ITIL 4 Exam Questions

26) How should an organization include third-party suppliers in the continual improvement of services? A. Ensure suppliers include details of their approach to service improvement in contracts B. Require evidence that the supplier uses agile development methods C. Require evidence that the supplier implements all improvements using project management practices D. Ensure that all supplier problem management activities result in improvements

A. Correct "When contracting for a supplier's service, the contract should include details of how they will measure, report on, and improve their services over the life of the contract." Ref 5.1.2 B. Incorrect. Agile methods do take an incremental approach, as they "focus on making improvements incrementally at a cadence"; however, this alone would not guarantee a supplier is committed to continual improvement. Ref 5.1.2 C. Incorrect. Many improvement initiatives use project management practices, but it may not be practical to do so for some. "Many improvement initiatives will use project management practices to organize and manage their execution", but not all improvement initiatives. Ref 5.1.2 D. Incorrect. Many 'problem management' activities will result in improvements, however not all supplier problems will result in improvements, so this is not a sensible approach. "It is not essential to analyse every problem; it is more valuable to make significant progress on the highest-priority problems than to investigate every minor problem that the organization is aware of." Ref 5.2.8

11) Which practice may involve the initiation of disaster recovery? A. Incident management B. Service request management C. Service level management D. IT asset management

A. Correct. "In some extreme cases, disaster recovery plans may be invoked to resolve an incident." Ref 5.2.5 B. Incorrect. "Service requests are a normal part of service delivery and are not a failure or degradation of service, which are handled as incidents." Ref 5.2.16 C. Incorrect. "The purpose of the service level management practice is to set clear business-based targets for service levels, and to ensure that delivery of services is properly assessed, monitored, and managed against these targets." Ref 5.2.15 D. Incorrect. "The purpose of the IT asset management practice is to plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets." Asset management "includes the acquisition, operation, care and disposal of organizational assets." Ref 5.2.6

15) Which statement about change authorization is CORRECT? A. A change authority should be assigned to each type of change and change model B. Centralizing change authorization to a single person is the most effective means of authorization C. The authorization of normal changes should be expedited to ensure they can be implemented quickly D. Standard changes are high risk and should be authorized by the highest level of change authority

A. Correct. "It is essential that the correct change authority is assigned to each type of change to ensure that change control is both efficient and effective." Ref 5.2.4 B. Incorrect. There is no rule that centralizing change authority is the most effective method. In some cases decentralizing decision-making is better: "In high-velocity organizations, it is a common practice to decentralize change approval, making the peer review a top predictor of high performance." Ref 5.2.4 C. Incorrect. This answer confuses normal changes with emergency changes. "Emergency changes are not typically included in a change schedule, and the process for assessment and authorization is expedited to ensure they can be implemented quickly." Ref 5.2.4 D. Incorrect. Standard changes are usually low risk and pre-authorized. "These are low-risk, pre-authorized changes that are well understood and fully documented, and can be implemented without needing additional authorization." Ref 5.2.4

16) Which dimension of service management considers governance, management, and communication? A. Organizations and people B. Information and technology C. Partners and suppliers D. Value streams and processes

A. Correct. "It is important to ensure that the way an organization is structured and managed, as well as its roles, responsibilities, and systems of authority and communication, is well defined and supports its overall strategy and operating model." Ref 3.1 B. Incorrect. The 'information and technology' dimension "includes the information and knowledge necessary for the management of services, as well as the technologies required. It also incorporates the relationships between different components of the SVS, such as the inputs and outputs of activities and practices." Ref 3.2 C. Incorrect. "The partners and suppliers dimension encompasses an organization's relationships with other organizations that are involved in the design, development, deployment, delivery, support and/or continual improvement of services. It also incorporates contracts and other agreements between the organization and its partners or suppliers." Ref 3.3 D. Incorrect. The 'value streams and processes' dimension "is concerned with how the various parts of the organization work in an integrated and coordinated way to enable value creation through products and services." Ref 3.4

35) Why should service desk staff detect recurring issues? A. To help identify problems B. To escalate incidents to the correct support team C. To ensure effective handling of service requests D. To engage the correct change authority

