bacteriology Life U
A 48-year old man has had nasal surgery and absorbent material has been inserted into his nasal cavity to control bleeding. Several hours ago he began to complain of a headache and has since developed a red rash over much of his body and is experiencing muscle cramps and diarrhea. His blood pressure has dropped to 75/50 mg Hg. This patient's illness is most likely caused by Staphylococcus aureus — exfoliative toxin Streptococcus pyogenes — erythrogenic toxin Streptococcus pyogenes — streptolysin O Staphylococcus aureus — toxic shock syndrome toxin
Staphylococcus aureus — toxic shock syndrome toxin
Which pathogen has drug-resistant strains called MRSA? Staphylococcus saprophyticus Staphylococcus epidermidis Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus aureus
Plague is a quarantinable disease. True False
True
Proteus species often cause urinary tract infections. True False
True
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to many antimicrobics. True False
True
The Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion is scarlet fever. erysipelas. necrotizing fasciitis. impetigo.
erysipelas.
All bacteria are aerobic.
False
All bacteria produce hemolysin
False
Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE) are typically resistant to carbapenem but sensitive to most other antibiotics. True False
False
Hemolysin is an example of endotoxin.
False
Pseudomonas is an enteric gram-negative rod. True False
False
Shigellosis is typically acquired via the respiratory route. True False
False
Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin? cutaneous gastrointestinal pulmonary All of these choices are correct.
cutaneous
Which event releases the chemical mediators? Histamine acts on smooth muscle. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils degranulation binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
degranulation
Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing tissue matching. sensitization. desensitization. degranulation.
desensitization.
Type ________ hypersensitivities involve soluble antigen with IgM or IgG forming complexes that can deposit in tissues. 1 2 3 4
3
Which is incorrect about Leptospirosis? It is a zoonosis. Its principle targets are the kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes. It can be avoided by not swimming in livestock watering ponds. A vaccine is not available. Weil's syndrome occurs during the second phase of the disease.
A vaccine is not available.
A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is DiGeorge syndrome. agammaglobulinemia. AIDS. type I diabetes. adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
AIDS.
Which is not a characteristic of spirochetes? Endoflagella enclosed in periplasmic space All are pathogenic Always motile Gram negative Helical shape
All are pathogenic
Helicobacter pylori causes increased risk for stomach cancer. stomach ulcers. duodenal ulcers. gastritis. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct
Characteristics of rickettsias include obligate parasites requiring host cells for growth. host cells are required for ATP metabolism. gram negative coccobacilli. arthropods serve as life cycle hosts and vectors. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Chlamydia trachomatis causes congenital and adult inclusion conjunctivitis. cervicitis in females. nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) in males. ocular trachoma. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Cholera symptoms include acidosis, sunken eyes, thirst. loss of blood volume. copious watery diarrhea. hypotension, tachycardia, shock. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Lyme disease involves people having contact with wooded or forested areas. treatment with antimicrobics. early symptoms of fever, headache, stiff neck. crippling polyarthritis and cardiovascular and neurological problems. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere. include lactobacilli and streptococci that ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries. include streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque. develop a biofilm. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Relapsing fever involves initial symptoms of fever, headache, fatigue. soft-bodied ticks transmitting Borrelia hermsii. campers and forestry personnel. human body louse transmitting Borrelia recurrentis. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Bacteria associated with food intoxication include: All of these Clostridium botulinum Bacillus cereus Bacillus anthracis Staphylococcus aureus
All of these
Which of the following may be recommended for treating gangrene? amputation of affected limb hyperbaric chamber rigorous cleansing of deep wounds debridement of the wound All of these choices are correct
All of these choices are correct
A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves acid-fast stain of sputum. tuberculin skin test. sputum culture. chest X-ray. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
Brucellosis is associated with pathogen in the blood. an occupational illness of people that work with animals. a zoonosis. seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain, and weakness. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
Chancroid is characterized by sexually transmission. lesions which develop at the portal of entry. bubo-like swelling of the lymph nodes. geographical distribution in the tropics and subtropics. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
Disease/s caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include bronchial pneumonia. otitis media. meningitis. lobar pneumonia. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
Escherichia coli infections include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains. involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea. are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food. can cause an inflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
Genes for which of the following may be transferred between fecal bacteria? toxin production fimbriae capsules hemolysins All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
Legionella pneumophila causes fever, cough, and diarrhea. often lives in close associations with amoebas. requires special lab growth media. causes a severe pneumonia. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is virulent due to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA. the cause of gonorrhea. called the gonococcus. the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
Nonspecific chemical defenses include stomach hydrochloric acid. lysozyme. lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat. skin's acidic pH and fatty acids. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an opportunist that produces many diverse enzymes. highly chemical resistant. found in soil and water. motile. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
Salmonella typhi causes invasive infection of the small intestine. is not a coliform. multiplies within phagocytes. can be treated with antimicrobics. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
Salmonelloses are gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea. not caused by Salmonella typhi. associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces. enteric fevers that often include septicemia. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
The DTaP immunization contains tetanus toxoid. contains a pertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material. is administered in childhood. contains diphtheria toxoid. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause fever and anemia. massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs. recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs. systemic shock and kidney failure. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
Treatment and control of anthrax includes proper disposal of animals that have died from anthrax. toxoid for military and those with occupational exposure. use of antimicrobics, such as ciprofloxacin for active cases. vaccination of livestock. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
Which of the following is/are characteristic of lepromatous leprosy? Complications include secondary infections, kidney, or respiratory failure. Granulomatous thickenings and folds of the skin may develop. Lepromatous leprosy is the most disfiguring form of the disease. The pathogen grows extensively in cooler body areas, such as nose, ears, testes. All of these choices are correct.
