Combo Exam Prep

the steps in developing systemic lupus erythematosus

1. a combination of genetics, environmental exposures, and hormones leads to an immune system anomaly 2. the immune system mistakenly attacks the lining of small and medium sized blood vessels 3. associated damage includes pleurisy, renal failure, arthritis, and several other complications, including blood clotting 4. when inflammation and blood clots affect the brain, the result can be a TIA or stroke 5. flares are usually treated with steroidal anti-inflammatories

these are the steps in developing right-side heart failure

1. emphysema reduces the capillary supply to the lungs 2. pressure in the pulmonary arteries increases b/c there are fewer capillaries to distribute the same blood 3. the right ventricle must work harder than normal to overcome pressure in the pulmonary arteries 4. the right ventricle enlarges, but cannot push enough blood to the lungs 5. fluid backs up through the venous system to the legs or abdomen

What is the CPR cycle and rate?

30 compressions and 2 breaths. Rationale: The CPR cycle and rate are 30 compressions and 2 breaths with 30 compressions in about 18 seconds, about 100 compressions per minute. The old compression rate was 15/2 but now across the board for laymen it is 30/2 for adults, youth, and infant.

How many curvatures are there in the spine?

4. Cervical, thorasic, lumbar, and sacral.

when a healthy person is at rest, he invests ____ of his energy in the act of respiration

5% of energy used to breathe

How many bones make up the tarsus?

7. Rationale: The tarsus consists of seven bones; talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, and the three cuneiform bones.

Name the sections of the gastrointestinal tract, listing at least four structures in correct order

? esophagus, stomach, spleen, pancreas, liver, gallbladder, common bile duct, small intestine, large intestine

Define Pro Bono

A Latin phrase meaning; work done without compensation for the public good.

Define SAVI

A System for Analyzing Verbal Interaction developed by Anita Simon and Yvonne Agazarian. The distinctive features of the SAVI approach are; a focus on behavior, attention to both words and tone, a nonjudgmental approach, a pragmatic analysis, and practical strategies.

Define SAVI

A System for Analyzing Verbal Interaction was developed by Anita Simon and Yvonne Agazarian. The distinctive features of the SAVI approach are; A focus on behavior, attention to both words and tone, a nonjudgmental approach, a pragmatic analysis, and practical strategies.

simple definition of accupressure

A TCM working with meridian points

What is the best way to test a client's range of motion on a strain with no inflammation or acute pain that was sustained to the right shoulder last month?

A bilateral visual assessment of all shoulder movements. Rationale: Asking the client to stop the action if pain starts, assess what muscles need to be worked by visually / bilaterally testing shoulder movement, to ascertain bilateral asymmetry, weakness, pain, fatigue, binding, a heavy sensation, and the inability to assume the isolation position (10-30 sec.) or move into the opposite position. Contraindications to these tests are disk or joint dysfunctions, recent trauma, inflammation, and acute pain.

Assertion Sequence

A communication process designed to minimize misunderstandings in boundary discussions and to help in skillful responses to any challenge. It consists of four stages of increasingly forceful conversations.

Define Assertion Sequence

A communication process designed to minimize misunderstandings in boundary discussions and to help in skillful responses to any challenge. It consists of four stages of increasingly forceful conversations.

Define Fraud

A criminal act of intentional deception by false representation of a matter of fact, made for personal gain or to damage another individual.

Define Projection

A defense mechanism in which a person unconsciously rejects his or her own unacceptable attributes, thoughts, or feelings by ascribing them to objects or other people.

Define Repression

A defense mechanism in which feelings or memories that are too painful to bear are blocked from conscious awareness.

Define Denial

A defense mechanism that involves active refusal to recognize or acknowledge the full implications of an unpleasant reality.

Define Dissociate

A defense mechanism that separates ideas, feelings, information, identity, or memories that normally go together. it involves a detachment from reality.

Define protocol

A detailed plan of a therapeutic treatment or procedure.

circadian rhythm disruption

A disruption of the biological 24-hour cycles that occur within the body

Define Fair Use

A doctrine that allows limited reproduction of copyrighted works for educational and research purposes.

Define Reiki

A form of energy healing. Reiki involves gentle touch that directs chi (Qi or Ki) for the purpose of strengthening the client's energy system. Qi or chi (in China) and Ki (in Japan) is the term used by Traditional Chinese Medicine (TCM) or Complementary Alternative Medicine (CAM) practitioners meaning universal life force energy.

Define coaching

A group or individual process that helps participants set and reach goals.

Define Diagnosis

A labeling of signs and symptoms by a licensed medical professional.

Define Partnership

A legal relationship between two or more persons in which each agrees to furnish a part of the capital and labor for a business enterprise, and by which each shares a fixed proportion of profits and losses.

Define Feldenkrais Method

A movement therapy that seeks to re-educate the body and mind through movements that tap into the nervous system's own innate processes to change and refine functioning.

What is the meaning of the word Survivor?

A person who perseveres despite hardships or trauma

polyuria happens in people with this

A person with diabetes mellitus may become very thirsty as a result of this. Frequent urination in attempt to rid the body of excess sugars makes a person very thirsty.

What is the meaning of the term Learning Styles?

A person's preferred method to take in information. The three most common are visual, auditory, and kinesthetic

Arousal

A physiological and psychological state of being awake, reactive to stimuli, or ready for activity. It involves the brain stem, the autonomic nervous system, and the endocrine system.

Define arousal

A physiological and psychological state of being awake, reactive to stimuli, or ready for activity. It involves the brain stem, the autonomic nervous system, and the endocrine system.

define Case Management

A process implemented to properly manage the quality and outcome of patient care when working with multiple practitioners.

fibrin

A protein that aids in blood clotting

Define Burnout

A psychological term that refers to long-term physical or emotional exhaustion.

define Alexander Technique

A re-education of the mind and body that intends to change movement habits in everyday activities. It aims to release tension and improve ease and freedom of movement, balance, support, and coordination.

Define Professional Therapeutic Relationship

A relationship between client and practitioner that is focused on the well-being of the client and is contractual.

Define Trauma

A serious injury or shock to the body, as from violence or an accident. An emotional wound or shock that creates substantial, lasting harm. An injury, wound, or shock; usually produced by external forces.

Altered State

A state of consciousness in which we are more deeply relaxed, less aware of our thinking minds, and more open and vulnerable than we are in our day-to-day functioning.

Define altered state

A state of consciousness in which we are more deeply relaxed, less aware of our thinking minds, and more open and vulnerable than we are in our day-to-day functioning.

What is the meaning of the word Hyperarousal?

A state of constant alertness to danger experienced by survivors of trauma. It is also described as a chronic state of fight or flight

Define Hyperarousal

A state of constant alertness to danger experienced by the survivor of trauma. It is also described as a chronic state of fight or flight.

Conflict

A state of disharmony between incompatible or antithetical (directly opposed or contrasted) persons, ideas, or interests; a clash or mutually incompatible.

Define Conflict

A state of disharmony between incompatible or antithetical (directly opposed or contrasted) persons, ideas, or interests; a clash or mutually incompatible.

Define Policy

A statement of intent that defines expectations and is implemented as a procedure or protocol.

What is the meaning of the word Policy?

A statement of intent that defines expectations and is implemented as a procedure or protocol.

Define Assessment

A systematic method or approach to gathering information about a client's condition and symptoms.

Define assessment

A systematic method or approach to gathering information about a client's condition and symptoms.

Define Complex Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (CPTSD)

A term for those subjected to prolonged, repeated trauma.

define Sex

A term relating to gender, biology, reproduction, and sexual activity.

Of the following groups of muscles choose the group that ABducts and ADducts the scapula?

ABduct: serratus anterior and pectoralis minor, ADduct: rhomboid major and minor. Rationale: The two scapula ABductors: Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor. The three scapula ADductors: Trapezius (middle), rhomboid major and minor.

The superficial pectoralis major is divided into three sections; clavicular, sternal, and costal fibers. This muscle also is an antagonist to itself with its upper and lower fibers. What are the actions of all the fibers?

ADduction, medial rotation of the glenohumeral joint, and assist in elevation of the thorax with forced inhalation Rationale: The pectoralis major has clavicular, sternal, and costal fibers. These three sections work together to ADduct, medially rotate (the glenohumeral joint), and assist in elevation of the thorax with forced inhalation. The upper fibers flex and horizontally ADduct the glenohumeral joint. The lower fibers extend the glenohumeral joint, making this muscle an antagonist to itself.

excoriation disorder

AKA skin picking disorder

Amy suffers from Sinusitis and has tried all her usual tricks to get rid of the pressure, but it still persists. What treatment modality can be used to relieve her sinus pressure?

Accupressure

Juleen has been a 911 dispatcher for 15 years. She is constantly on the computer. Her doctor diagnosed her with tendonitis in both elbows. She was referred to massage after Physical Therapy was unable to completely relieve the symptoms. Which of the following treatments would help activate the body's natural healing abilities in order to gain symptom relief?

Accupressure

Ralph has been taking medication for Vertigo for the past month. In the beginning of taking the prescription treatment he was experiencing symptom relief. Now Ralph feels that the medication is no longer effective. He is working with his Doctor to change the prescription, but has been struggling at work with the symptoms and no longer has sick leave. What treatment modality could you administer to help Ralph gain relief from his Vertigo symptoms?

Accupressure

Two weeks ago Mary was in a car accident. It was a driver side, head-on collision. She is still very sore and is seeking additional relief from her Whiplash symptoms. Mary is having trouble sleeping because of the pain and resorted to taking an Oxycodone four nights ago. Mary has been diligent in icing and sometimes uses the heat/ice contrast as well. She asked for the massage to be gentle, mostly relaxing, with the focus on pain relief in her neck. Of the following treatments, which is best for stimulating the body's natural healing abilities for relief from Whiplash symptoms?

Accupressure

What is the name of the highest ridge on the superior and lateral end of the scapula?

Acromion process is the highest ridge that is lateral and superior at the end of the scapula. It serves as an attachment site for the trapezius and deltoid muscles. A fossa is a hollow or depressed area on a bone. The Subscapular fossa is the shollow depression on the anterior scapula where the Subscapularis originates. The scapular or suprascapular notch is the area where the brachial plexus passes through the superior boarder of the scapula. It is anterior and medial at the base of the coracoid process. The Coracoid process is the attachment site for the pectoralis minor tendon, coracobrachialis, short head of the biceps brachii tendon, coracoacromial ligament, and the coracoclavicular ligaments.

A client has been training for the Ironman triathlon, it is a month and a half away. She has been swimming her whole life so the 2.4 mile swim is not a problem. The goal to be proficient in the 112 mile bike ride and the 26.2 mile run was almost obtained. Six mornings ago during a run, she felt a painful pulling in her left Achilles tendon area. She didn't want to ruin the chance to compete in the triathlon, so she walked home and iced the area right away. She can walk with low pain and swim just fine, but if she cycles or runs she can feel that painful pull. Of the following treatments, which would be the best application to achieve greater flexibility, range of motion, and to help relieve your client's painful pull?

Active Isolated stretching. (AIS), also known as the Mattes Method, is a modality used to provide effective stretching of major muscle groups. A type of athletic stretching method used to lengthen muscles and release the fascia, it restores physiological traits by increasing the function of the superficial and deep fascial layers. To avoid reflexive contractions by the antagonistic muscle group, the stretch is repeated no more than 8-10 times. The stretch past the client's endfield should be no longer than 2.0 seconds with no more than one pound of pressure. The muscle must return to full relaxation or neutral after each stretch. MFR or Myofascial Release techniques include; Direct: Trigger Point (TP), Rolfing, and Structural Integration. Indirect: Active Isolated Stretching. Acupressure: A TCM working with meridian points. Alexander Technique: Postural Education. Aston-Patterning: Includes massage, movement education, fitness training, postural evaluation, and environmental modifications.

Before treatment and a recommendation of a self-care program, consult the client on all aspects of the condition and the desired outcome. With early stages of a joint injury, which of the following remedial exercises are appropriate?

Active resisted isometric. Rationale: Early stages of joint healing: Active resisted isometric (strengthening using a submaximal contraction, because the muscle is not changing length, the active resisted isometric strengthening will not stress the healing tissue), Passive relaxed ROM (only performed on the distal and proximal joints, not on the primary joint in acute stages), and Active free ROM (pain-free range to maintain joint range and some muscle strength).

According to F/C or Foreman and Croft Classification on Whiplash, there are four phases to the injury. The first stage includes

Acute injury, inflammation phase, up to the first 72 hours post-accident.

Foreman and Croft Classification (F/C): Stage 1

Acute injury, inflammation phase, up to the first 72 hours post-accident.

What is a Massage Therapy consideration for treatment work on a client whose medication (Rx) is Migranal

Adjust temperature needs and create a calming environment. Brand name; Migranal. Generic name; Dihydroergotamine mesylate. Classified as a Cranial vasoconstrictor. It reduces symptoms of migraine and cluster headaches in the treatment of Migraine headache. It works by narrowing the blood vessels in the brain. Clients who take Migranal may experience anxiety, sweating, abdominal pain, nausea, or vomiting. It is best to adjust temperature needs, and create a calming environment.

Of physiological effects, which is a reflexive effect for Swedish gymnastics?

Affects proprioception. Rationale: Swedish gymnastics mechanical effects: stretches muscles, increases circulation and nutrition to joints (active), increases waste removal (active), decreases adhesions, and increases ROM and flexibility. Reflexive effects: stimulates the nervous system, increases blood pressure, increases body temperature, and affects proprioception (body awareness).

What percentage of the air we breathe, is made up of oxygen?

Air that we breathe in, has approximately 21% oxygen, while the air that we exhale has about 16% oxygen.

What hormones from the endocrine system influence the cardiovascular system?

All of these: ANP and ADH; Thyroxine; Epinephrine. Rationale: Epinephrine, ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide), ADH (antidiuretic hormone) and Thyroxine all influence blood pressure.

If a client's medication (Rx) or pathology side-effects or symptoms include gas, heartburn, and indigestion, what can you do to help relieve pain and reduce discomfort during treatment?

Alter the position of the client for gastric distress. Rationale: The client will know and tell you what they can and can't handle. A supine position with elevated head and torso may be requested. Being flexible with adjusting to the client's needs will enhance the client's comfort for a more effective treatment.

define amma

Am-ma (Japanese) means Push-Pull. It is derived from the Chinese word, ANma, for massage. It combines deep tissue (pressure, friction, & touch) to specific points along the meridians to balance the movement of energy within the body to restore, promote, and maintain optimum health. The nervous, circulatory, lymphatic, and respiratory systems are effected, allowing your body to function productively. Amma Therapists rely primarily upon the sensitivity and strength of their hands. Sessions are usually 45 to 90 minutes long with a health intake interview and assessment that also may include exercise recommendations, holistic nutrition, vitamin supplements, or herbal formulas. Asian approaches focus on eliciting responses from the nervous and circulatory systems: Amma, Thai massage, Tui-na, Watsu, Shiatsu, Acupressure, Jin Shin, Do-in, Hoshino, and Tibetan Point Holding (not an all-inclusive list).

An increase in the breakdown of _________ indicates an increase in ammonia in the blood.

Amino acids are used to produce ATP, in the production process of ATP, ammonia, which is a toxin to the body, is released. The liver combines it with carbon dioxide to form urea, which is then flushed from the body in urine.

A client, Sarah, has been diagnosed with CFS (Chronic Fatigue Syndrome). She feels relief from her symptoms during massage, but has no lasting relief from her symptoms after massage. Her physician gave her a list of things she could do to concentrate her efforts; healthy diet, decrease in anxiety and depression, and reduction in pain to increase her ability to perform daily activities. Sarah would like to avoid medications and try to gain results through active treatments that promote the body to heal and to relieve the symptoms naturally. What modality can you use that will help optimize her body's inherent abilities to relieve her symptoms?

Amma

Henry has diabetes. His joints are becoming stiff and achy. Which of the modalities listed utilizes specific meridian points that can assist the healing process and promote relief from symptoms?

Amma

Mason has suffered from asthma since the age of 2. He has exhausted all his options of medications with no real relief from his symptoms. He is now turning to bodywork modalities for answers. You have been a massage therapist for two years and have read about a modality that works with the meridian points of the body to gain control or even eliminate the symptoms of asthma. Which of the following treatment modalities works with meridian flow to activate the body's ability to naturally heal?

Amma

Asian approaches focus on eliciting responses from the nervous and circulatory systems:

Amma, Thai massage, Tui-na, Watsu, Shiatsu, Acupressure, Jin Shin, Do-in, Hoshino, and Tibetan Point Holding (not an all-inclusive list)

Define Prejudice

An adverse, preconceived judgment or opinion formed without sufficient knowledge or examination of the facts. It is usually not based on reason or actual experience.

What is the meaning of the word Hypervigilance?

An enhanced state of sensory sensitivity accompanied by an exaggerated intensity of behaviors or an overfocused narrowing of attention onto one idea, one part of the body, or a particular sensation or feeling. This is usually accompanied by increased anxiety

Define Trigger

An experience that sets off a traumatic memory in someone who has experienced trauma. The trigger itself may not be traumatic, including things such as a person, place, sound, image, smell, body position, or vocal tone.

Define trigger

An experience that sets off a traumatic memory in someone who has experienced trauma. The trigger itself may not be traumatic, including things such as a person, place, sound, image, smell, body position, or vocal tone.

Mechanical pressure of massage techniques on the veins and lymphatics creates

An increases in circulation. Rationale: Mechanical centripetal pressure of techniques increase venous return and can mechanically empty venous beds, lower venous pressure, and increase capillary flow.

Define self-esteem

An overall emotional evaluation of one's own worth.

What is another word for rubbing toward the heart?

Anatripsis is another word for rubbing toward the heart.

A wound is a disruption of the continuity of the skin, which type of wound is often a combination of a crush, laceration, and puncture?

Animal bite

Which of the following terms means the same thing as ventral?

Anterior and ventral both mean toward the front of the body.

The repetitive hip flexor bursitis can be assessed on what section of the proximal thigh?

Anterior. Located between the iliopsoas and iliofemoral ligament. Iliopectineal bursa pain is in the anterior hip and the pressure on the femoral nerve can cause the pain to radiate down the anterior leg. Ischial is posterior and trochanter lateral. BursITIS= inflammation of the bursa. Caused by overuse of the structures surrounding the bursa. Bursa's reduce friction normally between tendons and bones, the only way to palpate a bursa if it is inflamed.

Which group of muscles is in charge of the pelvis tilt anteriorly and posteriorly?

Anterior: latissimus dorsi, Posterior: biceps femoris and psoas minor.

Define Protected Health Information (PHI)

Any information about health status, provision of health care, or payment for health care that can be linked to a specific individual. This is interpreted rather broadly and includes any part of a patient's medical record or payment history. Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule.

Define Noise

Anything that dampens or obscures the true meaning of a message. Interference of the transfer of information.

What is the correct pathway for the renal blood vessels?

Aorta, renal artery, afferent arteriole, glomerulus capillaries, efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, renal vein, and inferior vena cava. Rationale: The complete summary of the renal blood vessel pathway; Aorta, renal, segmental, lobar, interlobar, arcuate interlobular arteries, afferent arteriole, glomerulus capillaries, efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, interlobular, arcuate, interlobar, renal veins, and the inferior vena cava. A before I (aorta, inferior vena cava), A before V (artery, vein), A before E (afferent, efferent). The kidneys continuously cleanse the blood and adjust its composition.

Choose the ligament in the cervical spine that limits excessive lateral flexion?

Apical ligament. Rationale: Apical ligament arises from the C1 apex on the dens to the anterior rim of the foramen magnum of the occiput. It limits excessive lateral flexion, part of the Occipitoaxial ligament complex. * Occipitoaxial Ligament * Alar Ligaments (2) * Apical Ligament

The appendicular skeleton is comprised of the:

Arms, legs, scapula, clavicle and pelvic girdle. Rationale: The axial is the cranium, vertebral column, ribs, sternum, and hyoid bone. The appendicular is all the bones in the extremities arms, legs, scapula, clavicle, and pelvic girdle.

The appendicular skeleton is comprised of the

Arms, legs, scapula, clavicle and pelvic girdle. Rationale: The axial is the cranium, vertebral column, ribs, sternum, and hyoid bone. The appendicular is all the bones in the extremities arms, legs, scapula, clavicle, and pelvic girdle. Pectoral girdle= scapula and clavicle. Pelvic girdle= hips.

Lucy, a family friend, has been suffering from panic attacks. She feels the medication she is taking has stopped being effective. Lucy read that she could have a portable inhaler with all organic components to help her when she feels an attack coming on. Which therapy does this describe?

Aromatherapy

Brian is a 45-year-old architect. His physician informed him that his neck, shoulder, elbow, wrist, and finger pain is due to poor posture. He was given the options of having surgery or trying to correct his alignment by other means. Brian does not want surgery. He would like to find an alternative method to alleviate his pain. Which of the following modalities will give Brian the movement education, fitness training, and bodywork needed to fulfill his "no surgery" requirement?

Aston-Patterning

A client expresses a desire to learn more about correcting and maintaining his posture. A therapist you trade with just recieved certification in a modality that can educate and assess your client for better ways to move in all aspects of life. This modality will enable your client to improve and maintain quality of life through proper use and alignment of his body. What is the name of this modality?

Aston-Patterning is a treatment system that can transform the quality of life for you and your client. A session should take into consideration your client's unique patterns, specific goals, needs, and interests. Sessions may include massage, movement education, fitness training, postural evaluation, and environmental modifications (i.e. workstations). There are five-steps: History, pretesting (walking, standing, sitting, bending, lifting, and reaching), movement education, bodywork (massage, Myo-kinetics, and Artho-kinetics), and ergonomics.

Define Active Isolated Stretching

Athletic stretching method used to lengthen muscles and release the fascia.

describe Active isolated stretching

Athletic stretching method used to lengthen muscles and release the fascia.

Flow of blood thru Arteries is (directionally)

Away from the heart

cells affected and early signs of lymphoma

B cells, T cells natural killer cells, in lymph nodes or spleen; and painless enlargement of lymph nodes, especially at the jaw, axilla, and groin

These two muscles cross both the glenohumeral and humeroulnar joints?

Biceps brachii and triceps brachii. Rationale: Actions of flexion and extension for both the glenohumeral and humeroulnar joints are performed by the biceps brachii and the triceps brachii.

What muscle does not originate at the humerus?

Biceps brachii originates from two heads, the short head off the scapula's coracoid process and the long head off the scapula's supraglenoid tubercle.

If your client has a moderate posterior pelvic tilt what three muscles would be shortened?

Biceps femoris, gluteus maximus and semitendinosus. Posterior pelvic tilt (upward rotation)= short extensors an long flexors. ASIS pulled superior.

If your client has a moderate anterior pelvic tilt what three muscles would be lengthened?

Biceps femoris, gluteus maximus and semitendinosus. Rationale: Anterior pelvic tilt (downward rotation)= short flexors and long extensors. ASIS (Anterior Superior Iliac Spine) pulled inferior.

The hamstring muscles from lateral to medial are?

Biceps femoris, semitendenosus, and semimembranosus. Rationale: The head of the fibula on the lateral side is the insertion for biceps femoris, the semitendenosus lies superficial to the wider and deeper semimembranosus.

What group of muscles is in charge of posterior tilt or upward rotation of the pelvis?

Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus and psoas minor.

A client complains of pain in their ribs on the right side whenever they rotate to the left. They have well defined abdominal muscles and your PA shows a moderate posterior pelvic tilt, what muscle would be shortened?

Bilateral biceps femoris. The posterior pelvic tilt shortens the posterior thigh and abdominal muscles. Lengthening the anterior thigh and muscles associated with cervical spin. The external obliques are opposite side rotators and the internal obliques rotate to the same side. The shortened abdominal muscles also increase the thoracic kyphotic curve, lengthening the rhomboids and trapezius and shortening pectoralis major and minor.

During a visual assessment, what can be determined?

Bilateral symmetry and muscle deviations. Rationale: Effective assessments identify both deviations from the norm and effective functioning, using Visual, Functional, Palpation, and Manual tests as tools. Visual assessment: Looks for bilateral symmetry and muscle deviations. Functional assessment is performed to determine restricted, exaggerated, painful movement patterns. Palpation is used to identify changes in tissue texture and temperature, locate areas of tenderness, or energy changes. Manual tests are used to determine what structure is involved, soft tissue, joint dysfunction, or muscle function.

The trapezius has lower, middle, and upper fibers. The angle of the fibers tell what actions they are capable of. What fiber section is in charge of extending the head and neck?

Bilateral upper fibers. Rationale: The trapezius upper fibers have actions that are bilateral and unilateral. The only action the upper fibers do together is to extend the head and neck. The unilateral fibers (RULE) Rotate head and neck to opposite side, Upwardly rotate the scapula, Laterally flex the head and neck to the same side, and Elevate the scapula. Just remember that Rotation is to the opposite side and Lateral flexion is to the same side. The middle fibers only move the scapulothoracic joint in ADduction and they help to stabilize the joint. The lower fibers depress and upwardly rotate the scapula.

Hematopoiesis is defined as?

Blood cell formation. Rationale: Hemato=blood, poiesis= to make. Hematopoiesis is blood cell formation, occurs in the red bone marrow found mainly in flat bones; ribs, skull, pelvis, sternum and the epiphyses on the proximal ends of the humerus and femur.

What is the proper stance for giving a massage?

Body properly aligned with knees bent, shifting body weight with flow of strokes. Rationale: Having the body properly aligned with knees bent, shifting body weight with the flow of strokes, relaxing shoulders, and dropping elbows. Using proper body mechanics will help prevent injury to the therapist.

Wolfe's Law

Bone remodels in response to stress

Where would you palpate to find the tendon sheath responsible for DeQuervain's tenosynovitis?

Both the ABductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons. Rationale: Repetitive thumb use, ulnar/radial deviation and gripping that is forceful lead to this condition. Tenosynovitis (inner surface) and tenovaginitis (outer surface) are other names given to paratendinitis: inflammation of the paratendon or tendon sheath. DeQuervain's is the inflammation of the inner surface of the ABductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendon sheaths. Pain is felt one centimetre proximal to the radial styloid process.

Cross-Fiber Friction (Mechanical Effects)

Broadens and stretches muscle tissue, temporary ischemia, decrease in fascia adhesion, increase in muscle extensibility, and breaks up and reforms scar tissue

whiplash is known as

CAD or cervical acceleration deceleration

Which term would best describe the gluteal muscles in reference to the spine in anatomical body directions?

Caudal refers to the sacral region of the spinal column.

The inNervation for the levator scapulae

Cervical C3, 4 and dorsal scapular C5. Rationale: The inNervation for the levator scapulae occurs at Cervical C3, 4 and dorsal scapular C5 and originates at the transverse processes of C1 to C4.

Acetylcholine

Cholinergic neurotransmitter that conveys motor commands from the cns to the muscles

Foreman and Croft Classification (F/C): Stage 4

Chronic or permanent.

Deeper, more vigorous cross-fiber frictions are required to break down collagen fibers in this stage of healing?

Chronic. Rationale: Lymphatic drainage is used in acute and early sub-acute stages to remove excess fibrin that leads to adhesions. Late sub-acute is the best time to safely use cross-fiber friction while the collagen fibers are weaker and break more easily. Chronic stages require deeper, more vigorous frictions to break down collagen fibers making for longer, more painful treatments.

Accuracy of assessment testing is assisted by

Clear instructions to the client before the test. Rationale: Accuracy of assessment testing is assisted by clear instructions to the client before the test, accurately isolating the structure to be assessed, strong knowledge of anatomy, the position of the therapist (keep body mechanics), do not repeat the test too many times, and be consistent in client's position when testing for consistency. Movements are slow, careful not to activate protective muscle spasms.

In order to locate the insertion site for the temporalis, what is the best action to have your client perform?

Clench and relax your jaw. Rationale: With your fingers about an inch superior to the zygomatic arch, have your client contract and relax their jaw. You will feel the temporalis contracting.

Define Laws

Codified rules of conduct set forth by a society, generally based on shared ethical or moral principles.