A. Correct. "Problem identification activities identify and log problems. These include:... detection of duplicate and recurring issues by users, service desk, and technical support staff." Ref 5.2.8 B. Incorrect. Identifying the correct team for escalating an incident is based on incident category, not recurring incidents. "More complex incidents will usually be escalated to a support team for resolution. Typically, the routing is based on the incident category, which should help to identify the correct team." Ref 5.2.5 C. Incorrect. "The purpose of the service request management practice is to support the agreed quality of a service by handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service requests in an effective and user-friendly manner." Detection of recurring issues by the service desk is not required to do this. Ref 5.2.16 D. Incorrect. "The person or group who authorizes a change is known as a change authority. It is essential that the correct change authority is assigned to each type of change to ensure that change control is both efficient and effective." This assignment is based on the type of change, and detection of recurring issues by the service desk is not required to do this. Ref 5.2.4

21) Which practice ensures that accurate and reliable information is available about configuration items and the relationships between them? A. Service configuration management B. Service desk C. IT asset management D. Monitoring and event management

A. Correct. "The purpose of the service configuration management practice is to ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services, and the CIs that support them, is available when and where it is needed. This includes information on how CIs are configured and the relationships between them". Ref 5.2.11 B. Incorrect. "The purpose of the service desk practice is to capture demand for incident resolution and service requests". Ref 5.2.14 C. Incorrect. "The purpose of the IT asset management practice is to plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets, to help the organization: maximize value, control costs, manage risks, support decision-making about purchase, re-use, and disposal of assets". Ref 5.2.6 D. Incorrect. "The purpose of the monitoring and event management practice is to systematically observe services and service components, and record and report selected changes of state identified as events". Ref 5.2.7

1) What is the effect of increased automation on the 'service desk' practice? A. Greater ability to focus on customer experience when personal contact is needed B. Decrease in self-service incident logging and resolution C. Increased ability to focus on fixing technology instead of supporting people D. Elimination of the need to escalate incidents to support teams

A. Correct. "With increased automation... The impact on service desks is reduced phone contact, less low-level work, and a greater ability to focus on excellent CX when personal contact is needed". Ref 5.2.14 B. Incorrect. The effect of automation is to increase self-service, not to decrease it. "With increased automation, AI, robotic process automation (RPA), and chatbots, service desks are moving to provide more self-service logging and resolution directly via online portals and mobile applications". Ref 5.2.14 C. Incorrect. The opposite is true. "With increased automation and the gradual removal of technical debt, the focus of the service desk is to provide support for 'people and business' rather than simply technical issues". Ref 5.2.14 D. Incorrect. The use of automation will not eliminate the need to escalate incidents. "A key point to be understood is that, no matter how efficient the service desk and its people are, there will always be issues that need escalation and underpinning support from other teams". Ref 5.2.14

14) What is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve? A. A service B. An output C. A practice D. Continual improvement

A. Correct. A service is "A means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the customer having to manage specific costs and risks." Ref 2.3.1 B. Incorrect. An output is "A tangible or intangible deliverable of an activity." Ref 2.5.1 C. Incorrect. Practices are "Sets of organizational resources designed for performing work or accomplishing an objective." Ref 4.1 D. Incorrect. 'Continual improvement' is a practice "to align the organization's practices and services with changing business needs." Ref 5.1.2

3) Which is the purpose of the 'monitoring and event management' practice? A. To ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services is available when and where it is needed B. To systematically observe services and service components, and record and report selected changes of state C. To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business D. To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible

A. Incorrect. "The purpose of the service configuration management practice is to ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services, and the CIs that support them, is available when and where it is needed". Ref 5.2.11 B. Correct. "The purpose of the monitoring and event management practice is to systematically observe services and service components, and record and report selected changes of state identified as events". Ref 5.2.7 C. Incorrect. "The purpose of the information security management practice is to protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business". Ref 5.1.3 D. Incorrect. "The purpose of the incident management practice is to minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible". Ref 5.2.5

18) Which statement about known errors and problems is CORRECT? A. Known error is the status assigned to a problem after it has been analysed B. A known error is the cause of one or more problems C. Known errors cause vulnerabilities, problems cause incidents D. Known errors are managed by technical staff, problems are managed by service management staff

A. Correct. Known errors "are problems where initial analysis has been completed; it usually means that faulty components have been identified... the problem remains in the known error status, and the documented workaround is applied". Ref 5.2.8 B. Incorrect. A problem is "A cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents." A known error is "A problem that has been analysed but has not been resolved." Known errors do not cause problems; they are problems that have been analysed but not yet resolved. Ref 5.2.8 C. Incorrect. Both known errors and problems cause incidents. A problem is "A cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents." A known error is "A problem that has been analysed but has not been resolved." Both problems and known errors may be vulnerabilities: "Every service has errors, flaws, or vulnerabilities that may cause incidents." Ref 5.2.8 D. Incorrect. "Many problem management activities rely on the knowledge and experience of staff, rather than on following detailed procedures. People responsible for diagnosing problems often need the ability to understand complex systems, and to think about how different failures might have occurred. Developing this combination of analytic and creative ability requires mentoring and time, as well as suitable training." These people might work in a technical role, or in a service management role. Ref 5.2.8