All of these choices are correct.
Although Burkholderia cepacia could be very useful in bioremediation programs, it is not feasible to use it. Why? It encourages the overgrowth of fungus in the environment, which is not desirable. Because it cannot be cultured in the lab to necessary numbers. It produces a foul odor making it a poor choice for most situations. Because it can cause opportunistic infections in the respiratory tract. Because it is too expensive at this time to grow it.
Because it can cause opportunistic infections in the respiratory tract.
Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae? It is a common cause of primary atypical pneumonia. Early infections are characterized by fever, malaise, sore throat, headache. Its cells lack a cell wall. After 2 to 3 weeks, it develops into an unproductive cough and earache. Birds are a reservoir.
Birds are a reservoir.
The causative agent of Lyme disease is Borrelia burgdorferi. Ixodes pacificus. Leptospira interrogans. Ixodes scapularis. Borrelia hermsii.
Borrelia burgdorferi.
Lyme disease is caused by ________ transmitted by ticks. Rickettsia rickettsii Leptospira interrogans Proteus vulgaris Borrelia burghdorferi Rickettsia typhi
Borrelia burghdorferi
Which bacteria could be responsible for hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)? eterotoxigeic strains of E. coli Salmonella typhi eteroinvasive E. coli Both E. coli 0157:H7 and Shigella dysenteriae Salmonella
Both E. coli 0157:H7 and Shigella dysenteriae
After being bitten by a tick on a hiking trip, Amy had chills, headache, muscle pain, nausea, lethargy, and rash. Before further testing, Amy's healthcare provider gave her information about which of the following diseases? Ehrlichiosis Streptococcus pyogenes and strep throat Anaplasmosis Shigella and dysentery Both anaplasmosis and ehrlichiosis. All of these choices are correct
Both anaplasmosis and ehrlichiosis.
Which of the following organisms would look most similar to Neisseria meningitidis on a Gram stained smear? Streptococcus agalactiae Staphylococcus aureus Branhamella catarrhalis Streptococcus pneumoniae
Branhamella catarrhalis
Which of the following organisms would look most similar to Neisseria meningitidis on a Gram stained smear? Streptococcus pneumoniae Streptococcus agalactiae Branhamella catarrhalis Staphylococcus aureus
Branhamella catarrhalis
A specimen was collected from a deep wound. A smear was prepared and Gram stained and samples were inoculated onto two blood agar plates. Both blood agar plates were incubated for 48 hours at 35°C, but one blood agar plate was incubated aerobically and the other was incubated in an anaerobe jar. The Gram stain of the original specimen showed large gram-positive bacilli. After incubation, there was no growth on the blood agar plate that was incubated aerobically, but the plate incubated in the anaerobe jar grew beta hemolytic colonies. A Gram stain of these colonies showed large gram positive bacilli, some with unstained inclusions, suggestive of endospores. What is the most likely genus of bacteria observed? Corynebacterium Bacillus Mycobacterium Clostridium Listeria
Clostridium
Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of Clostridium perfringens. Clostridium difficile. Clostridium tetani. Clostridium botulinum. All of these choices are correct.
Clostridium botulinum.
Which organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes, and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis? Clostridium perfringens Clostridium tetani Clostridium difficile Clostridium botulinum All of these choices are correct.
Clostridium perfringens
Production of enterotoxin is a characteristic of Clostridium tetani. Clostridium botulinum. Clostridium perfringens. Clostridium difficile. All of these choices are correct.
Clostridium perfringens.
Hydrogen peroxide is an effective antiseptic for _______ bacterial infection on the skin? Bacillus cereus Clostridium tetani Bacillus anthracis leprosy
Clostridium tetani
Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of Clostridium botulinum. Clostridium difficile. Clostridium perfringens. Clostridium tetani. All of these choices are correct.
Clostridium tetani.
Which of the following is not a possible symptom of Type 1 hypersensitivity? Contact dermatitis Diarrhea Rhinitis Rashes Sneezing
Contact dermatitis
The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its invasive enzymes. capsule. neurotoxin. enterotoxin. All of the above.
enterotoxin.
Which of the following nonspecific mediators inhibits virus replication and cellular division while increasing some lymphocyte action? IFN IL-1 IL-6 TNF chemokines
IFN
A paroxysmal cough is associated with Legionnaires' disease. True False
False
A pregnant woman is told she has a positive CAMP test and should be treated with a course of antibiotics. This test is indicative of Group B streptococci. S. saprophyticus. Group A streptococci. S. aureus. S. epidermidis.
Group B streptococci.
