glucose is also an important measure, but preventing infection takes priority. The IV dressing is changed every 48 to 72 hours. TPN does not need to be double-checked with another nurse.

27. A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus who is experiencing numbness and reduced sensation. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching to prevent injury? a. "Examine your feet using a mirror every day." b. "Rotate your insulin injection sites every week." c. "Check your blood glucose level before each meal." d. "Use a bath thermometer to test the water temperature."

ANS: D Clients with diminished sensory perception can easily experience a burn injury when bathwater is too hot. Instead of checking the temperature of the water by feeling it, they should use a thermometer. Examining the feet daily does not prevent injury, although daily foot examinations are important to find problems so they can be addressed. Rotating insulin and checking blood glucose levels will not prevent injury.

4. A nurse assesses a client on the medical-surgical unit. Which statement made by the client should alert the nurse to the possibility of hypothyroidism? a. "My sister has thyroid problems." b. "I seem to feel the heat more than other people." c. "Food just doesn't taste good without a lot of salt." d. "I am always tired, even with 12 hours of sleep."

ANS: D Clients with hypothyroidism usually feel tired or weak despite getting many hours of sleep. Thyroid problems are not inherited. Heat intolerance is indicative of hyperthyroidism. Loss of taste is not a manifestation of hypothyroidism.

37. When teaching a client recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus, the client states, "I will never be able to stick myself with a needle." How should the nurse respond? a. "I can give your injections to you while you are here in the hospital." b. "Everyone gets used to giving themselves injections. It really does not hurt." c. "Your disease will not be managed properly if you refuse to administer the shots." d. "Tell me what it is about the injections that are concerning you."

ANS: D Devote as much teaching time as possible to insulin injection and blood glucose monitoring. Clients with newly diagnosed diabetes are often fearful of giving themselves injections. If the client is worried about giving the injections, it is best to try to find out what specifically is causing the concern, so it can be addressed. Giving the injections for the client does not promote self-care ability. Telling the client that others give themselves injections may cause the client to feel bad. Stating that you don't know another way to manage the disease is dismissive of the client's concerns.

17. After teaching a client who has diabetes mellitus and proliferative retinopathy, nephropathy, and peripheral neuropathy, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I have so many complications; exercising is not recommended." b. "I will exercise more frequently because I have so many complications." c. "I used to run for exercise; I will start training for a marathon." d. "I should look into swimming or water aerobics to get my exercise."

ANS: D Exercise is not contraindicated for this client, although modifications based on existing pathology are necessary to prevent further injury. Swimming or water aerobics will give the client exercise without the worry of having the correct shoes or developing a foot injury. The client should not exercise too vigorously.

39. A nurse reviews the medication list of a client recovering from a computed tomography (CT) scan with IV contrast to rule out small bowel obstruction. Which medication should alert the nurse to contact the provider and withhold the prescribed dose? a. Pioglitazone (Actos) b. Glimepiride (Amaryl) c. Glipizide (Glucotrol) d. Metformin (Glucophage)

ANS: D Glucophage should not be administered when the kidneys are attempting to excrete IV contrast from the body. This combination would place the client at high risk for kidney failure. The nurse should hold the metformin dose and contact the provider. The other medications are safe to administer after receiving IV contrast.

16. A nurse teaches a client who is prescribed an insulin pump. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's discharge education? a. "Test your urine daily for ketones." b. "Use only buffered insulin in your pump." c. "Store the insulin in the freezer until you need it." d. "Change the needle every 3 days."

ANS: D Having the same needle remain in place through the skin for longer than 3 days drastically increases the risk for infection in or through the delivery system. Having an insulin pump does not require the client to test for ketones in the urine. Insulin should not be frozen. Insulin is not buffered.

11. A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a parathyroidectomy. When taking the client's blood pressure, the nurse notes that the client's hand has gone into flexion contractions. Which laboratory result does the nurse correlate with this condition? a. Serum potassium: 2.9 mEq/L b. Serum magnesium: 1.7 mEq/L c. Serum sodium: 122 mEq/L d. Serum calcium: 6.9 mg/dL

ANS: D Hypocalcemia destabilizes excitable membranes and can lead to muscle twitches, spasms, and tetany. This effect of hypocalcemia is enhanced in the presence of tissue hypoxia. The flexion contractions (Trousseau's sign) that occur during blood pressure measurement are indicative of hypocalcemia, not the other electrolyte imbalances, which include hypokalemia, hyponatremia, and hypomagnesemia.

7. A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid) for hypothyroidism. Which assessment finding should alert the nurse that the medication therapy is effective? a. Thirst is recognized and fluid intake is appropriate. b. Weight has been the same for 3 weeks. c. Total white blood cell count is 6000 cells/mm3 d. Heart rate is 70 beats/min and regular.

ANS: D Hypothyroidism decreases body functioning and can result in effects such as bradycardia, confusion, and constipation. If a client's heart rate is bradycardic while on thyroid hormone replacement, this is an indicator that the replacement may not be adequate. Conversely, a heart rate above 100 beats/min may indicate that the client is receiving too much of the thyroid hormone. Thirst, fluid intake, weight, and white blood cell count do not represent a therapeutic response to this medication.

32. A nurse reviews the laboratory results of a client who is receiving intravenous insulin. Which should alert the nurse to intervene immediately? a. Serum chloride level of 98 mmol/L b. Serum calcium level of 8.8 mg/dL c. Serum sodium level of 132 mmol/L d. Serum potassium level of 2.5 mmol/L

ANS: D Insulin activates the sodium-potassium ATPase pump, increasing the movement of potassium from the extracellular fluid into the intracellular fluid, resulting in hypokalemia. In hyperglycemia, hypokalemia can also result from excessive urine loss of potassium. The chloride level is normal. The calcium and sodium levels are slightly low, but this would not be related to hyperglycemia and insulin administration.

22. A nurse teaches a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching to decrease the client's insulin needs? a. "Limit your fluid intake to 2 liters a day." b. "Animal organ meat is high in insulin." c. "Limit your carbohydrate intake to 80 grams a day." d. "Walk at a moderate pace for 1 mile daily."

ANS: D Moderate exercise such as walking helps regulate blood glucose levels on a daily basis and results in lowered insulin requirements for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Restricting fluids and eating organ meats will not reduce insulin needs. People with diabetes need at least 130 grams of carbohydrates each day.

19. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is suspected in an adolescent. Which clinical manifestation may be present? a. Moist skin b. Weight gain c. fluid overload d. Poor wound healing

ANS: D Poor wound healing is often an early sign of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Dry skin, weight loss, and dehydration are clinical manifestations of type 1 diabetes mellitus.

2. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a total thyroidectomy and notes the development of stridor. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Reassure the client that the voice change is temporary. b. Document the finding and assess the client hourly. c. Place the client in high-Fowler's position and apply oxygen. d. Contact the provider and prepare for intubation.

ANS: D Stridor on exhalation is a hallmark of respiratory distress, usually caused by obstruction resulting from edema. One emergency measure is to remove the surgical clips to relieve the pressure. This might be a physician function. The nurse should prepare to assist with emergency intubation or tracheostomy while notifying the provider or the Rapid Response Team. Stridor is an emergency situation; therefore, reassuring the client, documenting, and reassessing in an hour do not address the urgency of the situation. Oxygen should be applied, but this action will not keep the airway open.

38. A nurse assesses a client with diabetes mellitus who self-administers subcutaneous insulin. The nurse notes a spongy, swelling area at the site the client uses most frequently for insulin injection. Which action should the nurse take? a. Apply ice to the site to reduce inflammation. b. Consult the provider for a new administration route. c. Assess the client for other signs of cellulitis. d. Instruct the client to rotate sites for insulin injection.

ANS: D The client's tissue has been damaged from continuous use of the same site. The client should be educated to rotate sites. The damaged tissue is not caused by cellulitis or any type infection, and applying ice may cause more damage to the tissue. Insulin can only be administered subcutaneously and intravenously. It would not be appropriate or practical to change the administration route.

5. The nurse recognizes which patient as having the greatest risk for undiagnosed diabetes mellitus? a. Young white man b. Middle-aged African-American man c. Young African-American woman d. Middle-aged Native American woman

ANS: D The highest incidence of diabetes in the United States occurs in Native Americans. With age, the incidence of diabetes increases in all races and ethnic groups.

