Chapter 16- Sheep and Goats

what is the average gestation period for sheep? a. 114 days b. 148 days c. 151 days d. 283 days

148 days

the dental formula for sheep and goats is a. 2(I3/3 C1/1 PM4/4 M3/3) b. 2(I0/3 C0/1 PM3/3 M3/3) c. 2(I1/3 C1/1 P1-2/1-2 M3/3) d. 2(I3/3 C0-1/0-1 PM3-4/3-4 M3/3)

2(I0/3 C0/1 PM3/3 M3/3)

If the California Mastitis Test is run on a milk sample from a dairy goat and yields a score of 1 ("suspicious"), this indicates _________ somatic cells per milliliter. a. 10,000,000-plus b. 1,080,000 to 5,850,000 c. 240,000 to 1,440,000 d. 0 to 640,000

240,000 to 1,440,000

at what age do female goats reach puberty? a. 3 months b. 4 to 8 months c. 6 to 9 months d. 7 to 18 months

3 months

Regarding body condition scoring, a goat that exhibits the following would be given a score of __________: Sternal fat, costochondral fat, and rib fat continuous; transverse processes difficult to palpate; spinous processes not palpable. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

4

the normal pulse rate in sheep and goats is a. 28 to 44 bpm b. 40 to 80 bpm c. 60 to 90 bpm d. 70 to 90 bpm

70 to 90 bpm

Which of the following breeds of goat is all white or creamy color and is known for its milk producing ability? a. Angora b. Saanen c. Boer d. Spanish

Saanen

which of the following statements about infertility and the intersex condition encountered in many European breeds of goats is true? a. animals that are heterozygous for the polled gene have normal fertility b. animals with the hh genotype are polled c. males that are homozygous for the polled gene are intersex d. females that are homozygous for the polled gene are intersex but fertile

animals that are heterozygous for the polled gene have normal fertility

all of the following statements about parturition in sheep and goats are false except a. in the ewe, treatment for a retained placenta should be begin 6 hours postpartum b. successful breech births are not possible c. dystocia is common in sheep but uncommon in goats d. stage 1 lasts 1 to 4 hours in goats, but can last up to 12 hours in sheep

dystocia is common in sheep but uncommon in goats

the normal temperature range in sheep and goats is: a. 99 F to 101.5 F b. 100 F to 102.5 F c. 101 F to 103 F d. 101 F to 104 F

101 F to 104 F

in preparation for standing surgery on lambs and kids that have begun consuming solid feedstuffs, food is withheld for _____________ and water is withheld for ________ prior to surgery a. 2 to 4 hours, 1 hour b. 2 to 4 hours, 0 hours c. 6 to 8 hours, 1 hour d. 6 to 8 hours, 0 hours

2 to 4 hours, 0 hours

which of the following statements about Haemonchus contortus infestation is true? a. 20% of the flock harbors 80% of the worms b. it causes muscle lesions c. the Famacha card used in identifying infected animals evaluates the color of the oral mucous membranes d. it affects only goats

20% of the flock harbors 80% of the worms

what is the maximum volume that can be administered subcutaneously in adult sheep and goats? a. 50 mL b. 35 mL c. 20 mL d. 5 mL

50 mL

All of the following statements about the use of local anesthetics in sheep and goats are true except: a. Because sheep and goats have a dual nerve supply to each horn, a cornual nerve block is administered at two sites per horn. b. lidocaine should not be used in concentrations greater than 2% c. the L block is the most common form of local anesthesia used in sheep and goats d. the dose of local anesthetic used for caudal epidural should not exceed 0.5 mL to 1 mL of 2% solution per 50 kg body weight

Because sheep and goats have a dual nerve supply to each horn, a cornual nerve block is administered at two sites per horn.

with regard to drugs used for pain management in animals undergoing surgery, the meat withdrawal time for ____________ is 7 days a. Flunixin meglumine b. Ketoprofen c. Ketamine d. Acetylsalicylic acid

Ketoprofen

which of the following breeds of goats is a dairy breed whose distinguishing characteristic is very small ears? a. Pygmy b. Nubian c. Cashmere d. LaMancha

LaMancha

which of the following breeds of sheep is a fine wool breed? a. Dorset b. Hampshire c. Rambouillet d. Lincoln

Rambouillet

which of the following breeds of sheep is a medium wool breed known for its ability to produce large litters? a. Romney b. Suffolk c. Romanov d. Merino

Romanov

all of the following statements about castration in sheep and goats are true except: a. routine castration of sheep and goats usually takes place in the first week postpartum b. in animals that will be kept as pets, it is better to postpone castration until the animal is 5 to 6 months of age c. adult animals undergoing castration are sedated d. The risk of tetanus following castration with an emasculatome is greater than with an elastrator.