23) Identify the missing word in the following sentence. A customer is a person who defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility for the [?] of service consumption. A. outputs B. outcomes C. costs D. risks

A. Incorrect. "Customer: A person who defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility for the outcomes of service consumption." Ref 2.2.2 B. Correct. "Customer: A person who defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility for the outcomes of service consumption." Ref 2.2.2 C. Incorrect. "Customer: A person who defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility for the outcomes of service consumption." Ref 2.2.2 D. Incorrect. "Customer: A person who defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility for the outcomes of service consumption." Ref 2.2.2

25) What should be done for every problem? A. It should be diagnosed to identify possible solutions B. It should be prioritized based on its potential impact and probability C. It should be resolved so that it can be closed D. It should have a workaround to reduce the impact

A. Incorrect. "It is not essential to analyse every problem; it is more valuable to make significant progress on the highest-priority problems than to investigate every minor problem that the organization is aware of." Ref 5.2.8 B. Correct. "Problems are prioritized for analysis based on the risk that they pose, and are managed as risks based on their potential impact and probability." Ref 5.2.8 C. Incorrect. "Error control also includes identification of potential permanent solutions which may result in a change request for implementation of a solution, but only if this can be justified in terms of cost, risks, and benefits." Ref 5.2.8 D. Incorrect. "When a problem cannot be resolved quickly, it is often useful to find and document a workaround for future incidents, based on an understanding of the problem." Ref 5.2.8

33) Why should incidents be prioritized? A. To help automated matching of incidents to problems or known errors B. To identify which support team the incident should be escalated to C. To ensure that incidents with the highest business impact are resolved first D. To encourage a high level of collaboration within and between teams

A. Incorrect. "Modern IT service management tools can provide automated matching of incidents to other incidents, problems or known errors," but this is not dependent on the incident priority, which is used to ensure that incidents with the highest business impact are resolved first. Ref 5.2.5 B. Incorrect. "More complex incidents will usually be escalated to a support team for resolution. Typically, the routing is based on the incident category, which should help to identify the correct team." Ref 5.2.5 C. Correct. "Incidents are prioritized based on an agreed classification to ensure that incidents with the highest business impact are resolved first." Ref 5.2.5 D. Incorrect. "Effective incident management often requires a high level of collaboration within and between teams." However, this is not dependent on the incident priority, which is used to "ensure that incidents with the highest business impact are resolved first". Ref 5.2.5

12) What type of change is MOST likely to be managed by the 'service request management' practice? A. A normal change B. An emergency change C. A standard change D. An application change

A. Incorrect. "Normal changes: These are changes that need to be scheduled, assessed, and authorized". This is supported by the 'change control' practice, not by 'service request management'. Ref 5.2.4 B. Incorrect. "As far as possible, emergency changes should be subject to the same testing, assessment, and authorization as normal changes." This is supported by the 'change control' practice, not by 'service request management'. Ref 5.2.4 C. Correct. "Fulfilment of service requests may include changes to services or their components; usually these are standard changes." and "Standard changes: These are low-risk, pre-authorized changes that are well understood and fully documented, and can be implemented without needing additional authorization. They are often initiated as service requests". Ref 5.2.16, 5.2.4 D. Incorrect. "The scope of change control is defined by each organization. It will typically include all IT infrastructure, applications, documentation, processes". Some application changes may be managed as standard changes, but others will be normal or emergency changes and will be supported by the 'change control' practice. Ref 5.2.4

38) Which practice provides visibility of the organization's services by capturing and reporting on service performance? A. Service desk B. Service level management C. Service request management D. Service configuration management

A. Incorrect. "Service desks provide a clear path for users to report issues, queries, and requests, and have them acknowledged, classified, owned, and actioned." Ref 5.2.14 B. Correct. "Service level management provides the end-to-end visibility of the organization's services. To achieve this, service level management:... captures and reports on service issues, including performance against defined service levels." Ref 5.2.14 C. Incorrect. "A request from a user or a user's authorized representative that initiates a service action which has been agreed as a normal part of service delivery." Ref 5.2.15 D. Incorrect. "Service configuration management collects and manages information about a wide variety of CIs, typically including hardware, software, networks, buildings, people, suppliers, and documentation." Ref 5.2.11