20. A nurse cares for a client experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis who presents with Kussmaul respirations. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administration of oxygen via face mask b. Intravenous administration of 10% glucose c. Implementation of seizure precautions d. Administration of intravenous insulin

ANS: D The rapid, deep respiratory efforts of Kussmaul respirations are the body's attempt to reduce the acids produced by using fat rather than glucose for fuel. Only the administration of insulin will reduce this type of respiration by assisting glucose to move into cells and to be used for fuel instead of fat. The client who is in ketoacidosis may not experience any respiratory impairment and therefore does not need additional oxygen. Giving the client glucose would be contraindicated. The client does not require seizure precautions.

11. A client asks the nurse about drugs for weight loss. What response by the nurse is best? a. "All weight-loss drugs can cause suicidal ideation." b. "No drugs are currently available for weight loss." c. "Only over-the-counter medications are available." d. "There are three drugs currently approved for this."

ANS: D There are three drugs available by prescription for weight loss, including orlistat (Xenical), lorcaserin (Belviq), and phentermine-topiramate (Qsymia). Suicidal thoughts are possible with lorcaserin and phentermine-topiramate. Orlistat is also available in a reduced-dose over-the-counter formulation.

2. The nurse is assisting a 79-year-old patient with information about diet and weight loss. The patient has a body mass index (BMI) of 31. How should the nurse instruct this patient? a. "Your weight is within normal limits. Continue maintaining with current lifestyle choices." b. "You are a little overweight. Cut down on calories and increase your activity, and you should be fine." c. "You are morbidly obese, and we would like to schedule you an appointment to speak with a bariatric specialist about surgery." d. "You are considered obese and will need to consult with your doctor about a plan that includes exercises, not diet, to decrease weight."

ANS: D This patient is at an increased risk for sarcopenia and should be instructed to increase activity that includes strength training to prevent muscle loss. Diet is not indicated. A BMI of 31 is considered obese; however, this patient does not qualify for surgical intervention until BMI reaches over 35.

21. A nurse cares for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client asks, "Is it okay for me to have an occasional glass of wine?" How should the nurse respond? a. "Drinking any wine or alcohol will increase your insulin requirements." b. "Because of poor kidney function, people with diabetes should avoid alcohol." c. "You should not drink alcohol because it will make you hungry and overeat." d. "One glass of wine is okay with a meal and is counted as two fat exchanges."

ANS: D Under normal circumstances, blood glucose levels will not be affected by moderate use of alcohol when diabetes is well controlled. Because alcohol can induce hypoglycemia, it should be ingested with or shortly after a meal. One alcoholic beverage is substituted for two fat exchanges when caloric intake is calculated. Kidney function is not impacted by alcohol intake. Alcohol is not associated with increased hunger or overeating.

The nurse demonstrates understanding of the potential effects of pancreatic disorders when performing which assessment? A) Blood pressure measurement B) Capillary blood glucose level C) Equilibrium, balance, and gait D) Bilateral muscle strength

B) Capillary blood glucose level

A patient exhibiting exophthalmos most likely suffers from dysfunction of which gland? A) Pancreas B) Cerebellum C) Thyroid D) Gonads

C) Thyroid

A nurse is conducting a therapeutic session with a patient in the inpatient psychiatric facility. Which remark by the nurse would be an appropriate way to begin an interview session? a. "How shall we start today?" b. "Shall we talk about losing your privileges yesterday?" c. "Let's get started discussing your marital relationship." d. "What happened when your family visited yesterday?"

a. "How shall we start today?"

The nurse and the patient are conversing face to face. What communication technique is being demonstrated? a. Linguistic b. Paralinguistic c. Explicit d. Metacommunication

a. Linguistic

The nurse is working with a patient diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder related to childhood sexual abuse. The patient is crying and states, "I should be over this by now; this happened years ago." Which response(s) by the nurse will facilitate communication? (Select all that apply.) a. "Why do you think you are so upset?" b. "I can see that this situation really bothers you." c. "The abuse you endured is very painful for you." d. "Crying is a way of expressing the hurt you're experiencing." e. "Let's talk about something else, since this subject is upsetting you."

b. "I can see that this situation really bothers you." c. "The abuse you endured is very painful for you." d. "Crying is a way of expressing the hurt you're experiencing

The nurse is seeking clarification of a statement that was made by a patient. What is the best way for the nurse to seek clarification? a. "What are the common elements here?" b. "Tell me again about your experiences." c. "Am I correct in understanding that..." d. "Tell me everything from the beginning."

c. "Am I correct in understanding that..."

A patient states, "I had a bad nightmare. When I woke up, I felt emotionally drained, as though I hadn't rested well." Which response by the nurse would be an example of interpersonal therapeutic communication? a. "It sounds as though you were uncomfortable with the content of your dream." b. "I understand what you're saying. Bad dreams leave me feeling tired, too." c. "So, all in all, you feel as though you had a rather poor night's sleep?" d. "Can you give me an example of what you mean by a 'bad nightmare'?"

d. "Can you give me an example of what you mean by a 'bad nightmare'?"

The nurse is admitting a patient to the medical/surgical unit. Which communication technique would be considered appropriate for this interaction? a. "I've also had traumatic life experiences. Maybe it would help if I told you about them." b. "Why do you think you had so much difficulty adjusting to this change in your life?" c. "You will feel better after getting accustomed to how this unit operates." d. "I'd like to sit with you for a while to help you get comfortable talking to me."

d. "I'd like to sit with you for a while to help you get comfortable talking to me.

16. What is characteristic of the immune-mediated type 1 diabetes mellitus? a. Ketoacidosis is infrequent. b. Onset is gradual. c. Age at onset is usually younger than 18 years. d. Oral agents are often effective for treatment.

ANS: C The immune-mediated type 1 diabetes mellitus typically has its onset in children or young adults. Peak incidence is between the ages of 10 and 15 years. Infrequent ketoacidosis, gradual onset, and treatment with oral agents are more consistent with type 2 diabetes.

10. The nurse is educating her patient about who has just been placed on a renal diet. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further education? a. "I need to eat a low-sodium diet." b. "I can have limited amounts of meat." c. "I can drink unlimited cola if it is diet." d. "I should avoid or limit bananas."

ANS: C Renal diets restrict potassium, sodium, protein, and phosphorous intake. Fresh fruits (except bananas) and vegetables are excellent dietary choices for individuals on a renal diet. Meats, processed foods, peanut butter, cheese, nuts, caramels, ice cream, and colas are typically allowed in limited quantities or contraindicated.

2. A nurse cares for a client with a deficiency of aldosterone. Which assessment finding should the nurse correlate with this deficiency? a. Increased urine output b. Vasoconstriction c. Blood glucose of 98 mg/dL d. Serum sodium of 144 mEq/L

ANS: A Aldosterone, the major mineralocorticoid, maintains extracellular fluid volume. It promotes sodium and water reabsorption and potassium excretion in the kidney tubules. A client with an aldosterone deficiency will have increased urine output. Vasoconstriction is not related. These sodium and glucose levels are normal; in aldosterone deficiency, the client would have hyponatremia and hyperkalemia.

6. The nurse knows that a deficiency in vitamin C can result in the following conditions: (Select all that apply.) a. Stiff joints b. Osteopenia c. Petechiae d. Loose teeth e. Bleeding gums

ANS: A, B, C, D, E Deficiencies of vitamin C interfere with normal tissue synthesis and may result in gingivitis, which produces swollen and bleeding gums with loosened teeth, and painful, stiff joints. Other problems associated with malabsorption include anemia (a deficiency of red blood cells), excessive bleeding, petechiae (bleeding under the skin), poor wound healing, and neural tube defects. Osteopenia results from poor absorption of calcium.

14. Chronic adrenocortical insufficiency is also referred to as: a. Graves' disease. b. Addison's disease. c. Cushing's syndrome d. Hashimoto's disease.

ANS: B Addison's disease is chronic adrenocortical insufficiency. Graves' and Hashimoto's diseases involve the thyroid gland. Cushing's syndrome is a result of excessive circulation of free cortisol.

1. A nurse cares for clients with hormone disorders. Which are common key features of hormones? (Select all that apply.) a. Hormones may travel long distances to get to their target tissues. b. Continued hormone activity requires continued production and secretion. c. Control of hormone activity is caused by negative feedback mechanisms. d. Most hormones are stored in the target tissues for use later. e. Most hormones cause target tissues to change activities by changing gene activity.

ANS: A, B, C Hormones are secreted by endocrine glands and travel through the body to reach their target tissues. Hormone activity can increase or decrease according to the body's needs, and continued hormone activity requires continued production and secretion. Control is maintained via negative feedback. Hormones are not stored for later use, and they do not alter genetic activity.

