microbiology test 1
Identify the 4 most common forms of conidia?
1.) chlamydospore 2.) blastospore 3.) phialospore 4.) arthrospore
What media are commonly used to cultivate fungi?
1.) sabourauds agar 2.) blood agar 3.) cornmeal agar
____ are asexual spored enclosed in a sac, whereas ____ are free asexual spore not enclosed in a sac
1.) sporangiospore 2.) condia
typically, endospores are how much harder to kill than vegetative bacteria
18X
All non-heat resistant forms of bacteria, yeasts, molds, protozoa, worms and viruses are destroyed by exposure to 80οC for which minimum amount of time?
20 minutes
What is mesophiles optimum temperature?
20-40 degrees , most human pathogens
Approximately what percent of infections involve biofilms?
60%
The temperatures used in incineration must usually be above what?
800 degrees C
A(n) ________ vector is not necessary to the life cycle of an infectious agent and merely transport it without being infected. A.) mechanical B.) biological C.) euclidean D.) line
A
An infection characterized by high fever and severe gastrointestinal symptoms followed by rapid death, first observed in 2013, was caused by the A.) Ebola virus B.) HIV C.) avian influenza virus. D.) zika virus
A
Bacitracin is an antibiotic with which spectra of activity? A.) narrow B.) selective C.) visible D.) broad
A
Lysosomes digest which of the following in the bacterial cell wall? A.) peptidoglycans B.) lipopolysaccharides C.) teichoic acids D.) phospholipids
A
Nystatin is used orally to treat which of the following? A.) Candidiasis B.) Cryptococcus meningitis C.) Subcutaneous fungal infections D.) ringworm
A
The ______ is the time period where a patient is recovering from an infection. A.) convalescent period B.) prodromal stage C.) period of invasion D.) incubation period
A
The number of persons in a population who are afflicted with a particular disease is referred to as the ______ rate. A.) morbidity B.) prevalence C.) mortality
A
The production of beta-lactamases is responsible for which of the following? A.) Drug inactivation B.) Changes in metabolic patterns C.) Decreased drug permeability D.) Change of drug receptors
A
Which "formation" is produced by some microbes which in turn makes them resistant to some antimicrobial compounds and the shear force of moving liquids? A.) biofilm B.) L-form C.) capsule D.) fimbre
A
Which aminoglycoside is especially useful in treating Pseudomonas infections in cystic fibrosis patients? A.) Tobramycin B.) Gentamicin C.) Streptomycin D.) Amikacin
A
Which base is a major component of detergents and cleansers? A.) ammonium hydroxide B.) ammonium sulfate C.) sodium nitrate D.) sodium chloride
A
Which drug is any agent used in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease? A.) chemotherapeutic B.) narrow-spectrum C.) broad- spectrum D.) antibiotic
A
Which is the mechanism used by multidrug-resistant (MDR) pumps to expel antimicrobial drugs and other toxic substances from a bacterial cell? A.) Proton-motive force similar to ATP synthesis B.) Inhibition of enzymes involved in uptake C.) Negative feedback D.) Exocytosis
A
Which microbial agent is the most resistant to physical and chemical control methods? A.) Bacterial endospores B.) mycobacterium cells C.) protozoan cysts D.) fungal spores
A
Which of the following antifungal drugs has potentially serious side effects that limit its use to only persistent dermatophyte infections? A.) Griseofulvin B.) Echinocandins C.) Flucytosine D.) Amphotericin B
A
Which of the following bacteria could exhibit phototaxis? A.) photosynthetic bacteria B.) escherichia coli C.) staphylococcus aureus D.) Helicobacter pylori
A
Which of the following exoenzymes is responsible for breaking down the fibers in connective tissue? A.) Collagenase B.) Streptokinase C.) Coagulase D.) Mucinase E.) Hyaluronidase F.) Keratinase
A
Which of the following involves serially diluting an antibiotic in order to determine the susceptibility of a test bacterium to the drug? A.) tube dilution B.) Etest C.) acid fast D.) Kirby-Bauer
A
Which of the following is a macrolide antibiotic that is composed of a lactone ring? A.) Erythromycin B.) Tetracycline C.) Chloramphenicol D.) penicillin
A
