Domain 3
After arriving at an investigation site, Brian determines that three powered-on computers need to be taken for forensic examination. What steps should he take before removing the PCs?
Collect live forensic information, take photos of each system, and power them down. Brian should determine whether he needs live forensic information, but if he is not certain, the safest path for him is to collect live forensic information, take photos so that he knows how each system was set up and configured, and then power them down. He would then log each system as evidence and will likely create forensic copies of the drives once he reaches his forensic work area or may use a portable forensic system to make drive images on-site. Powering a running system down can result in the loss of significant forensic information, meaning that powering a system down before collecting some information is typically not recommended. Collecting a static image of a drive requires powering the system down first!
After completing an incident response process and providing a final report to management, what step should Casey use to identify improvement to her incident response plan?
Conduct a lessons-learned session. Conducting a lessons-learned review after using an incident response plan can help to identify improvements and to ensure that the plan is up-to-date and ready to handle new events.
During a forensic investigation, Charles discovers that he needs to capture a virtual machine that is part of the critical operations of his company's website. If he cannot suspend or shut down the machine for business reasons, what imaging process should he follow?
Copy the virtual disk files and then use a memory capture tool. If business concerns override his ability to suspend the system, the best option that Charles has is to copy the virtual disk files and then use a live memory imaging tool. This will give him the best forensic copy achievable under the circumstances. Snapshotting the system and booting it will result in a loss of live memory artifacts. Escalating may be possible in some circumstances, but the scenario specifies that the system must remain online. Finally, volatility can capture memory artifacts but is not designed to capture a full virtual machine.
Rick is conducting a forensic investigation of a compromised system. He knows from user reports that issues started at approximately 3:30 p.m. on June 12. Using the SANS SIFT open source forensic tool, what process should he use to determine what occurred?
Create a Super Timeline. The ability to create a timeline of events that covers logs, file changes, and many other artifacts is known as a Super Timeline. SIFT includes this capability, allowing Rick to decide what event types and modules he wants to enable as part of his timeline-based view of events.
If Danielle wants to purge a drive, which of the following options will accomplish her goal?
Cryptographic erase. Purging requires complete removal of data, and cryptographic erase is the only option that will fully destroy the contents of a drive from this list. Reformatting will leave the original data in place, overwriting leaves the potential for file remnants in slack space, and repartitioning will also leave data intact in the new partitions.
Jessica wants to recover deleted files from slack space and needs to identify where the files begin and end. What is this process called?
Data carving. Data carving is the process of identifying files based on file signatures such as headers and footers and then pulling the information between those locations out as a file. Jessica can use common carving tools or could manually carve files if she knows common header and footer types that she can search for.
As part of his forensic investigation, Scott intends to make a forensic image of a network share that is mounted by the PC that is the focus of his investigation. What information will he be unable to capture?
Deleted files. When a network share or mounted drive is captured from the system that mounts it, data like deleted files, unallocated space, and other information that requires direct drive access will not be captured. If Scott needs that information, he will need to create a forensic image of the drive from the host server.
Cynthia has completed the validation process of her media sanitization efforts and has checked a sample of the drives she had purged using a built-in cryptographic wipe utility. What is her next step?
Documentation. Documentation is important when tracking drives to ensure that all drives that should be sanitized are being received. Documentation can also provide evidence of proper handling for audits and internal reviews.
Janet is attempting to conceal her actions on a company-owned computer. As part of her cleanup attempts, she deletes all of the files she downloaded from a corporate file server using a browser in incognito mode. How can a forensic investigator determine what files she downloaded?
Drive analysis. A forensic investigator's best option is to seize, image, and analyze the drive that Janet downloaded the files to. Since she only deleted the files, it is likely that the investigator will be able to recover most of the content of the files, allowing them to be identified. Network flows do not provide file information, SMB does not log file downloads, browser caches will typically not contain a list of all downloaded files, and incognito mode is specifically designed to not retain session and cache information.
In his role as a forensic examiner, Lucas has been asked to produce forensic evidence related to a civil case. What is this process called?
E-discovery. When forensic evidence or information is produced for a civil case, it is called e-discovery. This type of discovery often involves massive amounts of data including email, files, text messages, and any other electronic evidence that is relevant to the case.
Lauren recovers a number of 16GB and 32GB microSD cards during a forensic investigation. Without checking them manually, what filesystem type is she most likely to find them formatted in as if they were used with a digital camera?