Which of the following characteristics is NOT true of Treponema pallidum? Solely utilizes glycolysis for energy Microaerophilic Grows well on chocolate agar in the laboratory Causative agent of syphilis Requires mammalian host
Grows well on chocolate agar in the laboratory
Which is mismatched? K antigen - capsule H antigen - fimbriae O antigen - cell wall, somatic All of these choices are correct.
H antigen - fimbriae
Which of the following is normal oral and nasopharyngeal flora but is involved in infective endocarditis in adults who have underlying congenital or rheumatic heart disease? Haemophilus aphrophilus Haemophilus aegyptius Haemophilus influenzae Haemophilus ducreyi All of these choices are correct.
Haemophilus aphrophilus
Which of the following is an agent of the sexually-transmitted disease chancroid? Haemophilus aegyptius Haemophilus parainfluenzae Haemophilus aphrophilus Haemophilus ducreyi Haemophilus influenzae
Haemophilus ducreyi
A cause of epiglottitis in children and young adults is Haemophilus aphrophilus. Haemophilus aegyptius. Haemophilus parainfluenzae. Haemophilus ducreyi. Haemophilus influenzae.
Haemophilus influenzae.
The vaccine for immunity to Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is Pneumovax. DtaP. MMR. Hib.
Hib.
The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is IgG. IgA. IgE. IgD. IgM.
IgA
All of the following are involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity, except IgE. IgM. complement. foreign cells. IgG.
IgE.
All of the following are involved in the development of a Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction, except TC cells. TH cells. antigen. IgE. dendritic cells. macrophages. cytokines.
IgE.
Which is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication? After contamination, food must be left unrefrigerated for a few hours. Symptoms come on quickly, and include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea. Food becomes contaminated by a human carrier. Common associated foods include custards, ham, cream pastries, processed meats. Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining.
Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining.
The purpose of streaking plate is to kill bacteria see whether bacteria grow on the plate grow a lot bacteria Isolate pure colonies
Isolate pure colonies
Which is incorrect about Lyme disease? It is transmitted by ticks. Its reservoirs are mice and deer. It is nonfatal. It is a new disease that started in Lyme, Connecticut. It can slowly progress and mimic rheumatoid conditions.
It is a new disease that started in Lyme, Connecticut.
Which of the following is not true about diphtheria? It is a zoonosis. It is prevented with the DTaP vaccine. Humans can be healthy carriers. A pseudomembrane may form in the back of the throat. It is an upper respiratory infection.
It is a zoonosis.
Which is incorrect regarding fever? It is present in all vertebrates. It inhibits the multiplication of temperature-sensitive microorganisms. It is associated exclusively with bacterial infections. It stimulates the activity of T-cells. When rising, a person feels cold.
It is associated exclusively with bacterial infections.
Which of the following would provide the strongest evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticut was due to bacterial infection? It affected mostly children. It responded to treatment with antibiotics. It was not contagious. It was transmitted by ticks. It was accompanied by a rash.
It responded to treatment with antibiotics.
Which of the following is not transmitted via an arthropod vector? Lyme disease Rocky Mountain spotted fever Leptospirosis Human Ehrlichosis Epidemic typhus
Leptospirosis
Janice had been experiencing mild flu-like symptoms before going into premature labor at seven months. The premature baby boy developed complications immediately after birth, running a fever and demonstrating neurologic abnormalities. A cerebrospinal fluid specimen was collected and a gram stain of the specimen showed short Gram-positive bacilli. The CSF culture grew small beta hemolytic colonies that were catalase positive. A CAMP test was positive on this isolate. The same organism grew from blood cultures done on the baby. What is the most likely identification? Corynebacterium diphtheriae Bacillus anthracis Listeria monocytogenes Streptococcus agalactiae
Listeria monocytogenes
Which of the following is most useful for the definitive diagnosis of Lyme disease? Gram stain of blood specimen Culture of the bull's-eye rash on Lyme-selective agar Lyme antibody titers Blood cultures All of these methods may be used to diagnosis Lyme disease.
Lyme antibody titers
Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with relapsing fever. leptospirosis. syphilis. Lyme disease. Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
Lyme disease.
The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the transmission cycle associated with leptospirosis. Lyme disease. tertiary syphilis. chlamydiosis. Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
Lyme disease.
Which cells may carry out phagocytosis? Macrophages and neutrophils Helper T cells (CD4) Natural Killer cells Cytotoxic T cells (CD8) B cells and Plasma Cells
Macrophages and neutrophils
A patient has a suspicious skin infection and a culture is taken. Which media would be appropriate to select for staphylococci? macConkey agar Mannitol salt agar Chocolate agar Nutrient agar Blood agar
Mannitol salt agar
A patient has a serious lung infection. A sputum sample was taken. The lab technician stated that the lab isolated a bacterium that did not have any peptidoglycan. You hypothesize that the identity of this microbe could possibly be ________. Mycoplasma pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae Mycobacterium tuberculosis Streptococcus pneumoniae Borrelia burgdorferi
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
instillation of antibiotics in newborn's eyes will prevent ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns. This disease is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis. Neisseria meningitidis. Staphylococcus aureus. Streptococcus pyogenes.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Ureaplasma urealyticum is implicated in which of the following? Q fever Periodontal disease Endemic typhus Nongonococcal urethritis Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Nongonococcal urethritis
Which of the following is usually the most effective and practical treatment for most cases of bacterial diarrhea? Over-the-counter antidiarrheal medications Delivery of intravenous fluids to rehydrate patients Oral rehydration with solutions of electrolytes and water Treatment with antibiotics
Oral rehydration with solutions of electrolytes and water
The gram-negative bacillus associated with abscesses from dog and cat bites or scratches is Pasteurella multocida. Brucella suis. Francisella tularensis. Salmonella typhimurium. Yersinia enterocolitica
Pasteurella multocida.
Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori? Curved rods Gram negative Produces urease that buffers stomach acidity Produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea Lives in the stomach
Produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea
Although this bacteria is typically found in soil and water, burn wound patients are susceptible to ________ infection. Pseudomonas Shigella E. coli 0157:H7 Bordetella pertussis Yersinia pestis
Pseudomonas
Which is mismatched? Bartonella quintana - trench fever Coxiella burnetii - Q fever Rickettsia rickettsii - epidemic typhus Bartonella henselae - cat scratch disease Rickettsia typhi - endemic (murine) typhus
Rickettsia rickettsii - epidemic typhus
A private in the US Army is stationed at Ft. Bragg, North Carolina. He has been admitted to the infirmary with complaints of a severe headache and high fever. Upon questioning, he revealed that he had received a tick bite several days earlier. Two days after admission, he starts to develop a rash, beginning on his hands and feet and spreading towards his torso. Which of the following should be considered first in the diagnosis? Lyme disease Tularemia Epidemic typhus RockyMountain spotted fever Anthrax
RockyMountain spotted fever
During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur? Secondary Primary Latent Tertiary All of the choices are correct
Secondary
A 48-year old man has had nasal surgery and absorbent material has been inserted into his nasal cavity to control bleeding. Several hours ago he began to complain of a headache and has since developed a red rash over much of his body and is experiencing muscle cramps and diarrhea. His blood pressure has dropped to 75/50 mg Hg. This patient's illness is most likely caused by Staphylococcus aureus — toxic shock syndrome toxin Streptococcus pyogenes — streptolysin O Staphylococcus aureus — exfoliative toxin Streptococcus pyogenes — erythrogenic toxin
Staphylococcus aureus — toxic shock syndrome toxin
A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus epidermidis. Streptococcus pyogenes. Streptococcus agalactiae. Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
Staphylococcus aureus.
Which organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females? Staphylococcus saprophyticus Staphylococcus epidermidis Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Which pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States? Staphylococcus epidermidis Streptococcus pyogenes Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus saprophyticus Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus agalactiae
Which pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States? Staphylococcus saprophyticus Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes Staphylococcus epidermidis Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus agalactiae
An 8-month old infant has been brought to the ER with a high fever. Her parents indicate that she has not been eating or drinking well and has been very irritable until the last few hours during which she has been only minimally responsive. Suspecting meningitis, a spinal tap is done and the CSF sample is sent to the lab for analysis. The white blood cell count on the sample is profoundly elevated, the protein content is elevated, and the glucose level is depressed. The Gram stained smear shows gram-positive cocci in pairs. Cultures are done and after overnight incubation, alpha hemolytic colonies are observed on the blood plate. These colonies contain gram-positive cocci, which are catalase negative. An optochin susceptibility test is done and there is a large zone of inhibition around the disk. What is the identification of this isolate? Streptococcus pneumoniae Streptococcus agalactiae Neisseria meningitidis Enterococcus faecalis viridans Streptococci
Streptococcus pneumoniae
A positive Quellung reaction, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory for Staphylococcus aureus. Streptococcus pneumoniae. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis. Streptococcus pyogenes. Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
A positive Quellung reaction, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory for Streptococcus pneumoniae. Streptococcus pyogenes. Staphylococcus aureus. Neisseria meningitidis. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Scarlet fever is caused by strains of Staphylococcus aureus. Streptococcus pyogenes. Streptococcus agalactiae. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
Streptococcus pyogenes.
Scarlet fever is caused by strains of Streptococcus agalactiae. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. Streptococcus pyogenes. Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
Streptococcus pyogenes.
Which of the following distinguishes syphilis from yaws? Syphilis has a primary, secondary, and tertiary stages. Syphilis is treated with antibiotics. Syphilis is sexually transmitted. Syphilis is a slow and progressive disease. Syphilis is caused by a spirochete.
Syphilis is sexually transmitted.
Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism? Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils T-cell and B-cell responses Anatomical barriers in the body Interferon Inflammatory response
T-cell and B-cell responses
Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis? Latent Tertiary Secondary Primary All of the choices are correct.
Tertiary
Occasionally when doing serologic testing to identify strains of Salmonella isolates, the test for different O antigens is negative. What is the most likely explanation? The K antigens are masking the O antigens. The K antigens are maskng the H antigens. There is no O antigen present. The H antigens are masking the O antigens.
The K antigens are masking the O antigens.