9. A goiter is an enlargement or hypertrophy of which gland? a. Thyroid b. Adrenal c. anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary

ANS: A A goiter is an enlargement or hypertrophy of the thyroid gland. Goiter is not associated with the adrenals or the anterior and posterior pituitaries.

42. The clinic nurse is reviewing hemoglobin A1c levels on several children with type 1 diabetes. Hemoglobin A1c levels of less than _____ % are a goal for children with type 1 diabetes. Record your answer as a whole number.

ANS: 7 The measurement of glycosylated hemoglobin (hemoglobin A1c) levels is a satisfactory method for assessing control of type 1 diabetes. As red blood cells circulate in the bloodstream, glucose molecules gradually attach to the hemoglobin A molecules and remain there for the lifetime of the red blood cell, approximately 120 days. The attachment is not reversible; therefore, this glycosylated hemoglobin reflects the average blood glucose levels over the previous 2 to 3 months. The test is a satisfactory method for assessing control, detecting incorrect testing, monitoring the effectiveness of changes in treatment, defining patients' goals, and detecting nonadherence. Hemoglobin A1c levels of less than 7% are a well-established goal at most care center

34. The nurse is implementing care for a school-age child admitted to the pediatric intensive care in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which prescribed intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Begin 0.9% saline solution intravenously as prescribed. b. Administer regular insulin intravenously as prescribed. c. Place child on a cardiac monitor. d. Place child on a pulse oximetry monitor.

ANS: A All patients with DKA experience dehydration (10% of total body weight in severe ketoacidosis) because of the osmotic diuresis, accompanied by depletion of electrolytes (sodium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, and magnesium). The initial hydrating solution is 0.9% saline solution. Insulin therapy should be started after the initial rehydration bolus because serum glucose levels fall rapidly after volume expansion. The child should be placed on the cardiac and pulse oximetry monitors after the rehydrating solution has been initiated.

10. A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed a 24-hour urine collection. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that, while pouring urine into the collection container, some urine splashed his hand. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Ask the UAP if he washed his hands afterward. b. Have the UAP fill out an incident report. c. Ask the laboratory if the container has preservative in it. d. Send the UAP to Employee Health right away.

ANS: A For safety, the nurse should find out if the UAP washed his or her hands. The UAP should do this for two reasons. First, it is part of Standard Precautions to wash hands after client care. Second, if the container did have preservative in it, this would wash it away. The preservative may be caustic to the skin. The nurse can call the laboratory while the UAP is washing hands, if needed. The UAP would then need to fill out an incident or exposure report and may or may not need to go to Employee Health. The UAP also needs further education on Standard Precautions, which include wearing gloves.

6. A nurse teaches a client who is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's plan of care to delay the onset of microvascular and macrovascular complications? a. "Maintain tight glycemic control and prevent hyperglycemia." b. "Restrict your fluid intake to no more than 2 liters a day." c. "Prevent hypoglycemia by eating a bedtime snack." d. "Limit your intake of protein to prevent ketoacidosis."

ANS: A Hyperglycemia is a critical factor in the pathogenesis of long-term diabetic complications. Maintaining tight glycemic control will help delay the onset of complications. Restricting fluid intake is not part of the treatment plan for clients with diabetes. Preventing hypoglycemia and ketosis, although important, are not as important as maintaining daily glycemic control.

2. A child with growth hormone (GH) deficiency is receiving GH therapy. The best time for the GH to be administered is: a. At bedtime. b. After meals. c. before meals d. On arising in the morning.

ANS: A Injections are best given at bedtime to more closely approximate the physiologic release of GH. Before or after meals and on arising in the morning are times that do not mimic the physiologic release of the hormone.

5. A nurse cares for a client who has a family history of diabetes mellitus. The client states, "My father has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Will I develop this disease as well?" How should the nurse respond? a. "Your risk of diabetes is higher than the general population, but it may not occur." b. "No genetic risk is associated with the development of type 1 diabetes mellitus." c. "The risk for becoming a diabetic is 50% because of how it is inherited." d. "Female children do not inherit diabetes mellitus, but male children will."

ANS: A Risk for type 1 diabetes is determined by inheritance of genes coding for HLA-DR and HLA-DQ tissue types. Clients who have one parent with type 1 diabetes are at increased risk for its development. Diabetes (type 1) seems to require interaction between inherited risk and environmental factors, so not everyone with these genes develops diabetes. The other statements are not accurate.

8. A nurse teaches a client who has been prescribed a 24-hour urine collection to measure excreted hormones. The client asks, "Why do I need to collect urine for 24 hours instead of providing a random specimen?" How should the nurse respond? a. "This test will assess for a hormone secreted on a circadian rhythm." b. "The hormone is diluted in urine; therefore, we need a large volume." c. "We are assessing when the hormone is secreted in large amounts." d. "To collect the correct hormone, you need to urinate multiple times."

ANS: A Some hormones are secreted in a pulsatile, or circadian, cycle. When testing for these substances, a collection that occurs over 24 hours will most accurately reflect hormone secretion. Dilution of hormones in urine, secretion of hormone amounts, and ability to collect the correct hormone are not reasons to complete a 24-hour urine test.

4. A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed a medication that stimulates beta1 receptors. Which assessment finding should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. Heart rate of 50 beats/min b. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min c. Oxygenation saturation of 92% d. Blood pressure of 144/69 mm Hg

ANS: A Stimulation of beta1 receptor sites in the heart has positive chronotropic and inotropic actions. The nurse expects an increase in heart rate and increased cardiac output. The client with a heart rate of 50 beats/min would be cause for concern because this would indicate that the client was not responding to the medication. The other vital signs are within normal limits and do not indicate a negative response to the medication.

13. After teaching a client with diabetes mellitus to inject insulin, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "The lower abdomen is the best location because it is closest to the pancreas." b. "I can reach my thigh the best, so I will use the different areas of my thighs." c. "By rotating the sites in one area, my chance of having a reaction is decreased." d. "Changing injection sites from the thigh to the arm will change absorption rates."

ANS: A The abdominal site has the fastest rate of absorption because of blood vessels in the area, not because of its proximity to the pancreas. The other statements are accurate assessments of insulin administration.

1. Based on research on aging, the nurse knows that improper nutrition may result in the onset of which specific diseases? (Select all that apply.) a. Type 2 diabetes b. Atherosclerosis c. Osteoporosis d. Rheumatoid arthritis

ANS: A, B, C Research conducted by the National Institute on Aging (Boyd et al., 2008) reveals how improper nutrition may result in the onset of specific diseases of the endocrine, cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and musculoskeletal systems, such as diabetes type 2, atherosclerosis, diverticulosis, osteoporosis, and some cancers. Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory autoimmune disorder.

14. A nurse assesses a client with diabetes mellitus and notes the client only responds to a sternal rub by moaning, has capillary blood glucose of 33 g/dL, and has an intravenous line that is infiltrated with 0.45% normal saline. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Administer 1 mg of intramuscular glucagon. b. Encourage the client to drink orange juice. c. Insert a new intravenous access line. d. Administer 25 mL dextrose 50% (D50) IV push.

ANS: A The client's blood glucose level is dangerously low. The nurse needs to administer glucagon IM immediately to increase the client's blood glucose level. The nurse should insert a new IV after administering the glucagon and can use the new IV site for future doses of D50 if the client's blood glucose level does not rise. Once the client is awake, orange juice may be administered orally along with a form of protein such as a peanut butter.

6. A nurse collaborates with an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to provide care for a client who is prescribed a 24-hour urine specimen collection. Which statement should the nurse include when delegating this activity to the UAP? a. "Note the time of the client's first void and collect urine for 24 hours." b. "Add the preservative to the container at the end of the test." c. "Start the collection by saving the first urine of the morning." d. "It is okay if one urine sample during the 24 hours is not collected."

ANS: A The collection of a 24-hour urine specimen is often delegated to a UAP. The nurse must ensure that the UAP understands the proper process for collecting the urine. The 24-hour urine collection specimen is started after the client's first urination. The first urine specimen is discarded because there is no way to know how long it has been in the bladder, but the time of the client's first void is noted. The client adds all urine voided after that first discarded specimen during the next 24 hours. When the 24-hour mark is reached, the client voids one last time and adds this specimen to the collection. The preservative, if used, must be added to the container at the beginning of the collection. All urine samples need to be collected for the test results to be accurate.

13. A nurse assesses a client diagnosed with adrenal hypofunction. Which client statement should the nurse correlate with this diagnosis? a. "I have a terrible craving for potato chips." b. "I cannot seem to drink enough water." c. "I no longer have an appetite for anything." d. "I get hungry even after eating a meal."

