AAMC FL4 P/S

Q11) The glass escalator concept predicts that a male employee's progression in a female-dominated industry is most likely to follow which pattern? A. He will be promoted to supervisory roles more quickly than his female counterparts. B. He will lack needed experience for promotion because of gender segregation in tasks. C. He will face more extensive role conflict with supervisors than his female counterparts. D. He will challenge gender norms in the industry and thus be passed over for promotions.

glass escalator concept: refers to the structural advantage that males possess in female-dominated occupations that tend to enhance their careers A

group think vs group polarization

group think is when a group of individuals come to an agreement without critical reasoning or evaluation of consequences or alternatives group polarization: the idea that groups tend to make decisions that are more extreme compared to the original thoughts of individual group members

Q7) Which statement best applies Rogers's concept of incongruence to SDT's suggestion for how healthcare professionals can promote autonomous motivation? A. By encouraging their patients' initiative, healthcare professionals motivate their patients to reduce the gap in their need for self-actualization. B. By giving their patients options, healthcare professionals make it possible for their patients to reduce the gap between their actual behavior and their expected behavior. C. By encouraging the patients' initiative, healthcare professionals motivate their patients to reduce the gap between their behaviors and their attitudes. D. By giving their patients options, healthcare professionals offer their patients ways to reduce the gap between their ideal selves and their actual selves.

incongruence (ideal self vs actual self) D

Q35) Which research design would allow a researcher to determine whether the study's finding about heterosexual marriage and alcohol consumption also holds for same-sex marriage? A. Ask a random sample of respondents whether individuals in same-sex marriages consume alcohol in different patterns than married heterosexuals. B. Conduct a study of gender role attitudes that consists of respondents currently living with a partner, including those in same-sex marriages. C. Survey alcohol consumption patterns of a random sample of American adults across demographic characteristics, including sexual orientation. D. Compare rates of alcohol consumption among a random sample of single, homosexual respondents and those married to a same-sex partner.

was between B and D; picked B A) no B) this study would measure variation in gender role attitudes among cohabiting couples. C) no D) to assess the relationship between variables, both variables must be measured and exhibit variation The key describes an appropriate design because both variables (alcohol consumption and same-sex partnerships) are measured for a relevant population. It would thus provide data that could provide for a comparison with the findings of the study in the passage.

Q5) Are the assumptions of SCT regarding the role of participants' beliefs (paragraph 3) consistent with a traditional behaviorist approach? A. Yes, because the traditional behaviorist approach also emphasizes changes in behavior due to desirable and undesirable outcomes B. Yes, because the traditional behaviorist approach holds that repeated exposure to certain outcomes shapes beliefs regarding these outcomes C. No, because the traditional behaviorist approach holds that mental states are involved only in classical conditioning, not operant conditioning D. No, because the traditional behaviorist approach holds that actual outcomes determine behavior, not cognitions regarding potential outcomes

traditional behaviorist approach is based upon beliefs thats all behaviors are the result of experience. D - a rigids behaviorist approach rejects SCT's assumption that cognition can act as motivators for behavior. Instead, it holds that only actual outcomes of a behavior determine whether that behavior will be repeated

Q54) Which variable in Table 1 is associated with a lower likelihood of having had a mammogram? A. Health insurance B. Below poverty level C. Social cohesion D. Social participation

B - in the table

Q48) Efforts to raise public awareness about dementia in LMICs are most likely to take the form of which community-based program? A. Inform people that dementia is an abnormal condition rather than a normal part of aging. B. Educate people about all the disorders that can lead to dementia if they are left untreated. C. Help people to distinguish between fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence. D. Explain to people that memory interference occurs more often than memory decay.

A - Dementia is an abnormal condition, and not an inevitable result of normal aging. Making people aware of this fact may help alleviate the problem of underreporting of dementia in LMICs, mentioned in the passage.

Q21) The beginning of the passage indicates that early studies found which relationship between an individual's attraction to the group and the group's influence on an individual's opinion? A. A positive correlation B. A negative correlation C. An inverse effect D. A reverse effect

A - early studies found that as an individual's attraction to the group decreased, the individual's degree of opinion change also decreased. This type of relationship between two variables is a positive (or direct) correlation in which the values of both variables change in the same direction. As variable X increases, variable Y increases, and vice versa. B) opposite directions C) The observed relationship between an individual's attraction to the group and degree of opinion change can be interpreted as a correlation.