FAT32 Most portable consumer devices, especially those that generate large files, format their storage as FAT32. FAT16 is limited to 2GB partitions, RAW is a photo file format, and HFS+ is the native macOS file format. Lauren can expect most devices to format media as FAT32 by default because of its broad compatibility across devices and operating systems.
A server in the data center that Chris is responsible for monitoring unexpectedly connects to an off-site IP address and transfers 9GB of data to the remote system. What type of monitoring should Chris enable to best assist him in detecting future events of this type?
Flow logs with heuristic analysis. Flow logs would show Chris outbound traffic flows based on remote IP addresses as well as volume of traffic, and behavioral (heuristic) analysis will help him to alert on similar behaviors. Chris should build an alert that alarms when servers in his data center connect to domains that are not already whitelisted and should strongly consider whether servers should be allowed to initiate outbound connections at all!
Frank wants to log the creation of user accounts on a Windows 7 workstation. What tool should he use to enable this logging?
Frank does not need to make a change; this is a default setting. Windows audits account creation by default. Frank can search for account creation events under event ID 4720 for modern Windows operating systems.
Selah is preparing to collect a forensic image for a Macintosh computer. What hard drive format is she most likely to encounter?
HFS+. The default macOS drive format is HFS+ and is the native macOS drive format. By default, it uses 512-byte logical blocks (sectors) and up to 4,294,967,296 allocation blocks. macOS does support FAT32 and can read NTFS but cannot write to NTFS drives without additional software. MacFAT was made up for this problem.
While investigating a spam email, Adam is able to capture headers from one of the email messages that was received. He notes that the sender was Carmen Victoria Garci. What facts can he gather from the headers?
Headers can be helpful when tracking down spam email, but spammers often use a number of methods to obfuscate the original sender's IP address, email, or other details. Unfortunately, email addresses are often spoofed, and the email address may be falsified. In this case, the only verifiable information in these headers is the IP address of the originating host, mf-smf-ucb011.ocn.ad.jp (mf-smf-ucb011.ocn.ad.jp) [153.149.228.228]. At times even this detail can be forged, but in most cases, this is simply a compromised host or one with an open email application that spammers can leverage to send bulk email.
What strategy does NIST suggest for identifying attackers during an incident response process?
Identifying attackers is not an important part of the incident response process. NIST's Computer Security Incident Handling Guide notes that identifying an attacker can be "time-consuming and futile." In general, spending time identifying attackers is not a valuable use of incident response time for most organizations
As Lauren prepares her organization's security practices and policies, she wants to address as many threat vectors as she can using an awareness program. Which of the following threats can be most effectively dealt with via awareness?
Improper usage. Improper usage, which results from violations of an organization's acceptable use policies by authorized users, can be reduced by implementing a strong awareness program. This will help ensure users know what they are permitted to do and what is prohibited. Attrition attacks focus on brute-force methods of attacking services. Impersonation attacks include spoofing, man-in-the-middle attacks, and similar threats. Finally, web-based attacks focus on websites or web applications. Awareness may help with some specific web-based attacks like fake login sites, but many others would not be limited by Lauren's awareness efforts.
Scott wants to recover user passwords for systems as part of a forensic analysis effort. If he wants to test for the broadest range of passwords, which of the following modes should he run John the Ripper in?
Incremental mode. Incremental mode is John the Ripper's most powerful mode, as it will try all possible character combinations as defined by the settings you enter at the start. Single crack mode tries to use login names with various modifications and is very useful for initial testing. Wordlist uses a dictionary file along with mangling rules to test for common passwords. External mode relies on functions that are custom-written to generate passwords. External mode can be useful if your organization has custom password policies that you want to tweak the tool to use.
Because of external factors, Eric has only a limited time period to collect an image from a workstation. If he collects only specific files of interest, what type of acquisition has he performed?
Logical. A logical acquisition focuses on specific files of interest, such as a specific type of file, or files from a specific location. In Eric's case, a logical acquisition meets his needs. A sparse acquisition also collects data from unallocated space. A bit-by-bit acquisition is typically performed for a full drive and will take longer.
Frank wants to improve the effectiveness of the incident analysis process he is responsible for as the leader of his organization's CSIRT. Which of the following is not a commonly recommended best practice based on NIST's guidelines?
Maintain backups of every system and device. NIST does not include making backups of every system and device in its documentation. Instead, NIST suggests maintaining an organization-wide knowledge base with critical information about systems and applications. Backing up every device and system can be prohibitively expensive. Backups are typically done only for specific systems and devices, with configuration and restoration data stored for the rest.
