A&P Lab Final

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Epiphyseal plate

A band of actively dividing hyaline cartilage located between the epiphysis and diaphysis is called a(n) _______________ .

Somatic

A reflex mediated by a skeletal muscle is classified as a ____________ reflex.

posterior tibia

All fibers of the semimembranosus muscle converge to insert on the __________.

Spinal accessory nerve

All fibers of the trapezius muscle are innervated by the __________.

Radial Nerve

All fibers of the triceps brachii are innervated by the __________.

Pupillary Light Reflex

An example of an autonomic reflex is the ____________.

Anteriorly

At the completion of supinator action, the palm is turned __________.

Osteoblasts

Bone-building cells are called ______________.

Osteoclasts

Bone-destroying cells are called ______________.

flex the leg at the knee

Both heads of the biceps femoris muscle __________.

Triceps brachii is only muscle on posterior side of the arm, and it extends the forearm. The biceps brachii is found on the anterior side of the arm and flexes and supinates the forearm.

Distinguish between the triceps brachii and the biceps brachii in terms of location and function.

Interstitial lamellae are partial osteons located between the concentric lamellae of complete osteons.

How are interstitial lamellae different from the concentric lamellae?

Short Bone

How are the tarsals classified based on shape?

Autonomic reflex arc has a two-motor neuron pathway, and somatic reflex arch has a single-motor neuron pathway.

How does the efferent pathway in an autonomic reflex differ from that of a somatic reflex?

The lacuna houses the osteocyte while the canaliculus holds houses the cytoplasmic extension of the osteocyte.

How is the lacuna different from the canaliculus?

Sesamoid Bone

How is the patella classified based on shape?

2

How many bones make up the nasal septum?

8

How many carpals make up the wrist?

5

How many lumbar vertebrae are in the vertebral column?

5

How many pairs of ribs are considered false ribs?

7

How many pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum?

14

How many phalanges are located in the hand?

24

How many ribs make up the rib cage?

12

How many vertebrae comprise the thoracic region of the spine?

Transverse Process

Identify a lateral projection of a vertebra.

Zygomatic bone and temporal bone

Identify the 2 bones that make up the zygomatic arch.

Tibia and foot

Identify the 2 bones that the fibula articulates with in the skeleton.

Medial malleolus

Identify the anatomical landmark resulting in a noticeable bump found on the medial surface of the ankle.

Calcaneus

Identify the anatomical term for the "heel bone".

Occipital Condyles

Identify the area of the occipital bone that articulates with the vertebral column.

Transverse Costal Facet

Identify the articulation site for a tubercle of a rib.

Acetabulum

Identify the articulation site for the femur.

Demi-facet

Identify the articulation site for the head of a rib.

Occipital bone - atlas

Identify the articulation site that allows us to nod our head "yes".

Atlas-Axis

Identify the articulation site that allows us to rotate our head, e.g. shaking the head "no".

Medial and proximal

Identify the best description for the location of the head of the femur.

A projection on the mandible

Identify the best description of the mandibular condyle.

A shallow depression

Identify the best description of the mandibular fossa.

Tibial Tuberosity

Identify the blunt elevation found on the anterior surface of the tibia between the lateral and medial condyles.

Fibula

Identify the bone found lateral to the tibia.

Fibula

Identify the bone of the lower limb that bears the least amount of weight.

Scapula

Identify the bone that articulates with the clavicle laterally.

Sternum

Identify the bone that articulates with the clavicle medially.

Metatarsals

Identify the bones that make up the middle portion of the foot.

Metacarpals

Identify the bones that make up the palm of the hand.

Carpals

Identify the bones that make up the wrist.

Sacrum

Identify the bony posterior wall of the pelvis.

Body

Identify the central portion of the sternum.

Collarbone

Identify the common name for the clavicle.

The olfactory nerve (CN I)

Identify the cranial nerve that passes through the olfactory foramina.

Olecranon fossa

Identify the depression found on the posterior surface of the distal humerus.

Cheek

Identify the general location of the zygomatic arch.

External acoustic meatus

Identify the hole that marks the opening of the ear canal on the superficial surface of the skull.

Greater Sciatic Notch

Identify the indentation that is inferiorolateral to the auricular surface.

Linea aspera

Identify the landmark found on the diaphysis of the femur.

Greater tubercle

Identify the landmark found on the proximal end of the humerus.