Q3) Based on the information regarding the differences between Ps and controls when anticipating aversive events and viewing fear-inducing pictures, it is likely that the two groups differ in: A. sympathetic nervous system arousal. B. somatic nervous system arousal. C. parietal cortex activation. D. occipital cortex activation.

A - increased skin conductivity, both when anticipating an aversive event and in the startle response when viewing fear-inducing images, is controlled by sympathetic nervous system

Q2) Which experimental procedure would establish that Ps differ from controls only in avoidance learning but perform similarly to controls in other types of operant conditioning? Comparing the Ps and the controls: A. on a word-learning task in which they receive a monetary reward every time they provide the correct response B. on a task that requires watching a model perform a series of physical actions and repeating them in the correct order C. in a procedure in which the participants are presented with a light followed by a drop of lemon juice in their mouths which elicits salivation D. in a procedure in which the participants are presented with a word list and tested on their recall two days later

A - it describes an operant conditioning paradigm in which participants learn the response that is reinforced.

Q23) The ranking of attributes and the bogus group consensus are best described as making participants feel as though their group is: A. a reference group, so that participants will evaluate themselves against the group. B. a primary group, so that participants will want others in the group to be respected. C. an in-group, so that participants will consider themselves to be similar to the group. D. a status group, so that participants will want others in the group to view them favorably.

A - the group is assumed to be reference group bc participants will evaluate themselves based on thoughts about the group B) refers to close, informal, sustained ties (family and friends) C) in group is within the group D) status groups are based on noneconomic characteristics such as prestige

Q19) A researcher applying the sociological perspective of labeling theory to the passage is likely to suggest that social skills training will have the greatest impact on: A. social stigma applied to some students. B. social capital represented by the school. C. cultural capital associated with the school. D. cultural diversity reflected in the students.

A labeling theory: suggests that people are often placed into social categories, one of which stigmatized category. - thus, labeling theory is most closely associated with social stigma. As relates to the passage, labeling theory would suggests social skills training could potentially precent or counteract the stigmatization of some students in schools B) Social capital focuses on the value of social networks C) Cultural capital is social status (derived from knowledge, preferences, or skills connected to the school) D) is not even relevant

Q33) A researcher hypothesizes that the gender gap described in the passage is due to gender socialization. Which statement provides the best explanation for how gender socialization might affect drinking behavior? A. Young men learn norms that encourage high-risk behaviors. B. Young men learn values that emphasize cooperative behaviors. C. Young women learn norms that encourage high-risk behaviors. D. Young women learn values that emphasize cooperative behaviors.

A) Yes this is it B) nah C) this question is referring to masculinity than they are associated with femininity D) hey are not directly relevant to drinking patterns and would not explain men's heavier drinking.

Q40) The findings of Study 1 suggest that the assessment of alcohol use involved which indicator? A. Presence of aggressive behaviors B. Presence of withdrawal symptoms C. Difficulty with memory function D. Difficulty with impulse control

A) although aggressive behaviors can be associated with alcohol use, the presence of such behaviors can be the result of several other factors besides alcohol dependence B) Yup, very strong relation C) ehh sure but no D) no

Q18) Based on discussion of resistance in the passage, proponents of social skills training most likely will suggest that program implementation will succeed if trainers act out of: A. attraction. B. aggression. C. attachment. D.altruism.

A) attraction was not mentioned B) aggression was not mentioned C) although children and their parents were both invovled in the suggested intervention, their connection is not mentioned as predictor of the program's success D) the passage argued that, for successful implementation, the skills trainers should work pro bono, purely out of the desire to impact change and help others altruism is defined as doing something for others without the expectation of receiving anything in return.

Q49) The studies in the passage that suggest the determinants of depression are most likely to take an approach consistent with: A. the life course perspective. B. social epidemiology. C. the biomedical model. D. microsociology.

A) because the depression section does not talk about various stfes of life or no hwo they infleuce each other (i picked this) B) From the depression section, studies suggest that structural factors, such as poverty or racial/ethnic minority status, are important determinants of depression. The focus on structural factors, such as poverty or race/ethnicity, is most consistent with social epidemiology, which focuses on the social determinants of health and disease (this is it) C) nah better aligned with biopsychosocial D) depression is more macrosociology than microsociology

Q10) The retina functions to: A. accommodate and focus incoming light rays on the lens. B. detect light rays and convert them into signals for the brain to process. C. provide oxygen and nutrients to the vitreous humor. D. control the amount of light focused on the photoreceptor cells.

