Respiratory Problems and Medications

¡Supera tus tareas y exámenes ahora con Quizwiz!

A client with AIDS has histoplasmosis. The nurse should assess the client for which expected finding? 1. Dyspnea 2. Headache 3. Weight gain 4. Hypothermia

Answer: 1 Rationale: Histoplasmosis is an opportunistic fungal infection that can occur in the client with AIDS. The infection begins a respiratory infection and can progress to disseminated infection. Typical signs and symptoms include fever, dyspnea, cough, and weight loss. Enlargement of the client's lymph nodes, liver, and spleen may occur as well.

The nurse is taking the history of a client with occupational lung disease (silicosis). The nurse should assess whether the client wears which item during periods of exposure to silica particles? 1. Mask 2. Gown 3. Gloves 4. Eye protection

Answer: 1 Rationale: Silicosis results from chronic, excessive inhalation of particles of free crystalline silica dust. The client should wear a mask to limit inhalation of this substance, which can cause restrictive lung disease after years of exposure. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not necessary.

A client who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive has had a tuberculin skin test (TST). The nurse notes a 7-mm area of induration at the site of the skin test and interprets the result as which finding? 1. Positive 2. Negative 3. Inconclusive 4. Need for repeat testing

Answer: 1 Rationale: The client with HIV infection is considered to have positive result on tuberculin skin testing with an area of induration larger than 5 mm. The client without HIV is positive with an induration larger than 10mm. The client with HIV is immunosuppressed, making a smaller area of induration positive for this type of client. It is possible for the client infected with HIV to have false-negative readings because of the immunosuppression factor. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect interpretations.

The community health nurse is conducting an education session with community members regarding the signs and symptoms associated with tuberculosis. The nurse informs the participants that tuberculosis is considered as a diagnosis if which signs and symptoms are present? Select all that apply. 1. Dyspnea 2. Headache 3. Night sweats 4. A bloody, productive cough 5. A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum

Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5 Rationale: Tuberculosis should be considered for any clients with a persistent cough, weight loss, anorexia, night sweats, hemoptysis, shortness of breath, fever, or chills. The client's previous exposure to tuberculosis should also be assessed and correlated with the clinical manifestations.

The nurse is preparing a list of home care instructions for a client who has been hospitalized and treated for tuberculosis. Which instructions should the nurse include on the list? Select all that apply. 1. Activities should be resumed gradually. 2. Avoid contact with other individuals, except family members, for at least 6 months. 3. A sputum culture is needed every 2 to 4 weeks once medication therapy is initiated. 4. Respiratory isolation is not necessary, because family members already have been exposed. 5. Cover the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing and put used tissues in plastic bags. 6. When 1 sputum culture is negative, the client is no longer considered infectious and usually can return to former employment.

Answer: 1,3,4,5 Rationale: The nurse should provide the client and family with information about tuberculosis and allay concerns about the contagious aspect of the infection. The client needs to follow the medication regimen exactly as prescribed and and always have a supply of the medication on hand. Side and adverse effects of the medication and ways of minimizing them to ensure compliance should be explained. After 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy, it is unlikely that the client will infect anyone. Activities should be resumed gradually and a well-balanced diet that is rich in iron, protein, and vitamin C to promote healing and prevent recurrence of infection should be consumed. Respiratory isolation is not necessary, because family members already have been exposed. Instruct the client about thorough hand washing, to cover the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing, and to put used tissues into plastic bags. A sputum culture is needed every 2 to 4 weeks once medication therapy is initiated. When the results of 3 sputum cultures are negative, the client is no longer considered infection and can usually return to former employment.

The nurse is preparing to give a bed bath to an immobilized client with tuberculosis. The nurse should wear which items when performing this care? 1. Surgical mask and gloves 2. Particulate respirator, gown, and gloves 3. Particulate respirator and protective eyewear 4. Surgical mask, gown, and protective eyewear

Answer: 2 Rationale: The nurse who is in contact with a client with tuberculosis should wear an individually fitted particulate respirator. The nurse also would wear gloves as per standard precautions. The nurse wears a gown when the possibility exists that the clothing could become contaminated, such as when giving a bed bath.

The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which findings would the nurse expect to note on assessment of this client? Select all that apply. 1. A low arterial PCo2 level 2. A hyper inflated chest noted on the chest x-ray 3. Decreased oxygen saturation with mild exercise 4. A widened diaphragm noted on the chest x-ray 5. Pulmonary function tests that demonstrate increased vital capacity

Answer: 2, 3 Rationale: Clinical manifestations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) include hypoxemia, hypercapnia, dyspnea on exertion and at rest, oxygen desaturation with exercise, and the use of accessory muscles of respiration. Chest x-rays reveal a hyperinflated chest and a flattened diaphragm if the disease is advanced. Pulmonary function tests will demonstrate decreased vital capacity.

The emergency department nurse is assessing a client who has sustained a blunt injury to the chest wall. Which finding indicates the presence of a pneumothorax in this client? 1. A low respiratory rate 2. Diminished breath sounds 3. The presence of a barrel chest 4. A sucking sound at the site of injury

Answer: 2. Diminished breath sounds Rationale: This client has sustained a blind or closed-chest injury. Basic symptoms of a closed pneumothorax are shortness of breath and chest pain. A larger pneumothorax may cause tachypnea, cyanosis, diminished breath sounds, and subcutaneous emphysema. Hyper-resonance also may occur on the affected side. A sucking sound at the site of injury would be noted with an open chest injury.