ANS: A The nurse correlates a client's salt craving with adrenal hypofunction. Excessive thirst is related to diabetes insipidus or diabetes mellitus. Clients who have hypothyroidism often have a decrease in appetite. Excessive hunger is associated with diabetes mellitus.

3. A nurse assesses clients who have endocrine disorders. Which assessment findings are paired correctly with the endocrine disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Excessive thyroid-stimulating hormone - Increased bone formation b. Excessive melanocyte-stimulating hormone - Darkening of the skin c. Excessive parathyroid hormone - Synthesis and release of corticosteroids d. Excessive antidiuretic hormone - Increased urinary output e. Excessive adrenocorticotropic hormone - Increased bone resorption

ANS: A, B Thyroid-stimulating hormone targets thyroid tissue and stimulates the formation of bone. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone stimulates melanocytes and promotes pigmentation or the darkening of the skin. Parathyroid hormone stimulates bone resorption. Antidiuretic hormone targets the kidney and promotes water reabsorption, causing a decrease in urinary output. Adrenocorticotropic hormone targets the adrenal cortex and stimulates the synthesis and release of corticosteroids.

4. The nurse is educating a patient about including more omega-3 fatty acids in her diet. Which of the following food sources should be included? (Select all that apply.) a. Salmon b. Flaxseed c. Mackerel d. Steak

ANS: A, B, C Dietary sources of omega-3 include fatty fish, such as salmon, tuna, mackerel, and lake trout, as well as nuts, seeds, and oils; flaxseed oil contains the highest amount of total omega-3 fatty acids. Steak does not contain omega-3.

5. The nurse is planning dietary education for her patient. What food labeling consideration should she be aware of when planning her education? (Select all that apply.) a. Ask patients if they read food labels. b. Assess their level of understanding of food labels. c. Encourage them to read the food labels. d. Explain to them all food labels are different.

ANS: A, B, C Evidence indicates a consistent link between eating healthier foods and reading nutrition labels. Patients should be asked if they read food labels when shopping for groceries or food products. Evaluate their understanding of the main elements of a nutrient label (i.e., calories, fats, carbohydrates, sugar, and serving size). Assess patient understanding of the percentages of recommended daily allowances of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates listed on food labels. Uniform nutrition labeling for packaged food was introduced in the United States in 1994, as part of the Nutrition Labeling and Education Act (NLEA), to increase consumer awareness about the nutritional content of food and improve dietary practices; therefore, all labels are the same.

10. The nurse is completing her documentation after feeding a patient with aspiration precautions. Which of the following items should she document? (Select all that apply.) a. Episodes of coughing or gagging b. Hesitation or fear of eating c. Amount eaten d. Aspiration protocol used e. Respiratory status

ANS: A, B, C, D, E It is important to document thoroughly the patient's experience during the feeding so the other nursing staff will be aware of patient's needs including any episodes of coughing, gagging, or choking; respiratory status; hesitancy or fear of eating; and occurrences of nausea, vomiting, regurgitation, and/or reflux symptoms. The nurse should also document the protocol used, the amount food eaten, and fluid intake.

9. The nurse is educating her patient about the risk of heart disease from metabolic syndrome. She knows metabolic syndrome is a cluster of the following symptoms: (Select all that apply.) a. Elevated blood glucose b. High waist circumference c. History of smoking d. Hypertension e. Elevation serum cholesterol

ANS: A, B, D, E Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of medical conditions characterized by insulin resistance and the presence of obesity, abdominal fat, elevated blood glucose, triglycerides, serum cholesterol, and hypertension. Smoking is not part of the syndrome.

7. The nurse is preparing some educational materials for her patient about the impact of obesity and a high body mass index (BMI). She knows that as BMI increases, so does the risk of these conditions: (Select all that apply.) a. Increase in blood pressure b. Increase in HDL c. Increase in total cholesterol d. Development of atherosclerosis

ANS: A, C, D As BMI levels rise, blood pressure and cholesterol levels also rise and the average high-density lipoprotein (HDL), or good, cholesterol levels decrease. Hyperlipidemia (elevation of plasma cholesterol, triglycerides, or both) or low HDL levels contribute to the development of atherosclerosis (the buildup of fat deposits on arterial vessel walls).

3. The nurse is providing dietary education to her patient to help him include more complex carbohydrates in his diet. Which of the following would be beneficial to include? (Select all that apply.) a. Green beans b. Bananas c. Beans d. Potatoes

ANS: A, C, D Complex carbohydrates provide the body with vitamins and minerals. Food sources include bread; rice; pasta; legumes such as dried beans, peas, and lentils; and starchy vegetables such as corn, pumpkin, green peas, and potatoes. Bananas are a fruit, which is a simple carbohydrate.

2. The nurse is helping a patient understand the difference between macronutrients and vitamins and minerals. She is correct when she lists the following items as macronutrients: (Select all that apply.) a. Water b. Potassium c. Starches d. Fiber e. Riboflavin

ANS: A, C, D The major nutrients, often referred to as macronutrients (nutrients that are needed in large amounts), include carbohydrates (sugar, starches, and dietary fiber). Water is also a macronutrient. Potassium is a mineral, and riboflavin is vitamin B2; these are micronutrients.

14. A nurse teaches an older adult with a decreased production of estrogen. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching to decrease injury? a. "Drink at least 2 liters of fluids each day." b. "Walk around the neighborhood for daily exercise." c. "Bathe your perineal area twice a day." d. "You should check your blood glucose before meals."

ANS: B An older adult client with decreased production of estrogen is at risk for decreased bone density and fractures. The nurse should encourage the client to participate in weight-bearing exercises such as walking. Drinking fluids and performing perineal care will decrease vaginal drying but not decrease injury. Older adults often have a decreased glucose tolerance, but this is not related to a decrease in estrogen.

8. The nurse is completing a nutrition assessment on a patient. What are some important considerations? (Select all that apply.) a. The nurse should include the patient's cultural influences in her assessment. b. The food diary accuracy is the same for a 24-hour recall or 3- to 5-day food journal. c. The nurse should be nonjudgmental in her review. d. A consult with a registered dietician may be indicated.

ANS: A, C, D When collecting data, the nurse should take into consideration the patient's culture and ethnicity. Recognizing these influences on the patient's nutritional intake allows the nurse to make informed decisions. The data analysis may reveal the need to refer the patient to a registered dietitian for further evaluation of nutritional status. The 24-hour recall is dependent on the ability of the patient to remember consumption of foods and their quantities from the previous day. It is vital to remember that the patient's recall may not be factual and the intake may not be that of a typical day. The other means of assessing a patient's usual dietary pattern is to have the patient keep a written journal of food intake for a certain amount of time. The food diary should encompass entries for 3 to 5 days and include dietary intake for a typical weekend.

2. A nurse cares for a client with a hypofunctioning anterior pituitary gland. Which hormones should the nurse expect to be affected by this condition? (Select all that apply.) a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone b. Vasopressin c. Follicle-stimulating hormone d. Calcitonin e. Growth hormone

ANS: A, C, E Thyroid-stimulating hormone, follicle-stimulating hormone, and growth hormone all are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. Vasopressin is secreted from the posterior pituitary gland. Calcitonin is secreted from the thyroid gland.

39. The nurse should expect to assess which clinical manifestations in an adolescent with Cushing's syndrome (Select all that apply)? a. Hyperglycemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypotension d. Cushingoid features e. Susceptibility to infections

ANS: A, D, E In Cushing's syndrome, physiologic disturbances seen are cushingoid features, hyperglycemia, susceptibility to infection, hypertension, and hypokalemia.

36. Nursing care of a child diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) should include (Select all that apply): a. Weigh daily. b. Encourage fluids. c. Turn frequently. d. Maintain nothing by mouth. e. Restrict fluids.

ANS: A, E Increased secretion of ADH causes the kidney to resorb water, which increases fluid volume and decreases serum osmolarity with a progressive reduction in sodium concentration. The immediate management of the child is to restrict fluids. The child should also be weighed at the same time each day. Encouraging fluids, turning frequently, and maintaining nothing by mouth are not associated with SIADH.

9. A nurse plans care for an older adult who is admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. The client has no known drug allergies and no significant health history. Which action should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Initiate Airborne Precautions. b. Offer fluids every hour or two. c. Place an indwelling urinary catheter. d. Palpate the client's thyroid gland.