This is your first time giving a massage to a relative who badly needs one, only they continue to talk about anything and everything. You start to feel uncomfortable, what should you do?

Communicate to them that you feel uncomfortable and wish to give a beneficial massage, please take a deep breath, relax, and enjoy. Rationale: Communicate to your relative that you feel uncomfortable or uneasy with these sensitive subjects and wish to give her a beneficial massage. Ask them to take a deep breath, relax, and enjoy the massage with peace and comfort.

What is the meaning of the term Passive Language?

Communicates a lack of self-confidence or self-esteem. The tone of voice may be whiny, hesitant, or self-deprecating. Passive statements are generally ambiguous, failing to clearly specify what the practitioner wants or expects to have happen and what the consequences will be if the client does not comply

Assertive Language

Communicates clearly with minimal emotional content. The voice tone is neutral, not a monotone, but a natural intonation free from hostility, whining, hesitation, and anything else that might potentially distract or upset the person who's listening.

Aggressive Language

Communicates undertones of anger through words, voice tone, or both.

Define Aggressive Language

Communicates undertones of anger through words, voice tone, or both.

list some conditions of the CNS

Communication skills, ambulation aids, decubitus ulcers, seizures, hemiplegia, multiple sclerosis, Parkinsons, cerebral palsy, spinal cord injury, and poliomyelitis. If the lesion is on the right side of the brain, the left side of the body will be paralyzed.

Of the physiological effects, which is a mechanical effect for deep effleurage?

Compresses and stretches fascia

Hemiplegia is a non-progressive condition of paralysis on one side of the body caused by a brain lesion and is termed a

Condition of the CNS. Rationale: Conditions of the Central Nervous Systems (CNS): Communication skills, ambulation aids, decubitus ulcers, seizures, hemiplegia, multiple sclerosis, Parkinsons, cerebral palsy, spinal cord injury, and poliomyelitis. If the lesion is on the right side of the brain, the left side of the body will be paralyzed.

The Antipsychotic, antiemetic, and anxiolytic drug Compazine relieves signs and symptoms of psychosis, reduces anxiety, and relieves nausea. What are some common side effects?

Constipation and dry mouth. Rationale: Brand name; Compazine. Generic name; Prochlorperazine. Classified as an Antipsychotic, Antiemetic, and anxiolytic. It relieves signs and symptoms of psychosis, reduces anxiety, and relieves nausea and vomiting. It is used for treatment of Migraine headache, and headaches. It works by changing the actions of chemicals in your brain. Clients who take Compazine may experience constipation and dry mouth. It is best to offer water. Abdominal massage may help with constipation.

Which of the following choices would the sympathetic nervous system control?

Constriction of blood vessels and increased blood pressure are results of stimulus to the sympathetic nervous system. Slowing down the heart and respiratory rate would come from stimulation of the parasympathetic.

If your client's medication (Rx) or pathology side-effects and symptoms reduces his/her blood's ability to clot, what must you do to ensure your client's safety?

Consult physician before treatment, avoid deep treatment work, and ask if they have any cardiac implants. Rationale: Consult the client's physician before treatment or obtain a prescription. Avoid deep treatment work which dilates the blood vessels and promotes an increase in blood flow to the muscles that may cause bruising. Ask if they have any cardiac implants and make necessary adjustments to the treatment and positions when needed.

What are the four traits of muscle tissue?

Contractility, extensibility, elasticity, and irritability.

What ligament helps to protect the rotator cuff tendons from direct trauma?

Coracoacromial ligament. Rationale: The coracoacromial ligament attaches the coracoid process and acromion of the scapula. This ligament creates an archway for the rotator cuff tendons and the subacromial bursa to be protected from direct trauma. It is accessible deep in the deltoid muscle.

Where does the inNervation for the trapezius occur?

Cranial nerve XI and spinal accessory/branches of C3, 4. The inNervation for the trapezius occurs at the Cranial nerve XI and spinal accessory/branches of C3, 4.

When working with acute bursitis, the therapist should avoid techniques that

Create drag on the surrounding tissue; Work directly on-site; & Compress on the bursa and the surrounding tissue. Rationale: It is contraindicated to work deep on and around the inflamed bursa. If it is the acute stage utilize cold hydro, chronic hot hydro. Use GTO and O/I techniques on the distal muscle attachments, working towards the bursa refraining from creating drag or compression of the bursa.

Increasing circulation is a reflexive effect of what type of treatment technique?

Cross fiber friction

Broadening and stretching muscle tissue is a mechanical effect of what type of treatment technique?

Cross-fiber friction

Increasing muscle extensibility is a mechanical effect of what type of treatment technique?

Cross-fiber friction mechanical effects: broadens and stretches muscle tissue, temporary ischemia, decrease in fascial adhesions, increase in muscle extensibility, and breaks up and reforms scar tissue. Reflexive effects: hyperemia (secondary to ischemia), relaxes muscles and decreases hypertonicity (by the nervous system or if done on a tendon, golgi tendon organ), and increases circulation.

Temporary ischemia is a mechanical effect of what type of treatment technique?

Cross-fiber friction mechanical effects: broadens and stretches muscle tissue, temporary ischemia, decrease in fascial adhesions, increase in muscle extensibility, and breaks up and reforms scar tissue. Reflexive effects: hyperemia (secondary to ischemia), relaxes muscles and decreases hypertonicity (by the nervous system or if done on a tendon, golgi tendon organ), and increases circulation.

Of the following physiological effects of linear or circular friction, which is mechanical?

Decrease in fascial adhesions. Rationale: Linear or circular friction mechanical effects: broadens and stretches muscle tissue, temporary ischemia, decrease in fascial adhesions, and increase muscle extensibility. Reflexive effects: hyperemia (secondary to ischemia), relaxes muscles, decreases hypertonicity (by the nervous system or if done on a tendon, golgi tendon organ), and increases circulation.

Increasing peripheral circulation is a reflexive effect of what type of treatment technique?

Deep effleurage

If a client's medication (Rx) is a skeletal muscle relaxant, or used to decrease muscle spasms, what should you avoid?

Deep tissue treatments work by exciting the tissue/fascia and increasing the blood and lymph flow to help with the muscle's hypertonic state in reducing tension. If a client is on a muscle relaxant, their muscles do not react normally (properly) to deep tissue treatments. The therapist may increase injury if protective spasms on a new injury (acting as a splint) are removed. Use other means to relax tissue and reduce recovery time. It is better to work on peripheral muscles especially the antagonists or synergists to reduce the pain cycle without increasing damage. Direct manual manipulation may increase the pain and damage tissue further. The main factors for treatment considerations are if the client's injury is in the Acute or Chronic stage.

Except for the hard enamel covering, teeth are composed mostly of _______?

Dentin. Rationale: Teeth are mostly composed of dentin that is deep to the enamel.

Of the following physiological effects, which is a mechanical effect for deep effleurage?

Desquamation of dead skin cells.

Of the physiological effects, which is a mechanical effect for deep effleurage?

Desquamation of dead skin cells. Rationale: Deep effleurage mechanical effects: stretches veins and lymph vessels, + venous and lymph flow, + waste removal (lymph), moves nutrients through vessels, compresses and stretches fascia, warms superficial tissue and fascia, desquamation of dead skin cells. Reflexive effects: + parasympathetic NS response, - sympathetic NS response, + vasodilation, - heart rate, - blood pressure, slows breathing rate, generally relaxes muscles, + capillary space, - edema and - pain (gate theory), dilation lasts longer, deeper muscle relaxation, releases endorphins, + skin metabolism and + peripheral circulation.

-lysis, -lyso

Destruction

In acute and subacute stages of frozen shoulder the best way to reduce pain during a massage is to perform

Diaphragmatic breathing decreases sympathetic firing reducing pain. Sympathetic nervous system is fight-or-fight and Parasympathetic is rest-and-digest. Passive stretches and Active inhibition techniques are used to improve range of motion, Cross-fiber friction is for reducing adhesions not pain.

Dysarthria

Difficulty forming words

Temporary ischemia is a mechanical effect of what type of treatment technique?

Direct pressure friction

Relaxing the muscles and decreasing hypertonicity (HT) is a reflexive effect of what type of treatment technique?

Direct pressure friction mechanical effects: compresses and spreads tissue and temporary ischemia. Reflexive effects: hyperemia (secondary to ischemia), relaxes muscles and decreases hypertonicity (through the NS or golgi tendon organ- on tendon), decreases pain, decreases spasm, increases vasodilation, increases peristalsis (on abdomen), affects meridians (shiatsu and acupressure), and decreases sinus congestion. Neuritis= nerve inflammation, it is contraindicated for all frictions.

MFR or Myofascial Release techniques include

Direct: Trigger Point (TP), Rolfing, and Structural Integration. Indirect: Active Isolated Stretching

The Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug Celebrex relieves signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis. What are some common side effects?

Dizziness and upset stomach. Rationale: Brand name; Celebrex. Generic name; Celecoxib. Classified as a Nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory Drug (NSAID). It relieves signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid arthritis and is used in the treatment of Degenerative disc disease (DDD), Frozen shoulder, and Rheumatoid arthritis. It works by reducing hormones that cause inflammation and pain in the body. Clients who take Celebrex may experience dizziness or upset stomach. It is best to use deep massage techniques with caution and be aware of client's decreased pain perception. Help client on/off the table.

If a client's medication (Rx) or pathology side-effects or symptoms include sinusitis, what can you do to ensure client comfort during treatment?

Do not use the prone position with the face in the face rest if sinus pressure is too painful. Rationale: The client will know and tell you what they can and can't handle. A prone position with the face in the face rest may increase sinus pressure and be too painful. Being flexible with adjusting to the client's needs will enhance the client's comfort for a more effective treatment.

The inNervation of rhomboid minor:

Dorsal scapular C5. Rationale: The inNervation of rhomboid minor is at dorsal scapular C5, the same inNervation for the rhomboid major.

This massage technique is applied superficially, the tissue is not compressed and only the minimum amount of pressure is used to make contact with the tissue?

Effleurage is often used as an introductory or closing technique. It is also used to palpate differences in temperature.

Define Emphysema

Enlargement of the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles and the destruction of the alveolar walls.

These Leukocytes WBCs kill parasitic worms and increase during allergy attacks:

Eosinophils. Rationale: Eosinophils function to kill parasitic worms, increase during allergy attacks, can phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes, and inactivate some inflammatory chemicals. They account for 1-4% of WBCs. The anatomy: red coarse cytoplasmic granules, figure-8 or bilobed nucleus stains blue-red. Erythrocytes are RBCs and Platelets are neither red nor white and are used for clotting.

What helps regulate blood sugar levels?

Epinephrine, Glucagon, & Insulin. Epinephrine and glucagon raise the sugar levels while insulin helps lower it.

What is the term for the enlarged area at the end of large bones?

Epiphysis is the term for the enlarged area at the end of large bones.

spina bifida occulta

Everett April Arc does not completely fuse, but no signs or symptoms are obvious.

What type of strain or sprain does the deltoid ligament protect the ankle against?

Eversion / Valgus. The deltoid ligament is located on the medial aspect of the ankle and is designed to protect against medial stress = Eversion. When lengthening the medial aspect with eversion that causes a Valgus (X) strain, shortening the lateral side.

When doing a movement analysis with your head and neck starting at neutral, slowly move to look up at the ceiling; what action and muscle contraction is occurring?

Extension / eccentric contraction. Rationale: Extending the head back while slowly lowering to the Earth (Eccentric). Eccentric contraction with muscles firing to help ease towards the Earth, so that there is control in movement and not just a drastic drop.

The lateral posterior levator scapula muscle has one bilateral action and four unilateral actions that it performs. What is the one bilateral action?

Extension of the head and neck. Rationale: The levator scapula originates on the transverse processes of C-1 through C-4 vertebrae and inserts on the superior angle of the upper region medial border on the scapula. The scapula is the most moveable and therefore the point of insertion. The insertion is deep to the trapezius, but the lateral posterior belly is palpated directly on the side of the neck. The levator scapula bilaterally extends the head and neck. Unilaterally it (RED Letter) Rotates head and neck to the same side, Elevates the scapula, Downwardly rotates the scapula, and Laterally flexes the head and neck. First and last are head and neck. E and D are scapula. The one bilateral action is extension of the head and neck.

The lateral posterior levator scapula muscle has one bilateral action and four unilateral actions that it performs. What is the one bilateral action?

Extension of the head and neck. The levator scapula originates on the transverse processes of C-1 through C-4 vertebrae and inserts on the superior angle of the upper region medial border on the scapula. The scapula is the most moveable and therefore the point of insertion. The insertion is deep to the trapezius, but the lateral posterior belly is palpated directly on the side of the neck. The levator scapula bilaterally extends the head and neck. Unilaterally it (RED Letter) Rotates head and neck to the same side, Elevates the scapula, Downwardly rotates the scapula, and Laterally flexes the head and neck. First and last are head and neck. E and D are scapula. The one bilateral action is extension of the head and neck.

The ESGs or Erector Spinae Group consists of the Spinalis, Longissimus, and Illiocostalis muscles. They work together to move the vertebral column. Unilaterally they have one action and bilaterally they have one action. What is the bilateral action of the ESGs on the vertebral column?

Extension. Rationale: The ESGs or Erector Spinae Group Unilaterally: laterally flex the vertebral column to the same side. Bilaterally: Extension of the vertebral column. Lateral flexion can only be achieved by the prime mover unilaterally.

Which two muscles work together to ADduct the radiocarpal joint?

Extensor carpi ulnaris and flexor carpi ulnaris. Rationale: The two muscle in charge of ADducting or ulnar deviation of the radiocarpal joint (wrist): Extensor carpi ulnaris and flexor carpi ulnaris.

When assessing the radiocarpal joint, what muscle group would you lengthen to release or decrease mild extension at the wrist?

Extensors. Rationale: Relax the prime movers= extensors of the radiocarpal joint; Extensor carpi radialis longus/brevis, extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor digitorum.

The testes release a steroid androgen to support sperm formation, what two hormones regulate their release?

FSH and LH. Rationale: FSH= Follicle-stimulating hormone representative action is to stimulate the production of ova and sperm. LH Luteinizing hormone stimulates the ovaries and testes.

The testes release a steroid androgen to support sperm formation, what two hormones regulate their release?

FSH= Follicle-stimulating hormone representative action is to stimulate the production of ova and sperm. LH Luteinizing hormone stimulates the ovaries and testes.

Define Negligence

Failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide. Careless, not intentional harm caused by conduct that falls below the standards of behavior established by law for the protection of others against unreasonable risk of harm.

Define Slander

False and damaging information about a person's reputation that is communicated by spoken word. A fleeting oral defamation by methods such as spoken words or sounds, sign language, and gestures. Note: Due to their broad reach, words broadcasted on television, radio, and video is considered slander. Also known as libel.

Which of the following physiological effects is a reflexive component of petrissage?

Fast strokes stimulate the nervous system. Rationale: Petrissage mechanical effects: Stretches veins and lymph vessels, increases venous flow, increases waste removal, decreases adhesions, moves interstitial fluids and stretches and broadens muscle fibers. Reflexive effects: Slow strokes relax the nervous system, fast strokes stimulate the nervous system, increases peristalsis (on abdomen), increases blood pressure (on abdomen), affects proprioception, decrease hypertonicity, and increases glandular activity of skin.

What fuses the skull together?

Fibrocartilage. The skull would be an example of a synarthrotic joint.

What is on the lateral/distal end of the tibia and articulates with the fibula?

Fibular notch is on the lateral/distal end of the tibia and articulates with the fibula.

In passive range of motion testing what two muscles are assessed when the foot is placed in inversion?

Fibularis (peroneus) longus and extensor digitorum longus. Passive ROM tests the antagonist muscles, in this case the muscles that Evert the foot. Active ROM and resistive ROM test the prime movers. Prime movers for Inversion= tibialis anterior /posterior, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and extensor hallucis longus. Antagonists for Eversion= extensor digitorum longus, fibularis (peroneus) longus, and brevis.

The first thing you should do in a medical emergency is

First step, check the scene to make sure you are not placing yourself in danger. The next step is to make sure you have medical professionals on their way. Then perform CPR. 3C's= Check-Call-Care.

The biceps brachii has three actions, one for each joint it crosses; Humeroulnar, proximal radioulnar, and glenohumeral joints. What is the action on the humeroulnar joint?

Flexion. Rationale: Look at the attachments, the origin short head and long head are on the scapula crossing anterior to the glenohumeral joint if the muscle belly was contracted it could only flex the shoulder. The insertion is on the radius and bicipital aponeurosis anterior to the humeroulnar and proximal radioulnar joints. The humeroulnar junction only has two actions flexion and extension, the position of the muscle gives you the answer= flexion. As for the proximal radioulnar joint the two actions to choose from are supination and pronation. The anchor from the muscle belly is focused on the bicipital aponeurosis that clearly contracts into supination.

What action loosens or shortens the coxal joint's four femoral neck ligaments?

Flexion. Rationale: The coxal joint's four supporting ligaments are the deep zona orbicularis, anterior iliofemoral ligament, medial pubofemoral, and posterior ischiofemoral ligament. They wrap around the femoral neck, starting anteriorly, ending posteriorly. Extension tightens the ligaments and flexion loosens them. Ligaments encircle the coxal joint capsule counter clockwise.

When assessing the radiocarpal joint, what muscle group would you lengthen to release mild flexion at the wrist?

Flexors. Rationale: Relax the prime movers= flexors of the radiocarpal joint; Flexor carpi radialis/ulnaris, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus.

-rrhagia, -rrhea

Flowing

What is the best hydro treatment for a client with fibromyalgia?

Fomentation

what is the main contributing factor of hammer toe

Footwear that causes the second toe to curl over

-plasm, -plasma

Formed

Define Self-Determination

Freedom from interference in regards to one's life and autonomy.

Define Diarthrosis

Freely movable.

Foreman and Croft Classification (F/C) The Type of Collisions are; Type 3

Front Impact

most people with a hiatal hernia also have

GERD

Of the following physiological effects, which is a reflexive effect for deep effleurage?

General relaxation of muscles.

Before performing assessment tests on a client you must...

Get consent to test. Rationale: Before you perform a test on a client, you must obtain a consent to test. Advise them why the tests are necessary, with an explanation of the procedure with instructions that the client stop the test if it is painful (further injury, if pushed to increase pain). Where the pain begins in the tests, can be a sure indication of the muscles and structures involved. Communication is key for both parties.

Which hormone released by the endocrine system influences normal maturation and function of the body's systems.

Growth hormone (GH) released by the anterior pituitary stimulates growth in muscles and bones. Thyroxine (T4) released by the thyroid gland stimulates metabolism. Sex hormones (androgens, estrogen and progesterone) are produced by the gonads to stimulate maintenance, and to regulate growth and development.

Which muscle would you stretch to relieve a runner who is complaining of a hamstring spasm?

Hamstring. Rationale Always check to make sure that the runner has not suffered an injury, removing protective spasms or reflexive muscle guarding is contraindicated. Stretch the prime mover for relief.

Define Trager Approach

Hands-on movement education that uses gentle movements to release physical and emotional tension patterns, facilitates relaxation, increases physical mobility, and helps mental clarity.

Consistency

Harmony of conduct or practice; reliability or uniformity of successive results or events.

While giving an assessment there are three types of questions you ask to obtain relevant information for the treatment plan; General, Specific, and Pain questions. Which of the following is a Specific question?

Has there been a physician's consultation and diagnosis? Rationale: Many people will self diagnose (carpal tunnel and find out it is TOS= thoracic outlet syndrome). Specific questions focus on the chief or primary complaint. When, how, what was done for treatment, was there a physician's diagnosis, medications, and was it trauma-induced or gradual onset?

What is the term for the proximal end of the fibula?

Head. Rationale: The head is the term for the proximal end of the fibula. It articulates with the tibial fibular notch. The distal end of the fibula is the lateral malleolus. The distal end of the Tibia is the medial malleolus. There are lateral and medial epicondyle and condyle for both the knee and elbow joints.

Red blood cells contain proteins called ______?

Hemoglobin is the protein contained in red blood cells.

The pressure of massage techniques stimulates the release of these hormones to vasodilate the blood vessels

Histamine is a substance that causes vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. After the vasodilation is a change in the temperature of the skin. Melatonin= sleep cycle, Oxytocin= stimulates uterine contraction and milk "let-down". Prolactin= Milk production.

Define Self-Accountability

Holding oneself responsible for one's actions.

Define fomentation

Hot moist hydro applied to ease pain.

To properly treat periostitis and compartment syndrome, what hydrotherapy treatment would be most efficient?

Hot moist hydrotherapy followed by stretching of the gastrocnemius and soleus. Rationale: Chronic periostitis and compartment syndrome is different from acute, in that you would never put hot packs on acute inflammation. Chronic treatments must increase circulation to ischemic tissue in order to restore proper function. Contrasting the hydro with cold after the moist hot hydro will increase local circulation. Stretching the gastroc's and soleus along with working on compensating structures; the low back, glutes and thighs will also increase circulation

Of the major common elements that make up the human body, which element, in its ionic form, influences the pH of the body fluids?

Hydrogen. Rationale: Oxygen (O) is a major organic and inorganic molecule component. As gas, it is essential in oxidation of glucose and other food fuels to produce ATP (cellular energy). Carbon (C) is the primary element in ALL organic molecules, including; carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acids, and lipids. Hydrogen (H) in its ionic form influences the pH of body fluids, it is also the component of most organic molecules. Nitrogen (N) is a component of the organic genetic material; proteins and nucleic acids.

Cross-Fiber Friction (Reflexive Effects)

Hyperemia (secondary to ischemia) relaxes muscles and decreases hypertonicity (by the nervous system or if done on a tendon, Golgi tendon organ), and increases circulation

Of the physiological effects, which is a reflexive effect for jostling and shaking?

Hyperemia. Rationale: Jostling or shaking mechanical effects: stimulates synovial activity (applied over sacrum). Reflexive effects: stimulates or relaxes muscles (depending on the depth and rhythm), decreases muscle guarding or tonicity and hyperemia (secondary to ischemia).

If your client has a moderate anterior pelvic tilt what three muscles would be shortened?

Iliacus, psoas major and rectus femoris. Rationale: Anterior pelvic tilt (downward rotation)= short flexors and long extensors. ASIS pulled inferior.

Your client sits at a computer for more than 10 hours a day Monday through Friday, what five muscles of the hip and thigh are shortened?

Iliacus, psoas major, rectus femoris, sartorius and gluteus medius. Rationale: When in a sitting position, the hip flexors are shortened: Iliacus, psoas major, rectus femoris, sartorius and gluteus medius (anterior fibers). Lengthened extensors: Gluteus maximus, biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus and gluteus medius (posterior fibers).

The coxal joint has four ligaments that support the joint capsule, which ligament reinforces it anteriorly?

Iliofemoral ligament. Rationale: The coxal joint's four supporting ligaments are the deep zona orbicularis, anterior iliofemoral ligament, medial pubofemoral, and posterior ischiofemoral ligament. They wrap around the femoral neck, starting anteriorly, ending posteriorly. Extension tightens the ligaments and flexion loosens them.

What does the painful arc assess?

Impingement of tissue. Rationale: Painful arc= impingement of the tissue under the acromion (supratendon, subacromial bursa).

When assessing perpetuating factors for the cause of activating trigger points, what role do postural stresses play?

Improperly fitted furniture or wrong placement of equipment causing poor posture. Rationale: Postural stresses include improperly fitted furniture or wrong placement of equipment causing poor posture and poor body mechanics during weight bearing activity.

Define Certification

In some states, it is used as the designation for practitioners rather than licensure. A process in which a person, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical care.

Define Aston-Patterning

Includes massage, movement education, fitness training, postural evaluation, and environmental modifications

Aston-Patterning

Includes massage, movement education, fitness training, postural evaluation, and environmental modifications.

Which of the following is a reflexive effect of Heat rub friction?

Increases local circulation. Heat rub friction has one mechanical effect: heats the skin and warms tissue. Reflexive effects: hyperemia, increases vasodilations, increases local circulation, relaxes muscle, and decreases hypertonicity (because of the warmth).

Acute vestibular neuronitis

Inflammation of the vestibular nerve, usually by VIRAL infection Causes PERIPHERAL vertigo

The Pancreas is a major endocrine gland that releases two representative protein hormones, what are they?

Insulin and glucagon. The pancreas releases insulin to REDUCE blood glucose and Glucagon to RAISE blood glucose.

Which system improves in health and increases in body heat with muscular exercise?

Integumentary. Rationale: The muscular system enhances circulation to the skin and improves skin health. With exercise body heat increases and the integumentary system dissipates the heat giving an external enclosure protecting for the muscular system.

What two muscles would be hypertonic when forced expiration has been used by a client?

Internal intercostals and abdominals. Rationale: In cases of forced expiration (bronchitis, asthma, emphysema, obstructive ventilatory defect, or restrictive ventilatory defect) the internal intercostal muscles are activated to help depress the rib cage. The abdominals contract and help to force air from the lungs by squeezing the organs against the diaphragm. (SCM= Sternocleidomastoid)

which is the fluid that resides within the body's cells?

Interstitial fluid is in between the body's cells. Intracellular is in the cells and intravascular is in the veins and arteries.

Fasciculations

Involuntary twitching of fasciculi

Define Psychosocial

Involving both psychological and social environment aspects.

A client is lying prone and is experiencing a cramp in the right quads, what would be the best way to relieve the cramp?

Isometric contraction of the hams and using direct pressure on the quads Rationale: This is the fastest way to help the client with out making them change positions. By using reciprocal inhibition to relax the quads and direct pressure on the muscle belly to relieve the cramp.

What type of muscle contraction would it be where the muscles and the body part were contracted and do not move?

Isometric contraction would happen when the muscles and the body part were contracted but do not move. Muscles contract but there is no joint movement. (Drinking Tonic with movement) Isometric, No movement.

Why is early CPR important in a Cardiac Chain of Survival?

It helps to circulate blood that contains oxygen to the vital organs. Rationale: Circulating the blood to supply oxygen to vital organs is most important in the Cardiac Chain of Survival. Performing CPR until an AED (Automatic External Defibrillator) is ready to use or advanced medical personnel arrive is the best for a heart attack victim.

What is required of a Licensed Massage Therapist after the license is issued?

It is the responsibility of the Massage Therapist to maintain safe and effective care for the client. A major component in keeping educated and informed is adding to the school based knowledge received with continuing education courses to build upon your talents and usefulness within the Massage community. This will further ensure recognition as an essential healthcare entity.

Full and normal range of motion requires appropriate functioning of All tissues. In Active ROM (AROM) what must occur to the Antagonist muscle in assessing proper function?

It must lengthen to allow joint movement. Rationale: Active movement requires all of the tissues to function appropriately. The agonist (prime mover) must fire or shorten to create the movement. The antagonist (opposite muscle) must lengthen to allow joint movement. The joint capsule and ligaments must stabilize the joint and allow it to move. The articulating bones must move to create the appropriate joint action and the fascia around the joint and muscles must allow for free movement.

Name the glenohumeral lateral and medial rotators?

Lateral rotators: infraspinatus and teres minor medial rotators: latissimus dorsi and teres major. Rationale: The three lateral or external rotators: Deltoid (posterior), infraspinatus and teres minor. The five medial or internal rotators: Deltoid (anterior), latissimus dorsi, teres major, subscapularis and pectoralis major (all fibers).

To properly palpate the long head of the biceps brachii tendon, place the client in the seated position with arm relaxed and hand on their thigh (bringing arm into a 20 degree internally rotated position). Where is the tendon located?

Lateral to the coracoid process inferior to the clavicle. Rationale: In the seated position the long head biceps brachii tendon is best palpated immediately lateral to the coracoid process inferior to the clavicle when the arm is relaxed and medially (20 degrees) rotated with hand on thigh. This position brings the tendon out underneath the anterior deltoid.

What two muscles are sometimes referred to as the "handcuff muscles"?

