Six Sigma Practices Questions 2--(ASQ Practice Question Set)
If a company produces 100 compressors and 5 compressors have 2 defects each, what is the defects / unit (DPU) produced? A) 0.10 B) 5 C) 95 D) 0.01
(5 compressors * 2 defect each) / 100 produced = 0.10
A total of 5,000 pins were manufactured on the machine. 200 pins had a total of 600 defects. 4,800 pins were packed at the end of the line. What are the defects per unit (DPU) and throughput yield for this process? 1.2 DPU and 88% throughput yield 0.12 DPU and 89% throughput yield 0.04 DPU and 96% throughput yield 1 DPU and 96% throughput yield
600/5000 = 0.12 DPU e-0.12= 89% throughput yield.= CORRECT ANSWER Defects per unit (DPU) is determined by total number of defects divided by the total number of products produced in some time period. Throughput yield is determined by 1- % of closure defects * 100.
Calculate the FMEA RPN from the following data: Probability of occurrence = 6 Severity = 4 Detection = 3 A) Cannot be determined with information provided. B) 13 C) 27 D) 72
72 is the correct answer based on the formula for RPN, which is RPN= [occurrence * severity * detection]= (4) (3) (6)
Image displayed next to each question Critical equipment breakdown is identified as a risk in the project at the start of the project and risk probability is 4, risk severity is 2, risk cost is $12. Which of the following risk priority number is correct? 8 3 6 96
8= The risk priority number = equal to the Risk probability multiplied by Risk severity. Incorrect calculation (Risk probability multiplied by Risk severity multiplied by Risk cost)= 96 Incorrect calculation (Risk cost / (Risk probability + Risk severity)= 6 Incorrect calculation (Risk probability + Risk severity)/2= 3
Six Sigma Manager is scheduling and tracking the progress of critical project tasks within a project. Which of the following is most likely to be the best tool he can use? Critical Path Method Project charter Gantt chart PERT chart
A Gantt chart is a bar chart that shows the tasks of a project - when each must take place and how long each will take. As the project progresses, bars are shaded to show which tasks have been completed? It is useful to indicate the critical path on the chart with bold or colored outlines of the bars for the steps on the critical path. CPM is not used for ongoing progress tracking. CPM is used to identify which activities drive end-to-end project completion time and which do not (are or are not on the critical path for the project). project charter has a timeline, but is too high-level to track specific progress of deliverables.
A revision in the budget is required due to development. Since the original budget approval. What does the Six Sigma Manager need to do first? Conduct Budget Review Conduct Management Review Create Budget Report Create Status Report
A budget review involves revising budgets, either upward or downward, based on developments since the original budget approval. A management review provides management with the status of the project, an opportunity to review the project charter and project team mission, and a chance to discuss management activities likely to have an impact on the progress of the team, etc. A budget report is only used in monitoring actual expenditures versus budgeted expenditures.
A Six Sigma Manager is handling product redesign project. Which feedback forum is best suited to address obstacles encountered by the team? Status report Customer audit Management Review Storyboards
A management review provides management with the status of the project, the opportunity to review the project charter and project team mission, and a chance to discuss management responsibilities likely to have an impact on the progress of the team, etc. Status reports tell what the project is based on, and where it is supposed to be relative to the plan.
Select the best example of vertical communication: A) Quality improvement team reporting on a cycle time reduction to the production team B) Field sales person notifying a production scheduler of pending large order C) Manager communicating the result of performance review to his direct report D) Cross-functional design team soliciting input from customers on a new product
A manager communicating the result of a performance review to his direct report is an example of vertical communication. A cross functional team soliciting input from customers on a new product AND THE REMAINING CHOICES = example of horizontal communication.
A Six Sigma Manager assesses and evaluates the outcomes of the project, such as cycle time reduction. Which of the following methodologies should the manager select? Post-project audit Customer audit Post-project outcome assessment Budget review
A post-project outcome assessment is used at some predetermined point to assess and evaluate the quantitative and qualitative outcomes of the project. Post-project audit is a project cash/capital budgeting process.
The success of a design for Six Sigma program is estimated by which of the following? A) Scorecards B) Process sigma C) Response surface methods (RSM) D) Prototype performance
A= CORRECT ! DFSS estimates product sigma using, as much as possible, pencil and paper. The scorecard is the tool for doing this. Process sigma is a metric for scorecards. RSM is a tool for optimization in the improve phase of DMAIC. Prototype performance contributes to the scorecard.
A process adds value in the value chain if it satisfies which of the following? A) It is done right the first time, the customer is willing to pay for it, and it changes the thing in the process. B) It is done right the first time, the customer is willing to pay for it, and it does not change the thing passing through the process. C) It is done right the first time, the customer does not care, and it changes the thing in the process. D) It reduces error, the customer is willing to pay for it, and it changes the thing in the process.
A= CORRECT !--A process is value added if it meets all three criteria: 1. done right the first time (no rework), 2. the customer is willing to pay for it, and 3. the process changes the thing that passes through the process. A process that reduces error means it was not done right the first time and has errors that need rework, so it is not a value-added process. f the thing passing through the process is not changed then it is not required at all and is not a value-added process.
During the production of yogurt, line operators collect samples from the milk and test its pH before immediately submitting the results to the quality control laboratory. Laboratory technicians then test the pH, protein content, and viscosity of the milk. Which of the following describes the second pH test performed by the laboratory? A)Non-value added B) process performance indicator C) Product release test D) Quality assurance
A= CORRECT! Since the second pH test is immediately performed after the first one, it is an extra inspection step that is not adding any value to the process. Laboratory tests are considered quality control activities, not assurance activities. Product release test is an in-process test (finished product is the yogurt), not a release test.
Which of the following statements best describes why companies find implementing lean to be valuable? A) Lean creates value for the organization by systematically identifying and eliminating waste. B) Lean prevents errors or mistakes from producing waste in the production cycle. C)Lean ensures that processes operate so that products or services meet or exceed customer requirements. D) Lean translates customer requirements into technical specifications to assure outstanding products or services are produced.
A= Correct = Creating value for the organization by systematically identifying and eliminating waste is the value that lean provides. Preventing errors or mistakes from producing waste in the production cycle is the value of error-proofing or poka yoke, one of the lean tools. Translating customer requirements into technical specifications to assure outstanding products or services are produced is the value of quality function deployment. Ensuring that processes operate so that products or services meet or exceed customer requirements is the value of control plans.