The risk of tetanus following castration with an emasculatome is greater than with an elastrator.

which of the following statements about general anesthesia in sheep and goats is not true? a. in animals weighing less than 150 lb, face mask induction is possible b. oxygen is administered for 1 to 2 minute before anesthetic gas is introduced c. an endotracheal tube with an internal diameter of 3 to 5 mm is the appropriate size for adult small ruminants d. the heart rate for sheep and goats under general anesthesia should be between 80 to 150 bpm

an endotracheal tube with an internal diameter of 3 to 5 mm is the appropriate size for adult small ruminants

which of the following statements is not true? a. castration of a goat will reduce "buck odor" and eliminate the self-urination behavior b. meningitis is a possible consequence of dehorning goats with heat cautery c. in the US, dairy goats cannot be registered if they have horns d. improperly performed tail docking in sheep can lead to rectal prolapse

castration of a goat will reduce "buck odor" and eliminate the self-urination behavior

which of the following statements regarding a sick neonatal lamb or kid is not true? a. clinical signs of hypothermia begin at a rectal temperature less than 100 F b. hypoglycemia is a common cause of weakness in the neonate c. starvation is among the primary causes of neonatal death d. depression is among the most common clinical signs of illness in the neonate

clinical signs of hypothermia begin at a rectal temperature less than 100 F

which of the following statements regarding adequacy of passive transfer of antibodies is not true? a. lambs and kids should consume 10% to 15% of their body weight in colostrum in the first 24 hours postpartum b. when bottle feeding is necessary, lambs can be given goat colostrum c. when bottle feeding is necessary, lambs can be given cow colostrum d. commercial colostrum substitutes are high in immunoglobulins

commercial colostrum substitutes are high in immunoglobulins

which of the following statements about parturition in sheep and goats is true? a. in goats, twins and triplets are more common than singleton births b. crutching is the shearing of wool from around the eyes of sheep when parturition is impending c. ewes typically hide their offspring after they are born d. does often are housed in "jugs" when clinical signs of impending parturition are seen

in goats, twins and triplets are more common than singleton births

serum blood chemistry levels for creatinine will ________ with kidney disease, and serum creatinine kinase levels will ________ with muscle damage a. increase, decrease b. increase, increase c. decrease, increase d. decrease decrease

increase, increase

which of the following statements about urine collection is not true? a. female sheep can be stimulated to urinate by holding their nostrils and mouth shut b. male goats tend to urinate less frequently during breeding season c. goats often urinate upon standing after spending time in recumbency d. placing a goat in a new stall or pen can encourage urination

male goats tend to urinate less frequently during breeding season

which of the following statements about venous blood sampling is true? a. the cephalic vein of the hindlimb can be used in both sheep and goats b. the femoral vein of the forelimb can be used only in sheep c. in sheep, the femoral vein can be accessed in the "set-up" rump position d. the jugular vein is used most often in sheep and goats

the jugular vein is used most often in sheep and goats

which of the following statements about intramuscular injection sites is true? a. the lingissimus muscle is the most common site for IM injection in sheep and goats b. the gluteal region in sheep and goats is well muscled and often used for IM injection c. the lateral cervical muscles are not used for IM injection in show goats d. when using the gluteal muscles for IM injection, a needle at least 2 inches long must be used

the lateral cervical muscles are not used for IM injection in show goats

Which of the following statements about artificial insemination in sheep and goats is NOT true? a. semen may be deposited in the vagina, cervix, or uterus b. transcervical insemination in the ewe is the easiest route. c. insemination is most commonly performed 12 hours after estrus detection d. the further that semen is deposited into the reproductive tract, the higher the conception rate

transcervical insemination in the ewe is the easiest route.