ANS: B A normal age-related endocrine change is decreased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production. This results in a more diluted urine output, which can lead to dehydration. If no contraindications are known, the nurse should offer (or delegate) the client something to drink at least every 2 hours. A client with simple pneumonia would not require Airborne Precautions. Indwelling urinary catheterization is not necessary for this client and would increase the client's risk for infection. The nurse should plan a toileting schedule and assist the client to the bathroom if needed. Palpating the client's thyroid gland is a part of a comprehensive examination but is not specifically related to this client.

26. What should a nurse advise the parents of a child with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is not eating as a result of a minor illness? a. Give the child half his regular morning dose of insulin. b. Substitute simple carbohydrates or calorie-containing liquids for solid foods. c. Give the child plenty of unsweetened, clear liquids to prevent dehydration. d. Take the child directly to the emergency department.

ANS: B A sick-day diet of simple carbohydrates or calorie-containing liquids will maintain normal serum glucose levels and decrease the risk of hypoglycemia. The child should receive his regular dose of insulin even if he does not have an appetite. If the child is not eating as usual, he needs calories to prevent hypoglycemia. During periods of minor illness, the child with type 1 diabetes mellitus can be managed safely at home.

1. A nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus who asks, "Why is it necessary to maintain my blood glucose levels no lower than about 60 mg/dL?" How should the nurse respond? a. "Glucose is the only fuel used by the body to produce the energy that it needs." b. "Your brain needs a constant supply of glucose because it cannot store it." c. "Without a minimum level of glucose, your body does not make red blood cells." d. "Glucose in the blood prevents the formation of lactic acid and prevents acidosis."

ANS: B Because the brain cannot synthesize or store significant amounts of glucose, a continuous supply from the body's circulation is needed to meet the fuel demands of the central nervous system. The nurse would want to educate the client to prevent hypoglycemia. The body can use other sources of fuel, including fat and protein, and glucose is not involved in the production of red blood cells. Glucose in the blood will encourage glucose metabolism but is not directly responsible for lactic acid formation.

12. A nurse cares for a client who has excessive catecholamine release. Which assessment finding should the nurse correlate with this condition? a. Decreased blood pressure b. Increased pulse c. Decreased respiratory rate d. Increased urine output

ANS: B Catecholamines are responsible for the fight-or-flight stress response. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system can be correlated with tachycardia. Catecholamines do not decrease blood pressure or respiratory rate, nor do they increase urine output.

18. What is the most appropriate intervention for the parents of a 6-year-old girl with precocious puberty? a. Advise the parents to consider birth control for their daughter. b. Explain the importance of having the child foster relationships with same-age peers. c. Assure the child's parents that there is no increased risk for sexual abuse because of her appearance. d. Counsel parents that there is no treatment currently available for this disorder.

ANS: B Despite the child's appearance, the child needs to be treated according to her chronologic age and to interact with children in the same age-group. An expected outcome is that the child will adjust socially by exhibiting age-appropriate behaviors and social interactions. Advising the parents of a 6-year-old to put their daughter on birth control is not appropriate and will not reverse the effects of precocious puberty. Parents need to be aware that there is an increased risk of sexual abuse for a child with precocious puberty. Treatment for precocious puberty is the administration of gonadotropin-releasing hormone blocker, which slows or reverses the development of secondary sexual characteristics and slows rapid growth and bone aging.

14. The nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube in her patient. Which of the following steps in the process indicates a need for further education? a. The nurse lubricates 4 inches of the tube prior to insertion. b. The nurse marks the length of the tube with a marker for insertion. c. The nurse measures the length of tube needed using the nose-earlobe-xiphoid process. d. The nurse applies clean gloves for the procedure.

ANS: B Document the length of the tube to be used if the tube has a preprinted measurement scale. For any tube (with or without a preprinted scale), mark the measurement on the tube using a small piece of tape to ensure proper placement of the tube; fold the ends of the tape for easy removal. Do not use a permanent marker to mark the tube; it can cause confusion if the mark is not exact once the radiology confirms placement. Lubricate 4 inches of the tube tip with a water-soluble lubricant. For an NG tube, measure the length of tube needed for the patient by placing the tip of the tube at the tip of the patient's nose and extending it to the patient's earlobe and then to the patient's xiphoid process. Clean gloves are used.

7. The nurse is concerned about aspiration precautions when feeding her patient who has recently suffered a stroke. Which of the following procedures that the nurse performs would demonstrate a need for further education? a. The nurse uses thickened liquids. b. The nurse puts the bed at 30 degrees. c. The nurse encourages slow eating. d. The nurse has the patient alternate between food and sips of fluid.

ANS: B During feeding, the head of the bed needs to be elevated at 45 degrees or higher. Liquids are thickened, and patients are encouraged to use slow-eating habits and to alternate between bites of food and sips of fluids to facilitate swallowing.

27. Which laboratory finding confirms that a child with type 1 diabetes is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis? a. No urinary ketones b. Low arterial pH c. elevated serum carbon dioxide d. Elevated serum phosphorus

ANS: B Severe insulin deficiency produces metabolic acidosis, which is indicated by a low arterial pH. Urinary ketones, often in large amounts, are present when a child is in diabetic ketoacidosis. Serum carbon dioxide is decreased in diabetic ketoacidosis. Serum phosphorus is decreased in diabetic ketoacidosis.

12. A nurse cares for a client with diabetes mellitus who asks, "Why do I need to administer more than one injection of insulin each day?" How should the nurse respond? a. "You need to start with multiple injections until you become more proficient at self-injection." b. "A single dose of insulin each day would not match your blood insulin levels and your food intake patterns." c. "A regimen of a single dose of insulin injected each day would require that you eat fewer carbohydrates." d. "A single dose of insulin would be too large to be absorbed, predictably putting you at risk for insulin shock."

ANS: B Even when a single injection of insulin contains a combined dose of different-acting insulin types, the timing of the actions and the timing of food intake may not match well enough to prevent wide variations in blood glucose levels. One dose of insulin would not be appropriate even if the client decreased carbohydrate intake. Additional injections are not required to allow the client practice with injections, nor will one dose increase the client's risk of insulin shock.

29. An adolescent is being seen in the clinic for evaluation of acromegaly. The nurse understands that which occurs with acromegaly? a. There is a lack of growth hormone (GH) being produced. b. There is excess GH after closure of the epiphyseal plates. c. There is an excess of GH before the closure of the epiphyseal plates. d. There is a lack of thyroid hormone being produced.

ANS: B Excess GH after closure of the epiphyseal plates results in acromegaly. A lack of growth hormone results in delayed growth or even dwarfism. Gigantism occurs when there is hypersecretion of GH before the closure of the epiphyseal plates. Cretinism is associated with hypothyroidism.

10. Exophthalmos (protruding eyeballs) may occur in children with: a. Hypothyroidism. b. Hyperthyroidism. c. hypoparathyroidism d. Hyperparathyroidism.

ANS: B Exophthalmos is a clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism. Hypothyroidism, hypoparathyroidism, and hyperparathyroidism are not associated with exophthalmos.

7. A nurse assesses a female client who presents with hirsutism. Which question should the nurse ask when assessing this client? a. "How do you plan to pay for your treatments?" b. "How do you feel about yourself?" c. "What medications are you prescribed?" d. "What are you doing to prevent this from happening?"

ANS: B Hirsutism, or excessive hair growth on the face and body, can result from endocrine disorders. This may cause a disruption in body image, especially for female clients. The nurse should inquire into the client's body image and self-perception. Asking about the client's financial status or current medications does not address the client's immediate problem. The client is not doing anything to herself to cause the problem, nor can the client prevent it from happening.

1. A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed a drug that blocks a hormone's receptor site. Which therapeutic effect should the nurse expect? a. Greater hormone metabolism b. Decreased hormone activity c. Increased hormone activity d. Unchanged hormone response

ANS: B Hormones cause activity in the target tissues by binding with their specific cellular receptor sites, thereby changing the activity of the cell. When receptor sites are occupied by other substances that block hormone binding, the cell's response is the same as when the level of the hormone is decreased.

9. A nurse teaches a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is prescribed glipizide (Glucotrol). Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Change positions slowly when you get out of bed." b. "Avoid taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)." c. "If you miss a dose of this drug, you can double the next dose." d. "Discontinue the medication if you develop a urinary infection."

ANS: B NSAIDs potentiate the hypoglycemic effects of sulfonylurea agents. Glipizide is a sulfonylurea. The other statements are not applicable to glipizide.