Styloid Process

Identify the landmark on the temporal bone that is a pointy spine.

Olfactory Foramina

Identify the landmark that is not part of the sphenoid bone.

Trochanter

Identify the landmark that is unique to the femur.

Crista Galli

Identify the landmark that projects superiorly into the floor of the skull and serves as a site of attachment for the meninges.

Obturator foramen

Identify the large hole found in this bone.

Lambdoid

Identify the large suture on the posterior surface of the skull at the border of the occipital bone.

In between the orbits

Identify the location of the ethmoid bone.

Posterior surface and base of the cranium

Identify the location of the occipital bone.

Floor of the skull

Identify the location of the sphenoid bone.

Head

Identify the part of a rib that articulates in the demi-facets of the thoracic vertebra.

Perpendicular Plate

Identify the part of the ethmoid bone that contributes to the nasal septum.

Palatine Bones

Identify the posterior most region of the hard palate.

Trochlear notch

Identify the primary region of the ulna that forms the hinge joint with the humerus.

Coracoid process

Identify the process on the scapula that does not articulate with another bone.

Styloid process

Identify the projection found on distal end of the ulna.

Cribriform plates

Identify the recessed area surrounding the crista galli.

Tubercle

Identify the region of a rib that articulates with the transverse process of a vertebra.

Head

Identify the region of the femur that forms part of the hip joint.

Trochlea

Identify the region of the humerus that articulates with the ulna, located between the medial epicondyle and capitulum.

Mandibular Condyle

Identify the region of the mandible that forms part of the temporomandibular joint.

Head

Identify the region of the radius that articulates with the ulna.

Auricular surface

Identify the region of the sacrum that articulates with the hip bone.

Acromion process

Identify the region of the scapula that articulates with the clavicle.

Occipital Condyles

Identify the region of the skull that articulates with the atlas.

Sella turcica

Identify the region of the sphenoid bone in contact with the pituitary gland.

Lesser wings

Identify the region of the sphenoid bone that contains the optic canal.

Squamous Part

Identify the region of the temporal bone found superior to the external acoustic meatus that articulates with the parietal bone.

Mandibular Fossa

Identify the region of the temporal bone that articulates with the lower jaw.

Mandibular Fossa

Identify the region of the temporal bone that articulates with the mandible.

Zygomatic Process

Identify the region of the temporal bone that forms part of the zygomatic arch.

Olecranon process

Identify the region of the ulna that articulates with the humerus when the forearm is in full extension.

Zygomatic Process

Identify the region on the temporal bone that forms much of the zygomatic arch.

Temporal process

Identify the region on the zygomatic bone that forms part of the zygomatic arch.

Manubrium

Identify the shield shaped top of the sternum.

Lacrimal

Identify the small facial bones found in the medial wall of the orbit.

Infraorbital foramen

Identify the small hole on the maxillary bone located below the orbit.

Glenoid fossa

Identify the socket of the shoulder joint.

Sagittal Suture

Identify the suture found between the 2 parietal bones.

Coccyx

Identify the tailbone.

Talus

Identify the tarsal that articulates with the tibia and fibula.

Found at the distal end of the bone.

Identify the true statement about the head of the ulna.

Supination

Identify the type of movement enabled by the articulation between the radius and ulna at the elbow.

3-5

Identify the typical number of vertebrae that fuse during development to form the coccyx.

The mandible

If a bone feels like it has posts on either side and teeth in the middle, it is most likely __________.

Vestibulocochlear

If a patient cannot maintain equilibrium, which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

Facial

If a patient cannot move the skin muscles around their mouth, which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

Flexion

If you "close" your elbow bringing your forearm to rest against your upper arm, then your elbow is exhibiting ______________.

Femur

If you feel a large, very long bone with a ball angled off to one side on one end and two rounded edges on the other end, it is most likely the ________________.

A rib

If you feel a long, thin, curved bone, it is most likely ________.

Ulna

If you feel a relatively long bone with a short, sharp process at its narrow end and a large hook around a groove at its larger end, it is most likely the _________________.

Dorsiflexion

If you pull your foot toward your shin, then your ankle is exhibiting __________.

Pronation

If you turn your palm over to rest downward against a table then your hand is exhibiting _______________.

Fibrous outer layer

In a synovial joint cavity, what structure creates the outermost layer of the cavity?