Which of the following is a type of non-ionizing radiation? A.) UV rays B.) x-rays C.) high speed electrons D.) cathode rays E.) gamma rays
A
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal antimicrobial drug? A.) replaces hosts own defenses B.) longevity C.) inexpensive D.) selective to infection agen E.) microbial
A
Which of the following is the consequence of exposure of a bacterium to an antibiotic that inhibits cell wall synthesis? A.) sporulation B.) cell division C.) stasis D.) cell lysis
A
Which of the following structures is external and can protect the bacterial cells from various host immune responses? A.) Capsule B.) Cell membrane C.) Cell wall D.) Flagella
A
Which of the following vegetative bacterial cells is more resistant to moist heat? A.) staphylococcus aureus B.) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
A
Which of the pressure/temperature combinations is the most efficient for autoclaving? A.) 15 psi and 121 degrees C B.) 30 psi and 132 degrees C C.) 50 psi and 212 degrees C D.) 45 psi and 100 degrees C
A
Which structure is not found in protozoa? A.) cell wall B.) cell Membrane C.) nucleus
A
______ is the presence of multiplying microbes in circulating blood. A.) Septicemia B.) Viremia C.) Bacteremia D.) Leukocytosis E.) Leukopenia
A
The flash method of pasteurization is used to remove which species of bacteria from liquids? A.) Mycobacterium B.) Coxiella C.) Proteus D.) Staphylococcus
A, B
The primary targets of microbial control are microorganisms that cause which of the following? A.) food spoilage B.) disease C.) microbial antagonism D.) antibiotic production
A, B
Tyndallization, or intermittent sterilization, should not be used to process which of the following? A.) bandages and dressings B.) medical instruments C.) heat-sensitive media
A, B
What are the main effects of ionizing radiation on cellular targets? A.) possible production of toxins B.) damage to DNA C.) damage to LPS layer
A, B
When these two drugs are used in combination nephrotoxic effects are increased. A.) penicillins B.) cephalosporins C.) macrolides D.) polyenes
A, B
Which of the following semisynthetic penicillins are useful in treating infections caused by penicillinase-producing bacteria? A.) Cloxacillin B.) Nafcillin C.) Streptomycin D.) Piperacillin E.) Erythromycin F.) Penicillin G
A, B
Which two of the following antibiotics are used to treat tuberculosis? A.) Ethambutol B.) Isoniazid C.) Penicillin G or V D.) Bacitracin E.) Neomycin
A, B
Dry heat works in which of the following ways? A.) oxidizing the cell to ashes B.) alters protein structure C.) dehydrating the cell D.) destroying the cell wall
A, B, C
Metronidazole is used to treat which of the following protozoan pathogens? A.) Entamoeba histolytica B.) Trichomonas vaginalis C.) Giardia lamblia D.) Candida albicans E.) Plasmodium
A, B, C
Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole are used in combination to treat which of the following conditions? A.)Urinary tract infections B.) Pneumocystis pneumonia C.) Otitis media D.) Tuberculosis E.) Heart valve infections F.) Staphylococcal infections
A, B, C
Which of the following devices emits ionizing rays? A.) Cathode ray machines B.) Gamma ray machines C.) X-ray machines D.) Ultraviolet lamps
A, B, C
What factors make the human body a favorable environment for a wide range of microbes? A.) temperature B.) source of nourishment C.) moisture D.) surface area E.) dryness F.) immune system
A, B, C, D
Which of the following describes the cephalosporins? A.) Most resistant to penicillinase B.) Most administered parenterally C.) Most injected into a muscle or a vein D.) Broad-spectrum E.) Narrow-spectrum F.) Most taken orally
A, B, C, D
Metronidazole is used to treat which of the following protozoan pathogens? A.) Giardia lamblia B.) Trichomonas vaginalis C.) Plasmodium D.) Entamoeba histolytica E.) Candida albicans
A, B, D
Which microbes produce a capsule or slime to physically prevent phagocytosis? A.) Cryptococcus neoformans B.) Streptococcus pneumoniae C.) Legionella pneumophila D.) Salmonella typhi
A, B, D
Which of the following are side effects associated with antimicrobial drugs? A.) Allergic reactions B.) Damage to host tissues due to toxicity C.) Host cell metabolism of drug D.) Disruption of normal microflora
