BCIS test chp.3
91) A(n) ________ only transfers control from the sender to the recipient without describing the details of the communication. A) Simple message B) Sequence diagram C) Synchronous message D) Asynchronous message
A) Simple message
74) Where do you identify the types of people needed for a project? A) Team configuration and management part of the management issues plan B) In the communications part of the management issues plan C) Project standards and procedures of the management issues plan D) In the work breakdown structure of the management issues plan
A) Team configuration and management part of the management issues plan
47) ________ are used by project managers to depict resource utilization by task. A) Textual reports B) Bar graphs C) Pie charts D) Flow charts
A) Textual reports
18) Which of the following is NOT a reason a project would be removed from the project selection list? A) The IS department feels it is too difficult to implement B) Inconsistency with overall objectives C) Redundant functionality D) Unnecessary
A) The IS department feels it is too difficult to implement
51) Which of the following is NOT an example of what an analysis of documents can reveal about the future system? A) Completely accurate information B) Analysis of customer type C) Behavior of key customers D) Data rules
A) Completely accurate information
59) The concept of DFD ________ refers to whether you have included in your DFDs all of the components necessary for the system you are modeling. A) Completeness B) Accuracy C) Balancing D) Processing
A) Completeness
95) Which of the following is an unknown that should be addressed when designing an Internet application? A) Connection speed B) How many users will access the application at one time C) How much it costs purchase satellite service D) What the time zone of the user is
A) Connection speed
65) The concept of DFD ________ refers to whether or not the depiction of the system shown at one level of a nested set of DFDs is compatible with the depictions of the system shown at other levels. A) Consistency B) Completeness C) Balancing D) Accuracy
A) Consistency
14) ________ is NOT a skill pertaining to the technical problem solving activity of a project manager. A) Contact point for payroll team B) Defining activities and their sequence C) Making trade-offs between alternative solutions D) Interpreting system requests and specifications
A) Contact point for payroll team
77) Which of the following is NOT a component on the typical information systems plan? A) Corporation history B) Constraints on IS development C) Informational inventory D) The short-term plan
A) Corporation history
42) ________ is/are the rate at which money can be borrowed. A) Cost of capital B) Present value C) Fixed costs D) Time value of money
A) Cost of capital
5) Which of the following is NOT a source for IS development requests? A) Customers B) Formal planning groups C) Business units D) IS managers
A) Customers
68) A ________ is a diagram of process logic where the logic is reasonably complicated. A) Decision table B) Decision box C) Decision column D) Decision flow
A) Decision table
34) All of the following are tangible benefits except ________. A) Decreased flexibility B) Cost reduction C) Increased speed of activity D) Improvement of management planning
A) Decreased flexibility
75) The second activity in the ISP process is ________. A) Describe the target situation, trends, and constraints B) Describe the current situation C) Develop a transition strategy and plans D) Develop the logical design
A) Describe the target situation, trends, and constraints
31) Which of the following is NOT a factor when making a project selection decision? A) End-user development B) List of ongoing projects C) Current organizational environment D) Perceived and real needs
A) End-user development
35) Which of the following is an example of a tangible benefit? A) Error reduction in data entry B) Improvement of employee morale C) Faster decision making D) Positive impacts on society
A) Error reduction in data entry
10) With only ________ symbols, you can use DFDs to represent both physical and logical information systems. A) Four B) Three C) Five D) Six
A) Four
75) The baseline project plan has all of the primary objectives except ________. A) Helps provide the budget B) Helps provide a clear idea of the scope C) Helps provide an understanding of the benefits D) Defines the duration of the project
A) Helps provide the budget
54) Which type of project should companies not have too many of? A) High risk B) High cost C) Huge staff D) Unknown technical environment
A) High risk
4) If a systems analyst is questioning everything, they are showing the ________ characteristic. A) Impertinence B) Impartiality C) Relax constraints D) Attention to details
A) Impertinence
35) The term ________ is used when a project is reviewed after each stage to determine its continuance. A) Incremental commitment B) Reevaluation C) Project continuance D) Project re-planning
A) Incremental commitment
36) No process can have only ________ and if an object has only that, then it must be a sink. A) Inputs B) Procedure C) Outputs D) Arrow
A) Inputs
49) Which of the following is a primary way to gather information? A) Interviewing B) Gather documentation C) Review procedures D) Direct observation
A) Interviewing
69) Which part of the baseline project report contains an outline of the recommended course of action? A) Introduction B) Feasibility assessment C) Management issues D) System description
A) Introduction
1) What is another term for nonintegrated systems? A) Islands of information B) ERP systems C) SAP systems D) Enterprise systems
A) Islands of information
30) Which of the following is FALSE with respect to a task in a project plan? A) It can be done by one person only. B) It has a single and identifiable deliverable. C) It has a known method or technique. D) It has well-accepted predecessor and successor steps.
A) It can be done by one person only.
32) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a group interview? A) It is a waste of an analyst's time to interview a group. B) The interviewees can hear each other's opinions. C) Synergy D) It is easier to ascertain the general agreements.
A) It is a waste of an analyst's time to interview a group.
64) Which of the following is NOT a fact about JAD? A) It was started in the late 1970s by Google. B) It brings together key users of the system. C) The result is highly structured. D) It helps to resolve conflicts.
A) It was started in the late 1970s by Google.
24) Which of the following is FALSE in the context of the project charter? A) It will not have the project manager's name and contact information. B) It includes the project title and date of authorization. C) It outlines many of the key elements of the project. D) It is a high-level document prepared for the customer.
A) It will not have the project manager's name and contact information.