34; 26; the sacrum and coccyx vertebrae are fused together and each count as one bone

In fetuses and infants, the vertebral column consists of _____ bones; however, the adult vertebral column consists of only ___bones. Explain the reason for this difference.

A; flexes and supinates the forearm

Indicate whether the biceps brachii is located on the anterior (A) or the posterior (P) surface of the body and then indicate the action of the muscle.

P; extends wrist and adducts hand

Indicate whether the extensor carpi ulnaris is located on the anterior (A) or the posterior (P) surface of the body and then indicate the action of the muscle.

P; extends fingers and wrist

Indicate whether the extensor digitorum is located on the anterior (A) or the posterior (P) surface of the body and then indicate the action of the muscle.

A; flexes wrist and abducts hand

Indicate whether the flexor carpi radialis is located on the anterior (A) or the posterior (P) surface of the body and then indicate the action of the muscle.

P; extends the elbow

Indicate whether the triceps brachii is located on the anterior (A) or the posterior (P) surface of the body and then indicate the action of the muscle.

Inferior articular processes

Individual vertebrae articulate with each other forming the vertebral column. Identify the part of a vertebra that articulates immediately with the vertebra below it.

Osteocytes

Mature bone cells are called ______________.

Femur

Name bone that articulates with the proximal end of the tibia.

Mandibular Notch

Name the U shaped border found between the mandibular condyle and the coronoid process.

Femur and pelvic bone

Name the articulating bones in each of the following joints: Coxal joint.

Humerus and scapula

Name the articulating bones in each of the following joints: Glenohumeral joint.

Lateral malleolus

Name the noticeable bump on the outside of the ankle.

7

Name the number of tarsals.

5

Name the number of vertebrae that fuse together to form the sacrum.

Foramen Magnum

Name the opening in the occipital bone through which the spinal cord passes.

Plane, pivot, hinge, condylar, saddle, and ball-and-socket

Name the six types of synovial joints.

Humeroradial joint and humeroulnar joint

Name the two joints that make up the elbow joint.

Tibofemoral joint and patellofemoral joint

Name the two joints that make up the knee joint.

Hyaline Cartilage

Name the type of connective tissue that anchors the ribs onto the sternum.

Spinous Process

Name the vertebral projection oriented in a median plane.

Mental Foramina

Nerves and blood vessels pass through the _____ to reach the chin.

Pronator teres

Of all the flexor muscles of the forearm, the __________ is the shortest.

Temporal

On what bone is the internal acoustic meatus found?

Temporal

On what bone is the mandibular fossa found?

adduct the arm

One of the actions of the latissimus dorsi muscle is to __________.

Lacunae

Osteocytes are primarily "housed" within __________.

Lining the outside of the bone but not in the synovial cavity

Regarding a joint cavity, where is the periosteum found?

Trabeculae

Spongy bone is composed of irregularly arranged beams of bone called_______________ .

synapses in the L2-L4 segments

Stretch reflexes are important for maintaining and adjusting muscle tone for posture, balance, and locomotion. Recall from the video that the patellar reflex is a specific example of a stretch reflex test. Which of the following components is the integration center of the patellar reflex arc?

Fibrous Connective Tissue

The "soft spots" in a fetal skull are composed of ________.

Syndesmosis

The __________ joint structure is organized into a band or sheet.

Extend digits

The action of the extensor digitorum longus muscle is to __________.

Wrist

The actions of the extensor carpi radialis brevis are localized to the __________.

compression of the abdomen to assist in forced expiration

The actions of the internal obliques include __________.

Lateral Rotation

The actions of the rhomboid major on the scapula do not include __________.

3

The adult hip bone consists of _____ regions.

Where the coronal and frontal sutures meet

The anterior fontanel is located ______________.

Posterior thigh

The biceps femoris is located in the __________.

All of these

The central canal of a osteon houses __________. all of these. blood vessels nerves lymphatic vessels

Appendicular skeleton

The clavicle belongs to which of the following areas?

Neck

The condition known as a "fractured hip" is most often a break in the femur. Where is the femur particularly susceptible to a fracture?

anterior, middle, and posterior

The deltoid muscle fibers are separated into __________.

False

The ethmoid bone forms the inferior portion of the nasal septum.

False

The ethmoid bone is a facial bone.

True

The ethmoid bone is part of the axial skeleton.

Medial and lateral condyles

The flat surface of the tibia that articulates with the femur is the superior surface of which landmark?