When trying to decide what's in or out of cope for a project, the most likely tool the Green Belt would use is: Raci Chart SIPOC Fishbone Diagram Box Plot
ANSWER= A SIPOC chart (suppliers - inputs - process - outputs - customers) allows the GB to create a high level view of the process of interest and identify boundaries activities, stakeholders and other elements. A Raci Chart, while typically used in the define phase, is used to analyze stakeholders and their requirements for communication (not project scope) A box plot is more likely to be used in later phases, such as Measure and Analyze, to analyze data.
An automobile manufacturer wants to collect field intelligence to address and improve customer satisfaction, customer retention, and customer loyalty. It has 3,000 dealers nationwide. Which of the following will provide the most information at optimum cost? Develop a statistical sample size and collect the field intelligence from dealers that are well-distributed geographically. Request field intelligence information from all the dealers spread throughout the country. Create detailed survey forms and send it to customers who have purchased their cars in the last year. Use the data from publications like consumer reports and develop strategy to attract and retain customers.
ANSWER=Developing a statistical sample size and collecting the field intelligence from dealers that are well-distributed geographically will provide prompt feedback at a much lower cost and will facilitate making the right decision. Requesting field intelligence from 3,000 dealers will be cost prohibitive and the quality of the data might be poor. Sending a detailed survey to recent consumers will not represent the customers who have purchased cars more than a year ago.
In a PERT chart, activities which may be done in parallel are indicated by which of the following? Colored line between activity boxes Identical predecessor step Square activity boxes Dashed arrow between activity boxes
ANSWER=Parallel activities will have the same predecessor step Colored line between activity boxes doesn't indicate parallel activities. It indicates Critical Path Square activity boxes don't indicate parallel activities. They indicate events. Events are nodes that separate tasks. Dashed arrow between activity boxes doesn't indicate parallel activities. It indicates a dummy activity or extra event. A dummy is an arrow drawn with dashed lines used to separate tasks that would otherwise start and stop with the same events or to show logical sequence. Dummies are not real tasks.
Which of the activities in this process flow diagram that must be non-value added?
Activities D and E are part of a rework loop. Activity D is an inspection activity and activity E must be a re-work activity for products to pass activity D. If activities A, B, and C are performed correctly, activities D and E don't add any value.
Which of the following is a key difference between an interrelationship digraph and an affinity diagram? A) The interrelationship diagraph uses a flowchart for relationships while the affinity diagram uses a matrix for relationships. B) The interrelationship digraph uses open ended questions while the affinity diagram starts with closed end questions. C) Interrelationship diagraphs should be used with seven or more concerns while the affinity diagram should be used with fewer than seven concerns. D) The affinity diagram arranges ideas into groups, while the interrelationship digraph intends to specify the ways the ideas influence one another.
Affinity diagrams organize ideas into their natural relationships. Interrelation diagrams organize by cause-and-effect relationships.
Which of the following statements best describes how Six Sigma and lean tools are applied? A) Six Sigma defines the project and quality levels and lean tools identify non-value added waste. B) Lean tools are only applicable in manufacturing or transactional situations, whereas Six Sigma tools can be used throughout. C) It is best to apply Six Sigma and lean separately with experts in each discipline working together on projects. D) Lean tools define the project and quality levels with Six Sigma identifying non-value added waste
Although lean tools can be used to define projects, they typically are more effectively used to measure process performance. High-level Six Sigma metrics define projects that then can use lean tools to measure process performance. Close
An insurance company is attempting to address minor issues with its claims payment process. If it chooses to use the PDSA cycle popularized by Deming, what would be the correct order of steps to take? A) Implement the desired changes with a pilot program. B) Measure the performance of the modified process. C) Identify what changes to the claims process should be made. D) Integrate successful results into the existing claims process.
Answer= 3, 1, 2, 4 Identify, Implement, Measure and Integrate are the correct order of steps in the PDSA improvement cycle.
Which of the following statements describes a reason why companies find Six Sigma valuable? A. Six Sigma provides a customized improvement methodology that can be applied anywhere throughout the business. B. Six Sigma fundamentally changes how a company improves. C. Six Sigma makes no overall changes to the quality of the company's products and services. D. Six Sigma is a long-term approach to improvement that does not fundamentally change the way a company measures success.
Answer= D= long-term approach to improvement that does not fundamentally change the way a company measures success. Six Sigma focuses on achieving financial targets or reducing costs within 12 months, which is not necessarily a change in how a company improves the quality of its products or services. Additionally, simply changing an approach with no regard for results is not part of the Six Sigma value proposition. Six Sigma is a standard (not customized) improvement methodology that can be applied to many businesses and throughout an individual business. Six Sigma projects almost always target quality improvement.
Which of the following is the best tool for discovering relationships between two sets of elements? Process Decision Program Chart (PDPC) Force field analysis Prioritization matrix Matrix diagram
Answer= Matrix Diagram= A matrix diagram is typically used to discover and illustrate relationships between two groups of items. A Process Decision Program Chart attempts to understand risk and drive contingency plans. Force field analysis compares impediments and aids to project success, but not the relationships between these 2 groups A prioritization matrix will rank order a list of ideas, but is not aimed at understanding relationships outside of this limited context.
Which of the following was one of Shewhart's contributions to the foundation of the Six Sigma methodology and tools? A) He experimented, identified, and documented the concept of the "Hawthorne effect." B) He created and used control charts, and he introduced the concept of statistical quality control. C) He was the first to describe and define the Six Sigma DMAIC approach to continuous improvement. D) He first promoted the idea that any process variation from a desired target value was a loss to society.
Answer=Control Chart= Shewart While he worked at the Hawthorne plant, the so-called "Hawthorne effect" was not documented by Shewhart. The reality of the "Hawthorne effect" is also still debated.