45) Functional decomposition is a(n) ________ process of breaking the description of a system down into finer and finer detail, which creates a set of charts in which one process on a given chart is explained in greater detail on another chart. A) Iterative B) Never-ending C) Continuous D) Static
A) Iterative
41) A(n) ________ in a data flow means that exactly the same data come from any of two or more different processes, data stores, or sources/sinks to a common location. A) Join B) Fork C) Break D) Arrow
A) Join
82) Which of the following is a guideline for presentation design in making an effective presentation? A) Keep it simple B) Practice C) Have a backup plan D) Know your audience
A) Keep it simple
13) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a steering committee when making IS identification and selections? A) Less concern with cost-benefit analysis B) Cross functional focus C) Narrow nonstrategic focus D) Larger and riskier projects
A) Less concern with cost-benefit analysis
48) A ________ diagram is a DFD that is generated from n nested decompositions from a level-0 diagram. A) Level-n B) Level-0 C) Level-1 D) Level-2
A) Level-n
12) Getting projects completed through the effective utilization of resources is a ________ activity of a project manager. A) Management B) Risk management C) Change management D) Team management
A) Management
2) Which of the following is NOT a source of requirements gathering for the systems analyst? A) Market conditions B) Users of the current system C) Reports D) Procedures
A) Market conditions
32) Most project management software tools support a broad range of task durations, including minutes, hours, days, weeks, and ________. A) Months B) Years C) Centuries D) Decades
A) Months
40) ________ current system users is a more direct way of seeing how an existing system operates. A) Observing B) Asking C) Polling D) Surveying
A) Observing
9) All of the following are part of project planning except ________. A) Organizing the team B) Creating a resource plan C) Identifying risk D) Developing the project scope
A) Organizing the team
79) Which section of the ISP deals with the set of long-range strategies chosen by the IS department? A) Overall systems needs strategies B) Mission and objectives of IS C) Informational inventory D) Conclusion
A) Overall systems needs strategies
22) Considering evaluation criteria for classifying and ranking projects, which criterion concerns improving profits and customer service? A) Potential Benefits B) Project Duration C) Technical Risks D) Resource Availability
A) Potential Benefits
84) According to Cockburn's template, ________ are those things the system must ensure are true before the use case can start. A) Preconditions B) Minimal guarantee C) Success guarantee D) Triggers
A) Preconditions
14) A ________ is the work or actions performed on data so that they are transformed, stored, or distributed. A) Process B) Data store C) Flowchart D) Data flow
A) Process
2) A ________ is a planned undertaking of a series of related activities to reach an objective that has a beginning and an end. A) Project B) Technique C) Data flow D) Methodology
A) Project
43) ________ is the third phase of the project management process in which the plans created in the prior phases (project initiation and planning) are put into action. A) Project execution B) Project closure C) Project development D) Project planning
A) Project execution
5) ________ is the process of defining clear activities necessary to complete activities in a single project. A) Project planning B) Project initiation C) Baseline D) Business case
A) Project planning
28) ________ is a process of considering short- and long- term projects. A) Project selection B) Project identification C) Project determination D) Project analysis
A) Project selection
71) Which of the following is NOT a reason to use diagramming and prototyping tools during the JAD? A) Review phases of the project B) Provide a graphic form of user requirements C) Make changes D) Show the tool to users
A) Review phases of the project
47) ________ need to be managed in order to be minimized. A) Risks B) ROIs C) Employees D) Estimates
A) Risks
29) Which of the following is NOT true during the first 48 hours after an interview? A) Schedule a follow up interview. B) Type up the notes. C) List any unclear points. D) Organize your notes.
A) Schedule a follow up interview.
27) What is the final activity in the project identification and selection process? A) Selecting an IS project B) Producing the IS project C) Implementing the IS project D) Delete the project
A) Selecting an IS project
67) If you organize and run the JAD session, you are most likely the ________. A) Session leader B) Scribe C) Systems analyst D) Sponsor
A) Session leader
88) The critical path represents the ________ time in which a project can be completed. A) Shortest B) Longest C) Farthest D) Tallest
A) Shortest
36) Which of the following is NOT a reason why people sometimes do not report accurate information? A) They are afraid they might be wrong. B) The event is infrequent. C) The event is from the past. D) The employee is passionate about the project.
A) They are afraid they might be wrong.
73) Which approach to planning begins with an analysis of an organization's mission? A) Top-down planning B) Top-down projects C) Bottom up planning D) Bottom up goals
A) Top-down planning
74) Identifying the relationships between organizational entities and each business function relates to which kind of matrix? A) Unit-to-function B) Location-to-unit C) Function-to-process D) Entity-to-process
A) Unit-to-function
30) What makes all projects feasible? A) Unlimited resource and infinite time B) Limited scope C) A great budget D) A highly skilled project team
A) Unlimited resource and infinite time
34) Defining tasks in too much detail will make the management of the project ________. A) Unnecessarily complex B) Simple C) Extremely streamlined D) Constructive
A) Unnecessarily complex
48) Which of the following is NOT a potential consequence of not managing risks? A) Unqualified project management B) Inaccurate duration times C) Failure to achieve appropriate system performance levels D) Inaccurate cost estimates.
A) Unqualified project management
70) A use-case consists of a set of possible sequences of interactions between a system and ________ in a particular environment, possible sequences that are related to a particular goal. A) User B) Procedure C) Function D) Company
A) User
25) Which of the following is an example of an open ended question? A) What is the main issue with the current computer system? B) What unit are sales currently shown in? C) Do you participate in flextime? D) When was the last time the system malfunctioned?
A) What is the main issue with the current computer system?
53) What can analysis of work procedure documents reveal? A) When a procedure is missing B) When a procedure is correct C) A future enhancement for the system D) A most used procedure
A) When a procedure is missing
77) As seen from the clouds, as if flying in a plane at 35,000 feet, refers to which level according to Cockburn? A) White B) Kite C) Blue D) Fish
A) White
28) ________ is the process of dividing the project into manageable tasks and logically ordering them to ensure a smooth evolution between tasks. A) Work breakdown structure B) Task breakdown structure C) Project breakdown structure D) Management breakdown structure
A) Work breakdown structure
1) The second phase in the SDLC is ________. A) Planning B) Analysis C) Design D) Implementation
B) Analysis
41) An effective way to gather information about the system from users is ________. A) Taking Internet surveys B) Asking them questions C) Reading corporate memos D) Reading redesign documents
B) Asking them questions
5) If an analyst can recognize that all of the facts must fit with every other fact, the analyst is displaying ________. A) Impartiality B) Attention to details C) Relaxing constraints D) Reframing
B) Attention to details
79) Use cases written at the ________ level focus on user goals. A) White B) Blue C) Black D) Kite
B) Blue