A, B, D
Which of the following are the main drawbacks to heavy metals? A.) Cause allergies B.) Microbial resistance C.) Cause skin to yellow D.) Can be toxic if inhaled E.) Cause weight gain
A, B, D
Which of the following are the three factors that should be known before selecting an antimicrobial drug? A.) The nature of the infecting agent B.) The overall health of the patient C.) The prevalence of the infecting agent in the community D.) The sensitivity of the infecting agent E.) The patient's prior history of exposure to the infecting agent
A, B, D
Which of the following diseases is controlled by clindamycin? A.) Drug-resistant staphylococcal infections B.) Acne C.) Drug-resistant tuberculosis D.) Intestinal infections caused by anaerobes
A, B, D
Which of the following pathogens compose the acronym for STORCH? A.) Syphilis B.) Cytomegalovirus C.) Rabies D.) Rubella E.) Toxoplasmosis F.) Staphylococcus species
A, B, D E,
Which are the roles of fungal spores? A.) survival B.) genetic variability C.) budding process D.) dissemination E.) reproduction F.) drug resistance
A, B, D, E
Which of the following may be included in the sticky matrix formed by the colonists in a biofilm? A.) Fimbriae B.) Pili C.) Plasma membranes D.) Slime layers E.) Ribosomes F.) Capsules
A, B, D, F
Antimicrobial agents affect microbial DNA in what ways? Multiple select question. A.) inhibit replication B.) cause mutations C.) stop peptide bond formation D.) break double helix E.) prevent transcription
A, B, E
Which are antiviral drugs used to treat influenza? A.) Tamiflu B.) Relenza C.) Nystatin D.) Bacitracin E.) Xofluza
A, B, E
Which of the following are strategies that can help limit drug resistance of microorganisms? A.) Patients must comply with physicians guidelines when taking antibiotics B.) Physicians should prescribe antibiotics carefully by choosing narrow-spectrum agents when possible C.) Research should focus on longer course antibiotics that are more effective at lower doses D.) Physicians should prescribe antibiotics to combat illness immediately E.) Research should focus on developing shorter term, higher-dose antibiotics
A, B, E
Which of the following structures are essential to all prokaryotic cells? A.) cell membrane B.) chromosome(s) C.) capsule D.) cell wall E.) ribosomes F.) flagella
A, B, E
Which of the following are nucleotide analogs that blocks DNA replication in some viruses, particularly the herpes simplex viruses (HHV)? A.) Famciclovir B.) Acyclovir C.) Relenza D.) Xofluza E.) Valcyclovir F.) Penicyclovir
A, B, E, F
Which of the following characteristics describes coliform bacteria? A.) facultative anaerobe B.) gram negative C.) mannitol fermenting D.) gram positive bacilli E.) strict anaerobe F.) lactose fermenting
A, B, F
Contaminants that can have far-reaching effects if not adequately controlled include which of the following? A.) fungal hyphae and spores B.) autoclaved endospores C.) bacterial vegetative cells
A, C
Resistance to which of the following drugs develops when microbes deviate from the usual pathway that leads to the production of folic acid? A.) Trimethoprim B.) Aminoglycosides C.) Sulfonamides D.) Erythromycin E.) Cephalosporins
A, C
The human body usually supports resident biota in which of the following areas? A.) tissues with contact to outside B.) Solid internal organs and tissues C.) Body fluids in exposed body cavities D.) Internal body fluids
A, C
Which of the following are aminoglycosides that insert on sites of the 30S subunit and cause the misreading of the mRNA? A.) Streptomycin B.) Penicillin C.) Gentamicin D.) Tetracyclines
A, C
Which of the following microbes can be engulfed by phagocytes but are able to survive further destruction? A.) Mycobacterium tuberculosis B.) Cryptococcus neoformans C.) Legionella pneumophila D.) Streptococcus pneumoniae E.) Salmonella typhi
A, C
which of the following are characteristics found among both eukaryotes and prokaryotes? A.) they may possess a cell wall B.) they lack a nucleus enclosed in a nuclear membrane C.) they possess chromosomes D.) They have phospholipids in their cell membrane
A, C, D