Which communication method is most effective when handling sensitive issues? An email A luncheon meeting In person A team meeting
Any sensitive communication issue must be handled privately and in person. Luncheon meetings are good for bottom up communication. Team meetings are good for horizontal communication Email lacks the ability to communicate emotion and does not allow for two-way communications. Close
Customer satisfaction is primarily driven by which of the following? A) Delivering quality and product features that exceed those provided by competitors B) Capturing customer feedback through multiple methods (e.g., surveys, complaints, etc.) C) Identifying both the stated and unstated needs of customer segments D) The ability of a product or service to meet the needs of a user or purchaser
As with identifying needs, capturing customer feedback is important. However, unless the feedback is acted upon in a meaningful way, it will not promote customer satisfaction. Quality and product features are important, but there are other considerations such as providing unnecessary features, value for price, etc. The ability of a product or service to meet the needs of a user or purchaser is the correct answer.
When first established, team members go through a period of team growth often referred to as forming. This stage typically includes which of the following behavior by team members? Arguing among members, even when they agree on the real issue Questioning the wisdom of the person who selected the team members for the project Attempts to define the task and decide how it will be accomplished. Establishing and maintaining team ground rules and boundaries
Attempts to define the task and decide how it will be accomplished is a typical and normal behavior observed in the Forming stage. Questioning the wisdom of the person who selected the team members for the project is behavior typically associated with the second stage of team growth, Storming. Establishing and maintaining team ground rules and boundaries is behavior typically associated with the third stage of team growth, Norming. Arguing among members, even when they agree on the real issue is behavior typically associated with the second stage of team growth, Storming
Which of the following factors is considered in the assessment of risk? Outsourcing Potential for financial loss Relocation of facilities Insurance premiums
B= CORRECT
Which of the following tools is useful in providing link between process inputs and outputs? FMEA chart SIPOC Pareto chart Hypothesis testing
B= CORRECT =SIPOCs represent relationships among inputs, outputs, suppliers, and customers FMEA is for risk assessment and prevention Pareto charts useful for identifying the vital few from the trivial many
The theory of constraints method starts with which of the following steps? A)Start by optimizing all processes in the process chain. B) Start by identifying the weakest process in the process chain. C) Start by adjusting the processes to match the weakest process. D) Start by improving all the slow processes.
B= CORRECT!! ----The first step in theory of constraints is to identify the constraining (weakest) process. Theory of constraints recognizes that optimizing the pieces of a system sub-optimizes the whole system. Theory of constraints can be repeated to improve the next weak process after the weakest process is improved. Theory of constraints recognizes that optimizing the pieces of a system sub-optimizes the whole system.
A process in which a company measures its performance against that of other companies is referred to as: A) Reengineering B) Shewhart Method C) Ishikawa Diagramming D) Benchmarking
Benchmarking is the process of measuring products, services, and processes against those of organizations known to be leaders in one or more aspects of their operations. Reengineering is defined as a breakthrough approach involving the restructuring of an entire organization and its processes.
An agile project team decided to use the expert judgment project estimation technique based on three points estimate in an agile environment. Which factors should be considered? A) Planning Poker B) Regression Analysis C) Best Case, Worst Case and Most Likely Scenarios D) Lead time, throughout and Work In Process (WIP)
Best Case, Worst Case and Most Likely Scenarios are the 3 points that are used in the formula W + (4M) + 6 Regression Analysis calculates projected times for an activity based on historical records from previous projects. The result is an activity estimate based on measures like time per line of code. Planning Poker is an expert judgment project estimation technique based on estimation from team members and building consequences on estimation of user story.
Calculate the RPNs and prioritize them for taking actions. Given: Severity-Occurence-Detection A= 8-5-4 B= 6-2-7 C= 3-7-10 A) A-C-B B) C-A-B C) B-C-A D ) A-B-C
C-A-B is the correct sequence. RPN for C is 210, RPN for A is 160, and RPN for B is 84. Generally the item with the highest RPN is given higher priority for taking actions.
The design failure mode and effects analysis should be completed before which of the following? A) Severity changes B) Performance testing C) Production drawings are released for tooling D) Prototype testing
C= CORRECT ! Production drawings are released for tooling after the design failure mode and effects analysis is complete. Prototype testing will validate FMEA and may identify additional failure modes. Severity changes can be affected only through design changes. The product of severity, occurrence, and detection is the risk priority number. Failure modes should be identified before performance is tested for the customer.
Which of the following quality management tools would best help a team to organize and summarize a natural grouping of a large number of ideas and issues? A) Activity network diagram B) Interrelationship diagraph C) Affinity diagram D) Tree diagram
C= Correct ! An affinity diagram helps teams logically group many brainstorming concepts into higher level buckets for further analysis. An interrelationship diagraph allows for analysis of cause-and-effect relationship, but does not create a hierarchical grouping of ideas per se. An activity network diagram is used to determine the most efficient sequence of work for a project. While it often employs Post-It notes, as does affinity diagramming, it is not focused primarily upon grouping ideas and issues into rational subgroups. The end product of an affinity diagram development exercise may take a tree diagram form, but with a tree diagram buckets are first defined, then brainstorming or data collection fills in the detail.
Which of the following is the best reason a company will choose, all else being equal, projects that most positively impact profitability? A) Profit allows an organization to purchase new machinery to meet increasing demand. B) High profits in the present guarantee the long-term success of a company. C) Earning profits allows a company to continue to work toward the goals of management. D) A company with profits can reward shareholders with quarterly dividends.
C= Correct! ----Earning profits allows a company to continue to work toward the goals of management is the correct answer. Profitability ensures an organization can remain an ongoing concern and work toward its goals, regardless of how it chooses to do so. Current profitability is no guarantee of future profitability. The organization must continually adapt to changing market conditions.
Business process management is based on the premise of which of the following? A) Each process in an organization should be optimized to its own highest level of performance to achieve company goals. B) Process ownership is delegated to those actually doing the work in a process. C) Achieving organizational goals is often driven by the coordination of a complex system of cross-functional processes. D) Managing the quality of tangible process outputs is more important than managing the quality of service delivery.
C= Correct! Achieving organizational goals is often driven by the coordination of a complex system of cross-functional processes is the correct answer, suggesting that monitoring of inputs, outputs, and process feedback are necessary to achieve organizational goals. Optimizing a process to its highest level of performance without regard for impact on other processes can sub optimize the organization as a whole. While staff doing the work have responsibilities for quality, process ownership typically resides at the executive or management level. Managing the quality of process outputs and related service delivery will vary in importance depending upon customer requirements and organizational goals.