43) Which option identifies the point at which benefits equal costs? A) Net present value B) Break-even analysis C) Time value of money D) Present value
B) Break-even analysis
19) What is the second major activity in the project identification and selection process? A) Identifying potential projects B) Classifying IS development projects C) Choosing a final project D) Identifying a project team
B) Classifying IS development projects
33) COCOMO stands for ________. A) Constructive Coordination Model B) Constructive Cost Model C) Collective Cost Model D) Constructive Correction Model
B) Constructive Cost Model
51) Which of the following is NOT an example of a project risk assessment factor? A) Project duration time B) Customer's commitment to system C) Familiarity with other systems D) Organizational personnel changes resulting from system
B) Customer's commitment to system
13) A ________ can be best understood as data in motion, moving from one place in a system to another. A) Process B) Data flow C) Data store D) Data source
B) Data flow
1) A ________ is a picture of the movement of data between external entities and the processes and data stores within a system. A) Process flow diagram B) Data flow diagram C) Data diagram D) Procedure flow diagram
B) Data flow diagram
65) When do executives develop a mission statement? A) At the beginning of the fiscal year B) During corporate strategic planning C) At the beginning of the project D) During the board of director meeting
B) During corporate strategic planning
10) What of the following is NOT a purpose for a baseline project plan? A) Resources are more quantifiable B) Eliminate risks C) Decide if a project should be rejected D) A depository for information collected during initiation
B) Eliminate risks
20) Which of the following is NOT an activity found in the project initiation phase? A) Establishing the project initiation team B) Establishing a relationship with the developer C) Establishing the project initiation plan D) Establishing management procedures
B) Establishing a relationship with the developer
85) Which of the following is NOT a component of PERT? A) Program B) Evolution C) Review D) Evaluation
B) Evolution
85) ________ is the set of behaviors or functions in a use case that follow exceptions to the main success scenario. A) Triggers B) Extension C) Preconditions D) Connections
B) Extension
41) Which of the following is NOT a stakeholder involved in the project communication matrix? A) Team members B) Facilities team C) User group D) Contract programmers
B) Facilities team
4) A ________, which is conducted by the project manager, involves determining if the information system makes sense for the organization from an economic and operational standpoint. A) Tool B) Feasibility study C) Data flow D) Methodology
B) Feasibility study
66) Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining legal and contractual feasibility? A) Labor laws B) Financial budgets C) Copyright infringements D) Foreign trade regulations
B) Financial budgets
95) A(n) ________ in business process modeling shows the sequence of action in a process. A) Graph B) Flow C) Event D) Activity
B) Flow
87) To construct the Gantt chart, a ________ is drawn for each activity that reflects its sequence and duration. A) Horizontal line B) Horizontal bar C) Vertical line D) Vertical bar
B) Horizontal bar
75) A(n) ________ arises when one use case uses another use case and is shown diagrammatically as a dotted-line arrow pointed toward the use case that is being used. A) Extend relationship B) Include relationship C) System boundary D) Connection
B) Include relationship
66) ________ DFD development recognizes that requirements determination and requirements structuring are interacting, not sequential, subphases of the analysis phase of the SDLC. A) Primitive B) Iterative C) Subjective D) Consistent
B) Iterative
9) Influencing the activities of others toward the attainment of a common goal through the use of intelligence, personality, and abilities refers to the ________ activity of a project manager. A) Management B) Leadership C) Team management D) Conflict management
B) Leadership
18) A ________ is a DFD that represents a system's major processes, data flows, and data stores at a high level of detail. A) Level-1 diagram B) Level-0 diagram C) Level-2 diagram D) Level-3 diagram
B) Level-0 diagram
69) Which Porter strategy deals with competing in an industry on the basis of products to the consumer? A) Value added B) Low cost producer C) Product differentiation D) Product Focus
B) Low cost producer
58) At the ________ level of DFDs, new data flows may be added to represent data that are transmitted under exceptional conditions. These data flows typically represent error messages or confirmation notices. A) Highest B) Lowest C) Basic D) Medium
B) Lowest
71) Which of the following is NOT an example of a system description? A) Web-based online system B) Management issues C) LAN with decentralized databases D) Mainframe with central databases
B) Management issues
37) What did Mintzberg observe about a manager's day? A) Managers have a lot of work. B) Managers experience a lot of interruptions. C) Managers are effective because they work for long lengths of time. D) Managers control the pace of their work.
B) Managers experience a lot of interruptions.
66) What kind of statement is "We are in the business of designing, fabricating, and selling to retail stores high-quality wood furniture"? A) Business statement B) Mission statement C) Goal statement D) Corporate policy
B) Mission statement
81) ________ is a critical path scheduling technique used for controlling resources. A) Network programming B) Network diagramming C) Networking D) Network scheduling
B) Network diagramming
39) A new hardware purchase is classified as a(n) ________. A) Tangible benefit B) One-time cost C) Fixed cost D) IS fee
B) One-time cost
56) Which feasibility is concerned with the project attaining its desired objectives? A) Technical feasibility B) Operational feasibility C) Schedule feasibility D) Legal feasibility
B) Operational feasibility
2) What is the first phase of the SDLC method? A) Analysis B) Planning C) Design D) Maintenance
B) Planning
6) What is an example of a project assumption? A) Size B) Potential problems C) Scope D) Complexity
B) Potential problems
47) The lowest level of a DFD is called a ________ data flow diagram. A) Low-level B) Primitive C) Level-0 D) Basic
B) Primitive
70) Which Porter strategy has a narrow market focus? A) Low cost producer B) Product niche C) Product differentiation D) Service cost to the consumer
B) Product niche
25) The project charter will never include which of the following? A) Project objectives and description B) Project budget C) Projected start and completion dates D) Key stakeholders, project role, and responsibilities
B) Project budget
26) What is the next step taken after project initiation? A) Project bidding B) Project planning C) Project execution D) Project development
B) Project planning
72) Which tool enables you to quickly take basic requirements and create a limited working system? A) CASE tools B) Prototyping C) User manual D) JAD
B) Prototyping
33) What is the primary disadvantage of a group interview? A) Interviewees argue with each other. B) Scheduling C) Participants do not want to voice their opinion. D) It slows down the process.
B) Scheduling
31) All of the following are categories of feasibility except ________. A) Technical B) Scope C) Scheduling D) Political
B) Scope
68) If you are entering diagrams into a CASE tool during a JAD, you are probably the ________. A) User B) Scribe C) Analyst D) IS staff
B) Scribe
88) A(n) ________ diagram depicts the interactions among objects during a certain period of time. A) Activity B) Sequence C) Business D) Activation
B) Sequence
21) What is the first guideline in effective interviewing? A) Prepare a checklist B) Set an appointment C) Take notes D) Prepare questions
B) Set an appointment
26) Which of the following is a disadvantage of closed ended questions? A) They are difficult to write. B) Some answers do not fit in the given answers. C) It is difficult to take notes. D) Interviewees do not like them.
B) Some answers do not fit in the given answers.