Which of the following is not correct concerning Legionnaires' disease? L. pneumophila lives in close associations with free-living amoebas. Cases have been traced to the fallout from the Mount Saint Helen's volcano. Symptoms include cough, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. It is more common in males over 50 years of age. The disease is communicable from person to person.
The disease is communicable from person to person.
Why are penicillin and other beta lactam antibiotics not used for treatment of primary atypical pneumonia? The organism that causes primary atypical pneumonia does not have a cell wall, so penicillin and other beta lactam antibiotics will not work. Penicillin and other beta lactam antibiotics will not penetrate inside of pulmonary cells where the mycoplasma resides. Antibiotics will not work against the viruses that cause primary atypical pneumonia. The organism that causes primary atypical pneumonia usually makes beta lactamases.
The organism that causes primary atypical pneumonia does not have a cell wall, so penicillin and other beta lactam antibiotics will not work.
Which is not a characteristic of Nocardia? It causes most cases in the immunocompromised. It can be transmitted by respiratory droplets. It lives in the soil. It can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis. They are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.
They are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.
Which of the following is incorrect about the role of mast cells and basophils in allergies? They degranulate when triggered by a specific allergen through the IgE bound to them. They are found mainly in the lymph nodes. They carry high numbers of cell receptors that bind to IgE antibodies. Their cytoplasmic secretory vesicles contain physiologically active cytokines.
They are found mainly in the lymph nodes.
Which is incorrect regarding Q fever? Is a zoonosis Causes fever, muscle aches, rash, and sometimes pneumonia Transmitted by lice Humans infected from unpasteurized milk and airborne spread Pathogen produces resistant spores
Transmitted by lice
Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and food-borne botulism? Exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release. Treatment involves antitoxin therapy. It is caused by enterotoxins of the pathogen. Nausea and diarrhea are symptoms. It can be treated with antibiotics.
Treatment involves antitoxin therapy.
Allergic reactions to penicillin are an example of a Type 1 hypersensitivity. Type 2 hypersensitivity. Type 3 hypersensitivity. Type 4 hypersensitivity.
Type 1 hypersensitivity.
The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4. Type 4 only. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3. Type 1 only. Type 1 and Type 4.
Type 1, Type 2, Type 3.
An organism found in coastal waters that causes a food infection and gastroenteritis due to a variety of contaminated raw and undercooked seafood is Vibrio cholerae. Chlamydia trachomatis. Helicobacter pylori. Campylobacter jejuni. Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
All of the following pertain to gonorrhea, except it is a reportable infectious disease. a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry. pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and infertility are complications. symptoms include painful urination and discharge. female infections are frequently asymptomatic.
a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry.
A strain of Vibrio cholerae has mutated and is no longer able to produce cholera toxin. What is the most likely outcome of infection with this strain? Without its toxin, it will not be able to invade the intestinal epithelial cells and establish disease. The disease it produces will be very similar to that produced by toxin-producing strains. Without its toxin, it will not cause diarrhea. It will not be able to survive transit through the stomach so no disease will result.
Without its toxin, it will not cause diarrhea.
Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent shigellosis. tularemia. legionellosis. brucellosis. pertussis.
brucellosis.
An example of natural passive immunity would be chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
Jose needs a kidney due to his diabetes. His sister is a close match and is willing to give him one of hers. What type of transplant is this? allograft autograft heterograft xenograft
allograft
What is the Arthus reaction? the name given to skin wheals that occur during an allergy skin test an acute response to a second injection of vaccines at the same site a positive tuberculosis skin test the lysis of RBC due to complement during an incorrect blood transfusion an autoimmune disorder
an acute response to a second injection of vaccines at the same site
All of the following pertain to tuberculosis, except antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis. the BCG vaccine is used in other countries. live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life. lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB. symptoms of active TB include low-grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats.
antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis.
All of the following are true about diphtheria toxin, except it inhibits cellular protein synthesis. it is an exotoxin. it primarily targets the heart and nerves. it must be neutralized with antitoxin. antitoxin (DAT) comes from immunized human plasma donors.
antitoxin (DAT) comes from immunized human plasma donors.
Actinomyces israelii causes most cases in the immunocompromised. can be transmitted by respiratory droplets. can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis. are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue. lives in the soil.
are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.
Yaws, Pinta, and Bejel are all diseases that are sexually transmitted. are respiratory tract infections. are slow, progressive skin diseases that can spread to deep tissues. are caused by arthropod vectors. are caused by Vibrio species.
are slow, progressive skin diseases that can spread to deep tissues.
Cody is 4 months old and is given a DTaP injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule. What type of immunity will develop as a result of this? artificial passive immunity natural passive immunity natural active immunity artificial active immunity
artificial active immunity
Post-exposure prophylaxis for rabies includes shots of HRIG (human rabies immune globulin) and rabies vaccine. The HRIG provides ________ whereas the vaccine promotes the development of ________. artificial passive immunity; natural active immunity artificial active immunity; natural active immunity artificial passive immunity; artificial active immunity artificial active immunity; artificial passive immunity natural passive immunity; artificial passive immunity
artificial passive immunity; artificial active immunity
Necrotizing fasciitis is associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins. not treatable with antimicrobic drugs. possibly caused by antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with body tissues. typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis. also called impetigo.
associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins
Meningococcemia is associated with vascular hemorrhage and petechiae. frequently seen in elderly. common during gonorrhea. caused by a gram-positive diplococcus. All of these choices are correct.
associated with vascular hemorrhage and petechiae.
Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients? toxoids killed, inactivated vaccines subunit vaccines immune serums attenuated vaccines
attenuated vaccines
Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa? red-orange blue-green pale orange golden lemon yellow
blue-green
What will be the immediate action of allergen when it enters the body for a second time? Histamine acts on smooth muscle. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils degranulation bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
Which of the following bacterial genera contain members that are very similar physiologically to Pseudomonas and cause a similar spectrum of opportunistic infections? Burkholderia Stenotrophomonas Legionella Hemophilus both Burkholderia and Stenotrophomonas All of these choices are correct.
both Burkholderia and Stenotrophomonas
Generally, what must healthy adults consume in order to contract botulism? vegetative cells of C. botulinum botulism toxoid in contaminated food endospores of C. botulinum botulism toxin in contaminated food botulism antitoxin in contaminated food
botulism toxin in contaminated food
The food-borne disease that involves neurotoxin is botulism. Bacillus cereus intoxication. Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis. gastrointestinal anthrax. All of these choices are correct.
botulism.
Staphylococci can be differentiated from streptococci by the Gram stain. coagulase test. fermentation of mannitol. catalase test.
catalase test.
Whooping cough is transmitted via respiratory droplets. The ________ stage lasts 1-2 weeks, while the ________ stage is characterized by severe coughing. catarrhal; paroxysmal primary; secondary low T-cell; high macrophage incubation; convalescent incubation; invasion
catarrhal; paroxysmal
Which is not correct about Bacillus cereus? causes a zoonosis present in soil associated with cooked rice, potato, and meat dishes that are stored at room temperature causes food-borne intoxication produce enterotoxins
causes a zoonosis
E. coli O157:H7 and E. coli O111:H7 differ in their capsular antigen. flagellar antigen. Gram reaction. cell wall antigen.
cell wall antigen.
Rebecca Lancefield differentiated streptococci on the basis of differences in their cell wall carbohydrates in a serological test. patterns of hemolysis on blood agar. Gram stain appearance. ability to produce catalase. All of these choices are correct.
cell wall carbohydrates in a serological test.
An example of artificial active immunity would be chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
The enzyme that coagulates plasma is hyaluronidase. coagulase. catalase. Dnase. staphylokinase.
coagulase.
Which of the following is most directly responsible for cell lysis in Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions? NK cells complement activation TC cells IgG antibodies IgE antibodies IgM antibodies
complement activation
The individuals most at risk for botulism are those that are vegetarians. have a weakened immune system. consume home-preserved foods. eat often in restaurants. eat meat.
consume home-preserved foods.
Toxoids contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. confer passive immunity. are always genetically engineered. All of these choices are correct.
contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
The chancre of syphilis occurs during the tertiary stage. is very painful. occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries. develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater. All of the choices are correct.
develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all the following, except diarrheal illness. severe nosocomial infection in burn patients. skin rashes from contaminated hot tubs and bath sponges. serious infection in lung tissue of cystic fibrosis patients. external ear infection.
diarrheal illness.
The following are characteristics of Chlamydias except reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies. they are obligate intracellular parasites that need host cells for growth. elementary bodies are the infectious form. elementary bodies are metabolically active. they are gram negative.
elementary bodies are metabolically active.
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Actinomyces israelii? colonies may display mycelium-like growth. non-motile endospore former may live in human oral cavity or intestine Discharge from infections may contain sulfur granules.
endospore former
The pathogenesis of rickettsial infections often involves infection of urinary tract. gastrointestinal lining. dermis of the skin. endothelial lining of blood vessels. stomach mucosa.
endothelial lining of blood vessels.
The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to toxic shock syndrome toxin. exfoliative toxin. erythrogenic toxin. hemolysins. enterotoxins.
erythrogenic toxin.
The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is exfoliative toxin. hemolysin. enterotoxin. erythrogenic toxin. toxic shock syndrome toxin.
exfoliative toxin.
The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when fetal Rh− cells enter an Rh+ mother. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother. maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh− fetus. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh− mother. maternal Rh− cells enter an Rh+ fetus.
fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh− mother.
The function of bacterial endospores is to have sites for photosynthesis. to convert gaseous nitrogen to a usable form for plants. for reproduction and growth. the storage of excess cell materials. for protection of genetic material during harsh conditions.
for protection of genetic material during harsh conditions.
An example of artificial passive immunity would be giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
Characteristics of all the members of the family Enterobacteriaceae include glucose fermentation. production of enterotoxins. lactose fermentation. their role as normal flora of human intestines. All of these choices are correct.
glucose fermentation
Which of the following is a risk of a bone marrow transplant that is not typically a risk of a kidney or heart transplant? host rejection of graft graft versus host disease formation of autoantibodies hypogammaglobulinemia
graft versus host disease
Rocky Mountain spotted fever is seen in highest numbers along the west coast. has symptoms that include fever, headache, and rash. never has severe complications. is transmitted by Ixodes ticks. All of the choices are correct.
has symptoms that include fever, headache, and rash.