5. The nurse is measuring his patient's height. Which of the following steps of the procedure indicates a need for further education on this skill? a. He instructs the patient to remove his shoes. b. He measures from the top of the patient's head to the bottom of the patient's foot arch. c. He positions the head against the headboard or measuring device. d. He makes sure the patient is standing erect.

ANS: B Nurses measure from the top of the head to the bottom of the heel. The patient is instructed to remove shoes, stand erect, and position the top of the patient's head against the headboard or measuring device for accuracy.

2. The nurse knows that patients should consume the following amounts of fiber every day: a. 25-35 g b. 20-35 g c. 25-40 g d. 20-40 g

ANS: B Older children, adolescents, and adults should consume 20 to 35 g of fiber a day. Food sources include whole grains, wheat bran, cereals, fresh fruits, vegetables, and legumes.

24. The nurse is caring for an 11-year-old boy who has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. What should be included in the teaching plan for daily injections? a. The parents do not need to learn the procedure. b. He is old enough to give most of his own injections. c. Self-injections will be possible when he is closer to adolescence. d. He can learn about self-injections when he is able to reach all injection sites.

ANS: B School-age children are able to give their own injections. Parents should participate in learning and giving the insulin injections. He is already old enough to administer his own insulin. The child is able to use thighs, abdomen, part of the hip, and arm. Assistance can be obtained if other sites are used.

8. A common clinical manifestation of juvenile hypothyroidism is: a. Insomnia. b. Diarrhea. c. dry skin d. Accelerated growth.

ANS: C Dry skin, mental decline, and myxedematous skin changes are associated with juvenile hypothyroidism. Children with hypothyroidism are usually sleepy. Constipation is associated with hypothyroidism. Decelerated growth is common in juvenile hypothyroidism.

1. The nurse is providing education to patient about the difference between simple and complex carbohydrates. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further education? a. "Simple carbohydrates give me quick energy." b. "Complex carbohydrates come from fruit." c. "Complex carbohydrates take longer to break down." d. "Simple carbohydrates come from milk products."

ANS: B Simple carbohydrates are broken down and absorbed quickly, providing a quick source of energy. Examples are sugars such as those derived from fruit (fructose), table sugar (sucrose), milk products (lactose), and blood sugar (glucose). Complex carbohydrates are composed of starches, glycogen, and fiber. They take longer to break down prior to absorption and utilization by the body's cells.

8. A nurse teaches a client about self-monitoring of blood glucose levels. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching to prevent bloodborne infections? a. "Wash your hands after completing each test." b. "Do not share your monitoring equipment." c. "Blot excess blood from the strip with a cotton ball." d. "Use gloves when monitoring your blood glucose."

ANS: B Small particles of blood can adhere to the monitoring device, and infection can be transported from one user to another. Hepatitis B in particular can survive in a dried state for about a week. The client should be taught to avoid sharing any equipment, including the lancet holder. The client should be taught to wash his or her hands before testing. The client would not need to blot excess blood away from the strip or wear gloves.

35. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results on a school-age child with hypoparathyroidism. Which results are consistent with this condition? a. Decreased serum phosphorus b. Decreased serum calcium c. increased serum glucose d. Decreased serum cortisol

ANS: B The diagnosis of hypoparathyroidism is made on the basis of clinical manifestations associated with decreased serum calcium and increased serum phosphorus. Decreased serum phosphorus would be seen in hyperparathyroidism, elevated glucose in diabetes, and decreased serum cortisol in adrenocortical insufficiency (Addison's disease).

15. A neonate born with ambiguous genitalia is diagnosed with congenital adrenogenital hyperplasia. Therapeutic management includes administration of: a. Vitamin D. b. Cortisone. c. stool softeners d. Calcium carbonate.

ANS: B The most common biochemical defect with congenital adrenal hyperplasia is partial or complete 21-hydroxylase deficiency. With complete deficiency, insufficient amounts of aldosterone and cortisol are produced, so circulatory collapse occurs without immediate replacement. Vitamin D, stool softeners, and calcium carbonate have no role in the therapy of adrenogenital hyperplasia.

6. Diabetes insipidus is a disorder of the: a. Anterior pituitary. b. Posterior pituitary. c. adrenal cortex d. Adrenal medulla.

ANS: B The principal disorder of posterior pituitary hypofunction is diabetes insipidus. The anterior pituitary produces hormones such as growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, gonadotropin, prolactin, and melanocyte-stimulating hormone. The adrenal cortex produces aldosterone, sex hormones, and glucocorticoids. The adrenal medulla produces catecholamines.

11. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving enteral feedings. She appropriately delegates the following to the UAP: (Select all that apply.) a. Verify tube placement b. Perform oral care c. Administer tube feeding d. Obtain vital signs and report results

ANS: B, C, D Administering an enteral feeding may be delegated, at the nurse's discretion, to UAP in accordance with state regulations and facility policies and procedures. The nurse should verify tube placement and assess the patient prior to delegating this procedure. The UAP can perform oral care and obtain vital signs and report results.

38. A child is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The nurse should expect to assess which symptoms associated with hypothyroidism (Select all that apply)? a. Weight loss b. Fatigue c. Diarrhea d. Dry, thick skin e. Cold intolerance

ANS: B, D, E A child with hypothyroidism will display fatigue; dry, thick skin; and cold intolerance. Weight loss and diarrhea are signs of hyperthyroidism.

15. A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed a serum catecholamine test. Which action should the nurse take when obtaining the sample? a. Discard the first sample and then begin the collection. b. Draw the blood sample after the client eats breakfast. c. Place the sample on ice and send to the laboratory immediately. d. Add preservatives before sending the sample to the laboratory.

ANS: C A blood sample for catecholamine must be placed on ice and taken to the laboratory immediately. This sample is not urine, and therefore the first sample should not be discarded nor should preservatives be added to the sample. The nurse should use the appropriate tube and obtain the sample based on which drugs are administered, not dietary schedules.

33. To help the adolescent deal with diabetes, the nurse must consider which characteristic of adolescence? a. Desire to be unique b. Preoccupation with the future c. Need to be perfect and similar to peers d. Need to make peers aware of the seriousness of hypoglycemic reactions

ANS: C Adolescence is a time when the individual wants to be perfect and similar to peers. Having diabetes makes adolescents different from their peers. Adolescents do not wish to be unique; they desire to fit in with the peer group and are usually not future oriented. Forcing peer awareness of the seriousness of hypoglycemic reactions would further alienate the adolescent with diabetes. The peer group would focus on the differences.

8. The nurse knows an appropriate outcome statement for the nursing diagnosis Impaired swallowing is: a. the patient will consume 50% of his meal. b. the patient will gain 2 lb a week. c. the patient will show any signs of aspiration during meals. d. the patient will demonstrate using an assistive device to feed himself.

ANS: C An appropriate goal statement for Impaired swallowing is that the patient will not exhibit any signs or symptoms of aspiration during this hospitalization (e.g., lungs clear, respiratory rate within normal range for patient). Consuming 50% of meals and gaining weight are appropriate goals for Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements. Using assistive devices is an appropriate goal for Feeding: self-care deficit.

20. A parent asks the nurse why self-monitoring of blood glucose is being recommended for her child with diabetes. The nurse should base the explanation on knowing that: a. It is a less expensive method of testing. b. It is not as accurate as laboratory testing. c. Children are better able to manage the diabetes. d. The parents are better able to manage the disease.

ANS: C Blood glucose self-management has improved diabetes management and can be used successfully by children from the time of diagnosis. Insulin dosages can be adjusted based on blood sugar results. Blood glucose monitoring is more expensive but provides improved management. It is as accurate as equivalent testing done in laboratories. The ability to self-test allows the child to balance diet, exercise, and insulin. The parents are partners in the process, but the child should be taught how to manage the disease.

11. A nurse evaluates laboratory results for a male client who reports fluid secretion from his breasts. Which hormone value should the nurse assess first? a. Posterior pituitary hormones b. Adrenal medulla hormones c. Anterior pituitary hormones d. Parathyroid hormone

ANS: C Breast fluid and milk production are induced by the presence of prolactin, secreted from the anterior pituitary gland. The other hormones would not cause fluid secretion from the client's breast.

3. The nurse is providing education to an older adult around diet to support the challenges related to aging. Which statement indicates a need for further education? a. "I should choose foods that are nutrient dense." b. "High-fiber foods minimize the risk of constipation." c. "I should eat more calories to avoid malnutrition." d. "I can add spices to enhance the taste of food."