A) cornea and iris B) retina C) vitreous humor D) lens

Q31) Which theory of emotion is most compatible with the example provided in the passage (paragraph 2)? A. The James-Lange theory, because it suggests that physiological arousal triggers affective states B. The Cannon-Bard theory, because it suggests that physiological arousal influences affective states C. The Schachter-Singer theory, because it focuses on the role of cognitive appraisal in influencing affective states D. The evolutionary theory, because it focuses on the adaptive functions of affective states in response to threats from the environment

A) emotional stimuli first induce peripheral physiological variations, which occur without consciousness of affect. B) both occur together so no C) theory that states that emotion is due to two factors, physiological arousal and cognitive processes. THIS IS IT!! D) nope

Q44) Which procedure is most effective for teaching a dog to shake hands? A. Systematic desensitization B. Elaborative encoding C. Shaping D. Spontaneous recovery

A) has to do with classical conditioning technique in which the intensity of an unconditioned stimulus is gradually increased until it no longer elicits the conditioned response B) Elaborative encoding refers to combining new (to-be-remembered) information with existing memory representations, which enhances the probability of retrieving that new information. C) this is it thats how to do it D) Spontaneous recovery is the process by which a previously extinguished behavioral response returns after a delay (i.e., a rest period) following extinction.

Q26) A person is struggling to achieve generativity, rather than stagnation. In terms of Erikson's theory, this person is a(n): A. adolescent. B. young adult. C. middle-aged adult. D. elderly adult.

A) identity vs role confusion (12-18) B) intimacy vs isolation (19-29) C) generatively vs stagnation (30-64) D integrity vs despair (65 onward)

Q24) Attraction and commitment to a group is likely to be greatest when group members: A. promote their social networks. B. express diverse cultural values. C. share equivalent cultural capital. D. present their back-stage selves.

A) no B) maybe but says diverse cultural so no C) group affiliation is like having the same outlooks, knowledge, preferences, skills so cultural capital D) is presented when an individual does not feel the need to conform to certain expectations. In most social interactions within groups, individuals will be presenting their front-stage self

Q36) The respondents from the study in the passage are asked to report their alcohol consumption, gender role attitudes, and adult roles every 2 years for a decade after the initial study. This research design is best described as: A. cross-sectional. B. experimental. C. longitudinal. D. historical.

A) no, measure at one specific point in time B) random assignment of control and experiment of groups or conditions (picked this) C) permits comparison of identical measures at two or more points in time ( this is it ) D) no, usually things from the past

Q47) Underuse of available healthcare services for the disorders in the passage is most likely due to: A. anomie. B. globalization. C. culture lag. D. social stigma.

A) refers to a feeling of detachment from society due to lack of stable social norms B) increase awareness of each disorder, due to the spread of knowledge and treatment modalities across the world C) occurs when norms and values have yet to catch up with technological advances D) the disorders discussed have particularly noteworthy social stigma.

Q52) The passage suggests that family caregivers of patients with dementia are likely to experience: A. role strain. B. relative deprivation. C. role conflict. D. relative poverty.

A) role strains involves tensions from a single social role B) Relative deprivation is when expectations surpass the material resources that a group or individual has. C) involves two things at once so role conflict is it D) Relative poverty refers to having fewer resources in relation to the more affluent in one's society (nothing to do)

Q17) According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, programs like those described in the passage most likely will benefit: A. sensorimotor individuals, since they have the capacity for abstract thought. B. preoperational individuals, since they are imaginative and vulnerable to influence. C. phallic individuals, since they have the ability to regulate desire more fluidly. D. latent individuals, since they are unthwarted by sexual desire and are more focused.