Which is mismatched? serum sickness - Type 3 hypersensitivity food allergy - Type 1 hypersensitivity hay fever - Type 4 hypersensitivity poison ivy dermatitis - Type 4 hypersensitivity transfusion reaction - Type 2 hypersensitivity
hay fever - Type 4 hypersensitivity
The contribution of B-cells is mainly in cell-mediated immunity. complement activity. inflammation. humoral immunity. phagocytosis.
humoral immunity.
Which chemical produced by S. aureus is also known as "spreading factor"? hemolysin hyaluronidase penicillinase coagulase toxic shock syndrome toxin
hyaluronidase
In which of the following situations would Staphylococcus epidermidis be the most likely etiologic agent? urinary bladder infection otitis media conjunctivitis infected IV catheter site food intoxication
infected IV catheter site
Which of the following is not caused by Haemophilus influenzae? otitis media bacterial meningitis bronchitis influenza (flu) epiglottitis
influenza (flu)
Which of the following is the most likely method if transmission of nocardiosis? inhaling dust containing cells of Nocardia touching an individual who has nocardiosis with an ungloved hand consuming contaminated home-preserved foods consuming unpasteurized milk
inhaling dust containing cells of Nocardia
The secondary stage of syphilis is when the patient is no longer infectious to others. is when gummas develop in tissues. has no symptoms. is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood. occurs within 10 days of the primary stage.
is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood.
Ornithosis has humans as a reservoir. is a zoonosis of certain types of birds. is a mild, upper respiratory tract illness. is caused by Chlamydophila pneumoniae. All of the choices are correct.
is a zoonosis of certain types of birds.
A female who is Rh + is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn. inherited two recessive genes. is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status. can only have an Rh positive baby. All of these choices are correct.
is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status.
Yersinia pestis is usually transmitted by a flea vector. was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent. has humans as an endemic reservoir. does not respond to antimicrobic drugs. All of these choices are correct.
is usually transmitted by a flea vector.
The tertiary stage of syphilis is when a chancre develops. has no symptoms. is when gummas develop in tissues. is when the patient is highly infectious to others. occurs within 10 days of the primary stage.
is when gummas develop in tissues.
Leptospirosis has all the following characteristics except it can be transmitted by animal bites. the pathogen is a spirochete. humans acquire it by contact with abraded skin or mucous membranes. it infects kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes. it most common in cattle, horses, pigs, and dogs.
it can be transmitted by animal bites.
All of the following are correct about primary atypical pneumonia except it can also be caused by adenoviruses. it has symptoms similar to pneumococcal pneumonia. it is transmitted by aerosol droplets. it is mainly caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. community resistance is high.
it has symptoms similar to pneumococcal pneumonia.
All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni except it has gram negative curved rods with darting motility. it infects the stomach. it is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water. it causes fever and a watery to bloody diarrhea. it produces an enterotoxin called CJT that stimulates diarrhea.
it infects the stomach.
All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis, except virulence factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease. it is more easily transmitted in day-care facilities, dorms, and military barracks. it is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia. it causes serious meningitis. the reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers.
it is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia.
All of the following are characteristics of IgM, except it can fix complement. it is a dimer. it contains a central J chain. it has 10 antigen binding sites. it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell.
it is a dimer.
All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis, except it occurs in patients that have prior heart damage signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in vegetation oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.
it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.
All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection, except it is major cause of diarrhea in hospitals. it is a colitis that is a superinfection. it may be on the rise due to increased use of gastric acid inhibitors. it is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies. it often has an endogenous source.
it is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies.
Typhoid fever has the following characteristics, except chronic carriers harbor the pathogens in their gallbladder. it can infect the small intestine with fever, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. it is transmitted by ingesting fecally contaminated food and water. it can become a septicemia, spread to lymph nodes and spleen, and cause liver abscesses. it is spread by handling reptiles.
it is spread by handling reptiles.
All of the following are associated with bubonic plague, except the patient has fever, headache, nausea, weakness. the patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. it can progress to a septicemia. it is transmitted by human feces. it is caused by Yersinia pestis.
it is transmitted by human feces.
E. coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following, except it causes a bloody diarrhea. its reservoir is cattle intestines. it is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger. some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals.
it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals.
The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is the endospores. its exotoxin. the capsule. the metachromatic granules. its endotoxin.
its exotoxin.
Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters? brucellosis traveler's diarrhea plague legionellosis pertussis
legionellosis
Which of the following antibiotics specifically disrupt protein synthesis of streptococci? ansamycin plural cephalosporins β-lactams aminoglycosides macrolides
macrolides
What is the product of catalase test? water cat hydrogen peroxide oxygen
oxygen
Diapedesis is the production of only red blood cells. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.
migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
The process by which antibodies block interactions between pathogens or their products and host cells is termed neutralization. complement. attenuation. interference.
neutralization.