What Windows memory protection methodology is shown here?
MemShuffle. Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR) is a technique used to prevent buffer overflows and stack smashing attacks from being able to predict where executable code resides in the heap. DEP is Data Execution Protection, and both StackProtect and MemShuffle were made up for this question.
Fred wants to identify digital evidence that can place an individual in a specific place at a specific time. Which of the following types of digital forensic data is not commonly used to attempt to document physical location at specific times?
Microsoft Office document metadata. Cell phones contain a treasure trove of location data including both tower connection log data and GPS location logs in some instances. Photographs taken on mobile devices may also include location metadata. Microsoft Office files do not typically include location information. Other potential sources of data include car GPS systems if the individual has a car with built-in GPS, black-box data-gathering systems, social media posts, and fitness software, as well as any other devices that may have built-in GPS or location detection capabilities. In some cases, this can be as simple as determining whether the individual's devices were connected to a specific network at a specific time.
NIST SP 800-61 identifies six outside parties that an incident response team will typically communicate with. Which of the following is not one of those parties?
NIST identifies customers, constituents, media, other incident response teams, Internet service providers, incident reporters, law enforcement agencies, and software and support vendors as outside parties that an IR team will communicate with.
NIST describes four major phases in the incident response cycle. Which of the following is not one of the four?
NIST identifies four major phases in the IR life cycle: preparation; detection and analysis; containment, eradication, and recovery; and post-incident activity. Notification and communication may occur in multiple phases.
The company that Brian works for processes credit cards and is required to be compliant with PCI-DSS. If Brian's company experiences a breach of card data, what type of disclosure will they be required to provide?
Notification to their acquiring bank. Organizations that process credit cards work with acquiring banks to handle their card processing, rather than directly with the card providers. Notification to the bank is part of this type of response effort. Requiring notification of law enforcement is unlikely, and the card provider listing specifies only two of the major card vendors, none of which are specified in the question.
Adam wants to quickly crack passwords from a Windows 7 system. Which of the following tools will provide the fastest results in most circumstances?
Ophcrack. Under most circumstances Ophcrack's rainbow table-based cracking will result in the fastest hash cracking. Hashcat's high-speed, GPU-driven cracking techniques are likely to come in second, with John the Ripper and Cain and Abel's traditional CPU-driven cracking methods remaining slower unless their mutation-based password cracks discover simple passwords very quickly.
Luke needs to verify settings on a macOS computer to ensure that the configuration items he expects are set properly. What type of file is commonly used to store configuration settings for macOS systems?
Plists. Luke should expect to find most of the settings he is looking for contained in plists, or property lists, which are XML files encoded in a binary format.
James wants to determine whether other Windows systems on his network are infected with the same malware package that he has discovered on the workstation he is analyzing. He has removed the system from his network by unplugging its network cable, as required by corporate policy. He knows that the system has previously exhibited beaconing behavior and wants to use that behavior to identify other infected systems. How can he safely create a fingerprint for this beaconing without modifying the infected system?
Plug the system into an isolated switch and use a span port or tap and Wireshark to capture traffic. James can temporarily create an untrusted network segment and use a span port or tap to allow him to see traffic leaving the infected workstation. Using Wireshark, he can build a profile of the traffic it sends, helping him build a fingerprint of the beaconing behavior. Once he has this information, he can then use it in his recovery efforts to ensure that other systems are not similarly infected.
Eric has access to a full suite of network monitoring tools and wants to use appropriate tools to monitor network bandwidth consumption. Which of the following is not a common method of monitoring network bandwidth usage?
Portmon. SNMP, packet sniffing, and netflow are commonly used when monitoring bandwidth consumption. Portmon is an aging Windows tool used to monitor serial ports, not exactly the sort of tool you'd use to watch your network's bandwidth usage!
John has designed his network as shown here and places untrusted systems that want to connect to the network into the Guests network segment. What is this type of segmentation called?
Proactive network segmentation. John is not responding to an incident, so this is an example of proactive network segmentation. If he discovered a system that was causing issues, he might create a dedicated quarantine network or could isolate or remove the system.
Jessica wants to track the changes made to the registry and filesystem while running a suspect executable on a Windows system. Which Sysinternals tool will allow her to do this?
Process Monitor. Process Monitor provides detailed tracking of filesystem and registry changes as well as other details that can be useful when determining what changes an application makes to a system. This is often used by system administrators as well as forensic and incident response professionals, as it can help make tracking down intricate installer problems much easier!