Acids and alkalis are commonly used for which of the following? A.) household cleaning B.) degermation of skin C.) disinfection of drinking water D.) food preservation E.) disinfection of medical equipment
A, D
Advantages of semisynthetic penicillins over natural penicillins include which of the following? A.) Increased movement across gram-negative cell walls B.) Increased susceptibility to penicillinases C.) Decreased allergic reactions D.) Increased spectrum
A, D
The advantages of ionizing radiation include which of the following? A.) rapid results B.) ease of use in household C.) safety for operators D.) high penetration power
A, D
The microbial agents that are least resistant to physical and chemical control methods include which of the following? A.) enveloped viruses B.) protozoan cysts C.) bacterial endospores D.) bacterial vegetative cells
A, D
Which are goals of pasteurization? A.)Retention of liquid qualities B.) Sterilization of liquid C.) Destruction of endospores D.) Reduction of microbial load
A, D
Which of the following microbial forms are relatively resistant to heat? A.) viruses B.) vegetative cells C.) fungi D.) endospores
A, D
In most cases, pathogens leave the host via the portal of exit through: A.) Sloughing B.) Filtration C.) Adhesion D.) Secretion E.) Discharge F.) Diffusion G.) Excretion
A, D, E, G
Identify two antiparasitic agents that disable several stages of roundworm development by blocking the utilization of glucose. A.) Mebendazole B.) Niclosamide C.) Pyrantel D.) Piperazine E.) Thiabendazole F.) Praziquantel
A, E
Which of the following are not found in all prokaryotic cells? A.) capsule B.) cytoplasm C.) fimbriae D.) cell wall E.) ribosomes
A,C,D
A sterille object is free of what?
All viable microorganisms and viruses
Two major problems for treatment with penicillin are that some patients experience are what?
Allergic responses Resistant strains of pathogens
What is the glycocalyx?
An extracellular coating that provides protection to the cell
Erythromycin blocks protein synthesis by which method?
Attaching to the 50S subunit of the ribosome
twisting or flexing of spirochete bacteria is attributed to which of the following?
Axial filaments
A(n) ________ disease is an infectious disease that is present in a population at a relatively steady frequency over a long period of time. A.) pandemic B.) endemic C.) sporadic D.) epidemic
B
An infectious disease with a prevalence greater than expected for a population is said to be ______. A.) endemic B.) an epidemic C.) pandemic D.) sporadic
B
Antimicrobial drugs that block bacterial protein synthesis could also affect which of the following in the host cell? A.) cell wall, if present B.) eukaryotic mitochondria C.) cell membrane D.) DNA replication
B
Biological agents that can cause disease in healthy people with normal immune defenses are known as ________ pathogens. A.) opportunistic B.) true C.) virulent D.) secondary
B
Disinfection destroys which of the following? A.) only viruses B.) only vegetative cells C.) bacterial cells and endospores D.) all types of microorganisms
B
Griseofulvin is which type of agent? A.) antibacterial B.) anti fungal C.) antiviral
B
Identify the organic acid that is commonly incorporated into breads to retard molds. A.) lactic acid B.) propionic acid C..) benzoic acid D.) acetic acid
B
Metronidazole is classified as which type of agent? A.) antifungal B.) amoebicide C.) antihelminthic D.) antibacterial
B
Most microbial cells can produce which of the following to inactivate hydrogen peroxide? A.) coagulase B.) catalase C.) water D.) oxygen E.) carbons dioxide
B
Most of the microbes that live in soil or water are classified as ______. A.) pathogenic B.) saprobic C.) erythrogenic D.) photosynthetic E.) autotrophs
B
The use of a drug to prevent imminent infection of a person at risk is called which of the following? A.) antagonism B.) prophylaxis C.) antibiotic D.) chemotherapy
B
What type of molecule is acyclovir? A.) Sugar analog B.) Nucleotide analog C.) Fatty acid analog D.) Amino acid analog
B
When a broad-spectrum cephalosporin antibiotic is given to a patient with a UTI infection caused by E. coli, one possible side effect is a vaginal infection caused by which fungus? A.) Aspergillus sp. B.) Candida albicans C.) Penicillium sp. D.) Fusarium sp.