ANS: C Calorie needs change because of more body fat and less lean muscle. Less activity further decreases calorie requirements. Eating whole-grain foods and a variety of fruits and vegetables and drinking water may minimize the risk of constipation. The challenge for older adults is to choose foods that are nutrient dense; these foods are high in nutrients in relation to their calories. Older adults may experience a decreased sense of smell or taste, so the addition of spices and herbs may enhance the taste of foods.

11. The nurse is teaching the parents of a child who is receiving propylthiouracil for the treatment of hyperthyroidism (Graves' disease). Which statement made by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I would expect my child to gain weight while taking this medication." b. "I would expect my child to experience episodes of ear pain while taking this medication." c. "If my child develops a sore throat and fever, I should contact the physician immediately." d. "If my child develops the stomach flu, my child will need to be hospitalized."

ANS: C Children being treated with propylthiouracil must be carefully monitored for the side effects of the drug. Parents must be alerted that sore throat and fever accompany the grave complication of leukopenia. These symptoms should be immediately reported. Weight gain, episodes of ear pain, and stomach flu are not usually associated with leukopenia.

4. A nurse assesses a client who has a 15-year history of diabetes and notes decreased tactile sensation in both feet. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the finding in the client's chart. b. Assess tactile sensation in the client's hands. c. Examine the client's feet for signs of injury. d. Notify the health care provider.

ANS: C Diabetic neuropathy is common when the disease is of long duration. The client is at great risk for injury in any area with decreased sensation because he or she is less able to feel injurious events. Feet are common locations for neuropathy and injury, so the nurse should inspect them for any signs of injury. After assessment, the nurse should document findings in the client's chart. Testing sensory perception in the hands may or may not be needed. The health care provider can be notified after assessment and documentation have been completed.

30. The nurse is admitting a toddler with the diagnosis of juvenile hypothyroidism. Which is a common clinical manifestation of this disorder? a. Insomnia b. Diarrhea c. dry skin d. Accelerated growth

ANS: C Dry skin, mental decline, and myxedematous skin changes are associated with juvenile hypothyroidism. Children with hypothyroidism are usually sleepy. Constipation is associated with hypothyroidism. Decelerated growth is common in juvenile hypothyroidism.

21. The parents of a child who has just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes ask about exercise. The nurse should explain that: a. Exercise will increase blood glucose. b. Exercise should be restricted. c. Extra snacks are needed before exercise. d. Extra insulin is required during exercise.

ANS: C Exercise lowers blood glucose levels, which can be compensated for by extra snacks. Exercise is encouraged and not restricted unless indicated by other health conditions. Extra insulin is contraindicated because exercise decreases blood glucose levels.

9. The nurse is explaining to the UAP that the patient is on a full-liquid diet. Which statement by the UAP indicates a need for reorientation? a. "I can give the patient orange juice." b. "I can give the patient yogurt." c. "I can give the patient oatmeal." d. "I can give the patient milk."

ANS: C Full-liquid diets consist of foods that are or may become liquid at room or body temperature. Full-liquid diets include juices with and without pulp, milk and milk products, yogurt, strained cream soups, and liquid dietary supplements. Oatmeal is not considered part of a full-liquid diet.

1. Which statement best describes hypopituitarism? a. Growth is normal during the first 3 years of life. b. Weight is usually more retarded than height. c. Skeletal proportions are normal for age. d. Most of these children have subnormal intelligence.

ANS: C In children with hypopituitarism, the skeletal proportions are normal. Growth is within normal limits for the first year of life. Height is usually more delayed than weight. Intelligence is not affected by hypopituitarism.

3. What is the priority nursing goal for a 14-year-old with Graves' disease? a. Relieving constipation b. Allowing the adolescent to make decisions about whether or not to take medication c. Verbalizing the importance of adherence to the medication regimen d. Developing alternative educational goals

ANS: C In order to adhere to the medication schedule, children need to understand that the medication must be taken two or three times per day. The adolescent with Graves' disease is not likely to be constipated. Adherence to the medication schedule is important to ensure optimal health and wellness. Medications should not be skipped and dose regimens should not be tapered by the child without consultation with the child's medical provider. The management of Graves' disease does not interfere with school attendance and does not require alternative educational plans.

4. At what age is sexual development in boys and girls considered to be precocious? a. Boys, 11 years; girls, 9 years b. Boys, 12 years; girls, 10 years c. boys, 9 years; girls, 8 years d. Boys, 10 years; girls, 9.5 years

ANS: C Manifestations of sexual development before age 9 in boys and age 8 in girls are considered precocious and should be investigated. Boys older than 9 years of age and girls older than 8 years of age fall within the expected range of pubertal onset.

12. The nurse is attempting to open an occluded PEG tube. Which of the following interventions requires re-education? a. Flush the tube with a small amount of air b. Flush the tube using a 50- to 60-mL syringe and 20 to 30 mL of warm water. c. Reinsert the stylet to break up the clot. d. Flush the tube with a carbonated beverage.

ANS: C Once the stylet is removed, it is never reinserted because it can puncture the intestine. If the tube becomes occluded, flush it with a small amount of air. If this is unsuccessful in removing the occlusion, flush the tube using a 50- to 60-mL syringe and 20 to 30 mL of warm water. If flushing the tube with water is ineffective, try carbonated beverages or pineapple juice if not contraindicated.

3. A nurse cares for a client with excessive production of thyrocalcitonin (calcitonin). For which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse assess? a. Potassium b. Sodium c. Calcium d. Magnesium

ANS: C Parafollicular cells produce thyrocalcitonin (calcitonin), which regulates serum calcium levels. Calcitonin has no impact on potassium, sodium, or magnesium balances.

11. The nurse knows that initial verification of a nasogastric placement is important. Which method is considered the only reliable method to determine enteral tube placement? a. Auscultation of air bolus b. Measurement of pH of the aspirate c. Radiographic image d. Aspirate contents to visually inspect appearance

ANS: C Studies support the use of radiographic confirmation as the only reliable method to date of confirming enteral tube placement. Using only pH and the appearance of aspirate from the newly inserted tube is not a safe method of verifying proper gastric tube placement, especially in patients receiving antacid medications. Auscultation of an air bolus to assess tube placement is no longer recognized as a reliable source in determining gastric tube placement.

13. Glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids are secreted by the: a. Thyroid gland. b. Parathyroid glands. c. adrenal cortex d. Anterior pituitary.

ANS: C These hormones are secreted by the adrenal cortex. The thyroid gland produces thyroid hormone and thyrocalcitonin. The parathyroid glands produce parathyroid hormone. The anterior pituitary produces hormones such as growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, gonadotropin, prolactin, and melanocyte-stimulating hormone.

15. The nurse has received an order from the health care provider to discontinue the nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions by the nurse indicates a need for further education? a. The nurse clears the tube with air prior to discontinuing. b. The nurse stops the tube feeding. c. The nurse instructs the patient to cough while pulling out the tube. d. The nurse clamps the tube while pulling it out.

ANS: C To remove the tube, instruct the patient to take a deep breath and hold it; pinch the tube, and pull it out smoothly and quickly. The nurse should stop any feedings, and suction and flush the tube with water and/or air as appropriate. The nurse should not ask the patient to cough while pulling out the tube. Coughing during tube insertion may indicate the tube is entering the patients lungs.

13. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse knows she should change the tubing every: a. 72 hours. b. 48 hours. c. 24 hours. d. 12 hours.

ANS: C Tubing should be changed every 24 hours, with aseptic technique used to minimize the risk of contamination, and the dressing over the site should be changed every 48 hours, with assessment for signs and symptoms of infection (redness, swelling, or drainage).

4. The nurse is caring for an adolescent patient with anorexia nervosa. She knows the best treatment option is: a. hospitalization with skill nursing care. b. compulsory tube feedings. c. individually determined by a collaborative team. d. outpatient treatment.

ANS: C Ultimately, the decision on how best to ethically treat an adolescent suffering from an eating disorder needs to be one of collaboration among the child's physician, nurse, counselor, spiritual adviser, parents, and other concerned adults. Highly skilled nursing care with hospitalization is preferred prior to a drop in BMI levels below 13 kg/m2. Compulsory tube feedings are not always the best option. Although most adolescents with eating disorders can be treated on an outpatient basis, those who exhibit severe depression, extreme physical complications resulting from electrolyte imbalances, or suicidal tendencies may require extensive inpatient treatment.