Alex needs to sanitize hard drives that will be leaving his organization after a lease is over. The drives contained information that his organization classifies as sensitive data that competitors would find valuable if they could obtain it. Which choice is the most appropriate to ensure that data exposure does not occur during this process?
Purge, validate, and document. Since the drives are being returned at the end of a lease, you must assume that the contract does not allow them to be destroyed. This means that purging the drives, validating that the drives have been purged, and documenting the process to ensure that all drives are included are the appropriate actions. Clearing the drives leaves the possibility of data recovery, while purging, as defined by NIST SP 800-88, renders data recovery infeasible.
Degaussing is an example of what form of media sanitization?
Purging. Degaussing, which uses a powerful electromagnet to remove data from tape media, is a form of purging.
Kelly sees high CPU utilization in the Windows Task Manager, as shown here, while reviewing a system's performance issues. If she wants to get a detailed view of the CPU usage by application, with PIDs and average CPU usage, what native Windows tool can she use to gather that detail?
Resource Monitor. Resource Manager provides average CPU utilization in addition to real-time CPU utilization. Since Kelly wants to see average usage over time, she is better off using Resource Manager instead of Task Manager (which meets all of her other requirements). Performance Monitor is useful for collecting performance data, and iperf is a network performance measurement tool.
Allison wants to access Chrome logs as part of a forensic investigation. What format is information about cookies, history, and saved form fill information saved in?
SQLite. Chrome stores a broad range of useful forensic information in its SQLite database, including cookies, favicons, history, logins, top sites, web form data, and other details. Knowing how to write SQL queries or having access to a forensic tool that makes these databases easy to access can provide a rich trove of information about the web browsing history of a Chrome user.
Lisa is following the CompTIA process for validation after a compromise. Which of the following actions should be included in this phase?
Setting permissions. CompTIA defines two phases: incident eradication and validation. Validation phase activities per CompTIA's split include patching, permissions, scanning, and verifying logging works properly.
Lauren is the IT manager for a small company and occasionally serves as the organization's information security officer. Which of the following roles should she include as the leader of her organization's CSIRT?
She should select herself. A CSIRT leader must have authority to direct the incident response process and should be able to act as a liaison with organizational management. While Lauren may not have deep incident response experience, she is in the right role to provide those connections and leadership. She should look at retaining third-party experts for incidents if she needs additional skills or expertise on her IR team.
Saria is reviewing the contents of a drive as part of a forensic effort and notes that the file she is reviewing takes up more space on the disk than its actual size, as shown here. What has she discovered?
Slack space. The space that Saria sees is the space between the end of the file and the space allocated per cluster or block. This space may contain remnants of previous files written to the cluster or block or may simply contain random data from when the disk was formatted or initialized.
Lauren wants to ensure that the two most commonly used methods for preventing Linux buffer overflow attacks are enabled for the operating system she is installing on her servers. What two related technologies should she investigate to help protect her systems?
StackAntismash and DEP. The NX bit sets fine-grained permissions to mapped memory regions, while ASLR ensures that shared libraries are loaded at randomized locations, making it difficult for attackers to leverage known locations in memory via shared library attacks. DEP is a Windows tool for memory protection, and position-independent variables are a compiler-level protection that is used to secure programs when they are compiled.
Jennifer's team has completed the initial phases of their incident response process and is assessing the time required to recover from the incident. Using the NIST recoverability effort categories, the team has determined that they can predict the time to recover but will require additional resources. How should she categorize this using the NIST model?
Supplemented The NIST recoverability effort categories call a scenario in which time to recovery is predictable with additional resources "supplemented." The key to the NIST levels is to remember that each level of additional unknowns and resources required increases the severity level from regular to supplemented and then to extended. A nonrecoverable situation exists when the event cannot be remediated, such as when data is exposed. At that point, an investigation is launched. In a nongovernment agency, this phase might involve escalating to law enforcement.
Susan needs to perform forensics on a virtual machine. What process should she use to ensure she gets all of the forensic data she may need?
Suspend the machine and copy the contents of the directory it resides in. Suspending a virtual machine will result in the RAM and disk contents being stored to the directory where it resides. Simply copying that folder is then sufficient to provide Susan with all the information she needs. She should not turn the virtual machine off, and creating a forensic copy of the drive is not necessary (but she should still validate hashes for the copied files or directory).
Where is slack space found in the following Windows partition map?