A) sensorimotor stage (birth-2years), a child is incapable of abstract thought B)preoperational stage, children are imaginative and unable to reconcile errors in their thinking such as errors in a conservation task. Once these errors are resolved and the child is capable of more advanced thinking C and D are not of piagets they are freud

Q59) Auditory hair cells are what type of receptors? A. Mechanoreceptors B. Proprioceptors C. Chemoreceptors D. Osmoreceptors

A) they are mechanoreceptors, these cells deflect when the sound signal is transduced into vibrations in the inner ear B) helps an individual determine the location of a body part and/or its position C) transduce chemical signals to generate an output D) located in the hypothalamus and they usually detect the change in osmotic pressure

Q25) When asked whether a person who is afraid of spiders would be diagnosed as having a psychological disorder, a psychologist replies, "It depends on whether or not this fear interferes with the person's life." The psychologist appears to rely most heavily on which criterion of abnormality? A. Distress B. Maladaptiveness C. Statistical deviancy D. Violation of social norms

A) when someone is stressing B) whether the behavior negatively effects the person's life or poses a threat to others C) whether this behavior is statistically rare D) when the behavior violates social norms

Q39) Participant responses to the childhood health history in Study 1 were dependent on retrieving which type of information from memory? A. Episodic B. Semantic C. Procedural D. Implicit

A, thought I picked A but i put D apparently - when participants respond to questions about their childhood health history, they are retrieving autobiographical information, which is an important type of episodic memory B) knowledge on facts C) type of implicit D) which is tested by observing a participant's performance on a task that does not involve any type of recall or recognition

Q45) Which statement does NOT describe a monocular depth cue? A. Objects that are higher up in the visual field are perceived as being farther away than the objects that are lower in the visual field. B. Objects that are occluded by other objects are perceived as being farther away than the objects that occlude them. C. Objects that have more detailed textures are perceived as being closer than objects that have less detailed textures. D. Objects that are to the front of the point of focus are perceived as being closer than objects that are behind the point of focus.

A,B,C) relative size (distant objects subtend smaller visual angles than near objects), texture gradient, occlusion, linear perspective, contrast differences, and motion parallax. D) binocular depth cue: distance from the object of focus as a depth cue is associated with retinal disparity

Q55) Based on Table 1, which component(s) of social capital is(are) most likely to affect mammography usage? Social cohesion Collective efficacy Social participation A. I only B. II only C. I and III only D. II and III only

B - Collective efficacy is the only component of social capital in the table that is statistically significant (indicated by an asterisk). In addition to that information, the odds ratio of 1.40 suggests that increases in collective efficacy were associated with an increased likelihood of having had a mammogram (the passage provides information on interpreting the odds ratio). A) was close 1 and not statistically different C) Social participation was close to 1.00 and not statistically significant, suggesting that there was no relationship between that component of social capital and the likelihood of mammography. D) Social participation was close to 1.00 and not statistically significant, suggesting that there was no relationship between that component of social capital and the likelihood of mammography.

Q12) Participants were given a candle, a box of matches, and thumb tacks and instructed to use the materials to mount the candle on a bulletin board. Only a few participants thought of using the inside of the matchbox as a candle holder and tacking this to the bulletin board. This result is an example of which barrier to problem solving? A. Confirmation bias B. Functional fixedness C. Overconfidence effect D. Availability heuristic

B - functional fixedness refers to people's tendency to think of things only in terms of their usual functions, which can inhibit solving problems A) refers to the tendency to search for information that confirms one's preconceptions B) refers to tendency to overestimate the accuracy of one's beliefs and judgement D) refers to tendency to estimate the likelihood of events based on how easily examples of those events can be retrieved from memory.

Q16) A consultant is hired by an organization to break down barriers between managers and assistants by conducting a series of team-building activities over a period of time. If the team-building activities are successful, how would they most likely influence the attributions made by the organization's employees? A. Managers would attribute positive outcomes by other managers to situational factors. B. Managers and assistants would attribute positive outcomes by managers to dispositional factors. C. Assistants would attribute negative outcomes by other assistants to dispositional factors. D. Managers and assistants would attribute negative outcomes by managers to dispositional factors.

B - if team building activities are fully effective, then the managers and assistants would all see themselves as part of one group. They would all make dispositional attributions for their coworkers' successes and situational attributions for their coworkers' failures

Q14) How would the pattern of attributions found in the study most likely be predicted to change during times of intense group conflict between managers and assistants? A. Recognizing the need to reduce conflict, situational attributions would be the most common. B. The conflict would increase the effects of the in-group and out-group bias. C. In-group bias fighting within the organization would reverse the pattern of attributions found in the study. D. The increase in self-reliance during conflict would reduce the in-group and out-group bias effects.

B - intense group conflict increase the effect of the in-group and out-group bias and would most likely have the same effects on the attributions made by different groups.