Image displayed next to each question A soda company is developing a new recipe for grape-flavored soda, and would like to get some feedback on the new product without catching the attention of its competitors. Which of the following would be an appropriate method for collecting consumer feedback? A) Product promotions at major sport events B) Public mail surveys C) Focus groups D) Online customer surveys
C= Focus Groups Online surveys & Public mail surveys will not preserve the secrecy of the product and is usually not appropriate at product development stages.
Which the following best represents the benefits of capturing the lessons learned before project closure? Quantify project savings Celebrate the project closure party Review the team's process and identify what worked best. Provide input for performance appraisal
C= Providing the team with the opportunity to review and document best practices is a benefit of a lessons learned review.
For activity X: Optimistic Time = 2 Most Likely Time = 4 Pessimistic Time = 5 What will be the estimated standard deviation for activity X? 0.25 3.83 0.16 0.50
CORRECT ! Estimated standard deviation means (Pessimistic Time - Optimistic Time / 6)= 0.5 Estimated duration means (Optimistic Time +4Most Likely + Pessimistic Time)/6= 3.63 Incorrect calculation (Pessimistic Time - Optimistic Time) / 12= 0.25 Incorrect calculation (Pessimistic Time - Most Likely)/6 = 0.16
A team needs a tool to illustrate anticipated problems and possible solutions. Which of the following tools would be the best tool for this team's need? Force field analysis Matrix diagram Process Decision Program Chart (PDPC) Prioritization matrix
CORRECT = A Process Decision Program Chart (PDPC) is a network diagram that is used to illustrate anticipated problems and identify alternative paths. A matrix diagram is used to identify relationships between two sets of elements. It is not useful in contingency planning. A force field analysis separates driving forces from restraining forces. It is used to assess the viability of a future state. Prioritization matrix is used to decide the relative importance of items in a list. It is not useful in contingency planning.
What is the biggest benefit of competitive benchmarking? A) It is a quick, one-time improvement activity. B) It focuses on the weakest link of a process C) It monitors large amounts of information for problems and trends. D) It provides opportunities for improvement breakthroughs
Competitive benchmarking helps establish ambitious goals that are realistic (after all, someone else is already achieving them) and gives you are starting point for developing and implementing changes rather than starting from scratch. Monitoring large amounts of information for problems and trends is a performance index
A team is tasked with deciding which option should be selected among several competing alternatives. Which of the following is the best tool for this team's need? Matrix diagram Process Decision Program Chart (PDPC) Force field analysis Prioritization matrix
Correct Answer = Prioritization matrix A Prioritization Matrix is used to decide the relative importance among options by assigning weights to each option and then evaluating them against a set of criteria. A matrix diagram will effectively uncover relationships between two groups of elements, but will not in and of itself lead to prioritization. A tree diagram's primary function is to break big ideas or issues into more detailed components for easier comprehension and action. Close
Which of the following financial metrics provides the best measure of the long-term success of an organization's Six Sigma program? Cost of Poor Quality Market Share Cost Benefit Analysis Net Present Value of Project Outcomes
Cost reductions related to reductions in internal failures, external failures, appraisal cost, prevention cost and the cost of non-value added activities are a direct, and the best measure of improved performance related to Six Sigma projects.
The optimize phase in certain DFSS roadmaps most nearly refers to the desire to do which of the following? A) Test the design and record information for design improvements. B) Emphasize quality attributes. C) Link design to voice of the customer. D) Balance quality and cost.
D= CORRECT! In the fourth phase, optimize, the team achieves balance between quality and cost. The identify phase tasks link the design to the voice of the customer. The validate phase consists of testing and recording information for design improvements. The design phase tasks emphasize CTQ variables and attributes.
Which of the following is an example of an activity that adds to the Cost of Quality? A) Addition of safety relief valve to pressure vessels being produced. B) Refining of crude oil to produce high quality unleaded gasoline. C) Regular online updates to anti-virus software. D) An inline pH test of milk before final formulation.
D= CORRECT!! quality costs are the total of the cost incurred by (a) investing in the prevention of nonconformance to requirements; (b) appraising a product or service for conformance to requirements; and (c) failure to meet requirements". Product testing is part of cost of quality. Refining of crude oil to produce high quality unleaded gasoline is part of the oil refining process and does not specify any product testing or other cost of quality activities. Safety relief valves are part of the product and not an added cost of quality. Regular online updates to anti-virus software is an added value to the product and a customer expectation, does not represent part of cost of quality.
Which of the following is most important when developing a series of measurements for an organization? A) Identify measurements common to other organizations for benchmarking purposes. B)Establish process capability Cpk for core processes first. C) Measure all processes across the organization to surface potential issues. D) Align measurement priorities with goals and available resources.
D=Correct! Measurements should support organizational goals and be implemented within the constraints of available resources. While an organization with sufficient resources might be able or desire to attain this level of measurement, it would still need to make sense within the context of goals and resource availability. Additionally, measurement should only be undertaken when there is a reason to measure. Close Core processes should be measured, but Cpk is only useful when the process is known to be in statistical control with a normal distribution.
Which of the following is an example of sub-optimization of the whole? A) Focusing on satisfying customer requirements will necessarily optimize the whole organization. B) The best way to optimize the whole organization is to optimize its parts either one at a time or using some design of experiments approach. C) The only way to optimize the whole is for all to sacrifice to work together to produce the best output (products/services) for their customers. D) Organizational processes are interdependent; the requirements specific to a sub-process may not align with organizational objectives.
D=The interconnectedness or interdependence of each process may require an individual process to sub-optimize to fulfill broader organizational performance goals (e.g., one sub-process may overproduce for downstream processes, increasing levels of waste within the organization). Because processes within an organization are interdependent, the whole organization cannot be optimized by optimizing its parts. For all to sacrifice to work together to produce the best output (products/services) for their customers is not the way to optimize the whole; rather, it restates the question as a statement.