The System Reserved and C: partitions Slack space is leftover storage that exists because files do not take up the entire space allocated for them. Since the Unallocated partition does not have a filesystem on it, space there should not be considered slack space. Both System Reserved and C: are formatted with NTFS and will have slack space between files.
Forensic investigation shows that the target of the investigation used the Windows Quick Format command to attempt to destroy evidence on a USB thumb drive. Which of the NIST sanitization techniques has the target of the investigation used in their attempt to conceal evidence?
The Windows Quick Format option leaves data in unallocated space on the new volume, allowing the data to be carved and retrieved. This does not meet the requirements for any of the three levels of sanitization defined by NIST.
While performing forensic analysis of an iPhone backup, Cynthia discovers that she has only some of the information that she expects the phone to contain. What is the most likely scenario that would result in the backup she is using having partial information?
The backup is a differential backup. iPhone backups to local systems can be full or differential, and in this scenario the most likely issue is that Cynthia has recovered a differential backup. She should look for additional backup files if she does not have access to the original phone. If the backup was encrypted, she would not be able to access it without a cracking tool, and if it was interrupted, she would be unlikely to have the backup file or have it be in usable condition. iCloud backups require access to the user's computer or account and are less likely to be part of a forensic investigation.
While Chris is attempting to image a device, he encounters write issues and cannot write the image as currently set. What issue is he most likely encountering?
The destination drive is formatted FAT32. FTK Imager Light is shown configured to write a single large file that will fail on FAT32-formatted drives where the largest single file is 4GB. If Chris needs to create a single file, he should format his destination drive as NTFS. In many cases, he should simply create a raw image to a blank disk instead!
Near the end of a typical business day, Danielle is notified that her organization's email servers have been blacklisted because of email that appears to originate from her domain. What information does she need to start investigating the source of the spam emails?
The full headers of one of the spam messages. Danielle's best bet to track down the original source of the emails that are being sent is to acquire full headers from the spam email. This will allow her to determine whether the email is originating from a system on her network or whether the source of the email is being spoofed. Once she has headers or if she cannot acquire them, she may want to check one or more of the other options on this list for potential issues.
Alex is diagnosing major network issues at a large organization and sees the following graph in her PRTG console on the "outside" interface of her border router. What can Alex presume has occurred?
The network link has been restored. A sudden resumption of traffic headed "in" after sitting at zero likely indicates a network link or route has been repaired. A link failure would show a drop to zero, rather than an increase. The complete lack of inbound traffic prior to the resumption at 9:30 makes it unlikely this is a DDoS, and the internal systems are not sending significant traffic outbound.
Alex wants to determine whether the user of a company-owned laptop accessed a malicious wireless access point. Where can he find the list of wireless networks that the system knows about?
The registry. The Windows registry stores a list of wireless networks the system has connected to in the registry under HKLM\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\WindowsNT\CurrentVersion\NetworkList\Profiles. This is not a user-specific setting and is stored for all users in LocalMachine.
While investigating a system error, Lauren runs the df command on a Linux box that she is the administrator for. What problem and likely cause should she identify based on this listing? # df -h /var/ Filesystem Size Used Avail Use% Mounted on /dev/sda1 40G 11.2G 28.8 28% / /dev/sda2 3.9G 3.9G 0 100% /var
The var partition is full, and logs should be checked. When /var fills up, it is typically due to log files filling up all available space. The /var partition should be reviewed for log files that have grown to extreme size or that are not properly set to rotate.
Lauren needs to access a macOS system but does not have the user's password. If the system is not FileVaulted, which of the following options is not a valid recovery method?
Use Target Disk mode to delete the Keychain. The keychain in macOS stores user credentials but does not store user account passwords. All of the other options listed are possible solutions for Lauren, but none of them will work if the system has FileVault turned on.
Fred wants to prevent buffer overflows from succeeding against his organization's web applications. What technique is best suited to preventing this type of attack from succeeding?
User input size checking. While it may seem to be a simple answer, ensuring that all input is checked to make sure that it is not longer than the variable or buffer it will be placed into is an important part of protecting web applications. Canonicalization is useful against scripting attacks. Format string attacks occur when input is interpreted as a command by an application. Buffer overwriting typically occurs with a circular buffer as data is replaced and is not an attack or attack prevention method.
Cameron believes that the Ubuntu Linux system that he is restoring to service has already been fully updated. What command can he use to check for new updates, and where can he check for the history of updates on his system?
apt-get -u upgrade, /var/log/apt The apt command is used to install and upgrade packages in Ubuntu Linux from the command line. The command apt-get -u upgrade will list needed upgrades and patches (and adding the -V flag will provide useful version information). The information about what patches were installed is retained in /var/log/apt, although log rotation may remove or compress older update information.