Latissimus dorsi and teres major. Rationale: The latissimus dorsi and teres major muscles medially rotate, ADduct and extend the glenohumeral joint. They are also complete synergists, together they are sometimes referred to as the "handcuff muscles" because they work together in bringing the arms behind the back in the position used to arrest someone.

name the adductors of the glenohumeral joint

Latissimus dorsi, teres major, infraspinatus, teres minor, pectoralis major (all), triceps brachii (long head), and coracobrachialis are the adductors of what joint

Which muscle ADducts the arm?

Latissimus dorsi. Rationale: The ADductors of the glenohumeral joint: Latissimus dorsi, teres major, infraspinatus, teres minor, pectoralis major (all), triceps brachii (long head), and coracobrachialis.

Gas exchange in the body occurs according to the laws of

Law of Diffusion, movement occurs TOWARD the area of lower concentration of the diffusing substance.

You perform a PA (postural analysis) on your client and note that the head has a mild tilt to the left, what muscle would be shortened?

Left SCM. Rationale: A head tilt to the left would shorten the lateral flexors on the left of the cervical spine. Trapezius (upper fibers), Levator scapula, splenii, SCM (Sternocleidomastoid), scalenes (all fibers) and ESG's or the Erector Spinae Group and consists of the Spinalis, Longissimus, and Iliocostalis.

A client presents left-side torticollis, what muscle would be shortened and most effected?

Left SCM. Rationale: Torticollis is a condition affecting the head and neck area. The head and neck will be laterally flexed on the affected side and the face will be turned away from the affected side. The SCM (sternocleidomastoid) unilaterally rotates the head and neck to the opposite side and laterally flexes the head and neck to the same side and is the main offender in torticollis.

This is much thicker then the right because the left must pump nutrient-rich blood and oxygen to the entire body system.

Left side of the heart

All of the following muscles are firing during extension of an eccentric contraction of the head and neck except:

Levator scapula. Eccentric contraction with muscles firing to help ease towards the Earth, so that there is control in movement and not just a drastic drop. All the flexor muscles of the cervical spine will be firing to slowly lower head to Earth in extension and firing. Cervical extensors: (BL=bilaterally) trapezius (upper) BL, levator scapula BL, splenius capitus / cervicis BL, rectus capitus posterior major / minor, oblique capitis superior, semispinalis capitis, and the longissimus capitis / cervicis and iliocostalis cervicis assists. Flexors: SCM BL, anterior scalene BL, longus capitis BL, and longus colli BL. (SCM=Sternocleidomastoid)

The transverse processes of C1 to C4 are the origins of which muscle?

Levator scapula. Rationale: The transverse processes of C1 to C4 are the origins of the levator scapula.

When using cross-fiber friction for this structure, it is best to use appropriate tension using a shortened position

Ligaments. Rationale: So the ligament is as free as possible to move over the adjacent tissues.

Choose the ligament in the cervical spine that limits flexion?

Ligamentum nuchae Rationale: The nuchal ligament or ligamentum nuchae attaches to the occipital protuberance and the spinous processes of C1 to C6 and becomes smaller at C7, termed supraspinous ligament, limiting flexion.

A general relaxation of the muscles is a reflexive effect of what type of treatment technique?

Light and Deep Effleurage. Rationale: Light effleurage has no mechanical effects. It has 10 reflexive effects and six of them deal with blood flow. + parasympathetic NS response, - sympathetic NS response, + vasodilation, - heart rate, - blood pressure, slows breathing rate, generally relaxes muscles, + capillary space, - edema and - pain (gate theory). Deep effleurage mechanical effects: stretches veins and lymph vessels, + venous and lymph flow, + waste removal (lymph), moves nutrients through vessels, compresses and stretches fascia, warms superficial tissue and fascia, desquamation of dead skin cells. Reflexive effects (same as light plus): dilation lasts longer, deeper muscle relaxation, releases endorphins, + skin metabolism and + peripheral circulation.

Of the following compounds found in the body, which is organic: Base, lipids, acids, water?

Lipids. Rationale: Organic Compounds: (carbon-containing) carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids. Inorganic compounds: (lack carbon) water, salt, some acids, and bases.

Vitamins A, D, E, and K cannot be absorbed unless they are ingested in combination with:

Lipids. Rationale: Vitamins A, D, E, and K are fat-soluble. Lipids= Fats or cholesterol.

A trigger point in the posterior deltoid will refer pain to

Locally in the posterior deltoid. It will remain locally in the deltoid.

Which of the following methods utilizes very large, broad strokes with forearms, elbow, or two hands?

LomiLomi. Rationale: LomiLomi= Hawaiian for rub rub. To cover broad areas, broad/large strokes are utilized. This modality also integrates prayer and acknowledgment of the existence of a higher power.

Your client swims 5 times a week and is now having pain in his shoulder. What tendon, if compressed repeatedly, can cause biceps tendinitis?

Long head of biceps brachii. Rationale: In sports where the arm is ADducted and compressing the tendon, such as swimming or throwing sports, can cause repeated compressions on the long head of the bicep causing biceps tendinitis, most often a secondary condition to another shoulder pathology.

The spinal nerve plexus serving the medial proximal leg is the

Lumbar plexus (L1-L4)- Obturator nerve branches to the ADductors and skin of the medial thigh. Damage to the obturator nerve results in the inability to ADduct the thigh.

What neutralizes harmful bacteria and toxins?

Lymphocytes neutralize harmful bacteria and toxins. Getting rid of them via the lymphatic system.

Leukocytes (WBCs) have two types of cells, granulocytes and agranulocytes. Which of the following is not a granulocyte?

Lymphocytes. Rationale: Leukocytes (WBCs) have Granulocytes; neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. Agranulocytes; lymphocytes and monocytes.

Ethical Congruence

Making decisions that are consistent or in alignment with the ethical values that apply to each situation.

The effects of massage are physiological and psychological in nature, what is a physiological effect?

Mechanical effects are the primary response to tissue manual manipulation. The physiological effects are subdivided into mechanical effects, on adhesions and vascular and lymphatic systems. Psychological effect is the increased well being that usually occurs with positive touch. Other beneficial benefits include reducing effects that are evident in clients who experience stress and depression. Reflexive effects are the secondary involuntary response of the nervous system from a stimulus.

The attachment site for the wrist and hand flexors is located on what side of the olecranon process?

Medial epicondyle is the attachment site for the wrist and hand flexor tendons.

The posterior tubercles of the transverse processes of C2-7 and the first rib are the origin and insertion of which of these muscles?

Medial scalene. Rationale: The medial scalene has its origin at posterior tubercles of the transverse processes of C2-7 and the insertion is at the lateral anterior aspect of the first rib.

___________ is the study of an organism and its form and structure.

Morphology is the study of an organism and its form and structure.

Define Scope of Practice

Most commonly defined by state law, it outlines the care you are able to provide for the patient/client. The where, when, and how a practitioner may provide services or function as a professional.

Define Scope of Practice

Most commonly defined by state law; outlines the care you are able to provide for the patient/client. The where, when, and how a practitioner may provide services or function as a professional.

What body system regulates the sweat glands and blood vessels of the skin?

Nervous. Rationale: The nervous systems ANS sympathetic division regulates the sweat glands and blood vessels of the integumentary system to control the heat loss or retention. The integumentary system serves as a heat loss surface for the nervous system.

Are there signs of early-stage osteosarcoma?

No

-trophy, -trophic

Nutrition, growth

Pulmonary circulation is where?

On the right side of the heart, its duty is to carry blood to the lungs for gas exchange and transport the blood back to the heart.

The abdominal cavity is made up of

One large cavity. The abdominal cavity is one large cavity that extends from the pelvis to the diaphragm.

What hormone released from the anterior pituitary gland stimulates milk production?

PRL= Prolactin is a hypothalamic hormone that stimulates milk production.

.gout

Pain at the base of the great toe, red skin, shiny hot and throbbing

The Antimigraine drug Relpax relieves migraine headache symptoms. What are some common side effects?

Palpitations, abdominal pain, dizziness, and flushing. Rationale: Brand name; Relpax. Generic name; Eletriptan hydrobromide. Classified as an Antimigraine. It relieves migraine headache symptoms and is used for treatment of Migraine headaches. It works by narrowing blood vessels around the brain and reducing substances in the body that can trigger migraine symptoms such as; headache pain, nausea, sensitivity to light and sound. Clients who take Relpax may experience palpitations, dizziness, flushing, or abdominal pain. It is best to create a calming environment and help client on/off the table. Alter positioning when needed.

What steps must you take to obtain a license to practice massage in your state?

Pass a licensure exam and background check; Obtain Liability Insurance; & Graduate Massage school with required hours. Rationale: Each state has its own requirements for licensure. The standard licensing exams also vary by state. Most states will only require you to have Liability insurance after you graduate and have received your license. However, some states or even schools will require you to have insurance coverage during school for clinicals. States without regulatory boards may adopt neighboring state's licensure for safe practice. Then, when your state is regulated, you can apply for reciprocity in your state.

What bone would be a part of the appendicular skeleton?

Patella. Rationale: The appendicular skeleton refers to the extremities.

Which muscle stabilizes the ribs when the scapula is fixed in one position?

Pectoralis minor muscle stabilizes the ribs when the scapula is fixed in one position. It also stabilizes the scapula when the ribs are fixed in a position.

What muscle would you be assessing with a mild protraction of the scapulothoracic joint?

Pectoralis minor. Rationale: ABduction or protraction of the scapulothoracic joint= Pectoralis minor and serratus anterior with origin (surfaces of the upper eight or nine ribs) fixed.

Out of the following muscles, which would most likely be involved in an impingement of the brachial plexus?

Pectoralis minor. Rationale: The brachial plexus can be impinged by the pectoralis minor and the coracoid process, between the ant. and post. scalenes and the clavicle and first rib causing thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) symptoms.

The coracoid process is the insertion for which of these muscles?

Pectoralis minor. Rationale: The coracoid process is the insertion for the pectoralis minor muscle. The coracobrachialis originates at the coracoid process.

Of the following physiological effects of coarse vibration, which is reflexive?

Penetrating stimulation. Rationale: Coarse vibrations mechanical effects: Loosens mucus in thoracic cavity and stimulates synovial activity (applied over sacrum). Reflexive effects: penetrating stimulation.

hoarding disorder

Persistent difficulty discarding or parting with possessions, regardless of their actual value

Increasing blood pressure is a reflexive effect of what type of treatment technique done on the abdomen?

Petrissage mechanical effects: stretches veins and lymph vessels, increases venous flow, increases waste removal, decreases adhesions, moves interstitial fluids, and stretches and broadens muscle fibers. Reflexive effects: slow strokes relax the nervous system, fast strokes stimulate the nervous system, increases peristalsis (on abdomen), increases blood pressure (on abdomen), affects proprioception, decreases hypertonicity, and increases glandular activity of skin.

Increasing glandular activity in the skin is a reflexive effect of what type of treatment technique?

Petrissage mechanical effects: stretches veins and lymph vessels, increases venous flow, increases waste removal, decreases adhesions, moves interstitial fluids, and stretches and broadens muscle fibers. Reflexive effects: slow strokes relax the nervous system, fast strokes stimulate the nervous system, increases peristalsis (on abdomen), increases blood pressure (on abdomen), affects proprioception, decreases hypertonicity, and increases glandular activity of skin.

The spinal cervical plexus branch serving the diaphragm, shoulder and neck muscles is what nerve?

Phrenic nerve. Rationale: Cervical plexus (C1-C5)- Phrenic nerve serves the diaphragm and shoulder/ neck muscles. If damaged it could result in respiratory paralysis (if not treated promptly it results in death). The axillary nerve serves the deltoid muscle.

Rotation of the head occurs because of this type of joint between the axis and atlas of the cervical vertebrae?

Pivot

You are done with CPR on a breathing injured person, what must you do next?

Place the ill or injured in the recovery position. The recovery position will help the airway to remain open and clear (in case they vomit).

Placing structures in a relaxed, shortened position such as muscles or tendons without a synovial sheath will help the tissue to be treated

Placing structures in a relaxed, shortened position such as muscles or tendons without a synovial sheath will help the tissue to be treated. This allows a maximum separation between the fibers so adhesions are broken down.

Define Care Coordination

Planned organization of patient care activities between multiple practitioners.

The talocrural joint creates what two actions?

Plantarflexion and dorsiflexion. Rationale: The talocrural or true ankle joint, the malleoli of the tibia and fibula articulate with the talus. It is a hinge joint whose only actions are to produce plantarflexion (flexion) and dorsiflexion (extension).

PCBs

Polychlorinated biphenyls, chemicals that were banned in the US when their harmful impact on human health and the environment was discovered

Alexander Technique

Postural education

What is a simple explanation of Alexander Technique

Postural education

post-polio syndrome

Progressive muscular weakness that develops 10 to 40 years after an initial infection with the poliovirus

Dissociation

Psychological detachment from one's surroundings

Define Defense Mechanisms

Psychological strategies of relating to the world that are developed unconsciously to protect people from shame, anxiety, and other emotionally painful experiences they are unable to handle otherwise.

_________________ is the treatment of mental, emotional, or behavioral disorders by psychological methods.

Psychotherapy

What bony landmark does the inguinal ligament attach to on the pelvis?

Pubic tubercle. Rationale: The inguinal ligament is attached to the pelvis at the pubic tubercle extending to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). It forms the superior border of the femoral triangle and the lower edge of the abdominal aponeurosis. It also serves as an attachment site for the external obliques.

Blood that is unoxygenated moves into the lungs through the __________.

Pulmonary artery. Blood travels into the lungs from the pulmonary artery. This is the only artery (away from heart) in the body that carries unoxygenated blood

The right section of the heart is in charge of?

Pulmonary circulation is the right side of the heart, its duty is to carry blood to the lungs for gas exchange and transport the blood back to the heart.

Oxygen-rich blood from the lungs first enters what structure?

Pulmonary veins. Rationale: The first place blood enters the heart is the right atrium. Deoxygenated blood from the body, superior and inferior vena cava enter the right atrium, then pumps through the tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve, pulmonary artery, right/left lung, right/left pulmonary veins, left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle, aortic valve and aorta. Remember the Arteries=Away, Veins=to heart. A before V for Atrium/Ventricle and valves between corresponding

Tetraplegia

Quadriplegia

Positioning of the body is controlled by the

Rationale: Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)= Links all parts of the body with impulses from the sensory receptors to and from Central Nervous System (CNS). Consists of the nerves that extend from the brain and spinal cord. Cranial nerves carry impulses to and from the brain.

To differentiate between sternocleidomastoid trigger points and cervical pathologies when working with Whiplash, you use which test?

Rationale: The swallow test determines if the pain on swallowing is due to referred pain of sternocleidomastoid TPs or due to other pathologies; throat infection, hematoma, cervical spine protuberance or tumor. The client is placed in a seated position, palpate the SCM and find the most tender point using the pincer technique, maintain firm pressure while the client swallows. The test is positive if pain diminishes while the client swallows. If pain is experienced on the swallow without muscle compression of the SCM, refer them to their physician, a hematoma may be present. The Swallowing test (sternocleidomastoid), three-knuckle test (mandible depression), trigger point compression test (agonist muscle belly), scalene relief (ant. scalene) and finger flexion (scalene group) test will be positive if trigger points exist in the respective muscles.

Foreman and Croft Classification (F/C) The Type of Collisions are; Type 1

Rear impact

-graphy

Recording, writing

What is the name of the structure that is attached superior to the patella?

Rectus femoris tendon, which embeds the patella sesamoid bone and is then the patellar ligament that inserts on the tibial tuberosity. Sesamoid bones are embedded in tendons and provide extra leverage. They also reduce pressure on the underlying tissue structures.

Cutaneous stimulation from mechanical pressure may also cause

Reflex vasodilation of the blood vessels. Rationale: The mechanical stimulation can further improve circulation.

Stimulating organs is a reflexive effect of what type of treatment technique?

Reflexive effects: hyperemia (secondary to ischemia), stimulation of the nervous system, muscles, vessels, skin, and also induces numbing effect if prolonged more then three minutes, increases muscle tone (contract/ relax response), brief vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation, increase in circulation, stimulates organs (lungs and abdominal organs/LB), increases gaseous exchanges, and increase cellular activity.

The massage profession has many methods that are popular, which of the following is a neuromuscular approach?

Reflexology. Rationale: Neuromuscular approaches (nervous or reflexive methods): Neuromuscular techniques, trigger point, reflexology, proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation, myotherapy, Trager, orthobionomy, strain/counterstrain, and muscle energy techniques (not an all-inclusive list). All other methods are applied kinesiology working with reflexive mechanisms.

What would be the most effective way to support your fingers with proper alignment, when using light pressure or superficial friction techniques in small areas of the body?

Reinforced with the other hand supporting them against hyperextension. Rationale: The more support you can offer your fingers the better. Pressure and stress of improper alignment of the wrist, elbow and shoulder will cause injury. Keep your fingers relaxed and avoid strong pressure. Utilize instead a different tool; knuckles or elbow.

Of the physiological effects of linear or circular friction, which is reflexive?

Relaxes muscles and decreases hypertonicity. Rationale: Linear or circular friction mechanical effects: broadens and stretches muscle tissue, temporary ischemia, decrease in fascial adhesions, and increase muscle extensibility. Reflexive effects: hyperemia (secondary to ischemia), relaxes muscles, decreases hypertonicity (by the nervous system or if done on a tendon, golgi tendon organ), and increases circulation.

A hypertonic muscle will _____ when applying acute pressure with deep strokes.

Release. Muscle spindle cells are the major sensory organ of muscles and aid in the control of movement. When severe or acute pressure is applied, the spindle cells send a message to the central nervous system increasing the tension of the skeletal muscle. The muscle spindle cells react to the pressure by releasing the tension because of the overload of activity, giving up and relaxing. Hence the reason why deep tissue or cross fiber friction is so effective.

Foreman and Croft Classification (F/C): Stage 3

Remodelling phase, 14 weeks to 12 months or more post-accident.

While talking on the phone to a potential client, they start asking what you will be wearing when giving the massage, what color your toes are painted, if the draping is a sheet or hand towel and if you make them fill out intake forms and pay before the massage begins. How should you respond?

Respectfully inform them that our clinics treatment parameters for a therapeutic Massage is to maintain proper paperwork and documentation of every client and treatment plan. If they choose to come in, proper record keeping will be followed as a standard Professional obligation a photo copy of their drivers license and payment for the massage will be collected before treatment. Rationale: Do not book clients if they are asking inappropriate personal questions, or if they are asking if you make them fill out intake forms and pay in advance. These questions may indicate past issues with sexual misconduct and they have been asked to leave without a refund for services and are no stranger to non therapeutic unprofessional establishments. As a Massage Professional you must always prescribe to Professional Conduct. Adhering to your Professional standards of safe practices will grow your business and establish you as a reputable Therapeutic Massage Therapist/Clinic. Your firm resolution is an essential contribution that will help dispel any questions or misconceptions people may have about Therapeutic Massage, and enhance social knowledge about massage therapist's supporting abilities as a Professional Healthcare modality.

A potential client set up a new appointment in your online appointment calendar. They wrote in the questions or comment section, "I prefer having a pretty women for the massage. Does your policy state that I must fill out paperwork and pay upfront? If it does, don't expect me to stay." What should you do?

Respectfully inform them that your clinics treatment parameters for a therapeutic Massage is to maintain proper paperwork and documentation for each client. If they choose to come in, proper record keeping will be followed and payment for the massage will be collected before treatment. Rationale: Do not book clients if they are asking inappropriate personal questions, or if they are asking if you make them fill out intake forms and pay in advance. These questions may indicate past issues with sexual misconduct and they have been asked to leave without a refund for services and are no stranger to non therapeutic unprofessional establishments. As a Massage Professional you must always prescribe to Professional Conduct. Adhering to your Professional standards of safe practices will grow your business and establish you as a reputable Therapeutic Massage Therapist/Clinic. Your firm resolution is an essential contribution that will help dispel any questions or misconceptions people may have about Therapeutic Massage, and enhance social knowledge about massage therapist's supporting abilities as a Professional Healthcare modality.

shingles

Resurgence of the vzv usually later in life involving the outbreak of painful blisters along the dermatome that is colonized by virus from an earlier infection

Which muscle inserts on the vertebral border at the root of the spine of the scapula?

Rhomboid minor. Rationale: The rhomboid minor muscle inserts on the vertebral border at the root of the spine of the scapula. It retracts the scapula bringing the shoulders back in ADduction, elevates and downward rotation of the scapula.

The body has a pattern of muscles that are tight and muscles that get weak because of the tightness and disuse, what muscle would be weak if your clients pectoralis major is tight?

Rhomboids will become stretched and weakness emerges because of the strain the pec major is placing upon it. The rhomboids are a fast twitch muscle and fatigue faster, whereas the pec major is a slow twitch with slow fatigue. This can sometimes cause hyperkyphosis with an increased shoulder protraction.

Which of the following would be the least stressed muscle during pregnancy?

Rhomboids. Rationale: Abdominal muscles are stretched and weakened, lumbar spine's curvature increases. Muscles under the greatest stress are the abdominals, ESGs, pelvic floor, psoas, and ADductors. The ESGs are the Erector Spinae Group and consists of the Spinalis, Longissimus, and Iliocostalis that run from the sacrum to the occiput on the posterior vertebral column.

Deoxygenated blood enters the right what?

Right atrium from the Superior and Inferior vena cava. From the right atrium through the Tricuspid valve into the right ventricle, through the Pulmonary semilunar valve to the pulmonary arteries to the lungs, Pulmonary right and left veins, left atrium, Bicuspid valve, left ventricle, Aortic semilunar valve, Aorta, arteries, capillaries, veins and Superior and Inferior Vena Cava repeat. Aorta (Away), Veins (towards) the heart.

To prevent infectious and communicable diseases the simplest, most effective way to minimize risk is hand washing. The CDC has four steps for proper hand washing. What is the third step?

Rinse hands using warm water. Rationale: Proper hand washing technique is; #1. Apply soap to hands. #2. Rub hands together for at least 20 seconds to work up a lather. Pay particular attention to scrubbing the backs of your hands, between your fingers, and under your nails. #3. Rinse hands using warm water. #4. Dry hands with a paper towel. Use the paper towel to turn off the faucet, the light, and open the door before placing the towel in the garbage.

The ______ allows the face to grimace?

Risorius. Rationale: The platysma depresses the mandible, the mentalis protrudes the lower lip, and risorius retracts the angle of the mouth into a grimace.

Which of the following techniques is focused on the connective tissue structures to influence posture and biomechanics?

Rolfing. Rationale: Structural and postural integration approaches (connective tissue structures to influence posture and biomechanics): Rolfing, Hellerwork, Looyen, Bindegewebs, Pfrimmer, Bowen therapy, and Soma (not an all-inclusive list). All other approaches are neuromuscular working with nervous or reflexive methods.

What two unilateral actions are the scalenes in charge of?

Rotation to the opposite side and lateral flexion to the same side. Rationale: Bilaterally, the scalenes elevate the ribs in inhalation. The anterior fibers bilaterally flex the head and neck. Unilaterally, they all laterally flex the head and neck to the same side and rotate the head and neck to the opposite side.

What muscles would be assessed if your client is sitting down, actively rotating the neck to the opposite side?

SCM, scalenes and upper trapezius. Rationale: The cervical spine unilaterally rotates to the opposite side in sitting position for active and resistive using the Upper traps, SCM (Sternocleidomastoid) and scalenes.

what muscles rotate the cervical spine to the opposite side along with lateral flexion to the same side?

SCM, scalenes, and upper traps do this

Which nerve is the longest nerve in the entire body?

Sciatic nerve is the longest nerve in the entire body. It serves the skin of the leg, the muscles of the back, thigh, leg, and foot.

____________________ refers to which gender(s) a person is attracted to sexually.

Sexual orientation

Define Valgus (X)

Short lateral and long medial.

Foreman and Croft Classification (F/C) The Type of Collisions are; Type 2

Side impact

The abdomen can be separated into four quadrants, which is within the left lower quadrant (LLQ)?

Sigmoid colon and left ovary/ tube. Rationale: RUQ: LiveR, gallbladdeR, duodenum, pancreas, right kidney, and hepatic flexure. RLQ: Cecum, appendix, and right ovary/ tube. LUQ: Stomach, spleen, left kidney, pancreas, and splenic flexure. LLQ: Sigmoid colon and left ovary/ tube.

What is the effectors of the somatic division in the nervous system?

Skeletal muscles. Rationale: The muscular systems skeletal muscles are the effectors of the somatic division in the nervous system. The somatic division in turn activates skeletal muscles and maintains muscle health.

According to F/C or Foreman and Croft Classification on Whiplash, there are five grades of severity to the injury. The second grade includes

Slight limitation of motion, no ligamentous injury and no neurological findings. Rationale: Foreman and Croft Classification (F/C) 5 grades of severity to the injury are: Grade 1: (Minimal) No limitation of motion, no ligamentous injury and no neurological finding. Grade 2: (Slight) Yes limitation of motion, no ligamentous injury and no neurological findings. Grade 3: (Moderate) Yes limitations, some ligamentous injury and neurological findings may be present. Grade 4: (Moderate to Severe) Yes limitation of motion, ligamentous instability, neurological findings present and fracture or disc derangement is present. Grade 5: (Severe) Injury requires surgical management or stabilization.

Name Reflexive effects of petrissage

Slow strokes relax the nervous system, fast strokes stimulate the nervous system, increases peristalsis (on abdomen), increases blood pressure (on abdomen), affects proprioception, decrease hypertonicity, and increases glandular activity of skin.

______ muscle is not under our conscious control and is termed involuntary?

Smooth muscle is involuntary and not under our conscious control.

List the muscles from posterior to anterior that are situated in between the posterior trapezius flap and the anterior SCM on the lateral cervical vertebrae?

Splenius capitis, levator scapula, posterior, and middle scalene. Rationale: The superior splenius capitis, levator scapula, posterior, and middle scalene (inferior) are situated in between the posterior trapezius flap and the anterior SCM (Sternocleidomastoid) on the lateral cervical vertebrae.

-stasis

Stagnation, standing still

Define Standards of Practice

Statements that describe the underlying principles of a given field, the expectations of professional conduct, and the quality of care provided to clients.

A pre-event sports massage is primarily used to

Stimulate the muscles and get them "pumped up. Rationale: By stimulating the muscles, you get them "pumped up" and more flexible, it also reduces the risk of injury and increases body awareness.

Name Petrissage mechanical effects

Stretches veins and lymph vessels, increases venous flow, increases waste removal, decreases adhesions, moves interstitial fluids and stretches and broadens muscle fibers.

Postural dysfunctions have two classifications, what are they?

Structural and functional. Rationale: Structural postural dysfunctions pertains to altered bone shape due to malformation or pathological process. A Functional postural dysfunction pertains to soft tissue such as the muscles, ligaments, tendons and fascia that may be shortened or lengthened.

Foreman and Croft Classification (F/C): Stage 2

Subacute, repair phase, 72 hours to 14 weeks post-accident.

Which of the following muscles has its origin at the first rib?

Subclavius muscle has its origin at the first rib (and cartilage), it inserts at the inferior/ lateral aspect on the clavicle. It is a pectoral girdle stabilizer. The pec minor originates on the 3rd to 5th rib, serratus anterior originates on the upper surface of ribs eight or nine.

The rhomboid major and minor are complete synergists and are located between the medial border of the scapula and the thoracic vertebrae spinous processes. Where do the rhomboids reside?

Superficial to the ESGs and deep to the trapezius. The superficial trapezius runs perpendicular and the rhomboids diagonal fibers are superficial to the vertical ESG fibers. Explore these layers between the scapula and spinous processes of the thoracic vertebrae and see if you can feel the direction of the fiber layers. The rhomboids ADduct (retraction), elevate, and downward rotate the scapulothoracic joint. Pay attention to the direction of the fibers and imagine what would happen when they shorten or contract. The ESGs are the Erector Spinae Group and consists of the Spinalis, Longissimus, and Iliocostalis that run from the sacrum to the occiput on the posterior vertebral column.

What two actions comprise inversion?

Supination = turning inward or the sole of the foot rolling in a medial direction, ADduction = towards the midline or a movement in a medial direction of the forefoot.