Adducts the wrist

The flexor carpi ulnaris __________.

Tibial nerve

The flexor digitorum longus muscle is innervated by the __________.

Tibial Nerve

The gastrocnemius muscle is innervated by the __________.

Extension

The gluteus maximus is the most powerful muscle during __________.

Superior gluteal nerve

The gluteus medius muscle is innervated by the __________.

False

The hip bone is part of the axial skeleton.

Conoid Process

The inferior surface of the clavicle has a projection called the:

Radial Tuberosity

The insertion of the biceps brachii muscle is the __________.

Metacarpal two

The insertion of the extensor carpi radialis longus muscle is on __________.

Four Tendons

The insertion of the extensor digitorum branches into __________.

Posterior; femur

The insertion of the pectineus muscle is __________ and on the __________.

medial rotation and adduction

The key actions of the pectoralis major muscle are __________.

on the intertubercular groove of the humerus

The latissimus dorsi inserts __________.

Origin

The less-moveable, anchoring point on a bone is called the __________.

ischial tuberosity

The long head of the biceps femoris muscle originates on the __________.

True

The lumbar vertebrae are found in the lower back.

False

The lumbar vertebrae are part of the appendicular skeleton.

False

The lumbar vertebrae are roughly the same size as vertebrae from the rest of the vertebral column.

Evert the foot

The main action of the fibularis longus is to __________.

Chondrocyte

The major cell type of cartilage is the _____________

iliotibial tract

The majority of the fibers of the gluteus maximus insert onto the __________.

Mandibular

The masseter is innervated by the _____________ branch of the trigeminal nerve.

medial surfaces of the maxilla and the zygomatic arch as well as the inferior border of the zygomatic arch

The masseter muscle originates on the __________.

Abduct the arm

The middle fibers of the deltoid muscle __________.

origin; insertion; insertion; origin

The more stationary site of muscle attachment is called the _________, and the more moveable site of muscle attachment is called the_____________. When skeletal muscles contract across a diarthrosis, the _________moves toward the ______.

Sagittal

The nasal septum occupies which anatomic plane?

Olfactory Nerve

The nerve fibers of which cranial nerve pass through the foramina of the cribriform plate?

somatic nervous system, b. autonomic nervous system, c. autonomic nervous system, d. somatic nervous system

The nervous system is divided into the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS). The PNS is divided into the (a)______ and the (b)__________ divisions. The (c)____________ division innervates cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands, whereas the (d)________ division innervates skeletal muscle

Cranium

The occipital bone forms part of the:

Osteoid

The organic matrix of bone is called _________.

Anterior superior iliac

The origin of the Sartorius muscle is from the __________ spine.

Five through twelve

The origin of the external obliques includes ribs __________.

Humerus

The origin of the flexor carpi radialis is on the __________.

Eight

The origin of the serratus anterior includes __________ ribs.

linea aspera of the femor

The origin that the vastus medialis muscle shares with the vastus lateralis is the __________.

lateral condyle and posterior surface of the femur

The origins of the lateral head of the gastrocnemius muscle are the __________.

pubic bone

The origins of the rectus abdominus muscle are on the __________.

False

The palpable hip bone projections in the front of the body felt when you put your hands on your hips are the posterior inferior iliac spines.

Autonomic Nervous System

The parasympathetic division is a branch of the ________.

Adducts and flexes; femoral

The pectineus muscle __________ the thigh and is innervated by the __________ nerve.

clavicular; sternocostal

The pectoralis major muscle can be divided into groups of fibers superior, or __________, and inferior, or __________.

pectoral nerves

The pectoralis minor muscle is innervated by the __________.

the origin of the flexor digitorum longus

The posterior surface of the tibial shaft is __________.

True

The projection at the inferior end of the greater sciatic notch is the ischial spine.

Mandibular Ramus

The region of the mandible that anchors the coronoid process is the:

Iliac crest

The ridge like superior edge of the ilium is known as the _____.

A depression

The sella turcica is best described as:

Extends; flexes

The semimembranosus __________ the thigh at the hip and __________ the leg at the knee.

Tibial

The semitendinosus muscle is innervated by the __________ nerve.

Posterior

The semitendinosus muscle lies ______________ to the semimembranosus muscle.

True

The shape of the spinous process can be used to help determine if a vertebra is from the lumbar region.