When working on improving an existing problem or process, which of the following processes would you use? A)DFSS B) DMADV C) DMAIC D) SIPOC
DMAIC is the process that works to improve an existing problem or process. SIPOC is a tool used in the define phase of DMAIC DMADV is used when there a process does not yet exist. DFSS is part of the new product design of DMADV
A total of 4000 closures were manufactured on machine #7. 200 closures had one defect each. A total of 3800 closures were packed. What are the defects per unit (DPU) and throughput yield? A) 1.05 DPU and 95% throughput yield B) 1 DPU and 99% throughput yield C) 0.05 DPU and 95% throughput yield D) 0.0526 DPU and 94.7% throughput yield
DPU is determined by 200/4000 = 0.05 and throughput yield is determined by 1.00 - 0.05 = .95 x 100 = 95% Defects per unit (DPU) is determined by total number of defects divided by the total number of products produced in some time period. Throughput yield is determined by 1- % of closure defects * 100.
In an effort to streamline their processes, the manager of a dry cleaning chain has developed a SIPOC diagram. Which of the following components would be considered an input to the dry cleaning process? A) Detergent and cleaning instructions B) The washing of the clothes C) The detergent vendor D) Clean clothes and invoices
Detergent and cleaning instructions are considered inputs to the dry cleaning process.
FMEA is used to do which of the following? Prove to management that extra resources are required Simulate the time and cost due to failure Indicate estimation of an activity Get an indication of the risk involved in an existing process
FMEA is used to prevent failures and their effects by identifying the risks involved in an existing process.
An FMEA is being constructed for the manufacture of a syringe cartridge. The team has developed risk ranking scale criteria for calculating the RPN. The team has assigned five values for ranking likelihood of occurrence (O), 10 values for ranking the risk associated with severity (S), and five values for ranking the risk associated with detection (D). Using this method will most likely do which of the following? A) Give severity a disproportionate representation in RPN. B) Ensure all values for O, S, and D are equally represented in RPN. C) Give occurrence and severity an equal representation in RPN. D) Ensure RPN reflects the priority for addressing failure modes.
Failure modes with high severity rank values will result in larger RPN numbers than failure modes with high occurrence or detection values. Since O, S, and D have different levels of ranking, RPN may be biased and not provide correct priority.
The typical balanced scorecard measures organizational performance in which of the following categories? Financial, Output, Process, Input Strategic, Financial, Customer, Learning Supplier, Process, Customer, Financial Financial, Customer, Process, Learning
Financial, Customer, Process, Learning are the categories (dimensions) found on the typical balanced scorecard developed by Kaplan and Norton.
The FMEA has the following RPNs. Which item should be addressed first? Item with RPN of 75 Item with RPN of 30 Item with RPN of 156 Item with RPN of 210
Generally the highest RPN is prioritized.
Which of the following represents the primary disadvantage of focusing exclusively on hard-dollar savings when assessing Six Sigma project benefits? asq/learn_x.gif Requires more effort to calculate hard-dollar benefits than other benefits Hard-dollar benefits are not considered to be tangible benefits Hard-dollar benefit reduction does little to reduce "hidden factory" costs Hard-dollar benefits are not a business priority
Hard dollar benefits are the easiest to qualify, because they are typically measured only at the end of the process and are usually stated in a company's financial books/statements. However, a 'hidden factory" includes all costs of waste and rework embedded within the process execution steps. They may be harder to identify and quantify in terms of hard dollar costs, and may require more sophisticated analysis to translate into savings that appear in a company's financial statements. It is typically more difficult to capture soft-dollar benefits (such as Cost of Poor Quality) than hard-dollar benefits, which tend to be visible within the budget.
In which stage of team maturity do team members have a clear focus on the purpose of the team, and a sense of satisfaction from the team's achievements? Performing Norming Forming Storming
In the Performing stage results motivate the team and it is focused. While the team begins to focus in the Norming stage, it has no substantial result yet.
Performing is the stage of the team evolution in which the team members do which of the following? A) Begin to understand the need to operate like a team rather than as a group of individuals B) Work together to reach their common goals C) Express their own opinions and ideas, often in disagreement with others D) Struggle to understand the goal and its meaning for them individually
In the performing stage team members work together to reach their common goal When team members express their own opinions and ideas, often in disagreement with others is the definition of the forming stage. Struggle to understand the goal and its meaning for them individually is the definition of the storming stage. The process of beginning to understand the need to operate like a team rather than as group of individuals is the definition of the norming stage. When team members express their own opinions and ideas, often in disagreement with others is the definition of the forming stage.
Which of the following is a reason that market share is a key concern of management? A) Increasing market share brings significant additional risk to delivery of existing products and services. B) Increasing market share may bring economies of scale as fixed costs do not increase in proportion to variable costs. C) Decreasing market share improves the ratio of fixed costs to variable costs. D) Market share is a reliable indicator of a product or service's capability to address management's needs.
Increasing market share may bring economies of scale as fixed costs do not increase in proportion to variable costs, is the correct answer. Market share indicates the capability of a company's products/services/prices to address the needs of the customer. Increasing market share brings additional risk, but it is considered modest as the means of delivery and deployment have been tested and found effective. Decreasing market share worsens the ratio of fixed costs to variable costs, the opposite of gaining economies of scale.
Which of the following is the best statement describing the difference between an external customer and an internal customer? A) Internal customers are within an organization, and external customers receive a product or service from the organization. B) External customers are the purchaser, and internal customers are merchants. C) Internal customers are suppliers, and external customers are employees. C) Both internal and external customers are within the organization.
Internal customers are within an organization, and external customers receive a product or service from the organization provides the definition for internal and external customers.
Which one of the following in the Juran Trilogy included evaluating actual quality performance? A) Quality improvement B) Quality planning C) Quality assurance D) Quality control
Juran was one of the first to write about the cost of poor quality.[11] This was illustrated by his "Juran trilogy", an approach to cross-functional management, which is composed of three managerial processes: quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement. Without change, there will be a constant waste, during change there will be increased costs, but after the improvement, margins will be higher and the increased costs get recouped. D= Quality control includes evaluating actual performance, comparing actual performance, and acting on the difference. Quality planning involves establishing goals, identifying customers and their needs, and developing features, processes, and controls to meet the customer needs. Quality improvement involves proving the need, establishing the infrastructure, identifying the improvement projects, and establishing teams and controls.
A project sponsor asked a Manager of an agile team to collect the lessons learned. Which of the following is the best statement that applies to this situation? The manager should collect the lessons learned throughout the project. The manager should collect the lessons learned only at the end of the project The manager should collect the lessons learned only when the project performance is not good The manager should collect the lessons learned when the projects go well
Lessons learned should be captured throughout the project when the details are fresh and team members can remember the most detail. Also this allows lessons learned early in the project to inform later phases.