27) What considerations influence the supplier strategy of an organization? A. Contracts and agreements B. Type of cooperation with suppliers C. Corporate culture of the organization D. Level of formality

A. Incorrect. "The partners and suppliers dimension encompasses an organization's relationships with other organizations that are involved in the design, development, deployment, delivery, support and/or continual improvement of services. It also incorporates contracts and other agreements between the organization and its partners or suppliers." These considerations depend on the supplier strategy, rather than influence it. Ref 3.3 B. Incorrect. The type of cooperation with suppliers depends on the supplier strategy, rather than influence it. The forms of cooperation "are not fixed but exist as a spectrum. An organization acting as a service provider will have a position on this spectrum, which will vary depending on its strategy and objectives for customer relationships." Ref 3.3 C. Correct. "Corporate culture: some organizations have a historical preference for one approach over another. Long-standing cultural bias is difficult to change without compelling reasons." Ref 3.3 D. Incorrect. The level of formality depends on the form of cooperation, which in turn depends on the supplier strategy. The forms of cooperation "are not fixed but exist as a spectrum. An organization acting as a service provider will have a position on this spectrum, which will vary depending on its strategy and objectives for customer relationships." Ref 3.3

9) Which practice provides support for managing feedback, compliments and complaints from users? A. Change control B. Service request management C. Problem management D. Incident management

A. Incorrect. "The purpose of the change control practice is to maximize the number of successful service and product changes by ensuring that risks have been properly assessed, authorizing changes to proceed, and managing the change schedule." Ref 5.2.4 B. Correct. "The purpose of the service request management practice is to support the agreed quality of a service by handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service requests in an effective and user-friendly manner," and "Each service request may include one or more of the following: ... feedback, compliments, and complaints (for example, complaints about a new interface or compliments to a support team)." Ref 5.2.16 C. Incorrect. "The purpose of the problem management practice is to reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents, and managing workarounds and known errors." Ref 5.2.8 D. Incorrect. "The purpose of the incident management practice is to minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible." Ref 5.2.5

29) What is the purpose of the 'relationship management' practice? A. To align the organization's practices and services with changing business needs B. To establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels C. To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents, and managing workarounds and known errors D. To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible

A. Incorrect. "The purpose of the continual improvement practice is to align the organization's practices and services with changing business needs through the ongoing improvement of products, services, and practices, or any element involved in the management of products and services." Ref 5.1.2 B. Correct. "The purpose of the relationship management practice is to establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels. It includes the identification, analysis, monitoring, and continual improvement of relationships with and between stakeholders." Ref 5.1.9 C. Incorrect. "The purpose of the problem management practice is to reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents, and managing workarounds and known errors." Ref 5.2.8 D. Incorrect. "The purpose of the incident management practice is to minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible." Ref 5.2.5

36) Which value chain activity communicates the current status of all four dimensions of service management? A. Improve B. Engage C. Obtain/build D. Plan

A. Incorrect. "The purpose of the improve value chain activity is to ensure continual improvement of products, services, and practices across all value chain activities and the four dimensions of service management." Ref 4.5.2 B. Incorrect. "The purpose of the engage value chain activity is to provide a good understanding of stakeholder needs, transparency, and continual engagement and good relationships with all stakeholders." Ref 4.5.3 C. Incorrect. "The purpose of the obtain/build value chain activity is to ensure that service components are available when and where they are needed, and meet agreed specifications." Ref 4.5.5 D. Correct. "The purpose of the plan value chain activity is to ensure a shared understanding of the vision, current status, and improvement direction for all four dimensions and all products and services across the organization." Ref 4.5.1

34) Which practice has a purpose that includes helping the organization to maximize value, control costs and manage risks? A. Relationship management B. IT asset management C. Release management D. Service desk

A. Incorrect. "The purpose of the relationship management practice is to establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels." Ref 5.1.9 B. Correct. "The purpose of the IT asset management practice is to plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets, to help the organization: maximize value, control costs, manage risks." Ref 5.2.6 C. Incorrect. "The purpose of the release management practice is to make new and changed services and features available for use." Ref 5.2.9 D. Incorrect. "The purpose of the service desk practice is to capture demand for incident resolution and service requests." Ref 5.2.14

22) Which practice has a purpose that includes restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible? A. Supplier management B. Deployment management C. Problem management D. Incident management