14) Which group chooses projects that most often reflect the larger needs of the organization? A) Business unit B) Steering committee C) Functional manager D) Development group
B) Steering committee
23) Which evaluation criterion for classifying and ranking projects deals with helping an organization achieve its long-term goals? A) Value chain analysis B) Strategic alignment C) Potential Benefits D) Resource availability
B) Strategic alignment
98) A ________ in business process modeling is a way to visually encapsulate a process. A) Gateway B) Swim-lane C) Pool D) Flow
B) Swim-lane
70) The ________ outlines possible alternative solutions. A) Design strategies B) System description C) Project scope D) Introduction
B) System description
18) ________ is NOT a skill pertaining to the risk and change management activity of a project manager. A) Environmental scanning B) Team-building C) Risk and opportunity identification and assessment D) Resource redeployment
B) Team-building
10) Which of the following factors does NOT have any influence on the selection of a potential project? A) Duration B) The IS manager list C) Risk D) Complexity
B) The IS manager list
92) What is a large network of networks? A) Electronic commerce B) The Internet C) EDI D) A local area network
B) The Internet
96) What stands as the most outstanding representation of global networking? A) Business to business applications B) The Internet C) Protocols D) Electronic commerce
B) The Internet
30) Which of the following is NOT a common source used to find out about the current issues in a system? A) Users of other systems B) The new systems analyst C) Management D) Information systems staff
B) The new systems analyst
29) If a project is selected, what is the most likely next step? A) The project will begin. B) The project will be funded. C) The project has to be signed off by management. D) The project is no longer considered.
B) The project will be funded.
44) Which of the following is NOT an example of an economic cost-benefit analysis technique? A) Net present value B) Time value of money C) Return on investment D) Break-even analysis
B) Time value of money
38) What is the purpose of gathering system records? A) To watch employee behavior for wrong doing B) To gain an objective view of what an employee is doing C) To match what the employee claims he does to what he is actually does D) To have accurate information for a performance review
B) To gain an objective view of what an employee is doing
65) What is the primary purpose of JAD? A) To diagram forms and report generation B) To gather systems requirements simultaneously C) To create a prototype D) To assist with business process reengineering
B) To gather systems requirements simultaneously
6) Why would an IS manager request an IS development project? A) To help meet the organization's goals B) To move to a new operating environment C) To provide a new service to customers D) To gain needed information
B) To move to a new operating environment
96) ________ refers to the amount of time a task can be delayed without delaying the completion of the project. A) Response time B) Total slack C) Shortest time D) Free slack
B) Total slack
78) Which of the following is NOT a role in a walk-through meeting? A) Secretary B) Treasurer C) User D) Presenter
B) Treasurer
43) A data flow to a data store means ________. A) Join B) Update C) Process D) Fork
B) Update
77) ________ are peer group reviews of products created via the systems development process. A) Staff meetings B) Walk-throughs C) Steering committee meetings D) Project approval bodies
B) Walk-throughs
32) When choosing a weighted system to determine project viability, what should the organization keep in mind? A) All requirements should be weighted equally. B) Weights are subjective. C) The total points have to equal 100. D) Requirements and constraints have equal weights.
B) Weights are subjective.
2) Which of the following is NOT a question asked to determine if project initiation and planning has ended and analysis has begun? A) What kind of effort should be expended on PIP? B) Who is going to pay for PIP? C) Who is responsible for performing PIP? D) Why is PIP so challenging?
B) Who is going to pay for PIP?
52) The ________ is a document written to describe how a particular job is performed. A) System document B) Work procedure C) Mission statement D) Goals document
B) Work procedure
8) ________ is NOT a common skill pertaining to the leadership activity of a project manager. A) Communication B) Working on assigned activities C) Assigning activities D) Monitoring progress
B) Working on assigned activities
50) All of the following are documents that are helpful in understanding future systems, except ________. A) Business plans B) External correspondence C) Reports from future organizational studies D) Job descriptions
C) Reports from future organizational studies
82) A critical path refers to a sequence of task activities whose ________ and ________ directly affect the completion date of a project. A) Duration; network B) Order; network C) Task; sequence D) Order; duration
D) Order; duration
37) Which of the following is an example of a procurement IS cost? A) System maintenance B) User training C) Personal recruiting D) Organizational disruptions
D) Organizational disruptions
20) No process can have only ________. It would be making data from nothing (a miracle). If an object has only outputs, then it must be a source. A) Sources B) Sinks C) Inputs D) Outputs
D) Outputs
70) What typically does the first day entail in the JAD? A) An analysis of the current system B) Analysis of reports C) A review of roles in the JAD D) Overview of major problems
D) Overview of major problems
69) ________ are NOT a part of a decision table. A) Condition stubs B) Action stubs C) Rules D) Policies
D) Policies
54) Which option below is NOT an issue that occurs when analyzing work procedures? A) Duplication of effort B) A missing procedure C) Out-of-date procedure D) Procedures that match information collected from interviews
D) Procedures that match information collected from interviews
68) Which of the following is NOT a generic strategy identified by Porter? A) Low cost producer B) Product differentiation C) Product niche D) Product introduction
D) Product introduction
81) Which of the following types of documents do NOT make use of a walk-through? A) System specifications B) Code segments C) Test procedures D) Project budget
D) Project budget
7) ________ is a controlled process of initiating, planning, executing, and closing down a project. A) System design B) System analysis C) Project scheduling D) Project management
D) Project management
61) Which of the following is NOT a contemporary method of collecting system requirements? A) JAD B) CASE tools C) Prototyping D) Reading user manuals
D) Reading user manuals
37) The distinguishing feature of a network diagram is that the ordering of tasks is shown by connecting tasks—depicted as ________ or ovals—with their predecessor and successor tasks. A) Circles B) Diamonds C) Ellipticals D) Rectangles
D) Rectangles
55) The following is NOT an example of a type of feasibility study. A) Operational feasibility B) Technical feasibility C) Economic feasibility D) Resource feasibility
D) Resource feasibility
17) Identifying, assessing, and managing the risks and day-to-day changes that occur during a project is attributed to ________. A) Forecasting B) Team-building C) Goal setting D) Risk and change management
D) Risk and change management
53) Each organization has to decide its acceptable project mix of ________. A) Costs B) Personnel C) Requirements D) Risks
D) Risks
57) Which type of feasibility deals with project duration? A) Political feasibility B) Contract feasibility C) Time feasibility D) Schedule feasibility
D) Schedule feasibility
72) Information systems planning includes all of the following steps except ________. A) Current situation B) Future situation C) Schedule of projects D) Selection of projects
D) Selection of projects
29) A Project Scope Statement can be used to ________. A) Detail project estimates B) Outline a schedule C) Prepare the project for the analysis phase D) Serve as a contract
D) Serve as a contract
15) A ________ is the origin and/or destination of the data, and these are sometimes referred to as external entities because they are outside the system. A) Data graph B) Data flow C) Process D) Source
D) Source
38) Which of the following is NOT true with respect to determining project standards and procedures? A) Specifies how various deliverables are produced and tested B) Specifies how the standard SDLC might be modified C) Specifies which SDLC methods will be used D) Specifies the budget and resource allocation
D) Specifies the budget and resource allocation
3) The SDLC planning phase consists of which activity? A) Project completion B) Project reorganization C) Project selection D) Project testing
C) Project selection
76) ________ is NOT one of the levels of details suggested by Cockburn. A) White B) Kite C) Red D) Blue
C) Red
58) Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining schedule feasibility? A) A 45-hour work week B) Government imposed deadline C) Business cycles D) Vacation
A) A 45-hour work week
9) If a project has a small or narrow focus, it most likely was chosen by ________. A) A business unit B) Top management C) A steering committee D) The IS department
A) A business unit
1) Project identification and selection is also known as ________. A) A preproject step B) The Project ID C) The first step D) Project selection
A) A preproject step
89) ________ is the time period during which an object performs an operation. A) Activation B) Activity C) Sequence D) Duration
A) Activation
36) Resource estimates may need to be revised based upon the skills of the actual person (or people) assigned to a particular ________. A) Activity B) Group C) Person D) Team
A) Activity
8) Which term describes a systems development project that is plagued with too much analysis work? A) Analysis Paralysis B) The Analysis Phase C) Documentation D) Reframing
A) Analysis Paralysis
31) Which of the following is a reason why an analyst would NOT choose to conduct a group interview? A) Because a single interview answers all of the questions. B) It is difficult to schedule a single person. C) New questions may be created during an interview. D) New interviews can be time consuming.