Q29) According to the passage, one of the long-term effects of exposure to violence is providing individuals with aggressive: A. behavioral disorders. B. schemas. C. motivations. D. drives.

B - the passage emphasizes the role of repeated exposure to violent and violent scripts schemas: describes patterns of thinking and behavior that people use to interpret the world.

Q51) The distinction between binge drinking and alcohol dependence in the passage is best described as attributing preventable injuries to which effect of alcohol use? A. Tolerance B. Disinhibition C. Negative reinforcement D. Positive reinforcement

B - the passage states that excessive alcohol use is associated with preventable injuries, which are more often due to binge drinking than to alcohol dependence Disinhibition is associated with binge drinking and often leads to risk taking, which can lead to preventable injuries.

Q43) Whenever a two-year-old sees a moth, the butterfly-like pattern on her dress shoes, or hair bows that resemble the shape of a butterfly, she proudly exclaims, "Butterfly!" This process is referred to as: A. the naming explosion. B. overextension. C. categorical perception. D. bootstrapping.

B overextension: applying a term for one class of object to other objects that bear only a superficial resemblance Example: doggie for a cow

Q13) Which concern about the study reflects problems as a result of the response rate? A. Participants provided four responses to four hypothetical scenarios. B. The participants may differ from the employees who did not respond to the survey. C. The manager and assistant participants may have interpreted the scenarios differently. D. Participants were aware of the status of the target employee.

B; picked C instead - low response rate to a survey raises the question of whether the survey respondents differ from the nonrespondents on some important characteristics, such as personality traits or other factors

Q28) In an evaluation study for a diabetes intervention program, the subjects in the sample had a median age of 45 and a mean age of 55. Which statement accounts for the difference between the median age and the mean age? A. The sample had more subjects under the age of 45 than over the age of 45. B. The sample had more subjects over the age of 45 than under the age of 45. C. The sample included subject(s) who were much older than the age of 45. D. The sample included subject(s) who were much younger than the age of 45.

C - A mean age (of 55) that is higher than the median age (of 45) suggests that the sample had a skew toward older ages. One way to represent this is to say that the sample included subject(s) who were much older than the average age.​

Q15) Based on the findings in the study, what is the most likely prediction when people make attributions for their own behavior? A. People attribute positive and negative outcomes to dispositional factors. B. People attribute positive and negative outcomes to situational factors. C. People attribute positive outcomes to dispositional factors and negative outcomes to situational factors. D. People attribute positive outcomes to situational factors and negative outcomes to dispositional factors.

C - People have a self-serving bias, wherein people tend to attribute their own successes to internal factors and attribute their own failures to external factors. In addition, people will match their attributions about their own behavior they make for their in-groups, because the in-group is treated as an extension of the self. If the in-group looks good, then the self looks good.

Q34) Based on the description in the passage, which component of attitudes does the gender role attitude scale measure? A. Persuasive B. Behavioral C. Cognitive D. Affective

C - cognitive component of an attitude consists of an individual's beliefs about the attitude object. the passage states that study participants were asked to indicate their level of agreement with the statements that assert beliefs about gender and family life. A) an attitude is composed of three components: cognitive, affective, and behavioral B) consists of the typical responses made when the individual is in the presence of an object D) emotional experience evoked by the attitude object

Q53) Which statement best distinguishes self-efficacy from collective efficacy, as it is described in the passage? A. Self-efficacy increases the risk of group polarization, whereas collective efficacy increases the risk of groupthink. B. Self-efficacy is limited by the availability heuristic, whereas collective efficacy is limited by the bystander effect. C. Self-efficacy predicts an individual's coping ability, whereas collective efficacy predicts a group's prosocial behavior. D. Self-efficacy prevents deindividuation in a group, whereas collective efficacy prevents peer pressure among individuals.

C self efficacy: ones confidence in accomplishing a certain task collective efficacy: "collective effort"

Q9) A team of researchers at a pharmaceutical company tests a new cancer drug. The researchers have concluded that the drug is effective, but other scientists CANNOT replicate the findings. Which is the most likely explanation for the lack of replicability of the original results? A. Base rate fallacy B. Hindsight bias C. Observer bias D. Public verifiability

C; got this wrong picked B - any bias on the part of observers recording the data could have contaminated the original results. In this case, it is possible that proper precautions (for example, ensuring that observers were "blind" with respect to which patients received the drug and which patients received the placebo) were not taken. A) base rate fallacy refers to the error people make when they ignore the base rates B) the hindsight bias (i knew it all along) D) is reason other scientists are attempting to replicate the og findings

Q4) The numbers presented to the participants in the avoidance study function as: A. reinforcers. B. punishers. C. discriminating stimuli. D. unconditioned stimuli.