A. Incorrect. "The purpose of the supplier management practice is to ensure that the organization's suppliers and their performances are managed appropriately to support the seamless provision of quality products and services." Ref 5.1.13 B. Incorrect. "The purpose of the deployment management practice is to move new or changed hardware, software, documentation, processes, or any other component to live environments. It may also be involved in deploying components to other environments, for testing or staging." Ref 5.3.1 C. Incorrect. "The purpose of the problem management practice is to reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents, and managing workarounds and known errors." Ref 5.2.8 D. Correct. "The purpose of the incident management practice is to minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible." Ref 5.2.5

30) Which is intended to help an organization adopt and adapt ITIL guidance? A. The four dimensions of service management B. The guiding principles C. The service value chain D. Practices

A. Incorrect. "To support a holistic approach to service management, ITIL defines four dimensions that collectively are critical to the effective and efficient facilitation of value for customers and other stakeholders in the form of products and services." Adopting ITIL to address these four dimensions of ITSM helps to facilitate value but does not help the organization to adapt ITIL guidance to its organization. Ref 3 B. Correct. The guiding principles can "guide organizations in their work as they adopt a service management approach and adapt ITIL guidance to their own specific needs and circumstances." Ref 4.3 C. Incorrect. "Service value chain: A set of interconnected activities that an organization performs to deliver a valuable product or service to its consumers and to facilitate value realization." Adopting a service value chain helps to facilitate value but does not help the organization to adapt ITIL guidance to its organization. Ref 4.1 D. Incorrect. Practices are sets of organizational resources designed for performing work or accomplishing an objective. They do not help the organization to adapt ITIL guidance to its organization. Ref 4.1

13) Which guiding principle emphasizes the need to understand the flow of work in progress, identify bottlenecks, and uncover waste? A. Focus on value B. Collaborate and promote visibility C. Think and work holistically D. Keep it simple and practical

A. Incorrect. 'Focus on value' states that all improvement work should deliver measurable value for customers and other stakeholders, but it does not specifically highlight the need to understand the flow of work, identify bottlenecks, and uncover waste. Ref 4.3.1 B. Correct. 'Collaborate and promote' visibility states "Insufficient visibility of work leads to poor decision-making, which in turn impacts the organization's ability to improve internal capabilities. It will then become difficult to drive improvements as it will not be clear which ones are likely to have the greatest positive impact on results. To avoid this, the organization needs to perform such critical analysis activities as: understanding the flow of work in progress; identifying bottlenecks, as well as excess capacity; and uncovering waste". Ref 4.3.4.3 C. Incorrect. 'Think and work holistically' states that the organization should work in an integrated way on the whole, not just on the parts, but it does not specifically highlight the need to understand the flow of work, identify bottlenecks, and uncover waste. Ref 4.3.5 D. Incorrect. 'Keep it simple and practical' states that the organization should use the minimum number of steps, and eliminate steps that produce no useful outcome. This does imply that you should uncover waste, but it does not specifically highlight the need to understand the flow of work and identify bottlenecks. Ref 4.3.6

24) Which guiding principle describes the importance of doing something, instead of spending a long time analysing different options? A. Optimize and automate B. Start where you are C. Focus on value D. Progress iteratively with feedback

A. Incorrect. 'Optimize and automate' says that you should understand and optimize something before you automate it. "Attempting to automate something that is complex or suboptimal is unlikely to achieve the desired outcome." Ref 4.3.7.3 B. Incorrect. 'Start where you are' says that you should understand the current situation before making changes. "Services and methods already in place should be measured and/or observed directly to properly understand their current state and what can be re-used from them. Decisions on how to proceed should be based on information that is as accurate as possible." Ref 4.3.2.1 C. Incorrect. 'Focus on value' says that each improvement iteration should create value for stakeholders "All activities conducted by the organization should link back, directly or indirectly, to value for itself, its customers, and other stakeholders." Ref 4.3.1 D. Correct. 'Progress iteratively with feedback' recommends comprehending "the whole, but do something: Sometimes the greatest enemy to progressing iteratively is the desire to understand and account for everything. This can lead to what has sometimes been called 'analysis paralysis', in which so much time is spent analyzing the situation that nothing ever gets done about it." Ref 4.3.3.3

17) Identify the missing word in the following sentence. A known error is a problem that has been [?] and has not been resolved. A. logged B. analysed C. escalated D. closed

A. Incorrect. A known error is "A problem that has been analysed but has not been resolved". If a problem has been logged but not analysed, it would not be considered a known error. Ref 5.2.8 B. Correct. A known error is "A problem that has been analysed but has not been resolved". Ref 5.2.8 C. Incorrect. A known error is "A problem that has been analysed but has not been resolved" - it may or may not be escalated. Ref 5.2.8 D. Incorrect. A known error is "A problem that has been analysed but has not been resolved". If a problem has been closed, it would not be considered a known error. Ref 5.2.8