Rick wants to monitor permissions and ownership changes of critical files on the Red Hat Linux system he is responsible for. What Linux tool can he use to do this?
auditctl. The audit package can provide this functionality. auditd runs as a service, and then auditctl is used to specifically call out the files or directories that will be monitored.
Fred needs to validate the MD5 checksum of a file on a Windows system but is not allowed to install any programs and cannot run files from external media or drives. What Windows utility can he use to get the MD5 hash of the file?
certutil. Modern versions of Windows include the built-in certutil utility. Running certutil -hashfile [file location] md5 will calculate the MD5 hash of a file. certutil also supports SHA1 and SHA256 as well as other less frequently used hashes. md5sum and sha1sum are Linux utilities, and hashcheck is a shell extension for Windows.
Alex suspects that an attacker has modified a Linux executable using static libraries. Which of the following Linux commands is best suited to determining whether this has occurred?
file. The Linux file command shows a file's format, encoding, what libraries it is linked to, and its file type (binary, ASCII text, etc.). Since Alex suspects that the attacker used statically linked libraries, the file command is the best command to use for this scenario. stat provides the last time accessed, permissions, UID and GID bit settings, and other details. It is useful for checking when a file was last used or modified but won't provide details about linked libraries. strings and grep are both useful for analyzing the content of a file and may provide Alex with other hints but won't be as useful as the file command for this purpose.
Lauren wants to create a backup of Linux permissions before making changes to the Linux workstation she is attempting to remediate. What Linux tool can she use to back up the permissions of an entire directory on the system?
getfacl. Linux provides a pair of useful ACL backup and restore commands: getfacl allows recursive backups of directories, including all permissions to a text file, and setfacl restores those permissions from the backup file. Both aclman and chbkup were made up for this question.
While checking for bandwidth consumption issues, Alex uses the ifconfig command on the Linux box that he is reviewing. He sees that the device has sent less than 4Gb of data, but his network flow logs show that the system has sent over 20Gb. What problem has Alex encountered?
ifconfig resets traffic counters at 4Gb. The traffic values captured by ifconfig reset at 4Gb of data, making it an unreliable means of assessing how much traffic a system has sent when dealing with large volumes of traffic. Alex should use an alternate tool designed specifically to monitor traffic levels to assess the system's bandwidth usage.
Which of the following commands is not useful for determining the list of network interfaces on a Linux system?
intf -q. ifconfig, netstat -i, and ip link show will all display a list of the network interfaces for a Linux system. The intf command is made up for this question.
Adam needs to determine the proper retention policy for his organization's incident data. If he wants to follow common industry practices and does not have specific legal or contractual obligations that he needs to meet, what time frame should he select?
1 to 2 years. Without other requirements in place, many organizations select a one- to two-year retention period. This allows enough time to use existing information for investigations but does not retain so much data that it cannot be managed. Regardless of the time period selected, organizations should set and consistently follow a retention policy.
NIST defines five major types of threat information types in NIST SP 800-150, "Guide to Cyber Threat Information Sharing." 1. Indicators, which are technical artifacts or observables that suggest an attack is imminent, currently underway, or compromise may have already occurred 2. Tactics, techniques, and procedures that describe the behavior of an actor 3. Security alerts like advisories and bulletins 4. Threat intelligence reports that describe actors, systems, and information being targeted and the methods being used 5. Tool configurations that support collection, exchange, analysis, and use of threat information Which of these should Frank seek out to help him best protect the midsize organization he works for against unknown threats?
1, 3, and 5. The more effort Frank puts into staying up-to-date with information by collecting threat information (5), monitoring for indicators (1), and staying up-to-date on security alerts (3), the stronger his organization's security will be. Understanding specific threat actors may become relevant if they specifically target organizations like Frank's, but as a midsize organization Frank's employer is less likely to be specifically targeted directly.
What is the minimum retention period for incident data for U.S. federal government agencies?
3 years. The U.S. National Archives General Records Schedule stipulates a three-year records retention period for incident-handling records.
Laura needs to create a secure messaging capability for her incident response team. Which of the following methods will provide her with a secure messaging tool?