All of the following are typical of nocardiosis, except nocardiosis usually develops in individuals with a healthy immune response. symptoms of pulmonary nocardiosis may resemble the symptoms of tuberculosis. infections may involve the lungs, the skin, or subcutaneous sites. it may be caused by Nocardia brasiliensis, Nocardia asteroides, or Nocardia caviae.
nocardiosis usually develops in individuals with a healthy immune response
Hydrogen peroxide is an effective antiseptic for _______ bacterial infection on the skin? obligate anaerobic bacteria acid fast positive aerobic facultative anaerobic
obligate anaerobic bacteria
Botulin, the toxin of botulism is only produced under anaerobic conditions. detected and diagnosed by analyzing a patient's blood. produced when spores germinate in the intestines of adults after ingesting contaminated food. the cause of rigid paralysis. not as virulent as tetanospasmin.
only produced under anaerobic conditions
Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis? agglutination complement fixation opsonization neutralization anamnestic response
opsonization
Plasma cells function in blood clotting. are derived from T-lymphocytes. function in cell-mediated immunity. produce and secrete antibodies. All of these choices are correct.
produce and secrete antibodies.
All species of Staphylococcus produce catalase. produce coagulase. have endospores. are motile. All of these choices are correct
produce catalase.
The M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes: gives rise to a zone of beta hemolysis on blood agar. protects against phagocytosis and enhances adherence. is also called streptokinase. protects against lysozyme damage. is the basis for the organism belonging to Lancefield Group A.
protects against phagocytosis and enhances adherence.
Which type of anthrax is called "woolsorter's disease?" gastrointestinal pulmonary cutaneous All of these choices are correct.
pulmonary
An 85-year-old man has been experiencing weight loss, night sweats, and a dry cough for several months and just recently he has begun coughing up sputum with tinges of blood in it. Following a chest X-ray showing some white spots on his lungs, an AFB (Mycobacterial) stain and culture were ordered and both were positive for the presence of mycobacteria. He has been PPD positive since his 20's. Which of the following most accurately describes his current situation? latent tubercular infection primary tubercular disease primary tubercular infection systemic tuberculosis reactivation tuberculosis
reactivation tuberculosis
Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following, except impetigo. necrotizing fasciitis. scarlet fever. scalded skin syndrome. erysipelas.
scalded skin syndrome.
Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following, except pneumonia. osteomyelitis. folliculitis. sore throat. furuncles and carbuncles.
sore throat.
Treponema, Borrelia, and Leptospira are all curved rods. obligate parasites requiring host cells. transmitted by arthropod vectors. bacteria without cell walls. spirochetes.
spirochetes.
Which chemical, produced by S. aureus, digests blood clots? toxic shock syndrome toxin penicillinase coagulase staphylokinase hyaluronidase
staphylokinase
All of the following are correct about salmonelloses except strains are normal flora in dogs and cats. foods contaminated by rodent feces may cause outbreaks. non-typhoidal strains of salmonella are zoonotic in origin. outbreaks have been caused by eggs. drug resistance of salmonella is on the rise.
strains are normal flora in dogs and cats.
The RPR, VDRL, MHA-TP, FTA-ABS, and TPI tests are used to diagnose syphilis. Q fever. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. chlamydiosis. lyme disease.
syphilis.
A seasonal farmworker has been brought into the emergency room showing early symptoms of tetanus, including spastic contractions of face and neck muscles. His coworkers indicated that he had received a puncture wound in his hand a week prior to the onset of symptoms. His tetanus vaccination status is uncertain. Which of the following should be administered to the patient first, as soon as possible? hyperbaric oxygen chamber therapy a tetanus titer antibiotics tetanus immune globulin tetanus toxoid
tetanus immune globulin
Pertussis has the following characteristics, except an early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing. the pathogen has virulence factors to destroy the action of respiratory cilia. the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops". transmission is by respiratory droplets. DTaP immunization will prevent it.
the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops".
Adaptive immunity occurs when virulent pathogen infections persist in the body after the initial innate defense response. death results from pathogen infection. the innate immune response fails to eliminate pathogens in the body. the innate immune response fails to eliminate pathogens in the body and virulent infections persist after the initial innate defense response.
the innate immune response fails to eliminate pathogens in the body and virulent infections persist after the initial innate defense response.
Shigella species have the following characteristics, except they belong to Enterobacteriaceae. they infect the small intestine. they release endotoxin. they are non-motile. they produce enterotoxin.
they infect the small intestine.
A halophile would ________ in a high salt environment. become crenated thrive undergo plasmolysis form endospores undergo osmotic lysis
thrive
Control of rodent populations is important for preventing epidemic typhus. tick-borne relapsing fever. Q fever. ornithosis. All of the choices are correct.
tick-borne relapsing fever.
Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all the following diseases, except tuberculin reaction. myasthenia gravis. rheumatoid arthritis. multiple sclerosis. Graves' disease.
tuberculin reaction.
Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of pertussis. brucellosis. shigellosis. tularemia. legionellosis.
tularemia.
Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their feces. saliva. urine. blood. respiratory secretions.
urine.
Antitoxins include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus. contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin. use vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins. contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin. contain attenuated organisms.
use vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins.
The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is antimicrobics. antitoxin. surgery. water and electrolyte replacement. None of the choices are correct.
water and electrolyte replacement.
