BOC Practice
Chloroquine diphosphate can be used in blood banking for which of the following methodologies? A. to remove antibody bound to red cells so that cells can be further tested B. to remove a specific antibody in serum or plasma C. to remove ABO antigens from cells D. to remove Rh antigens from cells
A
Important applications of PCR include the following w/the general exception of: A. search for mutations w/large deletions B. amplification of DNA C. ID of a target sequence D. synthesis of an anti-sense probe
A
One risk assoc w/patients that require chronic transfusions is: A. Iron overload B. Fear of needles C. Transfusion assoc graft-vs-host disease (TA-GVHD) D. Increased antigen production
A
The Major Histocompatibility Complex (MCH) I genes encode for: A. Human leukocyte antigens (HLA)-A, B, C B. Human leukocyte antigens (HLA)-DR, DQ, DP C. Complement D. Cytokines
A
The following cestode is commonly assoc w/dogs & cats but also may be transmitted to humans through the ingestion of dog & cat fleas that contain the cysticercoid of the parasite. Lab diagnosis may be made by observing groups of egg packets, as seen in the diagram (8), in the stool. A. Dipylidium caninum B. Hymenolepis nana C. Taenia saginata D. Echinococcus granulosus
A
The ketone component that is measured by the nitroprusside reaction is: A. Acetoacetic acid B. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid C. Acetone D. C-reactive protein
A
The reaction that differentiates crystals from starch is: A. starch stains blue black w/iodine B. crystals stain blue w/iodine C. starch stains orange red w/Sudan III D. crystals stain orange red w/Sudan III
A
Which of the following best describes the methodology for FISH? A. direct nucleic acid test that uses RNA northern blot or DNA southern blot to detect variations B. signal amplification test that uses signal amplification and alkaline phosphatase C. target amplification test that uses thermal cycling and DNA polymerase D. target amplification test using thermal cycling and DNA ligase
A
Which of the following bioterrorism agent categories is the easiest to spread, has the ability to cause major harm, panic, and death, and carries the highest level of risk w/regard to national security? A. A B. B C. C D. D
A
Which of the following sources of error will give a false negative result in AHG testing? A. Low pH of saline B. Dirty glassware C. Samples collected in gel separator tubes D. Refrigerated specimen
A
Which of the following statements is correct regarding total laboratory automation (TLA)? A. back-end systems may include removal of specimens from the analyzer B. front-end systems may include removal of specimens from the analyzer w/transport to storage C. front-end systems may include retrieval from storage D. back-end systems may include ID of specimens
A
Which of the following is true of genotype screening in pharmacogenetics? A. genotype screening gives a better overall picture of drug metabolism than measuring metabolism w/probe drugs B. genotyping does not take into account drug interactions which can affect metabolism C. genotyping typically involves measuring only one mutation site or polymorphism D. genotyping has no known impact on drug metabolism
B
Which of the following descriptions best describes the term absolute value as it would relate to leukocyte differential counts? A. relative % of each cell type B. relative % of each cell type multiplied by total white count C. relative % of each cell type divided by total white count D. specific number of each cell type divided by total white count
B
Which of the following statements is true regarding the staining protocol used for bone marrow smears compared to that for peripheral blood smears? A. bone marrow smears cannot be stained w/automated stainers B. longer staining time should be used to allow thorough staining C. Wright-Giemsa stain cannot be used w/bone marrow smears D. fixing w/absolute methanol is not required w/bone marrow staining
B
What is the proper method for examining a trichrome stained smear using bright field microscopy? A. scan the slide using fluorescent microscopy, not bright field B. scan the thick areas of the slide using oil immersion only C. scan the thin areas of the slide on low power only D. scan the slide on low power first, then switch to oil immersion and scan the thin areas of the slide
D
Which absorption technique removes cold (IgM) antibodies, particularly anti-I specificities? A. cold autoabsorption B. warm autoabsorption C. differential (allogenic) D. rabbit erythrocyte stroma (RESt)
D
Which of the following conditions would produce the results listed below in an anemic patient? MCV = 115 fL MCH = 30 pg MCHC = 34% A. Sickle cell anemia B. Aplastic anemia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Pernicious anemia
D
Which two of the following crystalline elements are found in acid urine: A. Cystine and calcium carbonate B. Triple phosphate and calcium carbonate C. Calcium phosphate and uric acid D. Tyrosine and cystine
D
What affect may bacterial contamination have on urine pH? A. the bacteria may make the pH more alkaline B. the bacteria may make the pH more acidic C. the bacteria would not affect urine pH D. the bacteria will keep the pH neutral
A
What form of immunity is expected to provide long-term protection after hepatitis B vaccine (HBV) is administered to an immunocompetent person? A. active B. passive C. adaptive D. innate
A
What is the minimum hemoglobin concentration required for autologous blood donation? A. 11 g/dL B. 10 g/dL C. 13 g/dL D. 12.5 g/dL
A
Which finding best distinguishes immune hemolytic anemia from other hemolytic anemias? A. Rouleaux B. Positive DAT C. Splenomegaly D. Increased erythrocyte count
B
When collecting a urine specimen for workplace drug testing, which of the following situations may indicate that the specimen has been tampered w/or adulterated? A. the temperature of the specimen reads 34C B. the specific gravity test result is 1.001 C. the color of the specimen is amber D. the specific gravity test result is 1.020
B