A messaging application that uses the Signal protocol. The Signal protocol is designed for secure end-to-end messaging, and using a distinct messaging tool for incident response can be helpful to ensure that staff separate incident communication from day-to-day operations. Text messaging is not secure. Email with TLS enabled is encrypted only between the workstation and email server and may be exposed in plain text at rest and between other servers. A Jabber server with TLS may be a reasonable solution but is less secure than a Signal-based application.
When Charles arrived at work this morning, he found an email in his inbox that read, "Your systems are weak; we will own your network by the end of the week." How would he categorize this sign of a potential incident if he was using the NIST SP 800-61 descriptions of incident signs?
A precursor. NIST SP 800-61 categorizes signs of an incident into two categories, precursors and indicators. Precursors are signs that an incident may occur in the future. Since there is not an indicator that an event is in progress, this can be categorized as a precursor. Now Charles needs to figure out how he will monitor for a potential attack!
Chris wants to ensure that his chain of custody documentation will stand up to examination in court. Which of the following options will provide him with the best documentary proof of his actions?
A second examiner acting as a witness and countersigning all actions. A second forensic examiner who acts as a witness, countersigning all documentation and helping document all actions, provides both strong documentation and another potential witness in court. Independent forensic action, no matter how well documented, will not be as reliable as having a witness.
The organization that Alex works for classifies security related events using NIST's standard definitions. Which classification should he use when he discovers key logging software on one of his frequent business traveler's laptop?
A security incident. NIST describes events like this as security incidents because they are a violation or imminent threat of violation of security policies and practices. An adverse event is any event with negative consequences, and an event is any observable occurrence on a system or network.
After zero wiping a system's hard drive and rebuilding it with all security patches and trusted accounts, Lauren is notified that the system is once again showing signs of compromise. Which of the following types of malware package cannot survive this type of eradication effort?
A slack space-resident malware package. MBR-, UEFI-, and BIOS-resident malware packages can all survive a drive wipe, but hiding files in slack space will not survive a zero wipe. While these techniques are uncommon, they do exist and have been seen in the wild.
The system that Alice has identified as the source of beaconing traffic is one of her organization's critical e-commerce servers. To maintain her organization's operations, she needs to quickly restore the server to its original, uncompromised state. What criteria is most likely to be impacted the most by this action?
Ability to preserve evidence. If Alice focuses on a quick restoration, she is unlikely to preserve all of the evidence she would be able to during a longer incident response process. Since she is focusing on quick restoration, the service should be available more quickly, and the service and system should not be damaged in any significant way by the restoration process. The time required to implement the strategy will typically be less if she does not conduct a full forensic investigation and instead focuses on service restoration.
Charles needs to review the permissions set on a directory structure on a Window system he is investigating. Which Sysinternals tool will provide him with this functionality?
AccessEnum. The Sysinternals suite provides two tools for checking access, AccessEnum and AccessChk. AccessEnum is a GUI-based program that gives a full view of filesystem and registry settings and can display either files with permissions that are less restrictive than the parent or any files with permissions that differ from the parent. AccessChk is a command-line program that can check the rights a user or group has to resources.
Ben wants to coordinate with other organizations in the information security community to share data and current events as well as warnings of new security issues. What type of organization should he join?
An ISAC Information Sharing and Analysis Centers (ISACs) are information sharing and community support organizations that work within vertical industries like energy, higher education, and other business domains. Ben may choose to have his organization join an ISAC to share and obtain information about threats and activities that are particularly relevant to what his organization does. A CSIRT is a Computer Security Incident Response Team and tends to be hosted in a single organization, a VPAC is made up, and an IRT is an incident response team.
As the CISO of her organization, Jennifer is working on an incident classification scheme and wants to base her design on NIST's definitions. Which of the following options should she use to best describe a user accessing a file that they are not authorized to view?
An adverse event. NIST describes events with negative consequences as adverse events. It might be tempting to immediately call this a security incident; however, this wouldn't be classified that way until an investigation was conducted. If the user accidentally accessed the file, it would typically not change classification. Intentional or malicious access would cause the adverse event to become a security incident.
Scott needs to ensure that the system he just rebuilt after an incident is secure. Which type of scan will provide him with the most useful information to meet his goal?
An authenticated vulnerability scan from a trusted internal network Since Scott needs to know more about potential vulnerabilities, an authenticated scan from an internal network will provide him with the most information. He will not gain a real attacker's view, but in this case, having more detail is important!
During a forensic analysis of an employee's computer as part of a human resources investigation into misuse of company resources, Tim discovers a program called Eraser installed on the PC. What should Tim expect to find as part of his investigation?