Which of the following is a benefit of project risk analysis? More efforts Fewer project deliverables Greater probability of project success Project completion time delayed
Mitigated risk increases the chances of project success.
A Six Sigma project team has very limited time with an executive champion in an Analyze phase review. Which of the following tools represents the best combination of quantifiable data and visual display to justify the team's selection of Critical Xs from Potential Xs? A) Analysis-of-Variance (ANOVA) table B) Pareto chart C) Cause-and-Effect diagram D) Quality Functional Deployment matrix
Pareto chart combines both quantifiable data with visual display. It is a bar chart, where the bars depict the frequency of different data categories. The bars are arranged in order (left to right) by frequency. Many times the Pareto Chart will also include a line graph that shows the cumulative frequencies of all data types. ANOVA will indeed produce quantifiable justification for separating Critical Xs from Potential Xs, but the table will not display the results visually unless a separate plot such as a Main Effects Plot is employed. he Cause-and-Effect diagram is a visual display and may separate Critical Xs from Potential Xs, but does not typically include any quantifiable data.
Perfection can be achieved in the business process by which of the following? A) Conducting a one-time brainstorming session B) Adding more resources in the process C) Iteratively and continuously improving the process D) Having a kaizen blitz session
Perfection is not a one-time effort. It goes through many iterations as it is continuously improved. Kaizen blitz is a one-time problem-solving process. Adding more resources will not make the process perfect
When creating a detailed process map for a plastic molding process, which of the following are necessary process inputs? Resin material Solid weight Inspection report Part weight
Plastic resin is a normal input to a plastic molding process that is necessary to carry out the transformation to a molded part.
Process A = C/T: 1 minute Process B =C/T : 4 minutes Which process generates excess inventory?
Process A is pushing more inventory to process B. Process B has more cycle time to complete. The output generated by process A is excess inventory. Process B has more cycle time to process the inventory than process A. It is not generating excess inventory.
A process that crosses through multiple departments in a company can present challenges for improvement efforts because: A) It slows the progression of normal team-building B) Cross-functional teams dilute the knowledge of the group C) Management support is more difficult to obtain. D) Two or more areas may think they own the process
Processes that travel through multiple departments (such as product design, which can go through Marketing, Engineering, and Manufacturing, for example) may have each department believing they own the process, and have final decision authority on changes. Cross functional teams are preferred as they help approach a problem from multiple angles.
Image displayed next to each question A Six Sigma Manager is conducting a closure meeting with the project sponsors to ensure agreement that the project is completed. Which of the following would the Manager likely create an output of the project closure? Project metrics Gantt chart Project archives Project charter
Project archives= answer= Project specific documents need to be archived at the end of the project and need to be accessible for relevant stakeholders.
Which of the following statements best explains how Six Sigma projects are related to organizational goals? A) Organizational goals determine the Six Sigma projects that should be executed for all processes of the organization. B) Project selection criteria should be aligned with the mission of the organization and its related quality, service, and cost goals. C) Project goals are determined by the process being measured and will necessarily optimize the organization for achieving its goals. D) Six Sigma projects identify process output measures that are used to establish broader goals for the organization
Project selection criteria aligned with the mission of the organization and its related quality, service, and cost goals is the correct answer. Organizational goals should be used to identify valuable Six Sigma projects to be launched for key processes that support the goals. Organizational goals should be used to identify valuable Six Sigma projects to be launched for key processes that support the goals. Setting goals based simply on the process in question can sub optimize the organization. Six Sigma projects being identified as process output measures that are used to establish broader goals for the organization is a backward response. Without consideration of organizational goals, a Six Sigma project may pick goals that are inappropriate or that have adverse impact on the organization.
A Green Belt is preparing a SIPOC for the purchasing process in a construction company. She interviews the Purchasing Manager, who is concerned that she does not receive accurate and complete purchasing information. This prevents her from processing purchase orders in a timely manner. Which of the following is correct regarding the purchasing information? The purchasing information is an input to the purchasing process. The purchasing information is outside the scope of SIPOC for this process. The purchasing information is owned by the Purchasing Manager. The purchasing information is an output of the purchasing process.
Purchasing information is a key input to the purchasing process and will appear on the SIPOC chart.
A process improvement team is reviewing the purchasing process at a manufacturing site. The project team includes a Green Belt, the Production Manager, the Warehouse Manager, the Purchasing Manager, and three Line Operators. Which of the following is considered a process owner in this case? A) The Production Manager B) he General Manager of the site C) The Warehouse Manager D) The Purchasing Manager
Purchasing manager is the process owner of the purchasing process. The general manager can be the sponsor but not the process owner in this case. The production manager & WAREHOUSE MANAGER = stakeholder and not the owner.
An electronics company is working on the design of a new smart phone. The company collected feedback data from its customers on their requirements and expectations on the new phone. Which of the following tools can help the company in integrating customer feedback into the design features of the phone? Control charts Design of Experiments Quality Function Deployment Stratification
Quality Function Deployment (QFD) integrates customer requirements (voice of the customer, or VOC) into the design and delivery of a service offering. Stratification is a technique that separates data gathered from a variety of sources so that patterns can be seen. DoE are for planning, conducting, analyzing and interpreting controlled tests to evaluate the factors that control the value of a parameter or group of parameters, not for data collection
Which of the following is a direct benefit of a properly executed FMEA? A) Increased safety stock B) Decreased product functionality and robustness C) Reduced impact of risks due to defects D) Increased business process problems
Reduced impact of risks due to defects is a benefit of a proper FMEA. FMEA generally does not focus on inventory metrics. Even if it did, it is more likely that safety stock would be reduced, not increased. A benefit of FMEA would be improved product functionality and robustness.Reduced business process problems are a direct benefit of FMEA.
Which of the following yield metrics most accurately reflects quality throughout a process? A) Final yield B) Throughput yield C) Rolled throughput yield D) First time yield
Rolled throughput yield is calculated based on the throughput yield or defects per opportunity at each step in the process. It considers all opportunities for defects. Final yield only looks at the defect-free units produced at the end of the process. Besides not including all of the opportunities for defects, it also ignores the rework that occurs throughout the process. First time yield only looks at the number of defect-free units produced and not all of the opportunities for defects contained in a unit. Throughput yield only measures the defects per opportunity at a specific step in the process and not all the steps in the process.