Flexes; tibial nerve

The soleus muscle __________ the foot at the ankle and is innervated by the __________.

Gastrocnemius muscle

The soleus muscle shares an insertion with the __________.

True

The sphenoid bone contains a sinus.

Rectus abdominis.

The superior aspect of the pubic bones is the origin of:

Superior border

The suprascapular notch is found on:

Knee

The tensor fasciae latae stabilizes the hip joint and the __________ joint.

sternum; ribs; costal cartilages; thoracic vertebrae

The thoracic cage consists of the __________, ____________, _____________, and ____________ .

Dorsiflexion and inversion of the foot

The tibialis anterior causes __________.

Inversion

The tibialis anterior muscle dorsiflexes the foot at the ankle and also assists in __________ of the foot.

Olfactory foramina

The tiny holes in the cribriform plate are:

Lateral

The trapezius muscle may be separated into all of the following groups, except __________.

Radial tuberosity

The two heads of the biceps brachii combine to insert on the __________.

the calcaneus

The two heads of the gastrocnemius muscle converge to insert onto __________.

Perforating Canal

Through what path would an oxygen molecule in an artery of the periosteum take to reach the central canal of the closest osteon?

Vomer

What bone forms part of the nasal septum?

Osteoblasts

What cells build the bone?

It dissolves the minerals, leaving only the organic matrix.

What effect does acid have on bone?

Osteocytes

What is found within the osteon's lacunae?

Zygomatic bones

What is the anatomical name for the facial bones known as "cheekbones"?

All of the above

What is the function of a bursa? Reduces friction Reinforces joints Provides cushioning All of the above

Reinforces joint

What is the function of a ligament?

Constriction of smooth muscles of the iris

What is the motor response in the light pupillary reflex?

Atlas

What is the name of the first cervical vertebra?

Axis

What is the name of the second cervical vertebra?

Epiphysis

What is the term for the end of a long bone?

Mineral Salts

What part of the chemical composition of bone gives it its exceptional hardness and ability to resist compression?

Head

What part of the fibula is found near the knee joint?

Head

What part of the humerus articulates with the scapula to form the shoulder joint?

Forms the medial wall of the nasal cavity

What part of the nasal cavity is formed by the nasal septum?

Effector

What part of the reflex arc carries out the motor response?

Sensory Neuron

What part of the reflex arc receives the stimulus?

Motor Neuron

What part of the reflex arc transmits the message to the effector?

Xiphoid Process

What part of the sternum is palpated prior to giving CPR?

Sacral region

What region of the vertebral column does the hip bone articulate with?

Periosteum

What structure anchors tendons to the outside of bones plus houses the cells required for bone growth, repair, and remodeling?

Long

What type of bone is a phalanx?

Long

What type of bone is the fibula?

Long

What type of bones are the phalanges?

Pivot

What type of joint is formed between the radius and ulna?

Distal

Where in the skeleton is the ulna located in reference to the humerus?

Inferior surface of the zygomatic process

Where is the mandibular fossa located?

Lateral

Where is the radius located in reference to the ulna?

Spongy Bone

Where is the red bone marrow located?

Vomer

Which bone forms the inferior portion of the nasal septum?

Lacrimal Bone

Which bone is NOT considered to be part of the cranium?

Long Bone

Which bone type is longer than it is wide?

Flat Bone

Which bone type is thin and plate-like?

Atlas

Which bone would feel relatively small and diamond shaped and have a hole in its center?

Pubic tubercles

Which bony landmarks can be palpated on the anterior surface of the body, close to the midline?

Calcium minerals

Which component of bone is dissolved by acids like vinegar?

Sphenoid

Which cranial bone spans the width of the cranial floor?

Vestibulocochlear

Which cranial nerve functions in hearing and equilibrium?

Trochlear

Which cranial nerve innervates an extrinsic eye muscle?

Hypoglossal

Which cranial nerve innervates the tongue muscle?

Olfactory

Which cranial nerve is classified as strictly a sensory nerve?

Thumb

Which digit is composed of only two phalanges?

1

Which digit is the radius closest to?

Palatine bones, maxillary bones

Which facial bones form the roof of the mouth?

Maxillary

Which facial bones fuse to form the upper jaw?

Nasal

Which facial bones makeup the central portion of the bridge of the nose?

It lacks direct access to the blood supply.

Which is a characteristic of all three types of cartilage?