A) Because a single interview answers all of the questions.
57) Why are forms important? A) Because they explain what data flows out of a system B) Because they are documentation C) Because every company uses them D) A form is not important.
A) Because they explain what data flows out of a system
80) Use cases written at the fish and ________ levels (sometimes called the clam level) are much more detailed and focus on sub-function goals. A) Black B) White C) Kite D) Sea
A) Black
78) The overall process by which current methods are replaced with new methods is referred to as ________. A) Business process reengineering B) JAD C) CASE D) Systems analysis
A) Business process reengineering
83) A network diagram will never be used when the tasks ________. A) Cannot be worked on independently of other tasks B) Can be worked on independently of other tasks C) Are well defined and have a clear beginning and end point D) Serve the purpose of the project
A) Cannot be worked on independently of other tasks
50) Which of the following is NOT a way to manage project risks? A) Changing the budget B) Changing the project plan C) Carefully assigning project team members D) Set up monitoring methods
A) Changing the budget
35) Tasks that are ________ in scope will provide a clear sense of the status of the project or of the interdependencies between tasks. A) Short B) Medium C) Long D) Optimal
D) Optimal
34) If group members work alone in the beginning of the project and then pool the ideas with guidance, they are participating in ________. A) A group interview B) A single interview C) A nominal group technique D) The JAD process
C) A nominal group technique
15) Which of the following is an example of a project coming from a top-down source? A) A project identified by a business unit B) A project identified by customers C) A project identified by a steering committee D) A project identified by managers
C) A project identified by a steering committee
78) The overall IS plan may influence ________. A) Whether a systems analyst will be on the project B) The organization's strategic plan C) All development projects D) The mission of the company
C) All development projects
16) According to the DFD conventions, the data flow is always depicted by a(n) ________. A) Rectangle B) Circle C) Arrow D) Triangle
C) Arrow
19) When two ________ have the same data flow name, you must be careful that these flows are exactly the same. A) Rectangles B) DFDs C) Arrows D) Processes
C) Arrows
93) ________ are common in concurrent, real-time systems, in which several objects operate in parallel. A) Sequence diagrams B) Simple messages C) Asynchronous messages D) Synchronous messages
C) Asynchronous messages
2) ________ is NOT a phase in a systems development life cycle. A) Maintenance B) Planning C) Attributes D) Design
C) Attributes
94) BPMN stands for ________. A) Basic Process Modeling Notation B) Business Process Multi Notation C) Business Process Modeling Notation D) Business Procedure Modeling Notation
C) Business Process Modeling Notation
1) The ________ is a systems analyst with a diverse set of skills—management, leadership, technical, conflict management, and customer relationship—who is responsible for initiating, planning, executing, and closing down a project. A) Consultant B) Project scheduler C) Project manager D) Project assistant
C) Project manager
37) Which of the following is NOT a reason why the planning-based approach for projects is better than the traditional approach? A) The planning based approach plans for the future. B) Data structures remain stable. C) Business processes remain the same for ten or more years. D) An organization's informational needs change more slowly.
C) Business processes remain the same for ten or more years.
84) Which of the following is NOT a feature of a network diagram? A) It represents how completion times vary for activities. B) It is more often used than Gantt charts to manage projects such as information systems development. C) Connecting arrows are not used. D) Variability in the duration of activities is the norm.
C) Connecting arrows are not used.
25) How should one think about an organization when conducting a value chain analysis? A) Understand the costs associated with value chain activities. B) Identify the projects that support the organizations goals. C) Consider the organization in terms of inputs/outputs. D) Look at each individual process within a value chain.
C) Consider the organization in terms of inputs/outputs.