31) What is an output? A. A change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item B. A possible event that could cause harm or loss C. A result for a stakeholder D. Something created by carrying out an activity

A. Incorrect. An event is: "Any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or other configuration item (CI). Events are typically recognized through notifications created by an IT service, CI, or monitoring tool." Ref 5.2.7 B. Incorrect. Risk is "A possible event that could cause harm or loss, or make it more difficult to achieve objectives." Ref 2.5.3 C. Incorrect. An outcome is "A result for a stakeholder enabled by one or more outputs." Ref 2.5.1 D. Correct. An output is "A tangible or intangible deliverable of an activity". Ref 2.5.1

28) What is a problem? A. An addition or modification that could have an effect on services B. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item C. A cause or potential cause of one or more incidents D. An unplanned reduction in the quality of a service

A. Incorrect. Change is "The addition, modification, or removal of anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on services." Ref 5.2.4 B. Incorrect. An event is "Any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or other configuration item (CI). Events are typically recognized through notifications created by an IT service, CI, or monitoring tool." Ref 5.2.7 C. Correct. A problem is "a cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents." Ref 5.2.8 D. Incorrect. An incident is "An unplanned interruption to a service or reduction in the quality of a service." Ref 5.2.5

19) What does the 'service request management' practice depend on for maximum efficiency? A. Compliments and complaints B. Self-service tools C. Processes and procedures D. Incident management

A. Incorrect. Compliments and complaints are examples of service requests. The efficiency of the practice does not depend on them. Ref 5.2.16 B. Incorrect. Many service requests are initiated and fulfilled using self-service tools, but not all are appropriate for this approach. Ref 5.2.16 C. Correct. "Service request management is dependent upon well-designed processes and procedures, which are operationalized through tracking and automation tools to maximize the efficiency of the practice." Ref 5.2.16 D. Incorrect. "Service requests are a normal part of service delivery and are not a failure or degradation of service, which are handled as incidents." Ref 5.2.16

2) Which term describes the functionality offered by a service? A. Cost B. Utility C. Warranty D. Risk

A. Incorrect. Cost is "The amount of money spent on a specific activity or resource." Ref 2.5.2 B. Correct. Utility is "The functionality offered by a product or service." Ref 2.5.4 C. Incorrect. Warranty is "Assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements". Ref 2.5.4 D. Incorrect. A risk is "A possible event that could cause harm or loss, or make it more difficult to achieve objectives". Ref 2.5.3

5) How do all value chain activities transform inputs to outputs? A. By determining service demand B. By using a combination of practices C. By using a single functional team D. By implementing process automation

A. Incorrect. Demand is the input to the service value chain. Value chain activities "represent the steps an organization takes in the creation of value. Each activity contributes to the value chain by transforming specific inputs into outputs." Ref 4.5 B. Correct. "To convert inputs into outputs, the value chain activities use different combinations of ITIL practices." Ref 4.5 C. Incorrect. It uses various resources from different practices when needed. "To convert inputs into outputs, the value chain activities use different combinations of ITIL practices (sets of resources for performing certain types of work), drawing on internal or third-party resources, processes, skills, and competencies as required. Ref 4.5 D. Incorrect. The 'optimize and automate' guiding principle recommends that activities should be automated where this is practical but the service value chain does not require automation. "Technology should not always be relied upon without the capability of human intervention, as automation for automation's sake can increase costs and reduce organizational robustness and resilience." Ref 4.3.7

39) Which is the BEST example of an emergency change? A. The implementation of a planned new release of a software application B. A low-risk computer upgrade implemented as a service request C. The implementation of a security patch to a critical software application D. A scheduled major hardware and software implementation

A. Incorrect. Emergency changes "are changes that must be implemented as soon as possible; for example, to resolve an incident or implement a security patch." The implementation of a planned new release of a software application does not fall into this category and would be planned and implemented as a normal change. Ref 5.2.4 B. Incorrect. Emergency changes "are changes that must be implemented as soon as possible; for example, to resolve an incident or implement a security patch." A low-risk computer upgrade implemented as a service request does not fall into this category. Using a service request implies that this is a standard change, as standard changes "are often initiated as service requests." Ref 5.2.4 C. Correct. Emergency changes are "Changes that must be implemented as soon as possible; for example, to resolve an incident or implement a security patch." Ref 5.2.4 D. Incorrect. Emergency changes "must be implemented as soon as possible; for example, to resolve an incident or implement a security patch. Emergency changes are not typically included in a change schedule, and the process for assessment and authorization is expedited to ensure they can be implemented quickly." A scheduled major hardware and software implementation does not fall into this category and would be planned and implemented as a normal change. Ref 5.2.4