Stimulating the nervous system is a reflexive effect of what type of treatment technique?

Swedish gymnastics

Where does systemic circulation happen?

Systemic circulation happens on the left side of the heart, it is much thicker then the right because the left must pump nutrient-rich blood and oxygen to the entire body system.

Which half of the heart is utilized for systemic circulation?

Systemic circulation happens on the left side of the heart, it is much thicker then the right because the left must pump nutrient-rich blood and oxygen to the entire body system.

define primary phase of tuberculosis

TB exposure. person inhales bacteria that travel to alveoli, where they are engulfed by macrophages. waxy coating makes them resistant to macrophages digestive enzymes. bacteria slowly build up whole colonies inside alveoli. body builds protective fibrous wall around site of infection called a tuberacle. usually found in lungs.

You have performed a PA on your client who was in a marathon 3 days ago, their legs both have mild lateral rotation. What muscles are stretch weakened?

TFL. Rationale: Lateral or external rotation indicates that the lateral rotators are tight and the medial rotators are lengthened. The TFL (tensor fasciae latae) FAM's the hip= Flex, ABduct and Medially rotation.

Loosening mucus in the thoracic cavity is a mechanical effect of what type of treatment technique?

Tapotement

Part of managing a business is understanding all aspects of financial management. Preparing returns, obtaining credits, reporting to U.S. federal and state agencies, and discovering deductions are all components of ____________________

Taxes. To responsibly manage a business, it is essential to understand financial responsibilities. Careful recordkeeping will allow the therapist to obtain positive results when it comes time to submit taxes, sell a practice, or retire comfortably. Proper documentation of inventory and bartering will also be needed when filing taxes.

Which of the following lobes is responsible for processing memory and hearing information?

Temporal. Rationale: Frontal is higher-level thinking and personality traits. Parietal is where most sensory info is processed with the exception of hearing, seeing, and smelling. Occipital is where vision is processed. Temporal is where hearing and memory are taken care of.

Of the physiological effects of linear or circular friction, which is mechanical?

Temporary ischemia. Rationale: Linear or circular friction mechanical effects: broadens and stretches muscle tissue, temporary ischemia, decrease in fascial adhesions, and increase muscle extensibility. Reflexive effects: hyperemia (secondary to ischemia), relaxes muscles, decreases hypertonicity (by the nervous system or if done on a tendon, golgi tendon organ), and increases circulation.

What muscle extends the arm?

Teres major. Rationale: The teres major muscle extends the arm. The teres major and latissimus dorsi are complete synergists. The actions: MAE Medial rotation, ADduction, and Extension of the glenohumeral joint.

What muscle is stretch weakened if your client has a moderate decrease in lateral rotation of the glenohumeral joint?

Teres minor. Rationale: Lateral or external rotation= Deltoid (posterior), Infraspinatus and teres minor.

What is the name of the test given to assess thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) for the anterior scalene muscle?

The Adson's test is done by having the client in the seated position, passively extend the affected arm then add a slight external rotation. While standing behind the client, monitor the radial pulse of this arm. Have the client rotate their head towards the affected side, slightly elevating the chin then take and hold a deep breath for 15-20 seconds. The elevating of the first rib with the breath, compresses the neurovascular bundle up against the hypertonic anterior scalene muscle. The test is positive if the radial pulse diminished or the client's symptoms reoccur. Adson's= Anterior scalens, Travell's= Middle Scalene, Wright's HyperABduction= pectoralis minor and Costoclavicular syndrome= clavicle and first rib compression.

Who is known as the Father of Orthopaedic Medicine?

The Father of Orthopaedic Medicine is Dr. James Cyriax (1904-1985). He developed the 1st edition textbook of Orthopaedic Medicine in 1947 in London.

What muscle is stretch weakened if your client has a moderate decrease in horizontal ABduction of the glenohumeral joint?

The Posterior Deltoid horizontally ABducts the humerus.The two horizontal ADductors are Deltoid (anterior) and pectoralis major (upper). Be aware that some sources used by Massage may list three horizontal ABductors: Deltoid (posterior), infraspinatus, and teres minor.

The Standard of Practice that recognizes the avoidance of a dual or multidimensional relationship with a client, is in which section

The Roles and Boundaries are designed to protect both the practitioner and client, maintaining a safeguard for therapeutic relationships.

The Society of Trained Masseuses was formed in

The Society of Trained Masseuses was formed in 1894.

Define Business Practices

The Standard of Practice Business Practices section deals with integrity, honesty, and lawfulness in business. Standards of Practice sections also include: Professionalism, legal and ethical requirements, Confidentiality, Roles and boundaries, and Prevention of sexual misconduct.

What division of the ANS maintains blood pressure and controls blood distribution according to needs?

The Sympathetic division of the ANS (autonomic nervous system) regulates blood pressure and controls blood distribution.

Neuroplasticity

The ability of the nervous system to change functiinally and structurally as a result of injury or damage

Define Self-Awareness

The ability to perceive aspects of one's personality.

Define Confrontation

The act of facing and dealing with a problematic situation.

What is the meaning of the term Self-Disclosure?

The act of revealing professional or personal information about oneself

Define Harassment

The act of systematic and/or continued, unwanted, and disturbing actions of one party or a group. This includes threats, pressure, intimidation, and demands.

Harassment

The act of systematic and/or continued, unwanted, and disturbing actions of one party or a group. This includes threats, pressure, intimidation, and demands.

The anterior aspect of the vertebral border of the scapula is the insertion for which muscle?

The anterior aspect of the vertebral border of the scapula is the insertion for the serratus anterior. It originates on the surfaces of the upper 8 or 9 ribs.

What system of the body carries nutrients and oxygen to bones and carries away wastes?

The cardiovascular system is the transporter of oxygen and nutrients to the bones and also carries away wastes.

Where do the clavicles articulate with the sternum?

The clavicular notch is where the clavicles articulate with the sternum. This forms the sternoclavicular joint.

One of your regular clients confesses that they would like to take you on a date sometime, what is the proper procedure for changing your Client Therapist Relationship?

The client would need to find another therapist to work with for three months before another relationship can be pursued.

Confidentiality

The client's guarantee that what occurs in the therapeutic setting remains private and protected.

What system is in charge of providing nutrients that are essential for bone health and growth in the skeletal system?

The digestive system provides needed nutrients for bone health and growth. The skeletal system in turn provides protection for the digestive organs such as the liver in the rib cage and organs in the pelvic girdle.

In homeostatic relationships, what does the digestive system do for the integumentary system?

The digestive system provides needed nutrients for the integumentary system.

What would the membranous lining of the medullary cavity be called?

The endosteum is the membranous lining of the medullary cavity. Periosteum is a double-layered connective tissue that covers and nourishes bone.

Define Flashback

The experience of reliving or re-experiencing a traumatic event as if it is occurring or is imminent.

Define flashback

The experience of reliving or re-experiencing a traumatic event as if it is occurring or is imminent.

Trick to remember flow of blood thru the heart

The first place blood enters the heart is the right atrium. Deoxygenated blood from the body, superior and inferior vena cava enter the right atrium, then pumps through the tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve, pulmonary artery, right/left lung, right/left pulmonary veins, left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle, aortic valve and aorta. Remember the Arteries=Away, Veins=to heart. Trick: A before V for Atrium/Ventricle and valves between corresponding

What does estrogen do for the integumentary system?

The gonads ovaries are a major endocrine gland that releases the steroid hormone estrogen to increase skin hydration.

Which muscle from the ADductor group has its insertion on the pes anserinus tendon?

The gracilis is the only muscle that crosses the knee in the ADductor group. It inserts on the medial/proximal shaft of the tibia on the pes anserinus tendon. It originates on the pubis inferior ramus as well as the ischium ramus.

What structure of the endocrine system controls the function of the anterior pituitary in the nervous system?

The hypothalamus in the endocrine system releases and inhibits hormones that regulate the anterior pituitary. The protein GH or growth hormone stimulates growth for muscles and bones and regulates metabolism.

The inNervation of rhomboid major

The inNervation of rhomboid major is at dorsal scapular C5, the same inNervation for the rhomboid minor.

Which muscle inserts at the greater tubercle of the humerus?

The infraspinatus muscle inserts at the greater tubercle of the humerus.

The integumentary system performs what function for the body?

The integumentary system is the outermost boundary of the body, it protects against injuries of many types. The skeletal system's function is to provide framework for the body, protect organs by enclosure, and anchor skeletal muscles for muscle contraction to cause movement. The muscular system's functions are to provide movement, maintain posture, generate heat, and stabilize joints. The nervous system maintains homeostasis (electrical signals), provides sensation, higher mental functioning, emotional response, and activates muscles/ glands.

In homeostatic relationships, what does the integumentary system do for the skeletal system?

The integumentary system protects bones, synthesizes vitamin D for calcium absorption and the calcium salt deposits needed to make bones hard. The skeletal system provides support for the skin.

In homeostatic relationships, what does the integumentary system do for the cardiovascular system?

The integumentary system protects the cardiovascular organs, prevents fluid loss from the body's surface and serves as a blood reservoir. The cardiovascular system is the transporter of oxygen and nutrients to the skin to remove wastes and provide substances that are needed for glandular secretions.

What is the term for the area that connects the greater and lesser trochanters of the femur?

The intertrochanteric crest or line is the term for the area that connects the greater and lesser trochanters of the femur.

What is posterior to the acetabulum on the pelvis?

The ischial spine is posterior to the acetabulum on the ischium. The ramus is inferior, pubic symphysis is anterior, and the greater sciatic notch is superior.

What is the area of the pelvis that receives all of the weight of the body when we sit?

The ischial tuberosity is the area of the pelvis that receives all of the weight of the body when we sit.

What muscle is palpable at the lateral cervical vertebrae and deep to the upper trapezius and is capable of moving the scapula?

The levator scapula can be palpated in between the splenius capitis and posterior scalenes. It is the only muscle attached to the lateral cervical vertebrae that is capable of moving the scapula. Actions are: Unilaterally rotating head and neck to same side along with laterally flexing the head and neck, elevation and downward rotation of the scapula. Bilaterally extends the head and neck.

Which muscle has its origin at the transverse processes of the 1-4 of the cervical vertebra?

The levator scapula muscle has its origin at the transverse processes of the 1-4 of the cervical vertebra. It inserts at the superior third of the vertebral border of the scapula.

The ulna is on

The little finger side of the arm. Rationale: The ulna is the medial bone of the arm in line with the little finger in anatomical position.

Define Framework

The logistics by which practitioners define themselves as professional and create a safe atmosphere for clients. Framework includes the way we present ourselves in advertising, the preparation of the physical setting, policies on fees and time, and such ground rules as keeping the focus on the client.

What part of the femur articulates with the tibia?

The medial condyle is the part of the femur that articulates with the tibia.

Define Psychosexual

The mental, emotional, and behavioral aspects of sexual development.

What body system enhances cardiovascular efficiency and helps prevent arteriosclerosis?

The muscular system through aerobic exercise enhances cardiovascular efficiency and helps to prevent arteriosclerosis a chronic inflammatory response in the walls of arteries.

What is in the intercostal spaces?

The nerves, blood vessels, and intercostal muscles are all in the intercostal spaces. Inter=between, costal=ribs.

Which system regulates the digestive systems activity?

The nervous system ANS, particularly the parasympathetic (rest and digest) division regulates the digestive system.

What body system regulates the sweat glands and blood vessels of the skin?

The nervous systems ANS sympathetic division regulates the sweat glands and blood vessels of the integumentary system to control the heat loss or retention. The integumentary system serves as a heat loss surface for the nervous system.

The ________ is the supervisor of all cell functions.

The nucleus is the supervisor of all cell functions

Define Dual Relationships

The overlapping of professional and social roles and interactions between two people. A relationship with a client other than the contractual therapeutic one, such as having a client who is also a friend, family member, or business associate.

Which is a muscle of the anterior surface of the leg?

The pectineus, sartorius, and tensor fascia latae (TFL) are all on the anterior surface of the leg

Gender Identity

The personal concept of self as male, female, or neither. Most people develop an identity that matches their biological sex but some do not.

Define licensure

The process whereby a competent authority, usually the state, allows individuals to perform a regulated act. The most restrictive form of regulation, yet it provides the greatest level of public protection.

Define Sublimation

The psychological term of diverting the energy of a primitive impulse (especially a sexual one) into activities that are considered to be more acceptable socially, morally, or aesthetically.

The radius _____ at its distal end and ______ at its proximal end?

The radius is wide at its distal end and narrow at its proximal end.

The respiratory system functions to

The respiratory system supplies oxygen to the blood and removes carbon dioxide from it. The reproductive system ensures continuity of the species by producing offspring. The lymphatic system returns leaked plasma to the blood vessels after cleaning it and making it free of bacteria and other foreign matter. It is also a surveillance site for immune system cells. The urinary system rids the body of nitrogenous wastes and regulates water, electrolyte, and acid base balance of the blood.

Deoxygenated blood enters the right "what"? and continue the pathway

The right atrium from the Superior and Inferior vena cava. From the right atrium through the Tricuspid valve into the right ventricle, through the Pulmonary semilunar valve to the pulmonary arteries to the lungs, Pulmonary right and left veins, left atrium, Bicuspid valve, left ventricle, Aortic semilunar valve, Aorta, arteries, capillaries, veins and Superior and Inferior Vena Cava repeat. Aorta (Away), Veins (towards) the heart.

Deoxygenated blood enters the right what? And where does it lead?

The right atrium from the Superior and Inferior vena cava. From the right atrium through the Tricuspid valve into the right ventricle, through the Pulmonary semilunar valve to the pulmonary arteries to the lungs, Pulmonary right and left veins, left atrium, Bicuspid valve, left ventricle, Aortic semilunar valve, Aorta, arteries, capillaries, veins and Superior and Inferior Vena Cava repeat. Aorta (Away), Veins (towards) the heart.

Which half of the heart is utilized for pulmonary circulation?

The right side of the heart, its duty is to carry blood to the lungs for gas exchange and transport the blood back to the heart.

What is the rule for these types of contractions? (Flexion, extension, concentric contraction, eccentric contraction)

The same muscles that are used in the first contraction will also be the same muscles in the opposite contraction

Describe aromatherapy

The science of utilizing highly concentrated extractions from plants to balance, harmonize, and promote the health of the body, mind, and spirit.

Which system is a depot for calcium ions needed for neural activity?

The skeletal system is a protector of the nervous system; brain and spinal cord. It also acts as a depot for calcium ions needed for neural activity.

Define Secondary Traumatization

The stress resulting from empathic engagement with traumatized clients. The cumulative effect of working with survivors of traumatic life events is termed vicarious traumatization.

Define Systemic circulation

The term for one of the circuits of the heart that supplies blood to the organs, tissues, and cells of the body.

Define Interactive Boundary

The theory that views boundaries as existing in relationships between individuals.

Define Feedback

The transmission of evaluative or corrective information about an action, event, or process.

The acromion, lateral third of the clavicle and the spine of the scapula are the insertions for which muscle?

The trapezius muscle inserts at the acromion and the spine of the scapula, the lateral 1/3 of the clavicle. It also originates at the spinous processes of C1 to T12, ligementum nuchae and the medial nuchal line of the occiput.

Atria

The upper chambers of the heart

Define Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

This act addresses the use and disclosure of an individual's health information, the rights granted to individuals, and breach notification requirements. Federal legislation passed in 1996; its main effect in bodywork is in limiting availability of a patient's health care information and personalizing violations of patient privacy.

Define Arbitration

This is an alternative form of dispute resolution that takes place out of court. All parties in the dispute select an impartial third party and create a panel of facilitators. All parties must agree in advance to comply with the award, and participate in a hearing where evidence and testimonies are presented.

In order to palpate the SITS rotator cuff muscle insertion sites, you must place your thumb and fingers where?

Thumb on the lesser tubercle and 2nd-4th finger tips on the greater tubercle. Rationale: The rotator cuff tendons can be palpated best with the client in supine or a seated position. The lesser tubercle is located inferiorly and laterally an inch to the coracoid process. The greater tubercle is located just distal/inferior to the acromion process. You will be able to feel the intertubercular groove lateral to the lesser and medial to the greater. having the thumb on the lesser tubercle and the 2nd-4th finger tips on the greater tubercle will give you the insertions to the SITS. Thumb= subscapularis. 2nd= supraspinatus, 3rd= infraspinatus, 4th= teres minor.

What bone is the second strongest in the body following the femur?

Tibia. Rationale: The tibia is the second strongest bone in the body which takes the weight of the leg from the femur and transmits the weight to the foot.

The pectoralis minor inserts on the coracoid process of the scapula, if this muscle is hypertonic, it will?

Tilt the scapula anteriorly. Rationale: The actions of the pectoralis minor are to depress, ABduct, and tilt the scapula anteriorly so the inferior angle of the scapula is elevated. Downward rotation is performed by Rhomboids and the levator scapula not the pectoralis minor.

Define Discrimination

To distinguish by noting differences. To unfairly treat a person or group of people differently from others, because of characteristics such as, personal beliefs, race, religion, or intelligence.

Flow of blood thru Veins is (directionally).

Toward the heart

The veins of the body perform the function of

Transporting unoxygenated blood to the heart. Rationale: Veins transport unoxygenated blood and waste products back to the heart. Arteries transport Away from the heart.

The layer of muscles between the spinous processes of the thoracic vertebrae and the medial border of the scapula beginning from superficial to deep are

Trapezius, rhomboids, and erector spinae group. Rationale: Trapezius fibers are superficial and perpendicular, rhomboids are intermediate and run diagonal, and the deep ESG's run vertically and attach directly to the spine and ribs. The ESGs are the Erector Spinae Group and consists of the Spinalis, Longissimus, and Iliocostalis that run from the sacrum to the occiput on the posterior vertebral column.

Which muscle inserts at the spine of the scapula?

Trapezius. Rationale: The posterior and medial trapezius insert at the spine of the scapula. The trapezius muscle inserts at the spine of the scapula, acromion process of the scapula, and the lateral 1/3 of the clavicle.

The Adson's test assesses the anterior scalene muscle, what is the variation of this test that assesses the middle scalene muscle?

Travell's. Rationale: The placement and first instructions of the Adson's test is performed: the client is in the seated position, passively extend the affected arm then add a slight external rotation. While standing behind the client, monitor the radial pulse of this arm. Now instead of rotating toward the affected side to assess the anterior scalene, have the client rotate the head away from the affected side to assess the middle scalene having them take and hold a deep breath for 15-20 seconds. The elevating of the first rib with the breath, compresses the neurovascular bundle up against the hypertonic middle scalene muscle. The test is positive if the radial pulse diminishes or the client's symptoms reoccur.

The Adson's test assesses the anterior scalene muscle, what is the variation of this test that assesses the middle scalene muscle?

Travell's. Rationale: The placement and first instructions of the Adson's test is performed: the client is in the seated position, passively extend the affected arm then add a slight external rotation. While standing behind the client, monitor the radial pulse of this arm. Now instead of rotating toward the affected side to assess the anterior scalene, have the client rotate the head away from the affected side to assess the middle scalene having them take and hold a deep breath for 15-20 seconds. The elevating of the first rib with the breath, compresses the neurovascular bundle up against the hypertonic middle scalene muscle. The test is positive if the radial pulse diminishes or the client's symptoms reoccur. Adson's= Anterior scalens, Travell's= Middle Scalene, Wright's HyperABduction= pectoralis minor and Costoclavicular syndrome/ Eden's= clavicle and first rib compression.

define ayrvedic

Treatment assessment includes Ayurvedic Doshas (Vata, Pitta, and Kapha) and Ayurvedic Five elements (Ether, Air, Fire, Water, and Earth). Treatments include diet, herbs, exercises (various forms of yoga), and hands-on techniques. Eastern approaches are geared towards prevention and treatment of root causes. The Western approach is to suppress the symptoms. Ayurvedic medicine stresses self-care and finding your individual approach to well-being. Ayurvedic recognizes psychological, physiological, and emotional causes of disease. Health is the result of balancing harmony between mind, body, and soul (the body cannot be cured without obtaining a healthy mind and soul). Stresses can be balanced within the Five Elements and harmony between one's lifestyle and archetype. It is good to recognize when you need to refer your client out to another practitioner.

Muscles that have three divisions are termed _______ muscles.

Tripartite. Rationale: Muscles that have three divisions are termed tripartite muscles. Tripartite also includes actions executed by a group of 3 muscles. Tri meaning three.

What is the point of articulation for the humerus and the ulna?

Trochlea. Rationale: The trochlea is the point of articulation for the humerus and the ulna.

Which bone of the forearm forms the joint with the humerus?

Ulna: the bone of the forearm that forms the synovial hinge joint with the humerus.

Define National Provider Identifier (NPI)

Under HIPAA guidelines, each practitioner who transmits electronically must obtain an assigned NPI.

What is the meaning of the term National Provider Identifier (NPI)?

Under government guidelines, each practitioner who transmits electronically must obtain an assigned number

If your client's medication or pathology side-effects or symptoms include increased blood pressure, what can you do to ensure your client's safety and comfort during treatment?

Use caution with stimulating treatment techniques. Rationale: Clients who have an increased blood pressure seek to relieve stress and increase relaxation. Use caution with stimulating treatment techniques. Communication must be open and adjustments made in order to maintain successful treatments.

To integrate your entire body within your manual manipulations utilizing all your tools, it is best to?

Use proper alignment; Use a variety of movements; Use the bodies weight. Rationale: Using a variety of movements, the bodies weight, and proper alignment will help to develop a dynamic application of your mechanics, for successful use and longevity of your body's tools for manual therapy.

When applying deep pressure using your olecranon process or elbow, you must

Use your free hand to palpate and guide it. Rationale: The shoulder and elbow must be in alignment for proper stability with the hand relaxed, to ensure benefits for both the client and MT. Your olecranon process is perfect for applying static and moving pressure to large, thick and strong tissue. Guiding with your fingers or thumb will insure proper receptive abilities.

Define Varus stress

Varus (O)= Short medial and long lateral.

The main function of the lateral collateral ankle ligaments is to stabilize against

Varus stress.

What does it mean to stand vertically aligned?

Vertical alignment uses the force of gravity, distributing it throughout your entire body. The weight of your body is evenly distributed over your spine, pelvis, legs and feet allowing the joints and muscles to support you without strain or injury.

Hives occur as a result of

Vessels leaking. Rationale: Allergic reaction may cause the permeability of the vessels to change, allowing fluids to leak into the surrounding tissues, causing the swelling of the skin in patches.

hypnagogic hallucinations

Vivid hallucinations that occur while transitioning from wakefulness to sleep or vice versa

Which is not part of the lower respiratory system?

Vocal cords; Nasal cavity; & Larynx. Rationale: Upper= Nostril, nasal cavity, oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx (vocal cords). Lower= Trachea, primary bronchi, lungs, and diaphragm.

While giving an assessment there are three types of questions you ask to obtain relevant information for the treatment plan; General, Specific, and Pain questions. Which of the following is a Specific question?

Was there medical treatment or therapy given prior to coming to get a massage? Rationale: Check to make sure if there was a cast, cervical collar, physiotherapy, or chiropractic treatments previously. Specific questions focus on the chief or primary complaint. When, how, what was done for treatment, was there a physician's diagnosis, medications, and was it trauma-induced or gradual onset?

If your client becomes dizzy or nauseated during treatment, what can you do to abate the uncomfortable side-effects resulting from a pathology or medication (Rx)?

When a client experiences dizziness or becomes nauseated during a treatment, make an adjustment in their position. The client may need to sit up for a minute or two and request water. If your client is pregnant, turning onto her left side may reduce nausea. Avoid over stimulation with rocking motions or tapotement with clients who have the tendency to become dizzy or nauseated as a result of their medications or pathology.

Define Ambiguity

When a communication is not clear, the message received by the listener can be very different from the message the speaker intended to send.

While giving an assessment there are three types of questions you ask to obtain relevant information for the treatment plan; General, Specific, and Pain questions. Which of the following is a Specific question?

When did the trauma occur or the symptoms begin? Rationale: Specific questions focus on the chief or primary complaint. When, how, what was done for treatment, was there a physician's diagnosis, medications, and was it trauma-induced or gradual onset?

Define Sequential Relationships

When one set of roles completely ends before a different set of roles begin.

While giving an assessment there are three types of questions you ask to obtain relevant information for the treatment plan; General, Specific, and Pain questions. Which of the following is a Specific question?

Where is the affected area? Rationale: Have the client point to the area and draw an outline on themselves or demonstrate the area, on lets say your back, if they can not comfortably show you on themselves. Specific questions focus on the chief or primary complaint. When, how, what was done for treatment, was there a physician's diagnosis, medications, and was it trauma-induced or gradual onset?

Which cells in the body fight infection and eliminate waste?

White blood cells eliminate waste and fight infection also known as leukocytes.

Define Attunement Therapy

Works with physiological elements of relational trauma which are stored in the nervous system.

Define attunement therapy

Works with physiological elements of relational trauma which are stored in the nervous system.

plasma cell

a B cell that produces a single type of antibody

Define accupressure

a Complementary Alternative Medicine that utilizes fingers or knuckles to press meridian points on the surface of the skin to stimulate the body's natural healing abilities. There are 7 helpful points that can be used in helping sinusitis: Lung 7, Lung 11, Large Intestine 4, Stomach 45, Large Intestine 20, and Bladder 2. Massaging along the channel in the direction of the channel flow is especially effective. Pressure is lightly exerted by the finger or knuckle on the front or side of the neck, over nerves, and around sensory organs. Pressure is held for 30-60 seconds on the local point and 1-2 minutes on the distal points.

define accupressure

a Complementary Alternative Medicine that utilizes fingers or knuckles to press meridian points on the surface of the skin to stimulate the body's natural healing abilities. There are six points that are helpful in treating tendonitis: Triple warmer 5, Triple warmer 17, Gall Bladder 20, Governing Vessel 14, Bladder 10, and Liver 2. Massaging along the channel in the direction of the channel flow is especially effective. Pressure is lightly exerted by the finger or knuckle on the front or side of the neck, over nerves, and around sensory organs. Pressure is held for 30-60 seconds on the local point and 1-2 minutes on the distal points.

Define Parkinson's

a Progressively diminishing basal ganglia function resulting in slow, increasingly difficult movement, accompanied by resting tremors and muscular rigidity.

define adenoma

a benign tumor of glandular epithelial cells

what is a risk of massage for a client experiencing thrombophlebitis?

a blood clot fragments and travels to lung and causes pulmonary embolism

traumatic brain injury

a blow to the head or a penetrating head injury that damages the brain

define cyanosis

a bluish coloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to insufficient oxygenation

syndesmophytes

a bone spur attached to a ligament

the main factor for developing acne vulgaris for most people is...

a boost in testosterone production

aneurysm

a bulge in the arterial wall, usually in the aorta

myeloma

a cancer that targets maturing B-cells in bone marrow

dyssomnia

a category including Sleep disorders that involve difficulty falling asleep or remaining asleep

ventricle

a cavity, and this case, the inferior chambers of the heart

define cerebrap palsy (CP)

a central nervous condition as a Motor function disorder resulting from damage to the immature brain

central sensitization

a change in the central nervous system in response to repeated incidences of pain, leading the person to feel more pain in response to the same stimulus, or even to feel pain in response to a stimulus that would not normally be considered painful

define bismuth

a chemical element sometimes used in the treatment of ulcers

serotonin

a chemical found in many tissues, functioning as a neurotransmitter in the brain and a vasoconstrictor, stimulator of smooth muscle contractions, and gastric secretion inhibitor and other parts of the body

reactive attachment disorder

a childhood stress-related disorder that leads to a person being pathologically withdrawn and inhibited lasts through adulthood

define dermatitis herpetiformis

a chronic condition characterized by a rash of extremely itchy blisters

define asthma

a chronic disorder of the airways that interferes with breathing. may be triggered by external factors such as allergens or pollutants, has also been linked to emotional stress. the bronchioles are constricted, so alveoli don't empty easily.