Pupillary Light Reflex

Which is an example of an autonomic reflex?

It has an odontoid process.

Which is true regarding the axis?

Knee

Which joint consists of two separate articulations, one of which includes a sesamoid bone?

Femoroacetabular

Which joint has a deep cuplike depression?

Gomphosis

Which joint structure contains a periodontal ligament?

Syndesmosis

Which joint type is held together by a band, or sheet, of fibrous connective tissue?

Median sacral crest

Which landmark is composed of fused spinous processes?

Patellar surface

Which landmark is found on the anterior surface of the femur?

Mandibular Foramina

Which landmark is not visible from an anterior view?

Ischial tuberosity

Which landmark of the hip bone can be felt on a hard chair?

Flexor carpi radialis

Which muscle flexes the hand and abducts the hand?

Biceps femoris

Which muscle is a lateral hamstring?

Diaphragm

Which muscle is innervated by the phrenic nerve?

Median Nerve

Which nerve arises from the brachial plexus?

Musculocutaneous

Which nerve arises from the brachial plexus?

Phrenic Nerve

Which nerve arises from the cervical plexus?

Sciatic nerve

Which nerve arises from the sacral plexus?

Common Fibular

Which nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve?

Oculomotor

Which nerve transmits motor information to the effector in the light pupillary reflex?

Nasal

Which of the following bones do not contain a sinus?

Ethmoid

Which of the following bones is not a facial bone?

Frontal

Which of the following bones is unpaired?

Elongated Spinous Process

Which of the following characteristics do not belong to the lumbar region?

Hydroxyapatites

Which of the following components gives bone its exceptional hardness and enables it to resist compression?

1

Which of the following digits contain only 2 phalanges?

Tibiofibular joint

Which of the following is synarthrotic?

Ilium

Which of the following is the largest region of the hip bone?

Lateral Epicondyle

Which of the following landmarks is found on the distal end of the humerus?

Spine

Which of the following landmarks is found on the posterior surface of the scapula?

Nasal Septum

Which of the following locations is not formed by part of the maxillae?

Supraspinatus

Which of the following muscles is one of the rotator cuff muscles?

Styloid Process

Which of the following regions of the radius help form the wrist joint?

Intevertebral discs

Which of the following structures would not be found within a vertebral foramen?

T12

Which of the following thoracic vertebrae is the largest?

Lamina

Which of these regions of the vertebral column would be most accessible from a posterior surgical approach?

Middle nasal conchae

Which of theses projections of the ethmoid bone are most visible in the nasal cavity?

Canaliculi

Which osteon structure houses the cytoplasmic extensions of osteocytes?

Body

Which part of a vertebra is known as the centrum?

Perpendicular plate

Which part of the ethmoid bone forms part of the nasal septum?

Medial Leg

Which part of the leg does the tibia form?

Palatine Processes

Which part of the maxillary bones form the roof of the mouth?

Lateral

Which region of the clavicle is known as the acromial end?

Auricular surface of the ilium

Which region of the hip bone articulates with the sacrum?

Mandibular Condyle

Which region of the mandible articulates with the cranium?

subscapular fossa (anterior)

Which region of the scapula is found on the anterior surface?

Appendicular

Which region of the skeleton contains the humerus?

Sacral

Which region of the vertebral column is immediately inferior to the lumbar region?

Thoracic

Which region of the vertebral column is immediately superior to the lumbar region?

Superiorly: cervical and inferiorly: lumbar

Which region of the vertebral column is located superior to the thoracic region and which region is inferior to the thoracic region, respectively?

The phrenic nerve arises from the cervical plexus.

Which statement is TRUE?

Endosteum

Which structure lines the medullary cavity?

Medial

Which surface of the maxillary bones fuse together?

Eversion

Which term describes movement of the foot laterally?

Insertion

Which term describes the site of a muscle attaching to the bone that moves the most?

Hyaline Cartilage

Which type of cartilage cushions the articular surface (joint surface) of bones?

Fibrocartilage

Which type of cartilage holds the pubic bones together very tightly, providing strong support and resistance to pressure?

Atlas

Which vertebra lacks both a body and spinous process?

Thoracic

Which vertebrae type is characterized by a heart-shaped body and costal facets?

Lumbar

Which vertebrae type is characterized by a large size and wide, kidney-shaped body?

Cervical

Which vertebrae type is characterized by a transverse foramina and bifid spinous process?


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