Antiforensic activities. Eraser is a tool used to securely wipe files and drives. If Eraser is not typically installed on his organization's machines, Tim should expect that the individual being investigated has engaged in some antiforensic activities including wiping files that may have been downloaded or used against company policy. This doesn't mean he shouldn't continue his investigation, but he may want to look at Eraser's log for additional evidence of what was removed.
Jennifer is planning to deploy rogue access point detection capabilities for her network. If she wants to deploy the most effective detection capability she can, which of the following detection types should she deploy first?
Authorized SSID. In most cases, the first detection type Jennifer should deploy is a rogue SSID detection capability. This will help her reduce the risk of users connecting to untrusted SSIDs. She may still want to conduct scans of APs that are using channels they should not be, and of course her network should either use network access controls or scan for rogue MAC addresses to prevent direct connection of rogue APs and other devices.
While working to restore systems to their original configuration after a long-term APT compromise, Charles has three options: A. He can restore from a backup and then update patches on the system. B. He can rebuild and patch the system using original installation media and application software using his organization's build documentation. C. He can remove the compromised accounts and rootkit tools and then fix the issues that allowed the attackers to access the systems.
B. In cases where an advanced persistent threat (APT) has been present for an unknown period of time, backups should be assumed to be compromised. Since APTs often have tools that cannot be detected by normal anti-malware techniques, the best option that Charles has is to carefully rebuild the systems from the ground up and then ensure that they are fully patched and secured before returning them to service.
Cynthia wants to build scripts to detect malware beaconing behavior. Which of the following is not a typical means of identifying malware beaconing behavior on a network?
Beacon protocol. Unless she already knows the protocol that a particular beacon uses, filtering out beacons by protocol may cause her to miss beaconing behavior. Attackers want to dodge common analytical tools and will use protocols that are less likely to attract attention. Filtering network traffic for beacons based on the intervals and frequency they are sent at, if the beacon persists over time, and removing known traffic are common means of filtering traffic to identify beacons.
During a forensic investigation, Steve records information about each drive, including where it was acquired, who made the forensic copy, the MD5 hash of the drive, and other details. What term describes the process Steve is using as he labels evidence with details of who acquired and validated it?
Chain of custody. The chain of custody for evidence is maintained by logging and labeling evidence. This ensures that the evidence is properly controlled and accessed.
Jessica wants to access a macOS FileVault 2-encrypted drive. Which of the following methods is not a possible means of unlocking the volume?
Change the FileVault key using a trusted user account. FileVault does allow trusted accounts to unlock the drive but not by changing the key. FileVault 2 keys can be recovered from memory for mounted volumes and much like BitLocker, it suggests that users record their recovery key, so Jessica may want to ask the user or search their office or materials if possible. Finally, FileVault keys can be recovered from iCloud, providing her with a third way to get access to the drive.
Charles believes that an attacker may have added accounts and attempted to obtain extra rights on a Linux workstation. Which of the following is not a common way to check for unexpected accounts like this?
Check /home/ for new user directories. It is unlikely that skilled attackers will create a new home directory for an account they want to hide. Checking /etc/password and /etc/shadow for new accounts is a quick way to detect unexpected accounts, and checking both the sudoers and membership in wheel and other high privilege groups can help Charles detect unexpected accounts with increased privileges.
While reviewing his OSSEC SIEM logs, Chris notices the following entries. What should his next action be if he wants to quickly identify the new user's creation date and time?
Check auth.log for a new user. Both auth.log and /etc/passwd may show evidence of the new user, but auth.log will provide details, while Chris would need to have knowledge of which users existed prior to this new user being added. Chris will get more useful detail by checking auth.log.
Chris wants to prevent evil twin attacks from working on his wireless network. Which of the following is not a useful method for detecting evil twins?
Check the SSID.
After Janet's attempts to conceal her downloads of important corporate information were discovered, forensic investigators learned that she frequently copied work files to a USB drive. Which of the following is not a possible way to manually check her Windows workstation for a list of previously connected USB drives?
Check the user's profile. Windows systems record new device connections in the security audit log if configured to do so. In addition, information is collected in both the setupapi log file and in the registry, including information on the device, its serial number, and often manufacturer and model details. The user's profile does not include device information.
Chris wants to run John the Ripper against a Linux system's passwords. What does he need to attempt password recovery on the system?
Chris needs both /etc/passwd and /etc/shadow for John to crack the passwords. While only hashes are stored, John the Ripper includes built-in brute-force tools that will crack the passwords.