4) What should all 'continual improvement' decisions be based on? A. Details of how services are measured B. Accurate and carefully analysed data C. An up-to-date balanced scorecard D. A recent maturity assessment

A. Incorrect. How services are measured is important, however only accurate data can drive fact-based decisions for improvement. Ref 5.1.2 B. Correct. "Accurate data, carefully analysed and understood, is the foundation of fact-based decision-making for improvement." The 'continual improvement' practice should be supported by relevant data sources and by skilled data analytics to ensure that each potential improvement situation is sufficiently understood. Ref 5.1.2 C. Incorrect. A balanced scorecard is one input to making a decision, but on its own it does not serve as the foundation for fact-based decisions. Ref 5.1.2 D. Incorrect. Maturity assessments are useful but they provide only one piece of information, as opposed to providing the foundations for decision-making in the continual improvement practice. Ref 5.1.2

10) Which joint activity performed by a service provider and service consumer ensures continual value co-creation? A. Service provision B. Service consumption C. Service offering D. Service relationship management

A. Incorrect. Service provision is not a joint activity; it is performed by a service provider. Ref 2.4.1 B. Incorrect. Service consumption is not a joint activity; it is performed by a service consumer. Ref 2.4.1 C. Incorrect. Service offering is not an activity; it is "A description of one or more services, designed to address the needs of a target consumer group. A service offering may include goods, access to resources, and service actions". Ref 2.4.1 D. Correct. Service relationship management is "Joint activities performed by a service provider and a service consumer to ensure continual value co-creation based on agreed and available service offerings". Ref 2.4.1

8) Identify the missing words in the following sentence. The purpose of the [?] is to ensure that the organization continually co-creates value with all stakeholders in line with the organization's objectives. A. 'focus on value' guiding principle B. four dimensions of service management C. service value system D. 'service request management' practice

A. Incorrect. The 'focus on value' guiding principle guides an organization to consider the needs of the service consumer. It cannot ensure that the organization continually co-creates value with all stakeholders. Ref 4.3.1 B. Incorrect. The four dimensions "represent perspectives which are relevant to the whole SVS, including the entirety of the service value chain and all ITIL practices." They do not ensure that the organization continually co-creates value with all stakeholders. Ref 3 C. Correct. "The purpose of the SVS is to ensure that the organization continually co-creates value with all stakeholders through the use and management of products and services." Ref 4.1 D. Incorrect. The purpose of the 'service request management' practice is to "support the agreed quality of a service by handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service requests in an effective and user-friendly manner." It doesn't ensure that the organization continually co-creates value with all stakeholders. Ref 5.2.16

37) Which guiding principle is PRIMARILY concerned with consumer's revenue and growth? A. Keep it simple and practical B. Optimize and automate C. Progress iteratively with feedback D. Focus on value

A. Incorrect. The emphasis of this principle is on how to approach activities: "Always use the minimum number of steps to accomplish an objective. Outcome-based thinking should be used to produce practical solutions that deliver valuable outcomes." Ref 4.3.6 B. Incorrect. This principle is focused on increased effectiveness and efficiency. "Organizations must maximize the value of the work carried out by their human and technical resources." Ref 4.3.7 C. Incorrect. This shows how to approach making changes. "Resist the temptation to do everything at once. Even huge initiatives must be accomplished iteratively. By organizing work into smaller, manageable sections that can be executed and completed in a timely manner, the focus on each effort will be sharper and easier to maintain." Ref 4.3.3 D. Correct. "This section is mostly focused on the creation of value for service consumers... This value may come in various forms, such as revenue, customer loyalty, lower cost, or growth opportunities." Ref 4.3.1

40) Which guiding principle recommends assessing the current state and deciding what can be reused? A. Focus on value B. Start where you are C. Collaborate and promote visibility D. Progress iteratively with feedback