Define Asthma

a chronic inflammatory disorder with bronchospasms (narrowing of the airways in the lungs), a condition that is reversible over time or following treatment.

define neuraminidase inhibitors

a class of antiviral drugs that targets influenza

Geniculate ganglion

a cluster of sensory fibers of the facial nerve, running through the facial canal

leukemia

a collection of blood disorders involving the production of non-functioning myeloid or lymphoid cells in bone marrow

anxiety disorders

a collection of distinct psychiatric disorders that have to do with irrational fears

syndrome

a collection of signs and symptoms associated with a specific disease process

complex regional pain syndrome

a collection of signs and symptoms including long lasting pain and changes it to the skin muscles joints nerves and blood vessels of the affected areas

Meige Syndrome

a combination of blepharospasm and oromandibular dystonia

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

a combination of conditions related to prolonged alcohol abuse and thiamine deficiency, including tremor, psychosis, confusion, memory loss, and delerium tremens

obsessive compulsive disorder

a combination of intrusive uncontrollable unwelcome thoughts or obsessions and highly developed rituals designed to try to quell a control those thoughts

postthrombotic syndrome

a combination of swelling, pain, and skin damage that sometimes follows DVT

dystonia

a common condition that involves repetitive, involuntary, sometimes sustained contractions of skeletal muscles.

patent foramen ovale

a common defect in which an opening in the septum connects the left and right atria

define nitrate

a common preservative in meats. contains one more oxygen than nitrites

define respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

a common virus that causes colds in healthy adults, but can be serious in infants and the immunocompromised

acute chest syndrome

a complication of infection or a sickle cell blockage; can be life-threatening

Rh sensitization

a complication that occurs when a person with Rh negative blood becomes pregnant with an RH positive child for the second time, in which the mother's antibodies attack the fetuses red blood cells

high-density lipoprotein (HDL)

a compound made up of both lipids and proteins, which is associated with a reduced risk of cardiovascular disease

low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

a compound made up of both lipids and proteins, which is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease

define superior vena cava syndrome

a condition caused by compression of the superior vena cava, usually by a tumor

define angular cheilitis

a condition characterized by inflammation and cracking at the corners of the mouth

define osteomalacia

a condition characterized by the progressive softening of bones

sequela/ae

a condition following the consequence of a disease

Allodynia

a condition in which a normally painless stimulus causes pain

define latent infection

a condition in which a pathogen is present in a person but is dormant, causing no symptoms

savant

a condition in which a person with developmental disorders shows one or more areas of unusually strong ability or skill

Fragile X syndrome

a condition in which a pinch appears on the X chromosome, leading to mental disability

Autonomic dysreflexia

a condition in which an ordinary stimulus results in an uncontrollable sympathetic reaction, caused by a spinal cord injury above T6

define barrett esophagus

a condition in which normal esophageal tissue is replaced by tissue similar to intestinal lining

what is osteoarthritis

a condition in which synovial joints (ends of bones) lose healthy cartilage

Pernicious anemia

a condition in which the body doesn't produce enough red blood cells due to insufficient amounts of vit B12 (either due to inadequate consumption or because it's not properly absorbed)

locked in syndrome

a condition in which the body in most of the face are paralyzed but Consciousness remains

neutropenia

a condition in which the body lacks sufficient neutrophils, leaving it susceptible to infection

define celiac disease

a condition in which the intestinal villi are flattened or destroyed altogether as part of a reaction in the presence of gluten. aka celiac sprue, nontropical sprue, or gluten-sensitive enteropathy

chronic venous insufficiency

a condition in which the valves in the veins are weakened, resulting in edema as blood fails to return to the heart

monoclonal gammopathy of undermined significance

a condition in which there are abnormal antibodies present in the blood

define gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

a condition involving damage to the epithelial lining of the esophagus, when it is chronically exposed to digestive juices from the stomach. usually associated with a weakness at the lower esophageal sphincter

define irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

a condition involving digestive system dysfunction w/out major structural changes. considered a biopsychosocial disorder involving aspects of basic health processes as they relate to mood and stress management. aka spastic colon, mucus colitis, functional bowel syndrome.

Define plantar fasciitis

a condition involving pain at the plantar fascia that spreads from the calcaneus to the proximal phalanges on the plantar surface of the foot

hydrocephalus

a condition marked by the excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid

hydrocephalus

a condition markes by the excessive accumulation of csf

Define Still's disease and juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

a condition of chronic synovial inflammation in children. Inflammatory arthritides are a group of inflammatory diseases affecting connective tissue including joints.

define diverticular disease

a condition of the small intestine or colon in which the mucosal ad submucosal layers of the GI tract bulge through the outer muscular layer to form a sac. a multipfactoral condition involving a combination of inefficient colon motility, changes in the strength of the colon wall, and the lack of sufficient dietary fiber

chronic fatigue syndrome

a condition related to HPA axis dysfunction, neurally mediated hyptension and variable symptoms

psoriasis

a condition that comes in plaque, pustular, and erythrodermic varieties

HIV/AIDS

a condition that involves a slowly progressive pathogen that systematically dismantles the immune system

hypertension

a condition that is often the starting point for progressive cardiovascular disease

spondylolisthesis

a condition that may involve bone fractures, pressure on nerve roots, and instability in the low back.

define Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

a condition where demyelination of the nerves occurs.

define nonalcoholic fatty liver disease

a condition, often asymptomatic, characterized by fatty deposits in the liver of a person who consumes little to no alcohol

tenesmus

a constant or recurring feeling of needing to have a bowel movement, regardless of the actual contents of the colon

describe tuberculosis

a contagious bacterial infection of the lungs

pandemic

a contagious disease affecting the global population

define neti pot

a container used to administer nasal flushing in order to clear the sinuses

Define Iliotibial Band contracture

a contracture or thickening of the IT band.

define bilirubin

a dark bile pigment formed from the hemoglobin of dead red blood cells

define billrubin

a dark bile pigment formed from the hemoglobin of dead red blood cells

spina bifida

a defect in which the vertebral Ark fails to close completely over the spinal cord

define clubbing

a deformity of the fingers and fingernails that is associated with several lung and heart conditions

creutzfeldt jakob disease

a degenerative and fatal neurological disease caused by prions. commonly known as mad cow disease

morbidity

a disease State; the ratio of sick to well people within a population

define encephalopathy

a disease affecting brain function

amyloidosis

a disease characterized by extracellular accumulation of amyloid proteins in various organs and tissues

idiopathic

a disease of Unknown Origin

compression

a disk, bone spur, or tumor puts mechanical pressure on the cord

periodic limb movement disorder

a disorder characterized by problematic episodes of limb movements during sleep

restless leg syndrome

a disorder characterized by the involuntary movement of an extremity, usually one leg

post-traumatic stress disorder

a disorder experienced by a person who is exposed to death actual or threatened injury or violence either as a participant or as an in-person Witness

sleep apnea

a disorder in which the person stops breathing for brief periods while asleep

Define Periosteum

a double-layered connective tissue that covers and nourishes bone.

Carbidopa

a drug used to treat symptoms of Parkinson's disease

philadelphia chromosome

a dysfunctional chromosome associated with the development of leukemia

pyrogen

a fever-inducing agent

define mesentary

a fold of tissue that anchors the intestines and other abdominal organs to the posterior abdominal wall

myelodysplastic anemia

a form of anemia in which bone marrow manufactures abnormal cells. May be a precursor to myeloma or leukemia

Psychodynamic therapy

a form of psychotherapy that focuses on how unresolved inner conflicts affect one's decision making

embolism

a fragment of debris travels until it is lodged somewhere in the circulatory system

Sensation

a function of neurons: to transmit information from the body to the brain

how can having gallstones lead to death?

a gallstone may block the pancreatic duct leading to acute pancreatitis

define transmembrane conductance regulatory gene

a gene that is responsible for proteins that conduct chloride in and out of cells. mutation is associated with cystic fibrosis

define tumor suppressor gene

a gene that suppresses or protects against cancer. aka antioncogene

define hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer syndrome

a genetic condition that causes a predisposition to colorectal cancer. aka lynch syndrome

define hemochromatosis

a genetic disorder characterized by the over absorption of iron

muscular dystrophy

a genetic disorder that leads to the wasting of muscle tissue

allogeneic transplant

a graft transplanted between genetically different individuals of the same species

limbic system

a group of brain structures that exert major influence on the endocrine and autonomic nervous systems

obsessive-compulsive and Related Disorders

a group of conditions that used to be classified as anxiety disorders, but have been designated as unique because of their predictable pattern of obsessive preoccupation and repetitive behaviors

Inflammatory arthritis

a group of diseases characterized by inflammation of the joints and often other tissues

tethered cord

a group of malformations that all involve the Restriction of the movement of the spinal cord within the spinal canal

complement

a group of proteins that work with antibodies during an immune response

Enterovirus

a group of viruses that attack the intestines

define fecalith

a hard, rock like mass of feces in the intestine

Describe the internal surface of the small intestine

a healthy one looks like velvet with millions of tiny villi

define severe acute respiratory syndrome

a highly contagious respiratory illness caused by a type of coronavirus

blood-brain barrier

a highly selective filter formed by endothelial cells and astrocytes to prevent the passage of material from the blood directly into the CNS

melatonin

a hormone secreted by the pineal gland that is associated with cycles of sleeping and waking

Erythropoietin

a hormone that stimulates the formation of red blood cells

define nosocomial

a hospital-acquired infection

kaposi sarcoma

a kind of skin cancer commonly found in men with AIDS

substantia nigra

a large mass in the brain stem, composed of pigmented cells. Synthesizes dopamine

define bulla

a lesion in the lungs where alveoli join in cavities of 1cm or larger

Define Adult onset Still's disease (AOSD)

a less common polyarthritis identical to childhood-onset Still's disease with additional symptoms; lymphadenopathy and pericarditis. Infections and adrenal insufficiencies can be fatal in some cases.

C-reactive protein

a liver enzyme secreted in the presence of inflammation, an excellent predictor of heart attack and stroke

anglioedema

a localized allergic reaction involving swelling and itching

morphea

a localized form of scleroderma

thrombus

a lodged clot

describe the flu

a lung disease that causes the alveoli to fuse and sometimes to rupture

lymphangion

a lymphatic vessel

triglyceride

a major component of natural fats and oils, containing glycerol and three fatty acids

Chiari II malformation

a malformation of the brain and which part of the brain protrudes through the foramen magnum

define adenocarcinoma

a malignant tumor of glandular epithelial cells

hematoma

a mass of clotted blood within an organ or tissue

granuloma

a mass of granulation tissue formed in response to infection or a foreign substance

titer

a measurement of concentration (as in the concentration of a virus in the blood)

define hemodialysis

a medical procedure in which blood is purified outside of the body, used when the kidneys cannot perform this function normally. commonly called dialysis

sclerosing agent

a medicine injected into the blood vessels in order to shrink them

psychosis

a mental and behavioral disorder affecting the person's ability to recognize reality

CREST syndrome

a mnemonic for the most common scleroderma symptoms: calcinosis; raynaud phenomenon, esophageal motility disorders, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia

diabetes

a modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease

major depressive disorder

a mood disorder in which a person feels sad and hopeless for weeks or months

Define Cerebral palsy (CP)

a motor function disorder resulting from damage to the immature brain.

motor unit

a motor neuron and the skeletal muscle fibers it innervates

Parkinson disease

a movement disorder involving the progressive degeneration of nerve tissue and a reduction in neurotransmitter production in the CNS

Lewy body disease

a multisystem disease involving abnormal proteins in the brain that contribute to dementia and parkinsons disease symptoms

stapedius

a muscle in the ear that stabilizes the stapes bone. Smallest skeletal muscle

hypnic myoclonia

a muscular jerk experienced at the onset of sleep that may replicate the feeling of falling

define multidrug-resistant tuberculosis

a mutation that occurs when a patient doesn't fully treat drug-susceptible tuberculosis. bacteria are resistant to 1st line anti-biotics, so requires more expensive drugs that can have dangerous side effects. if active, spreadable to others.

define symbiosis

a mutually beneficial relationship between two organisms

reflex arc

a neural pathway for an action reflex, which bypasses the brain

dopamine

a neurotransmitter in the basal ganglia; associated with attention and pleasure

GABA

a neurotransmitter in the cns

hypocretin

a neurotransmitter produced by the hypothalamus that regulates wakefulness and appetite. Also called orexin

Define Patellofemoral syndrome

a painful degenerative change to the articular cartilage on the underside of the patella.

primary symptoms of ganglion cyst

a painless bump, off and on the hand or the foot

hemifacial spasm

a painless tick that is related to blood vessel compression of the facial nerve rather than the try geminal nerve

lesion

a pathologic change in tissue

Excitotoxicity

a pathologic state in which nerve cells are damaged by excessive exposure to excitatory neurotransmitters

fetal alcohol syndrome

a pattern of health problems that arise in children of mothers who consume excessive amounts of alcohol during pregnancy

angioplasty

a procedure for opening a blood vessel, usually by means of balloon dilation or the placement of a stent

define balloon sinusotomy

a procedure in which a balloon is inflated inside the sinuses in order to restructure them without extensive scarring

percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA)

a procedure in which a balloon is used to enlarge an artery

colostomy

a procedure in which an artificial opening is created between the skin of the abdomen and the colon

define autodigestion

a process in which cells are digested by enzymes produced within them

positive feedback loop

a process in which response intensifies the stimulus causing it

complication

a process or event that occurs during the course of a disease that is not an essential part of that disease

Huntington disease

a progressive degenerative disease of the CNS that is ultimately terminal, brought about by an autosomal dominant genetic mutation

define chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

a progressive respiratory disease characterized by difficulty breathing

define albumin

a protein found in blood

define neuraminidase

a protein found on the outer surface of influenza viruses

define alpha fetoprotein

a protein produced by a fetus. levels can be measured to detect neural tube defects before birth

define immunoglobulin

a protein that helps the immune system recognize and attack foreign objects. aka antibodies

tau

a protein that helps to maintain the structure of the cytoskeleton. found in the plaques of people with alzheimer disease

define alpha-1 antitrypsin

a protein that protects alveoli

interleukin-1

a protein that raises body temperature

define radon

a radioactive gas

Tuberous sclerosis

a rare genetic disease that causes nonmalignant tumors to grow in the brain and other vital organs

define carcinoid tumors

a rare kind of cancer found in the digestive tract

malar, or malar rash

a rash of the cheeks, often associated with lupus or erysipelas. aka a butterfly rash

adjustment disorder

a reaction to a traumatic or non-traumatic stressor can be acute or chronic after the termination of the stressor

Define Chronic bronchitis

a respiratory pathology resulting in the production of purulent sputum for at least three months in a row over a consecutive two years.

define sinusitis

a respiratory pathology that is an acute or chronic inflammation of the paranasal sinuses.

sickle cell disease

a result of dysfunctional hemoglobin

define nitrite

a salt or ester of nitrous acid, commonly used as a preservative

body mass idex

a scale calculated using the ratio between a person's height and weight

define acute bronchitis

a self-limiting inflammation of the respiratory tract, specifically of the bronchial tree

vertigo

a sensation of being spun around

agoraphobia

a situation where people avoid any situations that they may feel a trigger or a panic attack also known as fear of Open Spaces

aphthae

a small ulcer on a mucous membrane, especially the mouth (singular, aphtha)

persistent vegetative state

a state characterized by normal levels of arousal including sleep-wake Cycles but complete lack of awareness

spasticity

a state of increased muscle tone with exaggerated muscle tendon reflexes

thrombus

a stationary clot that may grow in place

define extensively drug resistant tuberculosis

a strain that resists most antibiotics, so treatment is limited to less effective drugs.

cellulitis refers to what?

a strep infection of deep skin layers

ischemic stroke

a stroke where the blood loss is caused by a blockage

hippocampus

a structure in the brain located within the temporal lobe. part of limbic system and involved in the consolidation of information from short to long term memory

symptom

a subjective experience relating to a disease or disorder

allergen

a substance that elicits an allergic reaction

antigen

a substance that provokes an immune response

disassociative PTSD

a subtype of PTSD describes a person who feels detached from his or her mind or body or so the world is unreal and distorted

simple partial seizures

a subtype of partial seizure where the patient doesn't lose Consciousness, they may become weak, numb, May smell or taste things that aren't present, and they have some changes in vision or temporary vertigo with some muscular tics or twitching

complex partial seizures

a subtype of partial seizures that is specifically associated with temporal lobe dysfunction. The patient may exhibit repetitive behaviors such as pacing in a circle, rocking, or smacking the lips. He may laugh uncontrollably or experience fear, have visual or olfactory hallucinations

define levulose

a sugar found in many fruits. aka fructose

bypass surgery

a surgery in which a diseased blood vessel is bypassed by a grafted vessel in order to restore blood flow

sympathectomy

a surgical procedure that destroys nerves in the sympathetic nervous system

peripheral neuropathy

a symptom or a complication of other underlying conditions where peripheral nerves either singly or in groups are damaged through lack of circulation, chemical imbalance, trauma, or other factors

What is the definition of contraindication?

a symptom or circumstance that makes treatment inappropriate.

anemia

a symptom rather than a disease in itself. indicates a shortage of red blood cells, or of hemoglobin, or both

anaphylaxis

a systemic allergic reaction involving a potentially dangerous drop in blood pressure

cognitive behavioral therapy

a technique in Psychotherapy whereby negative patterns of thought are challenged in order to alter them

pneumatic compression

a technique in which venous circulation in a limb is mechanically increased through the use of intermittently inflated sleeves

desensitization

a therapy by which a person is introduced to gradually increasing amounts of an allergen in order to eliminate allergic reaction

dioxin

a toxic, carcinogenic compound that is the byproduct of some herbicides

define aflatoxin B1

a toxin produced by some strains of aspergilus flavus that causes cancer in some animals

TENS unit

a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation device used to control pain

TENS unit

a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation device, used to control pain

Cataplexy

a transient attack of extreme generalized muscular weakness, often precipitated by an emotional reaction or surprise

autogenic transplant

a transplant using a person's own tissues

embolism

a traveling clot or collection of debris

vagus nerve stimulation

a treatment for depression that does not respond to other interventions. also used for control of epileptic seizures

Describe Aston Patterning

a treatment system that can transform the quality of life for you and your client. A session should take into consideration your client's unique patterns, specific goals, needs, and interests. Sessions may include massage, movement education, fitness training, postural evaluation, and environmental modifications (i.e. workstations). There are five steps: History, pretesting (walking, standing, sitting, bending, lifting, and reaching), movement education, bodywork (massage, Myo-kinetics, and Artho-kinetics), and ergonomics.

transcranial magnetic stimulation

a treatment using magnetic fields to stimulate nerves in the brain in order to relieve depression

plastocytoma

a tumor made of mutated immature B cells

define stromal tumor

a tumor that rises from the connective tissue stroma rather than epithelium

define monoclonal antibodies

a type of antibodies that are made by identical cells that are clones of one parent cell. they attach to one specific epitope, making them useful in targeting cancer cells without harming surrounding tissues

define mesothelioma

a type of cancer of the mesothelium. the cancer arises in the pleural sac that surrounds the lung; closely associated with asbestos exposure

subacute cutaneous lupus

a type of cutaneous lupus that is between chronic and acute in nature

Oligodendrocytes

a type of glial cells found in the cns

osteoarthritis.

a type of joint inflammation that is limited specifically to synovial joints

aminosalicylates

a type of medicines used to treat inflammatory bowel disease

beta amyloid

a type of protein associated with formation of plaque in the brain

define hemagglutinin

a type of protein that causes agglutination of red blood cells. found on the outer coating of influenza and other antigens

interpersonal therapy

a type of psychotherapy focused on interpersonal relationships and skills

phlebitis

a vein is swollen and may be painful

what is the best description of herpes simplex?

a very common viral infection of nerve endings in the skin

define influenza

a viral infection of the respiratory tract

polio

a viral infection that targets intestinal mucosa first and motor nerve cells in the anterior Horn of the spinal cord later

Arbovirus

a virus transmitted by arthropods, such as mosquitoes, ticks, and midges

septum

a wall between two Chambers

cortical spreading depression

a wave of increased brain activity that usually begins in the occipital lobes and spreads anteriorly

Neuroplasticity

ability of the cns to change functionally and structurally as a result of injury or damage

motility

ability to move

define steatorrhea

abnormal amounts of fat in the feces resulting from poor absorption of fats in the intestines

cardiomegaly

abnormal enlargement of the heart

define hepatomegaly

abnormal enlargement of the liver

nystagmus

abnormal involuntary eye movements

stenosis

abnormal narrowing of any Canal or orifice

photosensitivity

abnormal sensitivity to light

define icterus

abnormal yellowing of the skin and eyes aka jaundice

hyperacusis

abnormally acute hearing due to irritability of sensory nerves

define pulmonary hypertension

abnormally high blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs

hyperthermia

abnormally high body temperature

hypercalcemia

abnormally high calcium levels

define hypoxia

abnormally low oxygen levels in the body

hyper-

above, too much

amenorrhea

absence of menses

anoxia

absence of oxygen

A comedone is the principal lesion connected with which condition?

acne vulgaris

also sometimes called a chest cold, usually a complication of the common cold/flu

acute bronchitis

influenza is often accompanied by this condition

acute bronchitis often accompanies this condition

glomerulonephritis

acute kidney inflammation

toxic megacolon

acute non-obstructive dilation of the colon

define biliary colic

acute pain associated with the impaction of a gallstone in the cystic duct

CRPS stage 1

acute stage. signs and symptoms are prevalent during the first three months of pain including severe burning pain at the site of energy, muscle spasm, reduce range of motion, excessive hair and nail growth of the injury is on a hand or foot

define double pneumonia (subtype of pneumonia)

affects both lungs, can be bacterial or viral

rheumatoid arthritis

affects synovial joints, but may also involve nodules on the sclera of the eye and sjogren syndrome

-philia

affinity

contra-

against

disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs)

agents that apparently alter the course and progression of rheumatoid arthritis, rather than simply suppressing inflammation and pain

define small cell lung cancer

aka "oat cell" carcinoma. grows fast, spreads quickly, and is rarely operable

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

aka ALS. a progressive and fatal condition that destroys motor neurons in the Central and peripheral nervous systems, leading to the atrophy of voluntary muscles.

H5N1 (subtype of influenza)

aka Avian flu, Bird flu. Variety that passes from wild water birds to domestic poultry. Extremely virulent with a high mortality rate among humans, becomes dangerous if it mututates with a more communicable form of seasonal flu

H1N1 (subtype of influenza)

aka Swine flu. Unique among viruses as it targets people under 65 yrs old w/very extreme & sometimes fatal consequences.

define tuberculosis

aka TB, a disease involving pus and bacterial filled bumps, usually in the lungs but sometimes in other locations as well

define noninfectious sinusitis

aka allergic rhinitis, hay fever. causes inflammation of the sinus membranes without underlying infection, often distinguished from infectious sinusitis by the lack of congestion and by the quality of the nasal discharge which tends to be thin and runny.

CRPS stage 3

aka atrophic stage. irreversible changes to the affected structures have occurred. Bones are thin and brittle, joints are in Mobile, muscles tighten into permanent contracture. Condition May spread proximally up the limb, pain sensation is self-sustaining phenomenon and not responsive to most treatments

define invasive candidiasis

aka candemia. candidiasis that has invaded the blood stream

persistent depressive disorder

aka dysthymia. a depressed mood that lasts for at least 2 years

CRPS stage 2

aka dystrophic stage. changes in the growth pattern of effective tissues. Swelling spreads proximally from the initial site, the hair stops growing, the nails become brittle and easily cracked. Skin that was red and stage one takes on a bluish cast in stage 2. intensely painful

define exercise induced asthma

aka exercise induced bronchoconstriction. a version that occurs w/physical exertion, symptoms can be delayed several hours. central issue may be that hard working athletes might not be able to adequately warm, filter and moisten the air they take into their lungs, leading to a higher risk of irritation

define liver cancer

aka hepatocellular carcinoma, cancer that originates in the liver.

define nosocomial pneumonia

aka hospital acquired pneumonia. an infection that develops within 48 hours of being in a hospital of other healthcare setting

chronic pancreatitis is usually related to

alcohol abuse

what massage technique is contraindicated for someone who recently had a heart attack?

all techniques involving the chest

para-

alongside, near

dissecting aneurysm

also called "false aneurysm", this is the least common and most painful type of aortic damage. in this situation the blood pressure actually splits the layers of the aorta between the tunica intima (innermost layer) and the tunica media (muscular layer)

stroke

also called Brain Attack is damage to brain cells due to oxygen deprivation brought about by thrombosis embolism or hemorrhage

bipolar disorder

also has been called manic depression, marked by mood swings on a continuum from major depression to mania

Define Active Isolated Stretching (AIS)

also known as the Mattes Method, is a modality used to provide effective stretching of major muscle groups. A type of athletic stretching method used to lengthen muscles and release the fascia, it restores physiological traits by increasing the function of the superficial and deep fascial layers. To avoid reflexive contractions by the antagonistic muscle group, the stretch is repeated no more than 8-10 times. The stretch past the client's endfield should be no longer than 2.0 seconds with no more than one pound of pressure. The muscle must return to full relaxation or neutral after each stretch.

define diverticulum

an abnormal bulging out of the intestine

arteriovenous malformation

an abnormal connection between the arteries and veins in the brain; may cause a hemorrhagic stroke

define polyp

an abnormal growth that projects from a mucous membrane

fistula

an abnormal opening between two hollow organs or between a hollow organ and the outside of the body

define rales

an abnormal rattling sound when breathing

clasp-knife effect

an abnormal reflex in which passive flexion of a joint is resisted at first, but gives away suddenly with continued pressure

Babinski sign

an abnormal reflexive extension of the great toe, indicating an injury to the cns

paresthesia

an abnormal sensation, such as burning, prickling, tickling, or tingling

define polycythemia

an abnormally high number of red cells in the blood

define hepatocyte

an active liver cell

define adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

an acute condition characterized by widespread inflammation of the lungs

Define Poliomyelitis

an acute viral infection specifically affecting the motor neurons in the spinal cord and brain stem.

these are likely to trigger an asthma attack

an allergen, air pollution, stress

homocysteine

an amino acid in the blood that contributes to endothelial injury

immunoglobulin

an antibody

social phobia

an anxiety disorder involving strong, irrational fears relating to social situations

infarct

an area of dead tissue resulting from lack of blood supply

what skin color changes might you see in a dark-skinned client during an episode of raynaud syndrome?

an ashy gray color

seronegative spondyloarthropathy

an autoimmune disease of the vertebral column that does not result in antinuclear antibodies in the blood

sjogren syndrome

an autoimmune disorder in which the glands that produce tears and saliva are destroyed

define cystic fibrosis

an autosomal recessive genetic disorder (person must inherit one faulty gene from each parent to develop the condition) affects exocrine glands, causing the production of thick, viscous secretions. the digestive, integumentary, and reproductive system glands are all involved with the disease, but greatest impact is on respiratory system

Tricylic Antidepressants

an early class of antidepressant that works to alter neurotransmitter reuptake, these have more side effects than more recent options

prodrome

an early or predictive symptom of a disease

neural tube

an embryonic structure from which the brain and spinal cord eventually develop

renin

an enzyme produced by the kidneys that is involved in vasoconstriction and hypertension

transcriptase

an enzyme that converts RNA to DNA

hypercoagulability

an excessive tendency to form blood clots

what is the best description of acne rosacea?