12. A child with hypoparathyroidism is receiving vitamin D therapy. The parents should be advised to watch for which sign of vitamin D toxicity? a. Headache and seizures b. Physical restlessness and voracious appetite without weight gain c. Weakness and lassitude d. Anorexia and insomnia

ANS: C Vitamin D toxicity can be a serious consequence of therapy. Parents are advised to watch for signs including weakness, fatigue, lassitude, headache, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Renal impairment is manifested through polyuria, polydipsia, and nocturia. Headaches may be a sign of vitamin D toxicity, but seizures are not. Physical restlessness and a voracious appetite with weight loss are manifestations of hyperthyroidism. Anorexia and insomnia are not characteristic of vitamin D toxicity.

40. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child with type 1 diabetes. Which insulin preparations are rapid and short acting (Select all that apply)? a. Novolin N b. Lantus c. NovoLog d. Novolin R

ANS: C, D Rapid-acting insulin (e.g., NovoLog) reaches the blood within 15 minutes after injection. The insulin peaks 30 to 90 minutes later and may last as long as 5 hours. Short-acting (regular) insulin (e.g., Novolin R) usually reaches the blood within 30 minutes after injection. The insulin peaks 2 to 4 hours later and stays in the blood for about 4 to 8 hours. Intermediate-acting insulins (e.g., Novolin N) reach the blood 2 to 6 hours after injection. The insulins peak 4 to 14 hours later and stay in the blood for about 14 to 20 hours. Long-acting insulin (e.g., Lantus) takes 6 to 14 hours to start working. It has no peak or a very small peak 10 to 16 hours after injection. The insulin stays in the blood between 20 and 24 hours.

41. The nurse is caring for a school-age child with hyperthyroidism (Graves' disease). Which clinical manifestations should the nurse monitor that may indicate a thyroid storm (Select all that apply)? a. Constipation b. Hypotension c. Hyperthermia d. Tachycardia e. Vomiting

ANS: C, D, E A child with a thyroid storm will have severe irritability and restlessness, vomiting, diarrhea, hyperthermia, hypertension, severe tachycardia, and prostration.

22. A child eats some sugar cubes after experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. This rapid-releasing sugar should be followed by: a. Saturated and unsaturated fat. b. Fruit juice. c. several glasses of water d. Complex carbohydrate and protein.

ANS: D Symptoms of hypoglycemia are treated with a rapid-releasing sugar source followed by a complex carbohydrate and protein. Saturated and unsaturated fat, fruit juice, and several glasses of water do not provide the child with complex carbohydrate and protein necessary to stabilize the blood sugar.

7. A nurse assesses clients who are at risk for diabetes mellitus. Which client is at greatest risk? a. A 29-year-old Caucasian b. A 32-year-old African-American c. A 44-year-old Asian d. A 48-year-old American Indian

ANS: D Diabetes is a particular problem among African Americans, Hispanics, and American Indians. The incidence of diabetes increases in all races and ethnic groups with age. Being both an American Indian and middle-aged places this client at highest risk.

3. After teaching a young adult client who is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the need for eye examinations? a. "At my age, I should continue seeing the ophthalmologist as I usually do." b. "I will see the eye doctor when I have a vision problem and yearly after age 40." c. "My vision will change quickly. I should see the ophthalmologist twice a year." d. "Diabetes can cause blindness, so I should see the ophthalmologist yearly."

ANS: D Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness in North America. All clients with diabetes, regardless of age, should be examined by an ophthalmologist (rather than an optometrist or optician) at diagnosis and at least yearly thereafter.

7. The nurse is caring for a child with suspected diabetes insipidus. Which clinical manifestation would she or he expect to observe? a. Oliguria b. Glycosuria c. nausea and vomiting d. Polyuria and polydipsia

ANS: D Excessive urination accompanied by insatiable thirst is the primary clinical manifestation of diabetes. These symptoms may be so severe that the child does little other than drink and urinate. Oliguria is decreased urine production and is not associated with diabetes insipidus. Glycosuria is associated with diabetes mellitus. Nausea and vomiting are associated with inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion.

17. Which symptom is considered a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus? a. Nausea b. Seizures c. impaired vision d. Frequent urination

ANS: D Hallmarks of diabetes mellitus are glycosuria, polyuria, and polydipsia. Nausea and seizures are not clinical manifestations of diabetes mellitus. Impaired vision is a long-term complication of the disease.

2. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with diabetes mellitus who presents with polyuria, lethargy, and a blood glucose of 560 mg/dL. Which laboratory result should the nurse correlate with the client's polyuria? a. Serum sodium: 163 mEq/L b. Serum creatinine: 1.6 mg/dL c. Presence of urine ketone bodies d. Serum osmolarity: 375 mOsm/kg

ANS: D Hyperglycemia causes hyperosmolarity of extracellular fluid. This leads to polyuria from an osmotic diuresis. The client's serum osmolarity is high. The client's sodium would be expected to be high owing to dehydration. Serum creatinine and urine ketone bodies are not related to the polyuria.

6. The nurse is performing an oral examination on a patient and notices a beefy-red tongue. She knows this is a characteristic finding in: a. anorexia nervosa. b. malnutrition. c. bulimia. d. pernicious anemia.

ANS: D In conditions such as pernicious anemia, a characteristic finding is a sore, smooth-surfaced, beefy-red tongue, which may interfere with the person's ability to chew certain foods. Anorexia nervosa and bulimia are eating disorders. In malnutrition the oral mucosa may be a darker red than normal with oral lesions and/or the tongue may reveal white irregular areas.

10. After teaching a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is prescribed nateglinide (Starlix), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the prescribed therapy? a. "I'll take this medicine during each of my meals." b. "I must take this medicine in the morning when I wake." c. "I will take this medicine before I go to bed." d. "I will take this medicine immediately before I eat."

ANS: D Nateglinide is an insulin secretagogue that is designed to increase meal-related insulin secretion. It should be taken immediately before each meal. The medication should not be taken without eating as it will decrease the client's blood glucose levels. The medication should be taken before meals instead of during meals.

31. Which clinical manifestation may occur in the child who is receiving too much methimazole (Tapazole) for the treatment of hyperthyroidism (Graves' disease)? a. Seizures b. Enlargement of all lymph glands c. pancreatitis or cholecystitis d. Lethargy and somnolence

ANS: D Parents should be aware of the signs of hypothyroidism that can occur from overdosage of the drug. The most common manifestations are lethargy and somnolence. Seizures and pancreatitis are not associated with the administration of Tapazole. Enlargement of the salivary and cervical lymph glands occurs.

5. A child will start treatment for precocious puberty. This involves injections of synthetic: a. Thyrotropin. b. Gonadotropins. c. Somatotropic hormone. d. Luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone.

ANS: D Precocious puberty of central origin is treated with monthly subcutaneous injections of luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone. Thyrotropin, gonadotropin, and somatotropic hormone are not appropriate therapies for precocious puberty.

23. Manifestations of hypoglycemia include: a. Lethargy. b. Thirst. c. nausea and vomiting d. Shaky feeling and dizziness.

ANS: D Some of the clinical manifestations of hypoglycemia include shaky feelings; dizziness; difficulty concentrating, speaking, focusing, and coordinating; sweating; and pallor. Lethargy, thirst, and nausea and vomiting are manifestations of hyperglycemia.

25. The nurse is discussing various sites used for insulin injections with a child and her family. Which site usually has the fastest rate of absorption? a. Arm b. Leg c. buttock d. Abdomen

ANS: D The abdomen has the fastest rate of absorption but the shortest duration. The arm has a fast rate of absorption but short duration. The leg has a slow rate of absorption but a long duration. The buttock has the slowest rate of absorption and the longest duration.

5. A nurse prepares to palpate a client's thyroid gland. Which action should the nurse take when performing this assessment? a. Stand in front of the client instead of behind the client. b. Ask the client to swallow after palpating the thyroid. c. Palpate the right lobe with the nurse's left hand. d. Place the client in a sitting position with the chin tucked down.

ANS: D The client should be in a sitting position with the chin tucked down as the examiner stands behind the client. The nurse feels for the thyroid isthmus while the client swallows and turns the head to the right, and the nurse palpates the right lobe with the right hand. The technique is repeated in the opposite fashion for the left lobe.

32. The parent of a child with diabetes mellitus asks the nurse when urine testing will be necessary. The nurse should explain that urine testing is necessary for which? a. Glucose is needed before administration of insulin. b. Glucose is needed four times a day. c. Glycosylated hemoglobin is required. d. Ketonuria is suspected.

ANS: D Urine testing is still performed to detect evidence of ketonuria. Urine testing for glucose is no longer indicated because of the poor correlation between blood glucose levels and glycosuria. Glycosylated hemoglobin analysis is performed on a blood sample.