A. Incorrect. The guiding principle 'focus on value' advises "All activities conducted by the organization should link back, directly or indirectly, to value for itself, its customers, and other stakeholders." This is not the main concern of the guiding principle 'start where you are'. Ref 4.3.1 B. Correct. The guiding principle 'start where you are' advises "Having a proper understanding of the current state of services and methods is important to selecting which elements to re-use, alter, or build upon." Ref 4.3.2.3 C. Incorrect. The focus of the guiding principle 'collaborate and promote visibility' is on involving the right stakeholders and communicating with them. "When initiatives involve the right people in the correct roles, efforts benefit from better buy-in, more relevance (because better information is available for decision-making) and increased likelihood of long-term success". This is not the main concern of the guiding principle 'start where you are'. Ref 4.3.4 D. Incorrect. The main concern of the guiding principle 'progress iteratively with feedback' is breaking initiatives into smaller parts. "By organizing work into smaller, manageable sections that can be executed and completed in a timely manner, the focus on each effort will be sharper and easier to maintain." This is not the main concern of the guiding principle 'start where you are'. Ref 4.3.3

32) What is the reason for using a balanced bundle of service metrics? A. It reduces the number of metrics that need to be collected B. It reports each service element separately C. It provides an outcome-based view of services D. It facilitates the automatic collection of metrics

A. Incorrect. There would not be fewer metrics gathered, although it would combine and aggregate them to provide clearer information. "The practice requires pragmatic focus on the whole service and not simply its constituent parts; for example, simple individual metrics (such as percentage system availability) should not be taken to represent the whole service." Ref 5.2.15 B. Incorrect. The reason is to reduce reporting of the individual system-based metrics which are not meaningful to the customer. "They should relate to defined outcomes and not simply operational metrics. This can be achieved with balanced bundles of metrics." Ref 5.2.15.1 C. Correct. "They should relate to defined outcomes and not simply operational metrics. This can be achieved with balanced bundles of metrics." Ref 5.2.15.1 D. Incorrect. This does not affect the mechanism for metric collection. "The practice requires pragmatic focus on the whole service and not simply its constituent parts; for example, simple individual metrics (such as percentage system availability) should not be taken to represent the whole service." Ref 5.2.15

20) Which statement about the 'service desk' practice is CORRECT? A. It provides a link with stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels B. It carries out change assessment and authorization C. It investigates the cause of incidents D. It needs a practical understanding of the business processes

A. Incorrect. This is a purpose of 'relationship management': "to establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels." Ref 5.1.9 B. Incorrect. "Service desks provide a clear path for users to report issues, queries, and requests, and have them acknowledged, classified, owned, and actioned." This does not include the assessment and authorization of changes. This will be provided by the 'change control' practice. Ref 5.2.14 C. Incorrect. Investigating the cause of incidents is a purpose of 'problem management'. "The purpose of the problem management practice is to reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents." Ref 5.2.8 D. Correct. "Another key aspect of a good service desk is its practical understanding of the wider organization, the business processes, and the users." Ref 5.2.14

7) What is the starting point for optimization? A. Securing stakeholder engagement B. Understanding the vision and objectives of the organization C. Determining where the most positive impact would be D. Standardizing practices and services

A. Incorrect. This is step 4 of the principle 'optimize and automate': "Ensure the optimization has the appropriate level of stakeholder engagement and commitment." Ref 4.3.7.1 B. Correct. The first step of the principle 'optimize and automate' is: "Understand and agree the context in which the proposed optimization exists. This includes agreeing the overall vision and objectives of the organization." Ref 4.3.7.1 C. Incorrect. This is step 2 of the principle 'optimize and automate': "Assess the current state of the proposed optimization. This will help to understand where it can be improved and which improvement opportunities are likely to produce the biggest positive impact." Ref 4.3.7.1 D. Incorrect. This is step 3 of the principle 'optimize and automate': "Agree what the future state and priorities of the organization should be, focusing on simplification and value. This typically also includes standardization of practices and services, which will make it easier to automate or optimize further at a later point." Ref 4.3.7.1

6) How does customer engagement contribute to the 'service level management' practice? 1. It captures information that metrics can be based on 2. It ensures the organization meets defined service levels 3. It defines the workflows for service requests 4. It supports progress discussions A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4

D. Correct. (1) (4) "Customer engagement: This involves initial listening, discovery, and information capture on which to base metrics, measurement, and ongoing progress discussions." Ref 5.2.15 A, B, C. Incorrect. (2) Service level management "ensures the organization meets the defined service levels through the collection, analysis, storage, and reporting of the relevant metrics for the identified services," not just through customer engagement. Ref 5.2.15 (3) It may define the requirements for service requests but defining the workflow is part of 'service request management'. "When new service requests need to be added to the service catalogue, existing workflow models should be leveraged whenever possible." Ref 5.2.16