an idiopathic skin condition involving redness, bones, and telangiectasias

allergic reaction

an immune system response to a trigger that is not threatening

define aspiration pneumonia

an infection brought about when a person accidentally inhales food, liquid, or other substances into the lungs. risk for someone with swallowing difficulties or weakened cough reflex

lymphangitis

an infection of lymph capillaries

encephalitis

an infection of the brain, usually caused by any of a variety of viruses

herpes zoster

an infection of the nervous system caused by the varicella-zoster virus which targets the dendrites and the receiving end of sensory neurons, leading to painful fluid-filled blisters on the nerve endings of specific dermatome

define common cold

an infection of the upper respiratory tract brought about by any hundreds of viruses

bacterial meningitis

an infection usually due to an invasion of streptococcus pneumonia or neisseria meningitides

causes of Lyme's disease

an infection with a spirochetal bacterium that spreads through the bite of two species of ticks, deer ticks and Western black-legged ticks

sphygmomanometer

an instrument for measuring blood pressure

synkinesis

an involuntary movement that follows a voluntary one

sign

an objectively observable indication of a disease or disorder

urushiol

an oil that causes an allergic skin reaction in most people

stoma-

an opening, mouth

membranous labyrinth

an organ of the airline within the Bony Labyrinth. Filled with endolymph

dementia

an umbrella term describing cognitive degeneration that mostly affects older adults. Also known as neurocognitive disorder

inflammatory bowel disease

an umbrella term encompassing both crohn disease and ulcerative colitis

sine scleroderma

an unusual form of systemic scleroderma with significant organ involvement and minimal affect on the skin

demographic

and identified group of people about which information is gathered

intrathecal

and injection directly into the cns

acne vulgaris occurring in adolescence is often associated with...

androgen production

these are gonad steroid hormones

androgen, estrogen, and progesterone

another name for chest pain

angina pectoris

this condition typically causes localized swelling in the skin, genitals, extremities, or gastrointestinal tract

angloedema

"bamboo spine" is a condition connected with this disease

ankylosing spondylitis

a condition that affects more men than women, which makes it unusual among autoimmune diseases.

ankylosing spondylitis

in this condition, cartilaginous discs ossify and vertebral bodies become fused

ankylosing spondylitis

myalgic encephalomyelitis

another name for chronic fatigue syndrome

fever

another term for pyrexia

antinuclear antibodies

antibodies produced by the immune system that attack the body's own cells

a person who recently had a heart attack is most likely to be taking which kind of medication?

anticoagulant

client reports they had a pulmonary embolism 8 weeks ago, what medication are they likely to be using?

anticoagulants

this medication is typically used to treat mild allergies

antihisamines

define oncogene

any of a family of genes that normally code for proteins related to cell growth, but which can encourage the development of cancer if mutated or abnormally activated

trauma

any physical or mental injury

thrombolytic

any substance that dissolves blood clots

concussion

any temporary loss of brain function

lymphoma

any variety of cancer that grows in lymph tissues. many types have been identified, some of which are aggressive and very threatening, others of which may progress more slowly

cells affected and early signs of leukemia

any while blood cell, myeloid (monocytes, neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils) or lymphoid (t cells, b cells, natural killer cells); and anemia, thrombocytopenia, poor immune function are early signs

peri-

around

this tissue is typically damaged first in someone with chronic hypertension?

arterial walls

which blood vessels are most often affected by raynaud syndrome?

arterioles in the extremities

another term for joint replacement

arthroplasty

how is anemia best understood?

as a symptom of several different conditions

most common contributing factor to a heart attack

atherosclerosis

which is the list of fungal infections of the skin?

athlete's foot, jock itch, ringworm

what is the most common form of eczema?

atopic dermatitis

narcolepsy

attacks of sleep. three basic symptoms include cataplexy, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations

your client has asthma, what are some things you can do to promote her comfort in the session room?

avoid any scents or stimulants that might trigger an attack

your client has allergic sinusitis. what accomodation will probably help her to be more comfortable?

avoid long periods of prone work so she doesn't have pressure on her sinuses

a client with psoriasis has lesions only on elbows and knees. they have mild itching, and you note some small fissures. how do you adapt your massage?

avoid the itchy areas and any areas of nonintact skin

Define Ayurvedic, literally

ayus meaning "life" or "life principle," and the word veda, which refers to a system of "knowledge" or "study," roughly translates to the "knowledge of life."

in lymphangitis, the lymph capilaries become infected, usually with...

bacteria

alopecia

baldness. can refer to body and facial hair as well as hair on the head.

which is the most commonly diagnosed skin cancer?

basal cell carcinoma

what occurs in a person with right-sided heart failure?

because the right ventricle doesn't pump efficiently, fluid accumulates in the extremities

-gen

beginning, producing

define pancreatic cancer

begins as mutation of certain genes that trigger uncontrolled growth of cells in the pancreas. usually occurs in the exocrine ducts of this gland, but can be found in the hormone producing cells

hypo-

below, too little

benefits of massage for a person with pneumonia

benefits are: after acute phase has passed bodywork can be enjoyed like the rest of the population

benefits of massage for someone with asthma

benefits are: can be soothing who lives in anxiety about being able to draw a deep breath, and it can help make profound changes in the ease with which breathing happens

benefits of massage for someone with laryngeal cancer

benefits are: can reduce anxiety/depression, improve appetite and sleep, generally add to quality of life

benefits of massage for someone with stomach cancer

benefits are: eases pain, anxiety, depression, sleeplessness, and other side effects of cancer treatment. treatment must be gauged according to the resilience of the client and cautions connected to advancement of cancer

benefits of massage for someone with emphysema

benefits are: gentle massage is appropriate for these patients, who often feel fatigue. more specific work on muscles of chest, shoulders, neck can be beneficial if tolerable

benefits of massage for a person with common cold

benefits are: gentle work can be soothing, produce good sleep. if recovering massage can clear sinuses.

benefits of massage therapy for a person with acute bronchitis

benefits are: gentle, non-demanding bodywork, as long as precautions are taken to protect the therapist from infection. when the client is in recovery, massage may be helpful for improving fatigue

possible benefits of massage therapy for a person with influenza

benefits are: gentle, nondemanding bodywork during an acute phase may be highly relaxing; afterwards massage would promote good sleep and rebounded energy

benefits of massage therapy for someone with lung cancer

benefits are: helps with insomnia, pain, fatigue, anxiety, depression

benefits of massage for someone with esophageal cancer

benefits are: improve sleep and apetite, reduce depression and anxiety, help with pain.

benefits of massage for a person with sinusitis

benefits are: only gentle work away from the face helps during acute phase. afterwards lymph work around the face may help drainage

benefits of massage for someone with cystic fibrosis

benefits are: safe and appropriate under the circumstance that no acute infection is present and the therapist has no pathogens to pass along. adults are prone to anxiety/depression and massage can help with caution for a chance of osteoporosis, diabetes, etc

benefits of massage for someone with gastroenteritis

benefits include: if client has disgestive system irritation that is unrelated to infection or cancer, bodywork could be helpful in promoting a parasympathetic state that can improve function and comfort

benefits of massage for someone with colorectal cancer

benefits: as long as the challenges of treatment are respected massage can be useful for these clients

benefits of massage for someone with liver cancer

benefits: careful highly informed massage can help to provide comfort pain relief at the end of life

benefits of massage for a person with peptic ulcers

benefits: general parasympathetic response massage brings about can be helpful for a client with this disease

benefits of massage for someone with cirrhosis

benefits: gentle work inviting calm and reducing anxiety can be helpful. if they're encouraged to exercise, massage may help as well

benefits of massage for someone with gastroesophageal reflux disease

benefits: just the same as the rest of the population when condition is successfully treated. work around the superior aspect of the abdomen should be conservative

benefits of massage for someone with IBS

benefits: massage addresses anxiety and stress

benefits of massage for someone with diverticular disease

benefits: massage unlike to improve prognosis, but if care is taken not to exacerbate symptoms it may be helpful to deal with anxiety and abdominal pain

benefits of massage for someone with pancreatic cancer

benefits: pain, anxiety, depression, general quality of life for someone with this terminal disease

benefits of massage for someone with hepatitis

benefits: when not acute is appropriate. improve quality of life or help patient tolerate side effects of medication. fully recovered clients can enjoy benefits like rest of the population

subacute

between acute and chronic; a stage in healing or tissue repair

chole

bile

your new client is a 66yr old woman. she comes with her oxygen tank. she huffs and puffs to climb the two stairs into the waiting room. her legs are swollen, and her ankles overlap her shoes. what condition is probably present?

biventricular heart failure

hemorrhagic stroke

bleeding deep inside the brain or on the surface of the brain

contusion

bleeding in the cord damages nerve tissue

people with sickle cell disease are especially vulnerable to...

blocked blood vessels and infarctions

what occurs in a sickle cell crisis?

blocked capillaries cause an infarction

-emia

blood

hemo-

blood

what happens with hemophilic arthritis?

blood leaks into a joint space because of poor clotting ability

angio-

blood or lymph vessels

untreated lymphangitis may lead to this potential complication

blood poisoning

vaso-

blood vessel

hematuria

bloody urine

perilymph fistula

blows to the Head, violent sneezing, or Whiplash - type accidents can cause inner ear fluid to leak into the middle ear in this condition

osteo-

bone

what are the jobs of the osteoblasts and osteoclasts?

bone Builders and Bone clearers

what is a common feature of spondylosis that distinguishes it from other types of arthritis?

bone spurs that can impinge on spinal nerve roots

tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that typically begins in the lungs but may spread to...

bones, lymph nodes, and kidneys

Coup-contrecoup

brain injury that occurs both directly beneath the impact and also on the opposite side of the head

sleep stage 3

brain waves are much slower. A deep sleep pattern called delta waves is intermixed with slightly faster brain waves during the stage

functions of digestive system and body metabolism?

breaks food down into particles small enough for absorption into the blood & provides nutrients to the endocrine organs. Body metabolism produces cellular energy (ATP) and accounts for all constructive and degradative cellular activities.

Flexion of the body is done how?

bringing everything in tight to the body like the fetal position.

Explain Extension

bringing the body out of flexion and beyond.

Cross-fiber friction mechanical effects are

broadens and stretches muscle tissue, temporary ischemia, decrease in fascial adhesions, increase in muscle extensibility, and breaks up and reforms scar tissue.

contusion

bruise

what are common symptoms of temporomandibular joint disorder?

bruxism, popping, ear pain

bulbar

bulb shaped

define lower esophageal sphincter

bundle of muscles surrounding the passage from the esophagus to the stomach

cauda equina

bundle of spinal nerve Roots at the base of the spinal column. Literally horsetail

sign of peptic ulcer

burning pain in the abdomen after eating

signs and symptoms of cirrhosis

by the time symptoms are observed with blood tests, the disease is likely to be advanced. early symptoms can be vague: nausea, vomiting, weight loss, development of red or itchy patches on the skin

CREST is the acronym used to describe what signs and symptoms of scleroderma?

calcinosis, raynaud's syndrome, esophageal dysmobility, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia

calcinonsis

calcium deposits in the skin or any soft tissue

myofascial pain syndrome

can be a short-term problem that involves trigger points

define neuroendocrine tumors of the pancreas

cancer of the endocrine cells of the pancreas, the islet cells that produce insulin & other hormones. problem with these cells leads to difficulties regulating blood glucose

define adenocarcinoma of the pancreas

cancer of the exocrine ducts. affects secretion of digestive enzymes & can block the duct. most common form of this cancer

define thrush

candida infection of the mouth

A __________________ is a designated person whose exclusive role is to coordinate care and services among providers.

case manager

migraine headaches

caused by changes in blood vessel size and base of brain

most common causes of common cold

causes are: rhinoviruses cause about half of colds, other pathogens are coronaviruses, adenoviruses, respiratory synctyal virus

atypical face pain

characterized by pain but tends to involve continuous rather than intermittent pain that may go up the head and on to the back of the scalp

trigeminal neuralgia

characterized by severe lightning-like pain due to an inflammation of the fifth cranial nerve

thorax, thorac-

chest cavity, pleural cavity, thorax

what are the 3 phases of a fever in the correct order?

chill, crisis, flush

COPD refers to a group of related lung problems that includes...

chronic bronchitis and emphysema

common signs of emphysema?

chronic dry cough, shortness of breath

what are common signs of emphysema?

chronic dry cough, shortness of breath

general anxiety disorder

chronic exaggerated consuming worry and the constant anticipation of disaster

this condition may cause a client's symptoms of poor memory and concentration combined with a low tolerance for exercise

chronic fatigue syndrome

define celiac sprue

chronic inflammation and atrophy of the mucosa of the small intestine related to an allergy to gluten. aka celiac disease or gluten sensitivity enteropathy

what is the source of interstitial fluid?

circulatory capillaries

The cardiovascular system consists of the

circulatory system consists of the heart and the vessels. It is the system of organs that is in charge of distributing blood to the whole body.

liver cancer is almost always seen along with

cirrhosis

What does the Eden's test assess?

clavicle and first rib compression

define puncture

clean edges with small entry (can penetrate deep)

define incision

clean with approximated edges (scalpel or glass)

benefits of massage for someone with tuberculosis

client who is treating the disease, & has received clearance risk of communicability can benefit like the normal population

thrombo-

clot

von Willebrand disease

clotting disorder that is not gender specific

comorbid, comorbidity

coexistence of 2 or more disease processes

someone with ulcerative colitis that involves the entire colon has a significantly higher risk of eventually developing this disease

colorectal cancer

a client who successfully treats ulcerative colitis may end up with a...

colostomy bag

define animal bite

combination of crush, laceration, and puncture wounds

mixed cp

combination of the forms, and it affects many CP patients

mose edema is caused by....

combined mechanical and chemical factors

post herpetic neuralgia

complication of herpes zoster occurs wherever the shingles blisters appeared but can Outlast the visible lesions by several weeks or months

possible complication of influenza

complications are: developing pneumonia, a secondary infection of the lungs

complications of chronic bronchitis

complications are: patients are susceptible to viral & bacterial infections of the respiratory tract

possible complications of common cold

complications are: secondary infection happens when the compromised integrity of the membranes and the accumulations of mucus leave the body vulnerable. these can include ear infection, laryngitis, acute bronchitis, sinusitis, pneumonia

Capsaicin

compound that gives hot peppers their hotness. also used topically in diluted form of pain relief

Direct pressure friction mechanical effects

compresses and spreads tissue and temporary ischemia.

Name direct pressure friction mechanical effects

compresses and spreads tissue and temporary ischemia.

what's a special caution for massage for a client with sickle cell disease?

compromised capillary circulation

addiction

compulsive drug craving and use and dependency

define gallstones

concentrated deposits of bile salts or pigments in the gallbladder.

Glosspharyngeal neuralgia

condition affects the nerve that supplies sensation to the back of the throat

crohn disease

condition that involves patchy areas of intestinal inflammation with serious potential complications

To approve, permit, agree, or comply to render care is known as ____________________.

consent

clonic seizures

consists of jerking movements with or without loss of consciousness in both upper and lower extremities

endothelium

constant mechanical force exerted against this tissue leads to cumulative damage and cardiovascular disease

the sympathetic nervous system would be responsible for this

constriction of blood vessels, increase blood pressure (fight or flight)

polysomnography

continuous monitoring of psychological functioning during sleep

primary symptoms of hammer toe

contracture of toe muscles leading to permanent deformity

phase 4 of hepatitis

convalescence. during this stage the liver healing, jaundice resolves, enzymes return to normal levels and health is restored

Lacerations

cord is partially cut, as with a gunshot wound

transection

cord is severed completely

which blood vessel is obstructed in a myocardial infarction?

coronary artery

atherosclerosis

coronary artery disease is a subset of this condition

hemoptysis

coughing up blood

ischiofemoral ligament reinforces this joint posteriorly

coxal joint is reinforced posteriorly by this ligament

carcin-

crab (cancer)

the most dangerous complication of gastroenteritis is...

critical loss of body fluid and electrolytes

strictures, abscesses and fistulae are possible complications of this disorder

crohn disease

hyperpyrexia

dangerously high fever

necro-

death

if leukemia is not treated, what is the usual eventual outcome?

death from excessive bleeding or infection

osteonecrosis

death of bone tissue on a macroscopic scale

mortality

death rate from a specific disease

which of the following is a mechanism to help move lymph through the thoracic duct?

deep breathing

this is most likely to occur in crohn disease

deep ulcers & disconnected inflamed areas in any parts of the GI tract

what does DVT stand for?

deep vein thrombosis

what serious condition can a Baker cyst mimic?

deep vein thrombosis

raynaud syndrome

defined by episodes of vasospasm of the arterioles, usually in fingers and toes, and occasionally in the nose, ears and lips

these are potential complications of a prolonged high fever?

dehydration, acidosis, and brain damage

muscular system has what effect on immunity during exercise

depending on the intensity of physical exercise, this system may enhance or depress immunity. The lymphatic vessels drain leaked tissue fluids and the immune system protects muscles from disease.

major signs of peneumonia

depends on how much of the lung is infected but signs can include coughing, very high fever, chills, sweating, delirium, chest pains, cyanosis, thick and colored septum, shortness of breath, muscles aches and pains, pleurisy.

Cyclothymia

describe type 2 mood swings that last for 2 years or more

autosomal recessive

describing a condition that requires two copies of the gene in question to be present in order for the disease to develop

local

describing a limited area of the body

define acinar

describing a raspberry-shaped cluster of cells that produces a secretion

define microaerophilic

describing a type of bacteria that requires very little oxygen to live

systemic

describing a whole body involvement

contraindicated

describing an intervention that may have a negative outcome in a given condition

atheroclerosis

development of arterial obstructions

define vulvovaginitis

development of candidiasis in and around the vagina

define laryngeal cancer

development of malignant growths on and around the larynx

autism spectrum disorder

developmental disorder characterized by problems with interpersonal interaction, communication, and learning

these are absolute contraindications for massage

diabetic coma or insulin shock are what for massage?

muscles involved in inhalation

diaphragm, external intercostals, serratus posterior

dys-

difficulty

dyspnea

difficulty breathing

dysphagia

difficulty swallowing

ampulla

dilated end of a duct

varices

dilated, distended veins. (singular: vatrix)

mononucleosis is most often transmitted through

direct salivary contact

polyneuropathy

disease affecting multiple nerves

cardiomyopathy

disease of the heart muscle

cardiomyopathy

disease of the myocardium (heart muscle)

patho-

disease state

Dengue Fever

disease transmitted by mosquitoes that is characterized by fever, aches and a measles-like rash

mononeuropathy

disorder affecting a single nerve

Ménière disease

disorder of the labyrinth that leads to progressive loss of hearing

parasomnia

disruption of the sleep cycle

varicose veins

distended veins, usually in the legs, caused by venous insufficiency and retrograde flow of blood that should be moving against gravity

it is best to delay massage during a flare up of this disease

diverticulitis

cachexia

dramatic weight loss and atrophy seen in people with chronic, often terminal diseases

thrombolytic

drug that breaks down blood clots

signs and symptoms of esophageal cancer

early signs are almost nonexistant, making this disease have a high mortality rate. often undetected until a tomor is large enough to create a mechanical obstruction, and matastasis to other nearby organs and/or lymph nodes has already occured

signs and symptoms of laryngeal cancer

early signs may be subtle. include chronic cough, hoarseness, sore throat, bad breath, problems breathing, ear ache, and a feeling of something being "stuck" in the back of their throat. later in the process a person with this disease may have blood in their sputum and unintentional weight loss

phagia-

eating

gastric cancer is most closely associated with

eating a lot of salted, pickles, or smoked foods

when the starling equilibrium is overwhelmed, the resulting situation is probably....

edema

this edema can be treated with massage

edema caused by subacute musculoskeletal injuries

multifocal dystonia

effects disconnected parts of the body, like the left leg and the face for example

structures most resposible for successful passive exhalation

elastic connective tissues are the structures that move back to size allow for passive exhalation

define portal hypertension

elevated pressure in the hepatic portal due to damaged liver tissue

this is a traveling clot or collection of debris

embolism

mariana islands type als

endemic to a specific population in the Western Pacific Islands especially Guam it may be related to the food sources that are limited to that region

layers of connective tissue

endomysium, perimysium, epimysium, deep and superficial fascia

cor pulmonale

enlargement of the right ventricle of the heart, often arising from lung disease

Spenomegaly

enlargement of the spleen

how might you adapt massage for a client with multiple sclerosis?

ensure sensation is present and avoid techniques that are too deep or too fast

which pathogen usually causes mononucleosis?

epstein-Barr virus

define ethanol

ethyl alcohol

hypersensitivity reactions

exaggerated responses to the stimulus of an agent

hyperalgesia

excessive sensitivity to painful stimuli

Define Pes cavus

excessively high arch.

endarterectomy

excision of the diseased layers of an artery along with obstructing plaques

what function does the skin not do unless circumstances are extreme?

excrete toxins

symptoms of a bunion

excruciating pain at the base of the great toe, skin is thick and callus, and a large bump protrudes medially

intermittent claudication

exercise-induced leg cramping caused by blocked arteries

which glands are affected by cystic fibrosis?

exocrine glands are affected by this

prognosis

expected outcome of a disease or disorder

mixed bipolar disorder

extremely disruptive disorder involves a manic and depressive symptoms occurring either simultaneously or in Rapid succession

acro-

extremity

pseudo-

false

lipo-

fat

pyrexia

fever

this condition is commonly associated with IBS

fibromyalgia

define villi

finger like projections that increase the surface area of the small intestine, which in turn increases nutrient absorption

chicken pox

first infection with the vzv that most people experience, involves itchy blisters on a red base, but unlike shingles they're spread all over the body

Define Pes Planus

flat foot

pes planus

flat foot

sacro-

flesh

colds and flu have similar symptoms but are caused by different viruses. what is true about the difference between these two conditions?

flu is more contagious, can linger longer in the body, and can sometimes be life threatening

what are some differences between the cold and flu viruses?

flu is more contagious, flu can linger longer in the body, flu can sometimes be life threatening

what are peptic ulcers related to?

fluctuations between stress and relief

perilymph

fluid surrounding the membranous Labyrinth of the ear

client has asthma. what implication does this have for massage therapy?

focus work on his breathing muscles between attacks

familial ALS

form shows a genetic link for ALS characterized by an earlier onset then the sporadic variety of ALS

what is a risk of massage for a client with myeloma?

fractures of affected bones

what is the best way to prevent spreading of body lice?

frequently laundering clothes

synonym for adhesive capsulitis

frozen shoulder

this is the most dangerous form of ulcerative colitis

fulminant colitis

candidiasis is a reflection of the overgrowth of

fungi

myco-

fungus

define pneumonia

general term for inflammation of the lungs, usually due to an infectious agent. Severity ranges from being not much more worse than a bad cold to being a cause of death within 24 hours.

define familial adenomatous polyposis

genetic condition characterized by the presence of numerous polyps, which can become cancerous

what massage adaptation may be appropriate for a client with rheumatoid arthritis?

gentle, soothing, reflexive work may help even during a flare

Ketogenic

giving rise to ketones in the metabolism

adeno-

glandular

what triggers an inflammatory response in people with celiac disease?

gliadin

Microglia

glial cells that act as on site macrophages in the cns

tinea cruris affects this area

groin, upper thigh, and buttocks

vestibular balance disorders

group of conditions that can cause the vestibular branch of cranial nerve VIII to dysfunction. leading to debilitating vertigo that may last anywhere from a few seconds to many hours

-plasia

growth

Trichotillomania

hair-pulling disorder

hemi-

half

Micrographia

handwriting that grows progressively more cramped

arteriosclerosis

hardening of the arteries

sclero-

hardness, scarring

massage is most appropriate for sinusitis associated with this

hay fever

your client reports that he has no symptoms, but he had a positive TB skin test. this means that

he has TB exposure but not TB disease, he is not contagious

which is the list of animal parasites that live on their hosts?

head lice, pubic lice, mites

cep-, ceph-

head, brain

Cardio-

heart

in what locations will an aneurysm more likely to occur?

heart, vein, artery

koebner phenomenon

heightened susceptibility to the effects of trauma and chemical exposure

benefits of massage for anemic patients

helps with fatigue that anemia brings about, but makes no lasting changes in blood cell production or nutrition

a genetic disorder in which certain clotting factors in the blood are either insufficient or missing altogether

hemophilia

pes cavus

high arch

HAART

highly active antiretroviral therapy. a combination of at least 3 drugs used to suppress HIV

What is the Pelvic girdle also known as?

hips

cyst

hollow organ

Define equine massage

horse massage

what are common triggers for an outbreak of acne rosacea?

hot liquids, alcohol, spicy food

acquired immune deficiency syndrome is a disease caused by this virus

human immunodeficiency virus

nerve damage contraindicates what

hydrotherapy is contraindicated with this condition; The client might not be able to tell if they are too hot or too cold.

Reflexive effects of cross-fiber friction

hyperemia (secondary to ischemia), relaxes muscles and decreases hypertonicity (by the nervous system or if done on a tendon, golgi tendon organ), and increases circulation.

Direct pressure friction reflexive effects

hyperemia (secondary to ischemia), relaxes muscles and decreases hypertonicity (through the NS or golgi tendon organ- on tendon), decreases pain, decreases spasm, increases vasodilation, increases peristalsis (on abdomen), affects meridians (shiatsu and acupressure), and decreases sinus congestion.