Which of the following tools is used to identify a process? A) SIPOC B)DMAIC C) SPC D) QFD
SIPOC is a tool used to identify a process and all associated elements. SIPOC is an acronym for suppliers, input, process, output, customer DMAIC is a strategy used to improve a process. It is not used to identify the process. SPC, also referred to as Statistical process control is used to control quality through the application of statistical techniques. It is not used to identify a process. QFD also known as Quality Function Deployment is a process in itself. It is used to deploy customer requirements into the product development and production phase
An improvement team is looking into ways to improve the approval timeline of personal loans at a major bank. Loan applications have to be reviewed and processed by several internal departments. These departments in turn will request feedback and credit reports from various external parties before approving the application. Which of the following tools will help the team in formulating a high level understanding of the process and its key players? A)Matrix Diagram B) SIPOC Diagram C) Relations Diagram D) Prioritization Matrix
SIPOCs help improvement teams in defining the boundaries of the project and defining the suppliers-inputs- process- outputs and customers of a process. Matrix Diagram shows the relationship between 2, 3 or 4 groups of information Relations Diagram helps analyze the natural links between different aspects of a complex situation Prioritization Matrix is a decision making tool
Which of the following best describes the Six Sigma philosophy? A) Daily activity sustaining continuous improvement in which people do rapid experiments to learn how to eliminate waste in business processes. B) Regularly scheduled rapid improvement events in which the right people come together to find ways to eliminate waste in business processes and implement their solutions very quickly. C) Teams working on short- to medium-term projects, using a standardized methodology to solve problems that directly impact the bottom line, exposing the "hidden factories," and using statistical methods to drive their decisions. D) A structured management approach for the entire organization, centered on quality, based on the participation of everyone, and aimed at long-term success through customer satisfaction.
Six Sigma emphasizes solving problems using statistical methods to drive the solutions using the DMAIC process. Correct = D) A structured management approach for the entire organization, centered on quality, based on the participation of everyone, and aimed at long-term success through customer satisfaction. Kaizen philosophy= Daily activity sustaining continuous improvement in which people do rapid experiments to learn how to eliminate waste in business process LEAN= Regularly scheduled rapid improvement events in which the right people come together to find ways to eliminate waste in business processes and implement their solutions very quickly is the philosophy behind lean.
Which of the following is an example of a process that can benefit from applying value stream mapping to identify waste in space? A production unit requires the storage of metal parts awaiting rework on the shop floor. A metal plating process producing excessive scrap parts as a result of a poor maintenance program. A raw materials release process requires the approvals of the purchasing, production, and warehouse managers. A production process that requires moving parts from the warehouse to a staging area, then to the production floor for assembly.
Storage is a type of waste associated with space. Value stream mapping can be used to identify such waste. Scrap is a type of waste in materials. Requiring too many permissions is an example of complexity waste. A production that requires moving parts from the warehouse to a staging area, then to the production floor for assembly is an example of transportation waste (movement) that may not add value.
A major airline is exploring the potential for expanding its operations into a Midwest city. For this purpose, it commissioned an internal team, and a team of external consultants to collect feedback from customers on their interest in the new route. Which of the following tools can ensure that both teams will collect consistent data? Control charts Stratification Design of Experiments Check sheets
Stratification is a technique that separates data gathered from a variety of sources so that patterns can be seen. Check sheets are a structured, prepared form for collecting and analyzing data.
Recent sales reports for an online store show steep decline in sales figures. The store sells three main categories of products: smart phones, computers and printers. The store customers are concentrated in four regions: North, South, East and West. The store performs online surveys for its customers, the data is lumped together and no reasons for decline in sales can be seen. Which of the following tools can help this store in finding patterns in the collected feedback data? A) Kano Analysis B) Quality Function Deployment C) Stratification D) Kaizen
Stratification is a technique used in combination with other data analysis tools. When data from a variety of sources or categories have been lumped together, the meaning of the data can be impossible to see. The Kano model is useful in gaining a thorough understanding of a customer's needs. QFD is for determining customer preferences and not analyzing data. Kaizen is a process improvement tool not data analysis methodology.
A methodology used to overcome the "Five Sigma Wall" is which of the following? A) As-is value stream map B) DMAIC C) DFSS D) The seven basic quality tools
The "Five Sigma Wall" refers to a "fatal" roadblock to DMAIC. An as-is value stream map is a tool that evaluates lead time. In Six Sigma methodology, DFSS is the next step when DMAIC fails to achieve the desired performance. In other words, if the current process cannot be improved, the design of the process and/or the product needs improvement. The seven basic quality tools are tools for performance in the one- to three-sigma range.
A six sigma team has considered "current cost of poor quality" in a Six Sigma project charter. Which of the following common components of the project charter is most relevant? A) Problem statement B) Scope C) Objectives D) The Business Case
The Business Case component focus is on the financial impact and importance of the project. The current cost of poor quality explains the same. The problem statement component focus is on what's wrong with process. Current cost of poor quality is a measurement and doesn't indicate what's wrong with process.
car maker is working on the design of a new sport utility vehicle. Which of the following tools can help the design team in gaining more understanding of their customers' needs? A) Kaizen B) Quality Function Deployment C) Check sheets D) Kano model
The Kano model is useful in gaining a thorough understanding of a customer's needs. Quality Function Deployment (QFD) integrates customer requirements (voice of the customer, or VOC) into the design and delivery of a service offering, but these requirements need to be collected first using other methods
The final external customer for an automobile manufacturer is: A) Marketing B) Corporate management C) Buyer of the vehicle D) Dealers
The buyer of the vehicle is the prime target group.
There have been many quality management systems developed in the past 100 years. Of the following list, which quality management tool is the most recent addition? A) FMEA B) TQM C) SPC D)Balanced scorecard
The concept of the balanced scorecard was developed by Kaplan and Norton in the mid-1990s.
When using the DMADV methodology, in the final phase you should do which of the following? A) Verify design performance and its ability to meet customer needs. B) Visit customers to ensure designs are performing as intended. C) Establish metrics to monitor progress of the design. D) Voice all concerns still remaining after the product has been designed.
The correct order of steps is define, measure, analyze, design, and verify.