11) ________ is NOT a skill pertaining to the customer relations activity of a project manager. A) Interpreting system requests B) Interpreting system specifications C) Contact point for developers D) User training
C) Contact point for developers
7) Which of the following is NOT a part of project initiation? A) Create the project initiation team B) Establish management procedures C) Create a project budget D) Develop the project charter
C) Create a project budget
20) Which of the following is NOT a possible evaluation criteria when ranking projects? A) Value chain analysis B) Strategic alignment C) Cross functional focus D) Technical difficulty
C) Cross functional focus
36) Which of the following is an example of an intangible cost? A) Hardware costs B) Labor costs C) Customer goodwill D) Employee training
C) Customer goodwill
33) Which of the following is NOT included as a total when using a weighted multi-criteria project? A) Requirements B) Constraints C) Department rankings D) Overall totals
C) Department rankings
69) What is the end result of a JAD? A) A flowchart B) A CASE diagram C) Detailed documents of the current system D) A list of issues that need to be resolved
C) Detailed documents of the current system
76) The third activity in the ISP process is ________. A) Describe the target situation, trends, and constraints B) Describe the current situation C) Develop a transition strategy and plans D) Develop the logical design
C) Develop a transition strategy and plans
96) Which of the following is NOT a phase in the planning game? A) Exploration B) Commitment C) Documentation D) Steering
C) Documentation
94) What do trading partners use to establish computer-to-computer links to allow for electronic data exchange? A) B2B B) The Internet C) EDI D) LAN
C) EDI
32) Which feasibility category deals with identifying financial benefits associated with the project? A) Political B) Legal C) Economic D) Technical
C) Economic
27) Which of the following is NOT a form of closed-ended questions? A) True/False B) Multiple Choice C) Essay D) Ranking
C) Essay
30) Which of the following is NOT a possible decision outcome for a project? A) Accept the project B) Reject the project C) Evaluate criteria D) Proof of concept
C) Evaluate criteria
76) ________ and ________ are the two types of prototypes. A) New process; old process B) Long term; short-term C) Evolutionary; throwaway D) Throwaway; permanent
C) Evolutionary; throwaway
67) A common legal and contractual development in new application development is ________. A) Understanding how stakeholders feel about the system B) Determining which IS to develop C) Expanding software licenses D) The political ramifications of a new system
C) Expanding software licenses
55) ________ are recognized in official documentation of the organization. A) Work procedure B) System documents C) Formal systems D) Disclosures
C) Formal systems
46) The act of going from a single system to ________ component processes is called (functional) decomposition. A) Two B) Three C) Four D) Six
C) Four
93) Which of the following is NOT a general class of Internet electronic commerce? A) B2B B) B2E C) G2B D) B2C
C) G2B
46) Which of the following is FALSE with respect to the Gantt chart and network diagram? A) Gantt charts visually show the duration of tasks, whereas a network diagram visually shows the sequence dependencies between tasks. B) Gantt charts visually show the time overlap of tasks, whereas a network diagram does not show time overlap but does show which tasks could be done in parallel. C) Gantt charts visually show the time overlap of tasks, whereas a network diagram shows time overlap but does show which tasks could be done in parallel. D) Some forms of Gantt charts can visually show slack time available within an earliest start and latest finish duration.
C) Gantt charts visually show the time overlap of tasks, whereas a network diagram shows time overlap but does show which tasks could be done in parallel.
97) A(n) ________ in business process modeling is a decision point. A) Event B) Swim-lane C) Gateway D) Flow
C) Gateway
63) Which of the following is NOT a step in the corporate strategic planning process? A) Current enterprise B) Future enterprise C) IS Corporate plan D) Strategic plan
C) IS Corporate plan
11) ________ will mostly likely choose projects that are easy to integrate with the current hardware and software. A) Top management B) Steering committees C) IS departments D) User departments
C) IS departments
72) At what point in the project should you identify the alternative solutions? A) The introduction B) During the project initiation phase C) In the system description document D) During baseline planning
C) In the system description document
24) What has assisted value chains in having the greatest improvement? A) Value chain analysis B) Analysis of organization's activities C) Information systems D) Removing some processes in the value chain
C) Information systems
39) Which of the following is NOT true of a project communication plan? A) It outlines the communication procedures among management, project team members, and the customer. B) It includes when and how written and oral reports will be provided by the team. C) It does not define communication with vendors and external contractors. D) It includes how team members will coordinate work.
C) It does not define communication with vendors and external contractors.
71) Which of the following does a company NOT need to understand in order to build effective information systems? A) Its mission B) Its objectives C) Its current IS project list D) Its strategy
C) Its current IS project list
78) Both the white and ________ levels provide a summary of the use case goals. A) Blue B) Black C) Kite D) Fish
C) Kite
57) Balancing is the conservation of inputs and outputs to a DFD process when that process is decomposed to a ________ level. A) Balanced B) Similar C) Lower D) Higher
C) Lower
60) All of the following are examples of computer-based documents except ________. A) Flowcharts B) User manuals C) Memos D) CASE tool reports
C) Memos
64) A ________ clearly states what business a company is in. A) Corporate statement B) Current plan C) Mission statement D) Strategic plan
C) Mission statement
87) An activity diagram cannot be used to ________. A) Depict the flow of control from activity to activity B) Help in identifying extensions in a use case C) Model work flow but not business processes D) Model the sequential and concurrent steps in a computation process
C) Model work flow but not business processes
15) ________ is NOT a skill pertaining to the conflict management activity of a project manager. A) Problem solving B) Smoothing out personality differences C) Monitoring D) Compromising
C) Monitoring
39) A data flow has ________ direction(s) of flow between symbols. It may flow in both directions between a process and a data store to show a read before an update. A) No B) Three C) One D) Multi
C) One
42) A data flow cannot go directly back to the same process it leaves. There must be at least ________ other process(es) that handle(s) the data flow, produce(s) some other data flow, and return(s) the original data flow to the beginning process. A) Three B) Two C) One D) Four
C) One
11) Flowcharting has been criticized by proponents of structured analysis and design because it is too ________. A) Geometrically oriented B) Diagrammatic C) Physically oriented D) Methodological
C) Physically oriented
79) Which role in the walkthrough normally has done all or some of the work presented? A) Coordinator B) User C) Presenter D) Standards bearer
C) Presenter
37) Data cannot move directly from one data store to another data store. Data must be moved by a ________. A) Flow chart B) Procedure C) Process D) Data source
C) Process
21) During ________, the project manager performs several activities to assess the size, scope, and complexity of the project and to establish procedures to support subsequent activities. A) Project bidding B) Project development C) Project initiation D) Project delivery
C) Project initiation
11) Which document outlines all work required to complete the project? A) Baseline project plan B) Business plan C) Project scope document D) Feasibility document
C) Project scope document
31) Which of the following is FALSE with respect to resource estimation activity? A) This information is used to create a project resource plan. B) Project managers use a variety of tools to assist in making estimates of project size and costs. The most widely used method is called COCOMO. C) Resource estimates may need not be revised based upon the skills of the actual person (or people) assigned to a particular activity. D) People are the most important, and expensive, part of project resource planning.
C) Resource estimates may need not be revised based upon the skills of the actual person (or people) assigned to a particular activity.
42) At the end of the project planning phase, ________ of the Baseline Project Plan is conducted to double-check all information in the plan. A) Rating B) Testing C) Review D) Planning
C) Review
22) Which of the following is NOT a part of the guidelines for effective interviewing? A) Prime questions B) Listen carefully C) Review notes within 96 hours of interview D) Be neutral
C) Review notes within 96 hours of interview
22) How many activities are involved in the project initiation phase? A) Four B) Five C) Six D) Three
C) Six
89) Nodes not on the critical path contain ________ time and allow the project manager some flexibility in scheduling. A) Shortest B) Critical C) Slack D) Report
C) Slack
7) Which of the following is NOT a primary activity in project identification? A) Identify potential projects. B) Select IS projects. C) Stop current projects. D) Classify development projects.