Name Reflexive effects of direct pressure frieciton

hyperemia (secondary to ischemia), relaxes muscles and decreases hypertonicity (through the NS or golgi tendon organ- on tendon), decreases pain, decreases spasm, increases vasodilation, increases peristalsis (on abdomen), affects meridians (shiatsu and acupressure), and decreases sinus congestion.

atherosclerosis is a frequent result of long term, untreated....

hypertension

which situation is usually present when atheroclerosis begins?

hypertension

signs and symptoms of torticollis are

hypertonic actions are signs of this

HPA axis

hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis that consists of the complex interactions between these 3 glands

phase 3 of hepatitis

icteric stage. signs of jaundice develop including icterus, pale stools, dark urine, hepatomegaly

Identify the structure that separates the small intestine from the large intestine

ileocecal valve

reticulocytes

immature red blood cells

Define SAD/ Synarthrosis

immovable.

what happens in phase 3 of HIV infection?

immune system keeps up with viral progression

define malabsorption

impaired absorption of nutrients by the small intestine

asphyxia

impaired or absent exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the respiratory system. Suffocation

anemia

impaired oxygen-carrying capacity

hemophilia

in this condition, a person does not bleed faster than average, but they are less likely to bleed longer than average

phase 1 of hepatitis

in this phase, new infection and viral replication takes place. virus attacks cells in the liver, liver compensates for damage so no symptoms develop. blood tests for indicator enzymes or antibodies are positive

define IBS-M (m is for mixed)

in this version, a person can experience both diarrhea and constipation within a short time span.

insomnia

inability to sleep

define nonsmall cell lung cancer

includes several types of cancers depending on which cells they affect first: squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, large cell carcinoma. grows more slowly than small-cell carcinoma and symptoms are so subtle that diagnosis doesn't usually happen until long after the cancer has spread beyond its original area

what is true for both crohn disease and ulcerative colitis?

increased risk of colorectal cancer

define laceration

increased tissue loss with ragged edges

define dyspepsia

indigestion

complications of untreated leukemia are most likely to involve...

infection and excessive bleeding

describe pneumonia

infection that blocks gaseous exchange in the alveoli

-itis

inflammation

the functional changes seen when multiple sclerosis become permanent when...

inflammation affects the axons

Osgood-Schlatter disease.

inflammation at the tibial tuberosity

vasculitis

inflammation of a blood or lymphatic vessel

bursitis

inflammation of a bursa

what two factors are associated with asthma?

inflammation of bronchioles and excess mucus production

define nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)

inflammation of fatty tissue in the liver

describe sinusitis

inflammation of mucous membranes from bacteria, viruses, or fungi

lyphadenitis

inflammation of one or more lymph nodes

enthesitis

inflammation of sites where ligaments or tendons meet bone

define gastroenteritis

inflammation of the GI tract, usually the stomach or small intestine. usually a result of an infection with bacteria, viruses, or parasites. most common cause is norovirus.

define cholangitis

inflammation of the bile duct

cholangitis

inflammation of the bile ducts

West Nile encephalitis

inflammation of the brain caused by West Nile virus

pancolitis

inflammation of the entire colon

define cholecystitis

inflammation of the gallbladder

labyrinthitis

inflammation of the inner ear's bony or membranous labyrinth

buerger disease

inflammation of the intima of a blood vessel with thrombosis

iritis

inflammation of the iris of the eye

meningitis

inflammation of the meninges that surround the brain and spinal cord

define coryza

inflammation of the mucous membrane of the nose

define rhinitis

inflammation of the nasal mucous membrane

define pancreatitis

inflammation of the pancreas

define intertrigo

inflammation of the skin in and around folds

gastritis

inflammation of the stomach

uveitis

inflammation of the uvea of the eye

lupus

inflammatory arthritis at several joints, skin rash, high risk of renal failure

acute bronchitis often accompanies this other condition

influenza is usually accompanied by this condition

Which muscle laterally rotates the humerus?

infraspinatus

strain

injuries to muscle fibers involving the tearing of myofibers and production of scar tissue

diffuse axonal injury

injury to the white matter in the central nervous system often associated with persistent vegetative state

endo-

inside

myelin

insulating cover surrounding the axons of nerve cells

what condition is most likely to occur with untreated hemophilia?

internal bleeding

forced exhalation uses what main muscles

internal intercostals and transversus abdominus are main muscles for this action

neurofibrillary tangles

intraneural accumulations of filaments with twisted, contorted patterns. associated with Alzheimer's disease

spasm/cramp

involuntary contraction of a voluntary muscle

blepharospasm

involuntary contraction of the eyelid

tremor

involuntary oscillating movements on a fixed plane

myoclonic seizures

involve bilateral muscular jerking, which may be very pronounced or almost unnoticeable. among the very young

generalized seizures

involve electrical signals that occur all over the brain. May be very subtle or dramatic

absence seizures

involve very short episodes of loss of consciousness. The person may simply check out for 5 to 10 seconds and have no memory of the lapse

Athetoid CP

involves very weak muscles and frequent involuntary writhing movements of the extremities, face, and mouth

what deficiency may cause nutritional anemia

iron

which condition involves NO structural changes to the GI tract?

irritable bowel syndrome

define parkinson's

is a CNS condition with Progressively diminishing basal ganglia function resulting in slow, increasingly difficult movement, accompanied by resting tremors and muscular rigidity.

cystic fibrosis affects respiratory function this way

it causes the secretion of thick, sticky mucus

what is true about lung cancer when it is diagnosed?

it has usually spread beyond the lungs

what is the typical etiology of acute bronchitis?

it is a complication of cold or flu

what is true about high blood pressure?

it is often asymptomatic

what is true about the virus that causes mononucleosis?

it is present forever and may cause later asymptomatic infections

how does an aneurysm typically cause symptoms?

it puts pressure on nearby issues

if elastin in the lung tissue breaks down, what is an expected consequence?

it takes more effort to exhale

define pruritis

itchiness

arthr-

joint

hemophilic arthritis

joint damage and inflammation, associated with hemophilia-related bleeding into joint cavities

these tissues may be affected in rheumatoid arthritis

joint tissues, serous membranes, sclera of eyes

synapse

junction between two nerve cells

polyarticular JRA

juvenile rheumatoid arthritis affecting 5 or more joints

pauciarticular JRA

juvenile rheumatoid arthritis affecting fewer than 5 joints

how do keloid scars compared to hypertrophic scars?

keloids are larger and more perminant

ren-

kidney

splinting

kind of muscle spasm that serves an important function in healing

hemophilia

lack of clotting factors from the liver

strabismus

lack of eyeball coordination

-penia

lack of, shortage

mega-

large

basal ganglia

large masses of gray matter at the base of the cerebral hemispheres

What group of muscles is in charge of the anterior tilt or downward rotation of the pelvis?

latissimus dorsi

status epilepticus

life-threatening variation of tonic-clonic seizures. Lasts for a loan. And can put such a strain on the body that they cause brain damage or death

fibromyalgia syndrome

lifelong problem that can be managed that involves tender points that are often hypotonic and not always in muscle tissue

Explain Concentric contraction

lifting towards the Clouds

sleep stage 1

light sleep, where a person is easily awakened. I movement is slow. Phenomenon called hypnic myoclonia sometimes occurs in this stage

these are organic compound found in the body

lipids, carbohydrates, proteins, and nucleic acids

microstomia

literally "small mouth". scleroderma can limit the range of motion allowed for opening the oral aperture

hepat-

liver

what are some accessory organs?

liver, gallbladder, and pancreas

what is the most dangerous complication of a decubitus ulcer?

local or systemic infection

alveoli

location in the lungs where gaseous exchange takes place

axon

long nerve fiber that conducts away from the cell body of the neuron

define chronic pancreatitis

long term wear and tear leads to permanent, irreversible damage to the delicate epithelial tissue of the gland. almost always related to alcohol abuse

major signs and symptoms of influenza

looks like a bad cold: respiratory irritation with runny nose, dry cough, sore throat, headache, chills, long lasting high fever, aching muscles and joints, debilitating fatigue.

onycholysis

loosening of the nails

Tapotement's mechanical effects

loosens mucus in thoracic cavity, temporary ischemia.

aphasia

loss of speech

define secondary phase of tuberculosis

low % of people develop the active disease. usually happens within the first year after exposure, but can be decades later. bacteria escape and spread into other areas in the lungs or where they are stationed. body tries to build bigger fibrous capsules, causing perminant scarring.

thrombocytopenia

low number of thrombocytes

Identify the structure that separates the esophagus from the stomach

lower esophageal sphincter

Define a Eccentric contraction

lowering to the Earth.

rheumatic nodules

lumps under the skin that occur near joints affected with rheumatoid arthritis

when the left ventricle is weak, fluid accumulates in the

lungs

a malar rash is associated with this condition

lupus

an autoimmune disease in which antibodies attack various types of tissues throughout the body. 3 distinct types of this exist, but the systemic form is both the most common and most serious

lupus

raynaud disease occurs without an identified underlying pathology, but raynaud phenomenon can occur as a complication of other disorders such as...

lupus, rheumatoid arthritis

an infection that can easily complicate to blood poisoning, or septicemia

lymphangitis

define lacteals

lymphatic vessels of the small intestine, through which fats are absorbed

any variety of cancer that grows in lymph tissues

lymphoma

the endocrine system does what?

maintains homeostasis (hormones), controls growth and development, reproduction, and metabolism.

psychotic depression

major depressive disorder with psychosis or hallucinations and delusions

this sign may occur with lupus

malar rash

which is the most common cause of death by skin cancer?

malignant melanoma

recombinant factors

manufactured blood clotting proteins

mye-

marrow or spinal cord

what kind of massage poses the greatest risk for a client with a disorder associated with emboli?

massage techniques that intend to move fluid

cryptogenic stroke

may be connected to a patent foramen ovale

define emphysema

means "blown" up as in inflated, which happens to the alveoli in this disease

define hepatitis

means inflamed liver. can be caused by drug reactions, inflammation related to fatty desposits, exposure to toxins, autoimmune disease. most often a variety of viral infections that can impair liver function

define cirrhosis

means yellow condition, referring to the jaundice that can develop as a complication of this condition. a result of long term liver damage. the crowding out and replacement of healthy liver cells with nonfunctioning scar tissue, interfering with the function of the liver. usually caused by hep c or alcoholism

contraindications for emboli

mechanical types of bodywork b/c of the emboli itself and the bruising effects meds to treat them have

seborrheic keratosis often looks like another skin condition. What is it?

melignant melanoma

bipolar type 2

milder form, with mood swings between the narrow extremes of mild depression and hypomania. does not involve psychosis or social and occupational impairment

common contributing factor for acne rosacea?

mites

MAOIs

monoamine oxidase inhibitors, a group of chemicals used in the treatment of depression

epstein barr virus

mononucleosis is an infection, usually from this

meno-

month

spina bifida myelomeningocele

most common and most severe version of cystic spina bifida. Spinal cord or extensions of the cauda equina protrude along with the meninges through several and completely formed vertebrae arcs. occasionally, the skin doesn't cover the protrusion

seasonal flu (subtype of influenza)

most common form of the flu, can involve several different subtypes of type A viruses. Most active from fall through early spring.

Spastic CP

most common form, muscle tone is so high in some areas that the tight muscles antagonist have completely let go. aka clasp-knife effect

define community-acquired pneumonia

most common form, usually a bacterial infection or a complication of flu

bipolar type 1

most common form. A person experiences a manic episode that last at least a week and then a depressive episode that lasts at least two weeks

sporadic als

most common type of ALS

drug-susceptible tuberculosis

most common type, sensitive to first-line antibiotics, and prognosis for a fully treated patient is excellent

metr-

mother (uterus)

lower motor neurons

motor neurons that link upper motor neurons and skeletal muscles

upper motor neurons

motor neurons that originate in the brain and carry signals to lower motor neurons

kine-

movement

Define Isotonic

moving contraction

define sinusitis

mucous membranes that line the sinuses become inflamed and swollen, can be due to infecitous or non infectious cause

sputum

mucus and other material that is coughed up from the respiratory tract

fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS)

multifactorial condition involving problems with neurotransmitter and hormone imbalances, Sleep disorders, and ultimately chronic pain in muscles, tendons, ligaments, and other soft tissues

chronic traumatic encephalopathy

multiple head traumas- cognitive decline/memory defecits

Define Extensibility (of muscles)

muscle's ability to be stretched.

Define Excitability / irritability (of muscles)

muscle's ability to receive stimulus.

Define Elasticity (of muscles)

muscle's ability to return to original shape after being stretched.

Define Contractility (of muscles)

muscle's ability to thicken or shorten.

what term is sometimes used as a synonym for chronic fatigue syndrome?

myalgic encephalomyelitis

how is myeloma different from other forms of blood cancer?

myeloma causes tumors in bone tissue

list the components of a muscle bundle

myofibrils are surrounded by sarcoplasmic reticulum, which is surrounded by sarcoplasma, which is surrounded by Endo Museum, these structures together are a fascicle, the epimysium surrounds a group of fascicles, this all makes up a muscle fiber

onyx-

nail

stenosis

narrowing of a brain artery

physio-

nature

these are signs that occur with gastroentreritis

nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

cells affected and early signs of myeloma

nearly mature B cells in bone marrow only, although some cancerous cells may accumulate elsewhere; and bone pain from corroding tumors in marrow are early signs

cervi-, cervico-

neck

neuro-

nerve

Define Neuritis

nerve inflammation, it is contraindicated for all frictions.

Neuritis

nerve inflammation, it is contraindicated for all frictions.

plexus

network of interwoven nerves; can also refer to blood vessels or lymphatic vessels. plural is plexi

attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

neurodevelopmental disorder resulting in difficulties with attention movement and impulse control

are there early signs and symptoms of atherosclerosis?

no

is massage likely to assist a client to improve their condition of varicose veins in the legs?

no

what is the leading symptom of diverticulosis?

no leading symptom, this condition is silent

what is the most common symptom of gallstones?

no symptoms

does diverticulosis have common signs?

no, this disease is usually silent

monoclonal immunoglobulins

non-functioning antibodies produced by myeloma cells. also called M proteins

Define Isometric

non-moving contraction. The cramp or spasm is in the agonist, so you must contract the antagonist using resistance and holding it until the pain dissipates.

rhino-

nose

epistaxis

nosebleed

these are risk factors for developing colorectal cancer

obesity & sedentary lifestyles, genetic factors, age over 50 years

plaque

obstructs the lumen of medium and large-sized arteries

central sleep apnea

occurs when the brain fails to send signals to the diaphragm to breathe

Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus

occurs when the site of reactivation is the trigeminal nerve can involve junctivitis corneal ulcers and inflammation of other eye structures

lung cancer easily metastasizes to other body locations because....

of abundant blood and lymph vessels that provide routes by which cancerous cells can travel

massage for a person with emphysema can produce benefit when focused...

on chest and shoulder muscles

Systemic circulation happens where?

on the left side of the heart

define gram negative bacillus

one of a class of bacteria that can be identified by the way in which they do not retain violet coloring when using a gram stain

Amygdala

one of two groups of nuclei in the brain (one in each hemisphere) involved in the processing of emotional memories

define candidiasis

one type of yeast like fungi that inhabit the digestive tract, often from the mouth to the anus.

partial seizures

only a portion of the brain is involved. can spread. come in two subtypes.

sleep stage 4

only delta waves are emitted from the brain. The body secretes growth hormone that enables new growth for children and adolescents and repair and regeneration for adults during the stage.

ex-

out of

body dysmorphic disorder

out of my car and the window air condition in which a person experiences extreme anxiety and unhappiness because of a real or imagined physical flaw

Neurilemma

outermost sheath surrounding nerve cells

ecto-, -ectomy

outside, removal

rebound headache

overuse of painkillers for headache

-algia

pain

what is rheumatoid arthritis

pain and inflammation of the joints of hands and feet

symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome

pain and weakness in the hand, especially at the thumb and lateral three fingers

postherpetic neuralgia

pain generated by the viral infection outlives the blisters by a minimum of 3 months and may persist for years

cluster headache

pain is in and around one eye

tension headache

pain is like a band squeezing the head

primary symptoms of plantar fasciitis

pain on the bottom of the foot, just distal to the calcaneus

angina

pain related to lack of blood flow to supply myocardial cells

symptoms of lymphangitis may include...

pain, heat, redness

most people with lupus eventually develop what condition?

painful arthritis

what are signs or symptoms of lymphoma?

painless enlarged lymph nodes

paraplegia

paralysis from the waist down

hemiplegia

paralysis of one side of the body

Bell palsy

paresis, or paralysis, of one side of the face

define chronic bronchitis

part of a group of lung problems call chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. it's a long term irritation of the bronchi & bronchioles, & may occur with or w/o infection. progressive disorder that may be halted or slowed but never reversed. often occurs with or before emphysema

describe emphysema

part of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

define chyme

partially digested food in the stomach or small intestine

define infectious sinusitis

pathogenic invasion followed by an inflammatory response that creates a vicious circle. body creates excessive mucus to help remove infectious agents, but the inflamed tissues make drainage of the mucus difficult or impossible. often complication of respiratory infections like cold or flu.

-osis

pathologic condition

Wright's HyperABduction assesses what?

pectoralis minor and Costoclavicular syndrome

these muscles tend to be shortened in the context of thoracic outlet syndrome

pectoralis minor, scalenes, serratus anterior

demo-

people

the incidence of lymphoma is much higher than average among this population

people who are HIV positive

your client tells you they have crohn disease but is in remission now. what massage techniques can you use?

perform any massage except deep abdominal work

what is the usual pattern of psoriasis?

periodic periods of flare and remission

pelvisacral

pertaining to the pelvis and the sacrum

define kupffer cells

phagocytes found in the liver (cell eating cells)

the 6 structures of the respiratory system in order from proximal to distal

pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchus, bronchiole, alveoli:

phyto-

plants

what condition can occur secondary to the flu?

pneumonia can occur secondary to this disease

flu vaccination is typically recommended for the very young, older adults, diabetics, & other high risk populations to prevent the development of this condition

pneumonia is a condition that may develop secondary to flu, so this vaccination is recommended

spine

pointed process

what is the most common cause of decubitus ulcer?

poor circulation to the skin caused by external pressure

client has chronic fatigue syndrome. besides fatigue, what symptoms are probably foremost for them?

poor memory and concentration

client is undergoing treatment for multiple myeloma. what accommodation are they most likely to need?

positioning and pressure adjustments for fragile bones

endemic

present in a given community or people

physicians recommend chemotherapy and radiation for laryngeal cancer rather than surgery because

preserving the larynx is important to future health

compartment syndrome

pressure inside a tight fascial compartment can lead to tissue damage

what is a primary sign of acute bronchitis?

primary sign is persistent cough that becomes productive

define IBS-C

primary symptom is chronic constipation

define IBS-D

primary symptom is chronic diarrhea

dendrite

process of a nerve cell that carries impulses toward the cell body

phase 2 of hepatitis

prodromal stage. symptoms develop in this stage like food aversion, nausea, vomiting, malaise

lymphoid

producing or related to lymphocytes and antibodies

early signs and symptoms of laryngeal cancer are...

production of thick sputum, choking sensation

early signs and symptoms of laryngeal cancer?

production of thick sputum, choking sensation

apoptosis

programmed cell death

ankylosing spondylitis

progressive inflammation of the spine, high risk of pneumonia, heart failure

chronic

prolonged, long-term, can be low intensity

an autoimmune disease of the skin leading to pile-ups of extra cells

psoriasis

define empyema

pus in a body cavity

define pyuria

pus or WBCs and bacteria caused by a urinary tract infection

herniated

pushed through a hole or weak spot

Identify the structure that separates the stomach from the small intestine

pyloric valve

which is the most accurate list of causes of burns?

radiation, electricity, corrosive chemicals

sleep stage 5 aka REM

rapid eye movement, sleep breathing is rapid, shallow, and irregular. I has moved quickly, but muscular activity in the limbs is usually absent. Heart rate and blood pressure approach waking levels. REM sleep is the stage in which dreams occur

tachycardia

rapid heartbeat

what is the best description of angioedema?

rapid onset of localized swelling; can be fatal if it interrupts airflow

acute

rapid onset, brief, can be severe

fibrillation

rapid twitching of muscular fibrils

Ataxic CP

rare variety of the disorder, involving chronic shaking, intention Tremors, and very poor balance

spina bifida meningocele

rarest type of cystic spina bifida. Only the dura mater and arachnoid layers of the meninges press through at the site of the vertebral cleft, forming a cyst that is visible at Birth.

Zoster sine herpete

reactivation of vzv with all the pain sensation but with no visible lesions

restenosis

recurring stenosis after corrective surgery

erythr-

red

refractory

relapsed or recurring

myeloid

relating to bone marrow

glyco-

relating to sugar

endarterectomy

removal of layers of am artery

define hepatorenal syndrome

renal failure in a person with liver disease

-oid

resembles

what complication may result from gastroesophageal reflux disorder?

respiratory injury

motor control

responses from the brain to the body

your client had extreme gastroenteritis 2 days ago, but is beginning to feel better. best advice for her recovery?

rest and drink fluids to prevent dehydration

what is generally the most effective treatment option for a cold?

rest, fluids, good nutrition

what is generally the most effective treatment option for a cold?

rest, fluids, good nutrition are generally the most effective treatment option for this

define lobar pneumonia (subtype of pneumonia)

restricted to one lobe of the lungs, eventually the whole lobe may be affected

define peptic ulcers

result of progressive tissue damage due to constant irritation or some impediment to the healing process of the inner surfaces of the stomach and duodendum. cells in the lesion die, and a crater erodes into deep layers of tissue. a perpetually open sore, and an invitation to infection.

aplastic anema

result of suppressed bone marrow function

an auto immune disease that has a specific version that affects children

rheumatoid arthritis

contraindications for hemophilia

rigorous bodywork or massage that might cause bruising or bleeding

tinnitus

ringing in the ears

risks of massage for someone with cystic fibrosis (CF)

risk is respiratory infection, either by client being ill or therapist carrying pathogens

risks of massage for someone with asthma

risks are: allergens in the room they are being massaged in

possible risks of massage therapy for a person with influenza

risks are: before cold/flu peaks, massage can make worse. after peak: helps to get better.

risks of massage for someone with lung cancer

risks are: chemotherapy, radiation, surgery have specific cautions for massage. may be at the end of life seeking palliative care and bodywork must be adjusted for frailty, risk of bone or major organ problems, medical equipment that can be disrupted

possible risks of massage therapy for a person with pneumonia

risks are: client with this should not be challenged by rigorous massage. gentle, reflexive work may be supportive, being safe from risk of infection

risks for massage for someone with tuberculosis

risks are: disease is contagious, so active untreated disease contraindicates massage

risks of massage therapy for a person with sinusitis

risks are: during acute phase, symptoms may be worsened.

risks of massage for someone with esophageal cancer

risks are: massage must be adjusted according to the client's general resilience & treatment options. client may have reduced ability to tolerate rigorous massage.

risks of massage therapy for a person with acute bronchitis

risks are: massage that demands significant adaptive response should be delayed until after acute phase, accommodations for a client uncomfortable lying flat on the table

risks of massage with emphysema

risks are: possibility of cardiovascular problems, difficulty lying flat, secondary respiratory infection are risks of massage for this disease

risks of massage therapy for a person with common cold

risks are: rigorous circulatory massage can make someone more sick, and since it's contagious through casual contact it's best to wait until acute phase is over

risks of massage for someone with stomach cancer

risks are: treatments for the disease like surgery, chemotherapy, radiation would require adjustments in bodywork

risks of massage for someone with laryngeal cancer

risks center around treatments because radiation, chemotherapy, and surgery must be accommodated with modality choices

risks of massage for someone with gastroenteritis

risks include: client is unlikely to be comfortable. pathogenic infections may also be communicable if surfaces are contaminated

risks of massage for someone with gastroesophageal reflux disease

risks include: client may not be able to lay flat on the table, may need to schedule massage at least a couple of hours after their most recent meal

risks of massage for someone with celiac disease

risks include: relief from massage may result in a client delaying seeking medical care, therapists should encourage clients to see a dr. abdominal work for this client must be conducted conservatively & with ample client feedback for comfort. characteristic rash is a local contraindication.

risks of massage for someone with gallstones

risks: acute biliary colic contraindicates massage until the problem has been addressed. when deposits have been identified but no symptoms are present, right costal angle is a local caustion

risks of massage for someone with liver cancer

risks: adaptation in bodywork due aggressive therapies

risks of massage for someone with colorectal cancer

risks: bodywork may need to adapt due to treatment strategies like surgery radiation, chemo

risks of massage for someone with hepatitis

risks: bodywork that puts an extra adaptive stress on the body may be overwhelming. since some forms are communicable through contact with body fluids, therapist is at risk

risks of massage for someone with IBS

risks: client may be self conscious about passing gas during a massage, or nervous about touch. but there's no particular risk for someone with this disease

risks for massage for someone with cirrhosis

risks: clients with advanced cirrhosis don't have adaptive capacity to manage rigorous bodywork

risks of massage for someone with candidiasis

risks: extreme cutaneous candidiasis usually seen in context of significant immune system impairment

risks of massage for someone with diverticular disease

risks: if massage eases these symptoms that are similar to digestive upset, client may delay getting care. if symptoms include a fever or last more than 2 weeks client should seek medical help

risks of massage for a person with peptic ulcers

risks: massage can promote digestive activity, so client may want to schedule around their eating schedule for the least discomfort. client may want reclining chair or massage chair instead of laying flat.

risks of massage for someone with pancreatitis

risks: pain can be refered in the mid back which may lead client to massage rather than dr

risks of massage for someone with pancreatic cancer

risks: these patients are fragile & in pain, facing the end of life.

litho-

rock

radix

root

define bile salts

salts created from bile acid, which serve to assist in the digestion of fats

30 yr old client had hodgkin lymphoma 4 yrs ago, but is now declared to be cancer-free. what accomodations are necessary for this client?

same as for any client without a history of cancer

what is the typical appearance of tinea corporis infection?

scaly red rings on the trunk or extremities

What is the Pectoral girdle made of?

scapula and clavicle.

what is the end result of a heart attack?

scarring

CREST syndrome is a sign of this condition

scleroderma

an autoimmune attack against blood vessels in the skin, leading to collagen deposits and hardened areas

scleroderma

a dark, hardened, pasted on looking lesion is most likely to be...

seborrheic keratosis

what occurs in chronic bronchitis?

secretions obstruct small airways

segmental dystonia

seen in contiguous areas of the body like the neck and shoulder

-lepsis

seizure

febrile seizure

seizures brought on by sudden increase in body temperature. Most common in infants and young children

SSRI

selective serotonin reuptake Inhibitors, a type of drug used to relieve depression

what are body fluids most capable of carrying HIV to a new host?

semen, blood, breast milk

SNRI

serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake Inhibitors, type of drug used to relieve depression

angina pectoris

severe chest pain

define caries

severe decay of tooth or bone

what is the most efficient way to spread scabies?

share bedding

primary symptoms of Morton neuroma

shooting pain between all the third and fourth toes

what's the best definition of anemia?

shortage of oxygen-carrying capacity

signs and symptoms of lung cancer are...

shortness of breath, bloodstained sputum, chest pain

tonic seizures

show a sudden onset of tight muscles leading to flexion of the head, trunk, and extremities for several seconds

signs and symptoms of asthma

signs are: dyspnea, wheezing, coughing that may/may not have phlegm, exhaling is limited.

major signs/symptoms of acute bronchitis

signs are: fever, aches, pains, productive cough with clear sputum (colored sputum: suspect 2ndary bacterial infection)

signs and symptoms of stomach cancer

signs are: mostly related to the sensation of having an obstruction in the digestive tract. feeling of fullness after only a little food, vague abdominal pain above the navel, unintentional weight loss, heartburn and other ulcer symptoms, nausea and vomiting, development of ascites, accumulation of excessive fluid in the peritoneal space. tumors may bleed slightly, leading to small amounts of blood in the stool and possible anemia

primary sign of acute bronchitis

signs are: persistent cough that becomes productive

signs and symptoms of lung cancer

signs are: persistent smokers cough bloodstained phlegm, chronic chest pain, wheezing, shortness of breath

major signs/symptoms of common cold

signs are: stuffy, runny nose, sneezing, sore throat, dry coughing, headache, mild fever

signs and symptoms of liver cancer

signs can be missed or ignored. vague abdominal pain that becomes increasingly intense, unintended weight loss, food aversion, muscle wasting ascites, fever, an abdominal mass, if the bile duct is blocked jaundice

signs and symptoms of colorectal cancer

signs don't often show until this has progressed to a dangerous stage. symptoms vary according to where the tumors grow and range from iron deficiency to constipation or narrow stools.

signs and symptoms of peptic ulcers

signs include: gnawing, burning pain in the chest or abdomen that can last anywhere from 30 minutes to 3 hours. pain can depend on location, and eating more food or antacids can relieve it.

signs and symptoms of gastroenteritis

signs include: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

signs and symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

signs produced mainly from the action of gastric juice on the delicate esophageal lining. bitter taste, feeling like some food has been regurgitated, gas, indigestion, bloating, and pain in the chest behind the sternum

signs and symptoms of celiac disease

signs typically center on malabsorption of nutrients and malnutrition. symptoms determined by the section of the small intestine that is most affected, as they result in different deficiencies

signs and symptoms of cystic fibrosis

signs vary by the system that is affected most severely. respiratory symptoms are most common. dry or productive cough, shortness of breath, wheezing, chest pain, cyanosis, hemoptysis, and clubbing of the fingers (occurs w/long term oxygen deprivation in the extremities

signs and symptoms of pancreatic cancer

signs: abdominal discomfort, midback pain, loss of appetite, unintended weight loss that occurs for a couple months before client seeks help

signs and symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome

signs: can range from occasionally inconvenient to severely debilitating. symptoms are recurrent abdominal pain at least 3 days a month, pain with defecation, changes in stool frequency, and changes in stool appearance

signs and symptoms of candidiasis

signs: depend on type. patchy, painless white lesions in the mouth, yeasty vaginal discharge, skin lesions, chemical sensitivities, mild headaches, drug resistant fever, chills, organ failure r more severe

signs and symptoms of pancreatitis

signs: dull upper abdominal pain. nausea diarrhea, vomiting fever rapid pulse

signs and symptoms of hepatitis

signs: general malaise, weakness, fever, nausea, food aversion jaundice

signs and symptoms of diverticular disease

signs: may be nonexistant. when infection is present symptoms are bloating, nausea, fever, cramping, sever pain usually on the lower left side of the abdomen, diarrhea/constipation

signs and symptoms of gallstones

signs: typically generated only when a deposit becomes lodged in the hepatic duct, the cystic duct, or bile duct. extreme local pain that may cause nausea and vomiting

derm-

skin

this tissue is most affected with localized scleroderma

skin

the term dermatitis is generally used to refer to which group of skin disorders?

skin inflammation not related to a contagious disease

Define Amphiarthrosis

slightly movable.

brady-

slow

bradycardia

slow heart rate

the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for this

slowing down the heart and respiratory rate along with the constriction of the iris (rest and Digest)

micro-

small

define alveoli (singular: alveolus)

small cavities or sockets. tiny air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange takes place.

festinating gait

small shuffling steps characteristic of Parkinson's disease

telangiectasias

small, permanently dilated blood vessels. also called spider veins

BPPV Benign Paroxysmal positional virtigo

smoke rings of calcium called otoliths that are normally located on the capital a Are displaced into the semicircular canals. This causes a sudden onset of extreme vertigo that may last a few seconds to a few minutes

esophageal cancer at the proximal end of the esophagus is usually connected to

smoking

who is most likely to develop a decubitus ulcer?

someone who is underweight and sedentary

spondy-

spine

mononucleosis

splenomegaly is a possible complication of this, which is why patients are counseled to avoid contact sports during recovery

define hepatitis B

spread through contact with intimate fluids like blood semen breast milk or vaginal secretions. causes long term infections with subtle symptoms. chronic inflammation is cause of damage to liver. incubates for 2-6 months b4 symptoms develop. recovery within 15 months.

an actinic keratosis lesions May develop into a...

squamous cell carcinoma

what type of skin cancer is more likely to occur in an area of chronic skin inflammation?

squamous cell carcinoma

a person with atherosclerosis may develop a short-term vascular spasm causing chest pain that occurs predictably with exercise or extertion. what is this condition called?

stable angina pectoris

MRSA, pilonidal cyst, and sty are staph or strep?

staph

Astrocytes

star shaped glial cells in the central nervous system

define bronchopneumonia (subtype of pneumonia)

starts as a bronchial inflammation and spreads to the lungs. appears in a patchy pattern all over the lungs, not segragated to a specific area

scleroderma

stiff fingers and face; CREST syndrome

sclerodactyly

stiffness of the skin of the fingers

Swedish gymnastics reflexive effects

stimulates the nervous system, increases blood pressure, increases body temperature, and affects proprioception (body awareness).

define bariatric surgery

stomach surgery used to induce weight loss

Out of: strain, subluxation, rupture or dislocation, which is massage therapy likely to have the best results?

strain

Cellulitis, st. anatomy's fire, and nectorizing fasciitis are staph or strep?

strep

cellulitis, erysipelas, and nectrotizing fasciitis are all examples of infection with...

streptococcus

Swedish gymnastics mechanical effects

stretches muscles, increases circulation and nutrition to joints (active), increases waste removal (active), decreases adhesions, and increases ROM and flexibility.