C; the numbers are discriminating stimuli, which signal the availability of reinforcement or punishment

Q27) A dopamine antagonist will most likely lead to: A. increased hallucinations in patients with schizophrenia. B. increased delusions in patients with schizophrenia. C. decreased mobility and decreased frequency of tremors in patients with Parkinson's disease. D. decreased mobility and increased frequency of tremors in patients with Parkinson's disease.

D - Patients with Parkinson's disease already have insufficient dopamine levels. Therefore, a drug that blocks dopamine receptors will further reduce dopamine's impact, and worsen the symptoms of Parkinson's disease, such as decreased mobility and increased frequency of tremors. A) high levels of dopamine is schizophernia and a dopamine antagonist will decrease dopamine, + symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions C) increase mobility and tremors due to dopamine antagonist

Q38) A researcher proposes that higher alcohol consumption in men, compared to women, may be related to higher testosterone levels in men. Which result would cast doubt on this hypothesis? A. Employment increases alcohol consumption among men but decreases it among women. B. Traditional gender attitudes are linked to a similar reduction in drinking for men and women. C. Women consume less alcohol than men regardless of marital status and employment status. D. Men and women with similar attitudes and adult roles consume the same amount of alcohol.

D - because they are talking about men and women as a collective, the testosterone hypothesis will be questioned.

Q42) Based on the results of Study 1, which symptom in childhood is most likely to be a risk factor for lower SES in adulthood? A. Repetitive behaviors B. Unwanted cognitions C. Delusions of grandeur D. Feelings of worthlessness

D - study 1 correlates between childhood depression and substance abuse and lower SES in adulthood A) more with OCD B) OCD C) schizophrenia

Q22) Assume that the participants were given the opportunity to discuss their initial ranking of the attributes with members of their group and found that they were in agreement. Which psychological process would then be most likely to affect each participant's opinion? A. Reaction formation B. Social loafing C. Selective attention D. Group polarization

D - the question asked is the definition of group polarization A) defense mechanism to someting B) amount of effort an individuals put when someone is part of a group C) does not relate

Q20) In paragraph 3, the passage identifies some social skills intervention programs as being designed to: A. show students how to reconcile conflicts across social roles. B. promote the integration of students across diverse cultures. C. encourage new students to assimilate to the school culture. D. enhance students' learning of school norms and peer values.

D - the third paragraph of the passage states that some programs are designed to enhance socialization for school-aged children (socialization) A) role conflict B) multiculturalism C) assimilation

Q32) To explain the long-term effects of exposure to media violence, the passage makes a reference to all of the following types of learning EXCEPT: A. operant conditioning. B. social learning. C. classical conditioning. D. habituation.

EXCEPT!!! A) reinforcement so yes B) observation so yes C) maybe invovled but is not mentioned in passage D) loss of reduced levels of responsiveness to aggression due to repeated exposure, which is an example of habituation.

Q1) Which graph best describes the relative performance of Ps and controls on the type of lexical decision task described in the passage?

Got this wrong picked C instead of D - the passage suggests that controls process emotional words more quickly than nonemotional words, whereas Ps do not show this difference. This graph correctly this pattern

Q30) Nonviolent video games can alter internal states by causing frustration. Based on the passage, how do nonviolent video games differ from violent video games as situational variables? Nonviolent video games are NOT likely to: A. influence physiological arousal. B. change affective states. C. activate the nervous system. D. prime aggressive thought structures.

NOT D!! - exposure to violent can lead to aggressive behaviors and non violent would do the opposite

Q46) Which stimuli are most likely to be included in a neuroimaging study to examine the function of the amygdala? A. Images designed to test color vision B. A set of mathematical solving problems C. Images designed to evoke a fear response D. A set of reading comprehension passages on the topic of audition

amygdala: processes emotions C!!

Q57) A researcher applying the concept of assimilation to immigrant health would propose which hypothesis? An immigrant group's life expectancy will: A. surpass the majority group's life expectancy over time. B. approximate the majority group's life expectancy over time. C. fall behind the majority group's life expectancy over time. D. maintain the same disparity with the majority group's life expectancy over time.

assimilation: immigrants group will eventually adopt the customs (norms, values, etc.) of the majority group in a society B!!