C) Stop current projects.
83) A ________ lists what it takes to satisfy stakeholders if the use case is completed successfully. A) Precondition B) Minimal guarantee C) Success guarantee D) Trigger
C) Success guarantee
40) Which of the following is NOT an example of a recurring cost? A) Software maintenance B) Data storage expenses C) System conversion D) Hardware leases
C) System conversion
3) Who is typically responsible for performing the PIP process? A) Managers B) Users C) Systems analyst D) The business unit
C) Systems analyst
45) Which of the options below means the organization has the ability to build the requested system? A) Economic feasibility B) Return on investment C) Technical Feasibility D) Break-even point
C) Technical Feasibility
6) Which of the following is NOT source of information for deliverables? A) Notes from observations B) Reports C) The News D) Job descriptions
C) The News
67) What refers to a broad and timeless goal for the organization? A) A competitive strategy B) The strategic plan C) The objective statements D) The mission statement
C) The objective statements
9) Which of the following is a new, faster, and more flexible technique for analysis gathering requirements? A) Observing users B) Procedures C) The planning game D) Users
C) The planning game
36) How have organizations traditionally allocated IS resources? A) Through a formal process B) With a top-down process C) Through attempts to solve isolated organizational problems D) To update billing systems
C) Through attempts to solve isolated organizational problems
16) Which of the following groups does NOT identify a bottom-up development project? A) Business units B) Managers C) Top Management D) IS development group
C) Top Management
45) Which of the following is NOT true about project closedown? A) It brings the project to an end. B) Projects can conclude with a natural or unnatural termination. C) Unnatural termination of a project can never happen. D) An unnatural termination occurs when the project is stopped before completion.
C) Unnatural termination of a project can never happen.
38) Which of the following is NOT a guideline for better cost estimation? A) Have clear guidelines for creating estimates B) Use experienced developers C) Update estimates at the end of the project D) Use historical data
C) Update estimates at the end of the project
52) Which of the following is a less risky approach to the technical parts of a project? A) User involvement B) Using a matrix C) Using standard technology D) Having a well-equipped IT staff
C) Using standard technology
58) When are forms most useful to the analyst? A) When the form is printed in duplicate B) When the customer signs the form C) When they contain organizational data D) When they are actually used by the sales team
C) When they contain organizational data
60) Data flow repository entries typically will NOT include ________. A) The label or name for the data flow as entered on the DFDs B) A list of other repository objects grouped into categories by type of object C) The composition or list of data elements contained in the data flow D) A long description defining the data flow
D) A long description defining the data flow
34) What is the primary deliverable in the initial part of the planning phase? A) To determine costs B) To rank projects C) A detailed projet plan D) A schedule of specific IS development projects
D) A schedule of specific IS development projects
86) A(n) ________ diagram shows the conditional logic for the sequence of system activities needed to accomplish a business process. A) Fork B) Branch C) Business D) Activity
D) Activity
96) A(n) ________ in business process modeling is an action that must take place for a process to be completed. A) Gateway B) Event C) Flow D) Activity
D) Activity
74) A(n) ________ is an external entity that interacts with a system and is someone or something that exchanges information with the systems. A) Procedure B) DFD C) User D) Actor
D) Actor
6) Which of the following is NOT a part of the project management process? A) Planning B) Initiating C) Executing D) Adjoining
D) Adjoining
44) A data flow has a noun phrase label. More than one data flow noun phrase can appear on a single ________ as long as all of the flows on the same arrow move together as one package. A) Circle B) Rectangle C) Join D) Arrow
D) Arrow
92) ________, shown as a half arrowhead in a sequence diagram, is one where the sender does not have to wait for the recipient to handle the message. A) Simple message B) Activation C) Synchronous message D) Asynchronous message
D) Asynchronous message
8) What is the term that describes the best estimate of a project's scope, benefits, cost, and resources? A) Management procedure B) Project charter C) Resource plan D) Baseline project plan
D) Baseline project plan
4) Why is PIP challenging? A) Because it is expensive B) Because only systems analysts participate in the process C) Because it is a closed-ended process D) Because it turns a vague system request into a project description
D) Because it turns a vague system request into a project description
17) As an analyst, which type of project would you most likely have contact with in the beginning of your career? A) Top-down projects B) Strategic goals projects C) Planning of projects D) Bottom-up projects
D) Bottom-up projects
86) Which of the following is NOT a feature of PERT? A) Uses optimistic estimate B) Uses pessimistic estimate C) Uses realistic estimate D) Calculates budget for a project
D) Calculates budget for a project
10) What is at the core of systems analysis? A) The project B) The systems analyst C) Procedures D) Collection of information
D) Collection of information
68) All of the following are included in the baseline project report except ________. A) Introduction B) System description C) Feasibility assessment D) Conclusion
D) Conclusion
26) Which of the following is NOT an output in the value chain? A) Products sold to customers B) Services C) Distribution D) Costs
D) Costs
8) Which of the following roles does NOT identify potential development projects? A) CEO B) Steering committee C) User departments D) Customer focus groups
D) Customer focus groups
19) Working closely with customers to ensure that project deliverables meet expectations is a ________ activity of a project manager. A) Resource redeployment B) Forecasting C) Management D) Customer relations
D) Customer relations
38) Data cannot move directly from a source to a sink. It must be moved by a process if the data are of any concern to our system. Otherwise, the data flow is not shown on the ________. A) Sink B) Procedure C) Flow chart D) DFD
D) DFD
24) What information do the objectives cover in an interview guide? A) A list of issues the analysts have with the current system B) Information about the interviewer C) Specific questions on what the analyst wants to confirm D) Data collection questions
D) Data collection questions
12) ________ are NOT a component of data flow diagram symbols. A) Processes B) Data stores C) Data flows D) Data programs
D) Data programs
3) A ________ is an end product of an SDLC phase. A) System tester B) Requirement C) Modeler D) Deliverable
D) Deliverable
27) Which is the first activity in the project planning phase? A) Setting a baseline project plan B) Creating a preliminary budget C) Identifying and assessing risk D) Describing project scope, alternatives, and feasibility
D) Describing project scope, alternatives, and feasibility
80) Which of the following is NOT an outcome after a presenter has participated in a walk-through of the product? A) Approval of the work product B) Approval of the work product pending changes C) Approval of the work product pending major revisions D) Disapproval and removal of the work product
D) Disapproval and removal of the work product
59) Which of the following is NOT a useful document in the analysis process? A) Reports generated by the current system B) Forms C) Work procedures D) E-mails
D) E-mails
39) What of the following is NOT a consequence of employees knowing they are being observed in their work? A) Employees may be nervous and make more mistakes. B) Employees may follow procedures they normally do not follow. C) A snapshot observation may not include important activities. D) Employees may miss work.