The intestinal parasite, which measure 5 mcm, is usually not visible in samples processed using standard permanent stains. Special staining, as indicated by the coloring (trichrome), is helpful in its ID. A. Isospora belli oocyst B. Cryptosporidium oocyst C. Balantidium coli cyst D. Toxoplasma gondii tachyzoites
B
The observation of darkly pigmented colonies on agar as illustrated in this photograph is somewhat of a surprise. The colonies of each of the following bacterial species may have an appearance similar to that seen here EXCEPT: A. Prevotella melaninogenica B. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia C. Chromobacterium violaceum D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B
The trophozoite is the only morphologiv form in the life cycle of: A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Pentatrichomonas hominis C. Chilomastix mesnili D. Retortamonas intestinalis
B
A representative congenital monocyte-macrophage functional disorder is: A. Chediak-Higashi syndrome B. Gaucher's disease C. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency D. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
B
Albumin levels can be a good gauge for chronic protein deficiency. Which of the following terms describes inadequate protein & caloric intake? A. Kwashiorkor B. Marasmus C. Albuminemia D. Hypoproteinism
B
All of the following are usually increased in alpha thalassemia EXCEPT? A. Iron binding capacity B. Percent iron saturation C. Lactate dehydrogenase D. Bilirubin
B
All of the following statements are characteristics of the role of C-reactive protein (CRP) EXCEPT: A. activates complement B. binds w/factor H to initiate alternate complement pathway C. exhibits pro-inflammatory characteristics D. initiates opsonization
B
An electrophoretic separation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme that demonstrates elevation in LD-1 greater than LD-2 could be indicative of: A. A normal LD isoenzyme pattern B. Hemolysis C. Pancreatitis D. Hepatic injury
B
Each of the tests below are appropriately matched w/a chemical responsible for producing a positive result EXCEPT: A. ONPG - beta-galactosidase B. Citrate - alpha naphthol C. Indole production - dimenthylaminobenzaldehyde D. H2S production - sodium thiosulfate
B
How does the lab immunologic assessment of Waldenstom's Primary Macroglobulinemia differ from other monoclonal gammopathies? A. frequently an increase in IgG, possibly an M spike on serum protein electrophoresis B. overproduction of IgM antibodies C. only kappa or lambda monoclonal light chains or Bence-Jones protein seen on serum protein electrophoresis D. characterized by the presence of monoclonal proteins composed of the heavy chain portion of the immunoglobulin molecule
B
ID the species of dimorphic fungi in its yeast form as observed under the microscope (Mariner's wheel). A. Blastomyces dermatitidis B. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis C. Sporothrix schenckii D. Coccidioides immitis
B
Leukocyte-reduced blood products may be administered to reduce the risk of febrile reactions and what disease or condition? A. Graft-vs-host disease B. Cytomegalovirus C. Malaria D. Bacteremia
B
Most disorders assoc w/a primary immunodeficiency are _____ disorders. A. T-cell disorders B. B-cell disorders C. Complement disorders D. Platelet disorders
B
On a patient that has a large amount of glucose in their urine, what would be the expected specific gravity (SG) taken from a refractometer in comparison to the dipstick SG? A. refractometer SG would be lower than dipstick SG B. refractometer SG would be higher than dipstick SG C. dipstick SG would be the same as refractometer SG D. unable to determine
B
An obese adult w/premature arteriosclerosis is seen in the clinic. When her serum is tested no chylomicrons are present, LDL levels are normal, and VLDL levels are increased. There is an increase in triglycerides and slight increase in cholesterol. Lipoprotein electrophoresis reveals a heavy pre-beta band. She has no skin rash and uric acid is increased. This patient most likely has what type of hyperlipoproteinemia? A. I B. III C. IV D. V
C
Nitrates in urine are reduced to nitrites by: A. Gram-positive bacteria B. Acid fast bacteria C. Gram-negative bacteria D. Yeasts
C
The kidneys perform all of the following functions EXCEPT: A. acid-base balance B. hormone production C. reabsorption of waste products D. water & electrolyte balance
C
What is the correct description for Group II discrepancies? A. due to miscellaneous problems B. caused by protein or plasma abnormalities C. due to weakly reacting or missing antigens D. die to weakly reacting or missing antibodies
C
What physiological factor causes sedimentation in the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)? A. elevated levels of immunoglobulins B. increased concentrations of fibrinogen C. rouleaux formation D. tilted tube, varying from the vertical
C
Which of the following cardiac biomarkers rises w/in 1-3 hrs after CP, peaks in 2-6 hrs, and is usually normal w/in 24 hrs? A. TnT B. CK-MB C. Myoglobin D. TnI
C
Which of the following hemoglobins is known to migrate w/HbS during electrophoresis when an alkaline gel, such as cellulose acetate, is used? A. A2 B. C C. D D. F
C
Neisseria species can be traditionally differentiated by their fermentation of sugars. ID the biochemical reaction that goes w/the correct species of Neisseria given. A. N. gonorrheae = glucose +, maltose -, lactose + B. N. lactamica = glucose -, maltose -, lactose - C. N. cinera = glucose +, maltose +, lactose + D. N. meningitidis = glucose +, maltose +, lactose -
D
The American Diabetes Association (ADA) recommends performing routine OGTT: A. on all individuals who are at increased risk for diabetes B. on all children under 5 C. on all pregnant females D. OGTT use is discouraged for routine use
D
What is considered the cause of urticarial transfusion reactions? A. IgA deficient individuals receiving plasma products containing IgA B. IgG or IgM antibody along w/complement C. Tissue damage from the formation of immune complexes D. Transfusion of certain food allergens or drugs in plasma products
D
What is the approximate time that should be allowed for samples to completely clot before centrifugation for serum samples? A. 5 min B. 10 min C. 15 min D. 20 min
D