Q8) Which statement best explains autonomous motivation? A. The desire to reach one's goals creates a drive that individuals are motivated to fulfill. B. Living a life consistent with one's values is socially reinforced. C. Individuals are motivated to perform behaviors that result in appetitive internal states. D. Individuals are reinforced to perform behaviors that are associated with progress.

autonomous motivation is a drive where individuals are motivated to initiate behaviors that are consistent with their values. A

Q41) Based on the findings of Study 2, which characteristic in adulthood is LEAST likely associated with childhood psychological disorders? A. Conscientiousness B. Agreeableness C. Neuroticism D. Impulsivity

big five theory is OCEAN D - this has nothing to do with the big 5

Q6) Which statement best explains how the concept of external motivation (used by SDT) is different from extrinsic motivation? Compared to external motivation, extrinsic motivation: A. is a broader term that includes external motivation. B. is a narrower term that refers to external reinforcers. C. excludes social punishers and reinforcers. D. excludes internal states that direct behavior.

extrinsic motivation refers to any motivation that results from incentives to perform a behavior that are not inherent to behavior itself A - external motivation is a social pressure, which is an example of extrinsic motivation.

Q50) The concept of medicalization is most directly relevant to which passage statement? A. Research conducted with populations in LMICs is generally less extensive than research with populations of HICs. B. Although commonly prescribed in HICs, antidepressant medications may not be supported by sufficient evidence to justify the cost in LMICs. C. The prevalence of dementia is higher in HICs than in LMICs, which is likely because of underreporting in LMICs. D. When interventions from HICs are applied to LMICs, emphasis should be placed on framing excessive alcohol use as a treatable disorder.

medicalization: the process in which a social problem comes to be defined as a disease or disorder (did not read right and picked B) D!!! - the focus on alcohol use as a treatable disorder raises the concept of medicalization more directly than the other options

Q37) Which statement does NOT provide a potential hypothesis for the gender difference in alcohol consumption between young men and young women? A. Co-morbid psychological disorders will be more likely to increase alcohol consumption for young men than young women. B. The number of dependents living at home will be higher for young men than young women. C. Gender identity will have a stronger effect on alcohol consumption for young men than young women. D. Alcohol consumption will be more likely to function as a coping strategy for young men than young women.

picked A, it is B (READ THE OPTIONS AND QUESTION, IT SAYS NOT) - the question requires selecting a hypothesis that does not provide a factor that may potentially explain the gender difference in alcohol consumption. The correct answer provides a hypothesis about the relationship between gender and the number of dependents living at home. Since it offers no proposed relationship to alcohol consumption, this option does not provide a testable explanation for the gender difference in alcohol consumption.

Q56) A researcher proposes an alternative to the hypothesis in the passage that mammography rates are partly due to social capital. An alternative hypothesis that draws on the concept of institutional discrimination is most likely to make which prediction? A. Patients whose healthcare provider is from the same racial/ethnic group will have above average rates of mammography. B. Mammography rates will be affected by healthcare providers who interact with patients differently according to racial/ethnic group. C. Metropolitan areas that are highly segregated across different racial/ethnic groups will have below average rates of mammography. D. Mammography rates will be affected by healthcare policies that have a disproportionate impact on racial/ethnic minority groups.

social capital is set of shared values or resources that allows people to work together to achieve a common goal Institutional discrimination: discrimniation against a certain race and gender D - The passage refers to research suggesting that the breast cancer mortality disparity may be partly related to differences in cancer screening with mammography.

Q58) According to the paradigm of symbolic interactionism, individuals develop a sense of identity primarily through: A. social relationships. B. reflective contemplation. C. cultural assimilation. D. group therapy.

symbolic interactionism: individuals develop a sense of self, or identity, through the interactions and relationships that they have with others A) social relationships are fundamental for individuals to develop a sense of who they are B) Contemplation is an internal process, lacking the element of social interactions or relationships that are central to symbolic interactionism. C) related to identity but more specifically refers to the process by which immigrant groups adopt the dominant group's cultural norms and values (i picked this) D) Therapy, even in a group setting, is not the primary way that identity is formed. Symbolic interactionism calls attention to more general processes involving social interactions.