D) Employees may miss work.
44) Which of the following is the first activity in the project execution phase? A) Communicating the project status B) Managing changes to the Baseline Project Plan C) Maintaining the project workbook D) Executing the Baseline Project Plan
D) Executing the Baseline Project Plan
49) Failure to integrate the new system with the old system is an example of ________. A) A poor break even analysis B) Failure to create an adequate project scope statement C) Failure to recognize tangible benefits D) Failure to assess and manage risks
D) Failure to assess and manage risks
12) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of top management when choosing an IS project selection? A) Largest project size B) Strategic focus C) Enterprise wide consideration D) Faster development
D) Faster development
10) ________ is NOT a skill pertaining to the management activity of a project manager. A) Monitoring outcomes B) Assigning resources to activities C) Communicating expectations D) Forecasting
D) Forecasting
16) ________ is NOT a skill pertaining to the team management activity of a project manager. A) Self-management B) Team-building C) Peer-evaluation D) Forecasting
D) Forecasting
40) A(n) ________ in a data flow means that exactly the same data goes from a common location to two or more different processes, data stores, or sources/sinks. (This usually indicates different copies of the same data going to different locations.) A) Arrow B) Join C) Break D) Fork
D) Fork
95) ________ refers to the amount of time a task can be delayed without delaying the early start of any immediately following tasks. A) Response time B) Total slack C) Shortest time D) Free slack
D) Free slack
67) ________ is the process of discovering discrepancies between two or more sets of DFDs or discrepancies within a single DFD. A) Timing B) Primitive DFD C) Basic analysis D) Gap analysis
D) Gap analysis
3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of good systems analyst? A) Impertinence B) Relax constraints C) Attention to detail D) Great at finances
D) Great at finances
35) What is a possible outcome of NGT? A) Times for a new meeting B) The analysts' favorite projects C) A list of user roles in the project D) Ideas for a new system
D) Ideas for a new system
9) ________ is/are NOT a deliverable for process modeling. A) Context DFD B) DFDs of the system C) Thorough descriptions of each DFD component D) Inadequately decomposed diagrams
D) Inadequately decomposed diagrams
5) To successfully orchestrate the construction of a complex information system, a project manager must have ________, leadership, and technical skills. A) Planning B) Initiating C) Executing D) Interpersonal
D) Interpersonal
40) Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding the Project Scope Statement? A) It occurs near the end of the project planning phase. B) It is developed primarily for the customer. C) It clearly describes what the project will deliver. D) It is a description of the alternative solution.
D) It is a description of the alternative solution
23) Which of the following is FALSE in the context of the project workbook? A) It can be stored as an online electronic document. B) It can be stored in a large three-ring binder. C) The project workbook is used by all team members. D) It is not useful for project audits.
D) It is not useful for project audits.
66) Where are JAD sessions normally held? A) At the corporate office B) In the meeting room C) In an executive's office D) Offsite
D) Offsite
17) A ________ is used in both conventions for sources/sinks and has a name that states what the external agent is, such as Customer, Teller, EPA Office, or Inventory Control System. A) Circle B) Triangle C) Rectangle D) Square
D) Square
90) A(n) ________ shown as a full, solid arrowhead, is one where the caller has to wait for the receiving object to complete execution of the called operation before it itself can resume execution. A) Activation B) Simple message C) Asynchronous message D) Synchronous message
D) Synchronous message
73) Which of the following is NOT included in the feasibility assessment? A) Project costs B) Technical difficulties C) Project benefits D) System alternatives
D) System alternatives
46) Which of the following is NOT a consideration during the assessing technical feasibility stage? A) System size B) System complexity C) System target hardware D) System cost
D) System cost
33) A(n) ________ comes from an information system that can be measured monetarily. A) Project benefit B) Economic feasibility C) Project plan D) Tangible benefit
D) Tangible benefit
13) Managing the project team for effective team performance represents a ________ activity of a project manager. A) Leadership B) Change management C) Risk management D) Team management
D) Team management
21) Which evaluation criteria for classifying and ranking projects deals with level of difficulty of the project? A) Value chain analysis B) Resource availability C) Potential benefits D) Technical difficulty
D) Technical difficulty
62) Which of the following is NOT a consideration when discussing the need for improved IS project selection? A) Systems cannot handle applications that cross organizational boundaries. B) Poorly planned systems must be constantly revised. C) Data redundancy is out of control. D) The cost of information systems has remained steady.
D) The cost of information systems has remained steady.
4) Which of the following is true as it pertains to project identification and small organizations? A) Small organizations normally have a formal process. B) Small organizations projects are normally borne out of a larger planning process. C) The proposal process is rigorous. D) The highest ranking IS manager typically selects the projects.
D) The highest ranking IS manager typically selects the projects.
23) The first page of the interview guide contains all of the following except ________. A) An outline of the interview B) Who is being interviewed C) Major objectives D) The outcome of the interview
D) The outcome of the interview
7) In systems analysis, which of the following is NOT a component you need to understand? A) Business objectives B) The information people need to do their job C) The rules governing data D) The size of the budget
D) The size of the budget
76) Who must review the baseline project plan before it moves to the next phase in the SDLC? A) The Customers B) The CEO C) The IS Manager D) The uses, managers, and development group
D) The uses, managers, and development group
41) Which term below means that money available today is worth more than the same amount tomorrow? A) Cost benefit B) Discount rate C) Variable costs D) Time value of money
D) Time value of money
56) Which of the following is NOT a way informal systems develop? A) Individual work habits B) Resistance to control C) Inadequate formal procedures D) Top management does not mandate it.
D) Top management does not mandate it.
28) Which of the following is NOT a guideline to use during the actual interview? A) Listen carefully. B) Do not set expectations about the new system. C) Look for a variety of perspectives. D) Type up notes during the interview.
D) Type up notes during the interview.
77) Which of the following is a situation in which prototyping is useful for requirements determination? A) When formal documentation of system requirements are needed B) When stand-alone systems aren't needed C) When user requirements are clear and well understood D) When tools and data are rapidly available to working systems
D) When tools and data are rapidly available to working systems
29) A Gantt chart is the graphical representation of a project that shows each task as a ________ bar whose length is proportional to its time for completion. A) vertical B) linear C) curve D) horizontal
D) horizontal