A client with a chest injury has suffered flail chest. The nurse assesses the client for which most distinctive sign of flail chest? 1. Cyanosis 2. Hypotension 3. Paradoxical chest movement 4. Dyspnea, especially on exhalation

Answer: 3 Rationale: Flail chest results from multiple rib fractures. This results in a "floating" section of ribs. Because this section is unattached to the rest of the bony rib cage, this segment results in paradoxical chest movement. This means that the force of inspiration pulls the fractured segment inward, while the rest of the chest expands. Similarly, during exhalations, the segment balloons outward while the rest of the chest moves inward. This is a characteristic sign of flail chest.

The nurse is caring for a client after a bronchoscopy and biopsy. Which finding, if noted in the client, should be reported immediately to the primary health care provider? 1. Dry cough 2. Hematuria 3. Bronchospasm 4. Blood-streaked sputum

Answer: 3 Rationale: If a biopsy was performed during a bronchoscopy, blood-streaked sputum is expected for several hours. Frank blood indicates hemorrhage. A dry cough may be expected. The client should be assessor signs of complications, which would include cyanosis, dyspnea, stridor, bronchospasm, hemoptysis, hypotension, tachycardia, and dysrhythmias. Hematuria is unrelated to this procedure.

A client has experienced pulmonary embolism. The nurse should assess for which symptom, which is most commonly reported? 1. Hot flushed feeling 2. Sudden chills and fever 3. Chest pain that occurs suddenly 4. Dyspnea when deep breaths are taken

Answer: 3 Rationale: The most common initial symptom in pulmonary embolism is chest pain that is sudden in onset. The next most commonly reported symptom is dyspnea, which is accompanied by an increased respiratory rate. Other typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include apprehension and restlessness, tachycardia, cough, and cyanosis.

The nurse performs an admission assessment on a client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis. The nurse should check the results of which diagnostic test that will confirm this diagnosis? 1. Chest x-ray 2. Bronchoscopy 3. Sputum culture 4. Tuberculin skin test

Answer: 3 Rationale: Tuberculosis is definitively diagnosed through culture and isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A presumptive diagnosis is made based on a tuberculin skin test, a sputum smear that is positive for acid-fast bacteria, a chest x-ray, and histological evidence of granulomatous disease on biopsy.

The nurse provides discharge instructions to a client with pulmonary sarcoidosis. The nurse concludes that the client understands the information if the client indicates to report which early sign of exacerbation? 1. Fever 2. Fatigue 3. Weight loss 4. Shortness of breath

Answer: 4 Rationale: Dry cough and dyspnea are typical early manifestations of pulmonary sarcoidosis. Later manifestation include night sweats, fever, weight loss, and skin nodules.

The nurse is instructing a hospitalized client with a diagnosis of emphysema about measures that will enhance the effectiveness of breathing during dyspneic periods. Which position should the nurse instruct the client to assume? 1. Sitting up in bed 2. Side-lying in bed 3. Sitting in a recliner chair 4. Sitting up and leaning on an overbed table

Answer: 4 Rationale: Positions that will assist the client with emphysema with breathing include sitting up and leaning on an overbed table, sitting up and resting the elbows on the knees, and standing and leaning against the wall.

The nurse is assessing the respiratory status of a client who has suffered a fractured rib. The nurse should expect to note which finding? 1. Slow, deep respirations 2. Rapid, deep respirations 3. Paradoxical respirations 4. Pain, especially with inspiration

Answer: 4 Rationale: Rib fractures result from a blunt injury or a fall. Typical signs and symptoms include pain and tenderness localized at the fracture site that is exacerbated by inspiration and palpation, shallow respirations, splinting or guarding the chest protectively to minimize chest movement, and possible bruising at the fracture site. Paradoxical respirations are seen with flail chest.

The nurse has conducted discharge teaching a client diagnosed with tuberculosis who has been receiving medication for 2 weeks. The nurse determines that the client has understood the information if the client makes which statement? 1. "I need to continue mediation therapy for 1 month." 2. "I can't shop at the mall for the next 6 months." 3. "I can return to work if a sputum cultures comes back negative." 4. "I should not be contagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy."

Answer: 4 Rationale: The client is continued on medication therapy for up to 12 months, depending on the situation. The client generally is considered noncontagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy. The client is instructed to wear a mask if there will be exposure to crowds until the medication is effective in preventing transmission. The client is allowed to return to work when the results of 3 sputum cultures are negative.

The nurse is assessing a client with multiple trauma who is a risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome. The nurse should assess for which earliest sign of acute respiratory distress syndrome? 1. Bilateral wheezing 2. Inspiratory crackles 3. Intercostal retractions 4. Increased respiratory rate

Answer: 4 Rationale: The earliest detectable sign of acute respiratory distress syndrome is an increased respiratory rate, which can begin from 1 to 96 hours after the initial insult to the body. This is followed by increasing dyspnea, air hunger, retraction of accessory muscles, and cyanosis. Breath sounds may be clear or consist of fine inspiratory crackles of diffuse coarse crackles.


Conjuntos de estudio relacionados

Chapter 1: Introducing Interpersonal Communication

View Set

Passpoint: Ch 22 Health Promotion of the Adolescent

View Set

Review Up to Question Trainer #7

View Set

P2U1 Unit Exam - Milady Standard Esthetics: Fundamentals (Chapters 2, 3, 4, 18, 21) - Flashcards only

View Set