Deep effleurage mechanical effects

stretches veins and lymph vessels, + venous and lymph flow, + waste removal (lymph), moves nutrients through vessels, compresses and stretches fascia, warms superficial tissue and fascia, desquamation of dead skin cells.

Name Deep effleurage mechanical effects

stretches veins and lymph vessels, + venous and lymph flow, + waste removal (lymph), moves nutrients through vessels, compresses and stretches fascia, warms superficial tissue and fascia, desquamation of dead skin cells.

bursitis is also known as

students elbow, housemaid's knee, and Taylor's bottom

-logy

study

narco-

stupor

fulminant

sudden and severe

atonic seizures

sudden loss of muscle tone

define acute pancreatitis

sudden onset of symptoms related to a blockage of the pancreatic ducts, so that corrosive secretions are trapped within the gland

panic attack or panic disorder

sudden onset of very extreme sympathetic symptoms pounding heart chest pain sweatiness dizziness

define abrasion

superficial with ragged edges

function of cartilage

support parts, framework and attachments, protects tissues, forms structural models for new bones

what occurs in thrombocytopenia?

suppression of platelet production

define fundoplication

suture of the fundus of the stomach around the esophagus to prevent reflux with hiatal hernia

synonym for hyperlordosis

swayback

-cele

swelling, hernia

acute traumatic stress disorder

symptoms develop more quickly after an ordeal than they do with PTSD

signs and symptoms of chronic bronchitis

symptoms develop slowly, taking months or years before attracting attention. mild cough that lingers after an infection has cleared & is present most days for 3/more months producing thick clear sputum pattern occurs for at least 2 years in a row. patient clears throat often, shortness of breath progresses. later in process patient shows signs in oxygen deprivation, including cyanosis and eventually edema related to rt sided heart failure

define IBS-A (a is for alternating)

symptoms fluctuate between diarrhea and constipation

signs and symptoms of emphysema

symptoms may take years to arise. usually affects those over 65 and early signs are assumed to be signs of aging. include pain with breathing, shortness of breath, dry cough, wheezing, weight loss, rales/abnormal rattling sound

postconcussion syndrome

symptoms occur following a concussion for weeks or months

septicemia

systemic disease caused by the spread of microorganisms and their toxins in the circulating blood

sprain

tears to ligaments

myocardial infarction

technical term for heart attack

what is the condition of permanently dilated capillaries and venules on the ankles and legs that are usually harmless, aka spider veins?

telangiectasia

your client has persistent low grade abdominal pain and a change in bowel habits in a new pattern. massage relieves symptoms for a day or 2 but then they return. what's the best course of action?

tell client to consult a primary care provider in case something serious is happening

client reports that after playing soccer yesterday, their left calf feels sore and heavy, and they'd like you to work it out. you notice it's warmer than the right calf, and it may also be bigger. your best option is to....

tell your client it's possible that they have a DVT and emphasize that they need to have it checked right away, just in case

therm-

temperature

transient ischemic attack

temporary interruption in the blood supply to the brain

rhupus

term for the common combination of rheumatoid arthritis and lupus

orchi-

testis

lipodystrophy

the abnormal redistribution of fat in the body

idiopathic endolymphatic hydrops

the accumulation of excess indolent inside the membranous Labyrinth

define ascites

the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity

define pleural effusion

the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity

myofascial pain syndrome is a condition associated with

the accumulation of trigger points

obstructive sleep apnea or hyponea

the air passage collapses when muscles relax so that oxygen cannot enter during inhalation these people tend to have excessive daytime sleepiness and morning headaches from lack of oxygen

define expiratory reserve volume

the amount of air that can still be expelled from the lungs after a normal exhalation

what does the Adson's test assess?

the anterior scalene muscle

Ischemic penumbra

the area surrounding an ischemic stroke

what is a consequence of not taking tuberculosis drugs as prescribed?

the bacteria can mutate into a stronger pathogen

indication

the basis for an intervention that is likely to have a positive outcome in a given condition

levodopa

the biologiclally active form of dopa; a precursor of dopamine

what happens in celiac disease?

the body has an inflammatory response to the presence of a gluten component

where in the body is deep vein thrombosis more likely to occur?

the calves or thighs

vestibule

the central part of the Bony Labyrinth of the ear

cochela

the coiled part of the inner ear where sound is converted into nerve impulses

venous thromboembolism (VTE)

the combination of deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism

female athlete triad

the combination of disordered eating, amenorrhea, and osteopenia or osteoporosis that is sometimes seen with women athletes and is predictive of later serious health problems

diagnosis

the determination of the nature of a disease, injury, or defect

define esophageal cancer

the development of malignanct cells in the esophagus. typically appears in either of 2 forms: growth in the thoracic or proximal area of the esophagus (squamous cell carcinoma), or growth in the distal end (type of adenocarcinoma)

define stomach cancer

the development of malignant tumors in the stomach that can block the passage of food through the digestive system, and can spread to other organs either through direct contact or through blood and lymph flow

define colorectal cancer

the development of tumors anywhere in the large intestine from the ascending right side to the rectum. malignant colon or rectal cancer is not the same thing as the presence of adenomas or colon polyps

client has sickle cell disease. why are they likely to have poor immune function?

the disease often destroys the spleen

Tunica intima

the endothelial, innermost layer of blood vessel walls

sleep stage 2

the eyes stop moving. Brain waves slow down but still show occasional burst of activity called sleep spindles

define epiglottis

the flap of tissue that covers the windpipe during swallowing

endolymph

the fluid filling the membranous Labyrinth of the ear

define glycogen

the form in which the body stores carbohydrates

atherosclerosis

the formation of hard, brittle plaque inside arteries

define cavitation

the formation of pits or holes

parenchyma

the functional tissue of an organ

sulci

the grooves or furrows on the surface of the brain. singular is sulcus

define lung cancer

the growth of malignant cells in the lungs. cells eventually form tumors that have easy access to the lymph and circulatory system and are capable of spreading to other tissues before they're detectable.

geste antagoniste

the habit of touching an area of the body to relieve symptoms of dystonia

what happens in heart failure?

the heart is not functioning well enough to meet the body's needs

body temperature is regulated by this structure

the hypothalamus

autoimmune disorder

the immune system can mistake a part of the body for a dangerous pathogen. That is, it fails to distinguish self from non-self. Conditions involving this type of mistake are called this.

Define Iliotibial band friction syndrome

the inflammation and pain at the lateral femoral condyle and IT band juncture.

globus pallidus

the inner and lighter gray portion of the lentiform nucleus in the brain. Literally pale globe

leptomeninges

the inner two meninges, the pia mater and arachnoid layers

in homeostatic relationships, what does the integumentary system do for the reproductive system?

the integumentary system contains highly modified sweat and mammory glands that produce milk, protects the reproductive organs, skin also stretches and can change pigment when accomodating a growing fetus

Think about the attachment sites

the latissimus dorsi originates; spinous process of the last six thoracic vertebrae, last three or four ribs, thoracolumbar aponeurosis and posterior iliac crest. Anterior pelvic tilt (downward rotation)= short flexors and long extensors. ASIS pulled inferior. Posterior pelvic tilt (upward rotation)= short extensors and long flexors. ASIS pulled superior.

a massage should be avoided for a client with a seborrheic keratosis lesion when...

the lesion is irritated or bleeding

your very large client informs you that he is not really overweight, he has been diagnosed with ascites. what is most likely to be dysfunctional?

the liver

define subglottis

the lower portion of the larynx that connects it to the trachea

if a fragment breaks off a DVT, where will it most likely lodge?

the lungs

where do most venous emboli ultimately lodge?

the lungs

define pepsin

the main digestive enzyme in the stomach

what is the spleens function?

the main function is to cleanse and filter blood and not lymph fluid. Destroying spent blood cells and recycling iron, clearing out bacteria, viruses and debris. this organ also functions as storage for platelets and as a blood Reservoir along with the liver

primary symptoms of dupuytren contractor

the medial fingers curl into permanent flexion

define peritoneum

the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity

Define endosteum

the membranous lining of the medullary cavity.

psych-

the mind, mental

systemic JRA Still disease

the most serious type of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, affecting at least one joint as well as causing inflammation in various internal organs

mucus blanket

the mucus covering of the respiratory epithelium

define heme

the nonprotein part of hemoglobin that contains iron

Prevelance

the number of cases of a disease existing in a given population during a specific period or at a particular moment; the proportion of people affected

incidence

the number of new cases of people falling ill with a specified disease during a specific period within a specific population

infarction

the obstruction of blood supply to a tissue

lungs

the one and only destination for clots or debris anywhere on the venous side of the systemic circuit (assuming that the septum is intact)

define brain gut axis

the ongoing process of biochemical interaction b/t the gastrointestinal tract and the nervous system

lungs

the only place an arterial embolism cannot end up

define esophageal hiatus

the opening in the diaphragm through which the esophagus passes

adventitia

the outermost connective tissue layer that covers organs and vessels

pons

the part of the brainstem located between the medulla oblongata and the thalamus

define ileocecal valve

the passage from the small intestine to the large intestine

spinal cord shock

the period immediately following a spinal cord injury characterized by the swelling of the spinal cord and impairment of various bodily functions

systole

the phase of the heartbeat during which heart muscles contract, pushing blood out of the chambers

diastole

the phase of the heartbeat during which heart muscles relax, allowing the chambers to fill with blood

define choledocholithiasis

the presence of a gallstone in the common bile duct

define cholelithiasis

the presence of a gallstone in the gallbladder or bile ducts

define pneumothorax

the presence of air or gas in the pleural cavity

hydrostatic pressure

the pressure exerted by a fluid due to the effects of gravity

starling equilibrium

the principle that the amount of fluid squeezed out of circulatory capillaries should be almost equal to the amount being drawn into lymphatic capillaries

heart failure

the progressive loss of cardiac function

Hemoglobin

the protein in red blood cells that binds to oxygen

hemoglobin: a protein that does what?

the protien that bonds with oxygen and transported in the blood.

the process of normal expiration happens because of

the resilience of elastin fibers in lung tissue

cerebral palsy

the result of brain damage, usually to motor areas of the brain, specifically the basal ganglia and the cerebrum

edema

the retention of interstitial fluid b/c of electrolyte or protein imbalances, or b/c of mechanical obstruction in the circulatory or lymphatic systems

bony Labyrinth

the rigid outer wall of the inner ear

define pyloric valve

the ring of muscle at the passage from the stomach to the small intestine. aka pyloric sphincter

ankylosing spondylitis usually begins at this joint

the sacroiliac joint

C3-8 ventral nerves innervate what?

the scalenes are innervated by these nerves. The inNervation for the Anterior= C5, 6 ventral; Medius= C3-8 ventral; Posterior= C6-8 ventral.

Define Aromatherapy

the science of utilizing highly concentrated extractions from plants. The therapeutic properties can be effectively used topically and aromatically. Inhaling essential oils stimulates olfactory receptor cells. This sends messages to the emotional center or Limbic System. The National Association of Holistic Aromatherapy (NAHA) defined aromatherapy as the art and science of utilizing naturally extracted aromatic essences from plants to balance, harmonize, and promote the health of the body, mind, and spirit. The American Heritage Dictionary's definition of Aromatherapy is the use of selected fragrant substances in lotions and inhalants in an effort to affect mood and promote health. Only 400 of the 300,000 documented plant species in the world can be used in Therapeutic Aromatherapy. 5,000 plant species contain the chemical compound Terpenes. Terpenes are a large and varied class of hydrocarbon, an organic compound consisting entirely of hydrogen and carbon.

define cyclooxygenase-1 pathway

the sequence of events that leads to an inflammatory process

define haustra

the small pouches of the colon

Tunica Media

the smooth muscle middle layer of blood vessel walls

lumen

the space inside a tube, such as an artery or intestine

acidosis

the state of having abnormally acidic body fluids or tissues

vasospasm

the sudden constriction of a blood vessel

osteotomy

the surgical cutting of bone

define lobectomy

the surgical removal of a lobe of an organ

define pneumonectomy

the surgical removal of a lung

phleboctomy

the surgical removal of a part of a vein

sympathectomy

the surgical removal of a section of sympathetic nerve or one or more of the sympathetic ganglia

define cholecystectomy

the surgical removal of the gallbladder

homeostasis

the tendency to maintain a stable internal environment

systemic circulation: describe

the term for one of the circuits of the heart that supplies blood to organs, tissues, and cells of the body

Tunica externa

the tough outermost layer of blood vessel walls

define supraglottis

the upper part of the larynx

when a person first contracts HIV but is not experiencing symptoms, what is happening within the body?

the virus is replicating, but the immune system keeps pace

define glottis

the vocal cords and the slit between them. part of the larynx.

define peristalsis

the wave like contractions of the intestines that move their contents forward

sclera

the white, outer layer of the eye

Define Heliotherapy

therapeutic exposure to sunlight. Ice has the possibility of intensifying the pain.

define hematuria

these are RBCs in the urine can be caused by bleeding in the urinary tract due to trauma, kidney stones, or infection.

define proteinuria (albuminuria) & what is the probable cause

these are proteins in the urine can be caused by physical exertion or pregnancy (nonpathological), glomerulonephritis and hypertension (pathological). probable cause is urinary tract infection

what kind of exercise is recommended for people with cystic fibrosis?

these clients should exercise carefully to maintain their lung function

extensor carpi ulnaris & flexor carpi ulnaris work together to do what?

these muscles ADduct the radiocarpal joint

internal intercostal OIF

these muscles have their origin at the inferior border of the ribs and insertions at the superior border of the rib above. They help with forced expiration depressing the ribs. The muscle fibers run IN towards the midline, thought of visually as an extension of the internal oblique fibers.

external intercostals OIF

these muscles have their origin at the inferior borders of the ribs and insertion at the superior borders of the ribs above. They help in forced inhalation expanding the ribs. The muscle fibers run at an angle Exiting away from midline, thought of visually as an extension of the external oblique fibers.

what is true about hemophilia patients?

they bleed longer than do other people

what happens to most warts if they are not medically treated?

they eventually go away, although it may take years

kind of exercise recommended for people with cystic fibrosis?

they should exercise carefully to maintain their lung function

your new client reports abdominal discomfort, frequent headache, general puffiness, tremor, and itchy patches on the skin. how can you accommodate for her needs?

this client needs gentle massage to avoid overwhelming a delicate system

hemolytic anemia

this condition is related to the premature destruction of red blood cells

Explain why persistent digestive system discomfort should be pursued with a primary care provider

this condition should be pursued w/ a primary care provider because there are many cancers and diseases that don't produce extreme symptoms until they are well advanced

how does pneumonia usually occur?

this disease happens as a complication of a preexisting condition

hypothalamus: function

this endocrine system controls the function of the anterior pituitary, the protein gh growth hormone stimulates growth for muscles and bones and regulates metabolism

name the muscles in the Erector spinae group ESG

this group consists of: the Spinalis, Longissimus, and Iliocostalis that run from the sacrum to the occiput on the posterior vertebral column.

heart attack

this happens when a branch of the coronary artery becomes occluded and myocardial fibers die

dystonic cp

this involves slow, involuntary twisting movements of the trunk and extremities

define multiple sclerosis (MS)

this is a CNS condition where demyelination of the nerves occurs

describe hemiplegia

this is a non-progressive condition of paralysis on one side of the body caused by a brain lesion and is termed a condition of the CNS

Thymosin: a hormone that does what?

this is a peptide thymus gland hormone that programs T lymphocytes?

define torticollis and list what muscles it involves

this is a rare condition in which the neck muscles contract, causing the head to twist to one side. The muscles are: SCM, scalenes, and upper fibers of the trapezius.

what is cholecyst another name for?

this is another name for the gallbladder

define bilirubinuria

this is bile pigment in the urine can be caused by liver disease (hepatitis)

define pes cavus

this is excessively high arch

define pes planus

this is flat foot

epilepsy

this is identified as a diagnosis when a person has two or more non febrile seizures, at least 24 hours apart which can take several forms

define mechanical effect

this is manual manipulation of muscle

venae cavae is responsible for what?

this is responsible for transporting unoxygenated blood from the whole body back to the heart.

define valgus (X)

this is short lateral and long medial

define varus (O)

this is short medial and long lateral

the sciatic nerve serves what parts of the body?

this is the longest nerve in the entire body. It serves the skin of the leg, the muscles of the back, thigh, leg, and foot.

the pineal body: describe/function

this major endocrine gland is a small pine cone shaped structure located in the brain. it produces melatonin. this hormones representative action is involved in biological rhythms (daily and seasonal) regulated by light/dark, wake/sleep cycles

27 bones in what structure

this many bones make up the hand: 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals, and 14 phalange bones.

allergic reactions may cause this

this may cause the permeability of the vessels to change, allowing fluids to leak into the surrounding tissues, causing the swelling of the skin in patches

rhomboid major OIF*

this muscle has its insertion at the medial border of the scapula from the scapular spine to the inferior angle. It originates at the spinous processes of T2-T5

internal obliques: O*IF

this muscle has its origin at the inferior border of the ribs and inserts into the superior border of the rib above, depressing the ribs

how does pneumonia usually occur?

this occurs as a complication of a preexisting condition

sickle cell disease

this occurs when hemoglobin is malformed

the spleen is part of what body system?

this organ is a part of the Lymphatic system

epiphysis refers to what?

this refers to the enlarged area at the end of long bones

muscular system does what?

this system functions to provide movement, maintain posture, generate heat, and stabilize joints

what does the endocrine system do for the digestive system?

this system has local gastro-intestinal (GI) hormones that influence GI functions. Vitamin D is activated in order to absorb calcium from the diet. The hormone catecholamine influences digestive activity.

the nervous system does what for the skeletal system?

this system innervates the bones for the skeletal system. the muscles are innvervated for the muscular system.

the digestive system provides

this system provides needed nutrients for bone health and growth

The skeletal system provides

this system provides protection for the digestive organs & for the CNS structures in the nervous system, provide framework, and cause movement.

the nervous system does what

this system regulates and activates muscle glands/activity, maintains homeostasis, provides sensation, higher mental functioning, emotional response

the urinary system does what?

this system rids the body of nitrogenous wastes.

how long can the cold virus stay viable on surfaces in the massage room if they are not disinfected?

this virus is viable on surfaces for up to 3 hours

how long can the cold virus stay viable on surfaces in a massage room if they are not disinfected?

this virus lasts 3 hours on surfaces

dia-

through

this organism grows on the skin and spreads in a circular pattern.

tinea corporis

lacunar infarction

tiny areas of damage caused by stroke occuring in a small vessel

the implication asthma has for massage therapy is

to focus work on breathing muscles between attacks

the main function of the lateral collateral ankle ligaments is

to stabilize against varus stress

agglutinate

to stick together, as when red blood cells form clumps

define anosmia

total or partial absence of the sense of small

The superior AND inferior vena cava do what?

transport blood back to the right atrium of the heart. Both are known as the Venae cavae.

leukemia contraindications

treatments involve high risk of bruising, bleeding, infection. any bodywork that increases these risks is not appropriate

true or false client with IBS can receive any bodywork that they enjoy

true

aneurysm: common locations

trunk and the brain

-oma, onco-

tumor

define neuroendocrine tumor

tumors of tissues of the endocrine and neurological systems, which can be either benign or malignant

define bronchial asthma

typical form of the disease with tight bronchioles and excessive mucus production and wheezing during episodes

proctosigmoiditis

ulcerative colitis that is present in both the rectum and the sigmoid colon

proctitis

ulcerative colitis that is present only in the rectum or anus

these conditions are associated with colorectal cancer

ulcerative colitis, colon polyps, inflammatory bowel disease

inflammatory bowel disease comprises....

ulcerative colitis, crohn disease

define hepatitis C

unique in that it damages the liver so slowly that symptoms may not develop until decades after exposure. spreadable during this time via blood.

epi-

upon

client has advanced plaque psoriasis in a flared state. what is your best strategy?

use a hypoallergenic lotion and work in a way that doesn't exacerbate itchiness

define hepatitis A

usually spread through oral-fecal contamination. short acute infection usually causes no long lasting damage. one exposure creates life long immunity. incubates for 2-6 weeks after exposure b4 symptoms start. then is present for 2-3 weeks but the person may not feel restored for up to 6 months

which body fluids can transmit HIV?

vaginal secretions, blood, breast milk, semen

phleb-

vein

perforator veins

veins that perforate the superficial fascia, connecting superficial veins to the deep ones into which they drain

Rapid Cycling bipolar disorder

very severe form that shows four or more cycles in a year it has a younger onset than other forms of bipolar disorder

hives occur as a result of

vessels leaking causes this

concussion

violent shaking up or jarring of the brain

what is the most common cause of acute bronchitis

viral attack on lungs is cause of this

what causes infectious sinusitis?

virus, bacteria, fungus can all cause this disease

what causes infectious sinusitis?

virus, bacteria, fungus cause this

viral meningitis

viruses that can cause meningitis or many but it tends to be less severe than bacterial meningitis and seldom cause permanent damage

this condition involves a viral infection that causes hard, crusty growth on the skin.

wart

hydro-

water

these are inorganic compounds found in the body

water, salt, some acids, and bases. (lack carbon)

hemiparesis

weakness on one side of the body

signs and symptoms of multiple sclerosis

weakness, optic neuritis, and depression

patellofemoral pain syndrome

wearing down of the cartilage on the posterior aspect of the patella

common signs of stomach cancer?

weight loss, heartburn, nausea and vomiting

tonic clonic seizures

what have traditionally been called grand mal seizures. involve uncontrolled movements of the face, arms, and legs followed by loss of consciousness bladder control and muscle tone

the urinary system does this

what system of the body removes waste from the circulatory system & helps regulate proper pH and ion balance?

Isometric contraction of the hams and using direct pressure on the quads is to be done when this happens

when a client is lying prone and is experiencing a cramp in the right quads, this is what you should do

why is it important for cilia to move the mucus blanket

when an irritant gets trapped in the tubes of the lungs, a cough moves it out of the body after being trapped in the mucus

define gastroesophageal reflux disorder

when chronic reflux from esophagus irritates the bronchi; acute bronchitis can be a complication of this disease

massage contraindications for anemia

when it accompanies other disorders that may be negatively affected. so if pernicious anemia has resulted in a decrease in sensation or if anemia is due to acute infection, cancer, or other serious diseases, bodywork must be conducted with caution & as part of an integrated health care strategy

circadian rhythm sleep wake disorders

when people are forced to be physically or mentally active in a different sleep-wake cycle the rhythm is disrupted and the quality of their sleep as well as their waking hours is compromised

feet

when the right ventricle becomes weak, fluid accumulates in this part of the body

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

when the side of a herpes zoster infection involves facial and auditory nerves, hearing loss, and temporary or permanent facial paralysis resembling Bell palsy can occur

leuko-

white

endemic

widespread outbreak of a contagious disease

syn-, sym-

with

stomach cancer is commonly treated this way

with combined chemo, radiation, and surgery

com-, con-

with, together

a-, an-

without

this client tells you they have chronic fatigue syndrome, you should....

work gently to improve sleep and reduce pain

your client has a colostomy bag after having had colorectal cancer 6 years ago. he is physically active, but his left hip and hamstrings are giving him problems. what's the best strategy?

work normally, making whatever adjustments he needs for his comfort

define mucocutaneous candidiasis

yeast infections that appear in the mouth or on the skin

can you provide massage normally with no cautions or contraindications for a client whose hypertension is well controlled with medication?

yes

who is most prone to catch a cold

young children are most prone to get this

high blood pressure

"hypertension" is a technical term for this condition

Mechanical Effects

(Direct) the primary response to tissue manual manipulation

Reflexive Effects

(Indirect) the secondary involuntary response of the nervous system from a stimulus

Foreman and Croft Classification (F/C) grades of severity to the injury; Grade 1

(Minimal) No limitation of motion, no ligamentous injury and no neurological finding.

Foreman and Croft Classification (F/C) grades of severity to the injury; Grade 4

(Moderate to Severe) Yes limitation of motion, ligamentous instability, neurological findings present and fracture or disc derangement is present.

Foreman and Croft Classification (F/C) grades of severity to the injury; Grade 3

(Moderate) Yes limitations, some ligamentous injury and neurological findings may be present.

Foreman and Croft Classification (F/C) grades of severity to the injury; Grade 5

(Severe) Injury requires surgical management or stabilization.

Foreman and Croft Classification (F/C) grades of severity to the injury; Grade 2

(Slight) Yes limitation of motion, no ligamentous injury and no neurological findings.

Define Anma

(japanese) It is derived from the Chinese word, ANma, for massage. It combines deep tissue (pressure, friction, & touch) to specific points along the meridians to balance the movement of energy within the body to restore, promote, and maintain optimum health. The nervous, circulatory, lymphatic, and respiratory systems are effected, allowing your body to function productively. Amma Therapists rely primarily upon the sensitivity and strength of their hands. Sessions are usually 45 to 90 minutes long with a health intake interview and assessment that also may include exercise recommendations, holistic nutrition, vitamin supplements, or herbal formulas.

Define Anma, literally

(japanese) means Push-Pull

Define Pes planus

(pronated foot or flat foot) is a decrease in the medial longitudinal arch and a pronated hindfoot.

explain the cycle of injury-reinjury

(strain) injury occurs, Scar Tissue accumulates, but the scar tissue contracts the muscle like a corset and creates a structural weak spot in the muscle, where the site is prone to be reinjured

define a burn

(thermal agents) superficial burn 1st degree on epidermis; partial-thickness burn 2nd degree extends to dermis; full-thickness burn 3rd degree epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue; and 4th degree is all tissue plus fascia, muscles, and bones.

Deep effleurage Reflexive effects

+ parasympathetic NS response, - sympathetic NS response, + vasodilation, - heart rate, - blood pressure, slows breathing rate, generally relaxes muscles, + capillary space, - edema and - pain (gate theory), dilation lasts longer, deeper muscle relaxation, releases endorphins, + skin metabolism and + peripheral circulation.

Name reflexive effects of deep effleurage

+ parasympathetic NS response, - sympathetic NS response, + vasodilation, - heart rate, - blood pressure, slows breathing rate, generally relaxes muscles, + capillary space, - edema and - pain (gate theory), dilation lasts longer, deeper muscle relaxation, releases endorphins, + skin metabolism and + peripheral circulation.