A green belt is reviewing the raw materials ordering process at a ready-to-eat food processor. She discovers that large quantities of ingredients are ordered and stored at different locations to be used at various steps. A visit to the processing floor shows congested and clattered space. The green belt creates a value stream map for the process and discusses it with the production manager, who says that buying large quantities is necessary to ensure availability of ingredients. Which of the following should be the focus of the green belt next? A) Ensure proper storage conditions of the ingredients. B) Identify and reduce storage space waste on the processing floor. C) Review the purchase agreements with the suppliers for better prices based on ordered quantities. D) Monitor and track expiry dates of ingredients.
The key identified issue is the waste in storage space occupied by all the raw materials and how this can be managed. Ensuring proper storage conditions of the ingredients is a quality assurance function and no information in the question refers to issues with storage conditions. Reviewing the purchase agreements with the suppliers for better process based on ordered quantities is irrelevant as the problem is the quantity of orders, not their prices. Monitoring and tracking expiry dates of ingredients is a quality assurance function.
The most significant factor to be considered in establishing Six Sigma project metrics is: Customer needs Accuracy of measurement Ease of measurement Project timeline
The linkage between project metrics and customer needs ensures that the focus of a project is on addressing customer needs.
In order to improve its services, a passport issuing authority started accepting applications for passports renewals trough local post offices in remote areas. The post office clerks accept renewal applications, collect supporting documents and fees, and forward completed applications to the passport authority for processing. Which of the following describes the passport authority's relationship with the post offices? A) The post offices are internal customers for the passport authority. B) The passport authority is a supplier to the post offices. C) The post offices are external customers for the passport authority. D) The passport authority is an external customer for the post offices.
The passport authority is using the post offices services, and hence it is their external customer. The post offices are suppliers to the passport authority and not customers.
Which diagram depicts the most efficient sequence of events possible for a project? Activity network diagram Tree diagram Affinity diagram Fishbone diagram
The primary function of an activity network diagram is to determine the most efficient sequence of events for a project. A tree diagram is a useful input to an activity network diagram, but is not in itself sufficient to plot the most efficient project path. In affinity diagram helps to group ideas or issues into logical categories, but will not determine the most efficient way to pursue their implementation.
ABC Company is receiving many customer complaints due to external defects reported in delivered software. External defect density is 2.2 defects/project total size. Most of the external defects reported are from ERP enhancement projects. Which of the following best describes the problem statement? Reduce customer complaints in general. Build a testing team in EPR enhancement projects to work on testing before delivery to reduce external defect density of 2.2 defects/project total size. Clients are dissatisfied with software quality. Our metrics baseline shows mean external defect density of 2.2 defects/project total size with 80% of defects from ERP enhancement projects. Clients are dissatisfied with software quality. Our metrics baseline shows mean external defect density of 2.2 defects/project total size with 80% of defects from ERP enhancement projects. Code Review needs to be automated.
The problem statement is a summation of what requires improvement and it focuses on the symptoms.
In a process failure mode and effects analysis, when is the resulting RPN calculated? A) After corrective actions have been identified and completed B) Only when severity changes C) After failures are monitored D) As soon as responsibility is assigned
The resulting RPN is calculated after corrective actions have been identified and completed. Only a design and/or process revision can change severity.Responsibility is only part of the corrective action.
Which of the following statements is true in describing the house of quality structure? A) The left side of the house has the customer needs B) The right side of the house has design features and technical requirements C) The foundation contains customer priorities D) The roof of the house contains the VOC
The right side of the house contains customer priorities, the foundation contains target values and the roof contains a matrix that describes relationships. The roof contains a matrix that describes relationships. The foundation contains target values.
Standardized national test scores for the schools in the Northwest district show mixed performance for students coming from various schools in the district. As a response to this, many of the schools in Northwest started a forum where they discuss the strengths and weaknesses of their educational methodologies, and share best practices. Which of the following describes the approach taken by these schools? A) Standardization B) Focus groups C) Brainstorming D) Collaborative benchmarking
This is a good description of collaborative benchmarking.
If a team had a listing of multiple concerns and wanted to understand the cause and effect of each, the best tool for the team to use for this activity would be which of the following? A) Tree diagram B) Interrelationship digraph C) Activity network diagram D) Affinity diagram
Tree Diagram
tem A has a RPN of 120 with severity of 10, occurrence of 4, and detection of 3. Item B has a RPN of 120 with severity of 5, occurrence of 4, and detection of 6. Both items have the same ranking values and have the highest RPN. Which item will you address first? A) Item A because of high severity. B) Item B because of high detection C) Does not matter which one you pick. D) Ignore both because of same occurrence.
When two risks have the same overall score, the risk with the higher severity rating is escalated. Item B has high detection but is not severe and has lower business impact than A.
You are a full-time Scrum Master on an agile project team. A team member becomes sick in the middle of a sprint in which release delivery was planned. Which action is most appropriate in this situation? Ask other team members to work extra hours Deliver what you can within the sprint Start development yourself for the remaining work of the sick team member Ask sick team member to work from home
he right approach is to deliver what you can within the sprint and discuss the same with customer Asking other team members to work extra hours AND THE REMAINING CHOICES is a counterproductive action in the long term and it will go against the agile principle of maintaining a sustainable pace
A Six Sigma team is focusing on reducing cycle time for an order. Which of the following best describes consequential metrics? Unplanned downtime Labor hours/order Frees up storage floor space Number of backlog orders
hink of consequential metrics like negative side effects. If you try to reduce cycle time of an order, then it may happen that labor hours per order are increased. Cycle time is linked with duration and Labor hours are linked with efforts. For example - Cycle time per order is 5 days and Labor hours are 40 hours per order. If you reduce cycle time per order to 4 days, it doesn't mean that Labor hours will be 32 hours per order. While achieving 4 days cycle time performance, there may be negative side effects on Labor hours per order. Due to excessive pressure more rework, or more overtime may result to increase Labor hours/order.
Sometimes quality improvements cause reductions in workforce. Select the most appropriate way for this situation to be communicated to employees: A) Bilateral communication B) Bottom Up communication C) Top Down communication D) Horizontal communication
op Down communication is the correct answer since communication of this type needs to come from the top of the company. Horizontal communication is used in flat organizations to communicate across the organization.