B
When is an infant first exposed to normal biota beyond the early resident microbiota present in uterine tissues? A.) Handling by medical personnel B.) Rupturing of the fetal membranes C.) The umbilical cord is cut D.) Passage through the birth canal
B
Which cell wall inhibitor is typically used to treat staphylococcal infections that are resistant to penicillin and methicillin? A.) Erythromycin B.) Vancomycin C.) Amoxicillin D.) Streptomycin
B
Which cell wall inhibitor is typically used to treat staphylococcal infections that are resistant to penicillin and methicillin? A.) Streptomycin B.) Vancomycin C.) Erythromycin D.) Amoxicillin
B
Which general area of the body does NOT support resident biota? A.) Body fluids in exposed body cavities B.) Internal body fluids C.) Tissues with contact to the outside D.) The skin and external mucosa
B
Which is descriptive of L-forms? A.) Resistant to tetracycline B.) Resistant to penicillin C.) Resistant to chloramphenicol D.) Resistant to erythromycin
B
Which of the following TIs would be the riskier choice? A.) 10 B.) 1.1 C.) 2.2 D.) 8.8
B
Which of the following are generally more precise? A.) symptoms B.) signs
B
Which of the following bacteria use their flagella to invade mucus membranes and cause infections? A.)Bacillus anthracis B.) heliobacter pylori C.) vibrio cholerae D.) streptococcus pneumoniae
B
Which of the following cancers are not treated with interferon? A.) Hepatitis C B.) Hodgkin's lymphoma C.) Hairy-cell leukemia D.) Kaposi's sarcoma E.) Genital warts
B
Which of the following intestinal microbes is not a member of the coliform group? A.) Citrobacter B.) Bifidobacterium C.) Escherichia D.) Enterobacter
B
Which of the following is an inclusive term for any drug used to fight infection, regardless of its causative agent? A.) antigenic B.) antimicrobial C.) antibiotic D.) antiviral E.) anti fungal
B
Which of the following is an overwhelming allergic reaction to antigen that develops quickly and leads to severe respiratory and cardiac complication? A.) asthma B.) anaphylaxis C.) inflammation D.) complement
B
Which of the following techniques is an agar diffusion test to determine antibiotic susceptibility of a particular bacterial strain? A.) Sanger method B.) Kirby-Bauer C.) therapeutic index D.) southern blot
B
Which of the following viruses is the most resistant to heat? A.) adenoviruses B.) Hep A
B
Which type of epidemic occurs when all cases come from exposure to the same source which continues to infect others over time, such as from a restaurant worker with poor hygiene? A.) point-source epidemic B.) common- source epidemic C.) propagated epidemic
B
Which type of toxins have effects on a specific cell type? A.) endotoxins B.) exotoxins
B
can be characterized as any deviation from the healthy state. A.) inflammation B.) disease C.) pathology D.) infection
B
peptidoglycan is a component of the cell wall of which of the following organisms? A.) archaea B.) bacteria C.) protozoans D.) fungi
B
which describes most protozoa? A.) pathogenic B.) nonpathogenic
B
Which of the following are not found in all prokaryotic cells? A.) ribosomes B.) cell wall C.) fimbriae D.) cytoplasm E.) capsule
B , C, E
Antibiotics that disrupt nucleic acid synthesis do so by targeting components of which processes? A.) folic acid pathway B.) transcription C.) DNA replication D.) cell wall synthesis E.) translation
B, C
Interferons are useful compounds against which of the following? A.) helminths B.) viruses C.) cancers D.) bacteria
B, C
Which of the following antibiotics affect the integrity of the cell wall of bacteria , thereby making them susceptible to lysis? A.) Erythromycin B.) penicillin C.) cephalosporin D.) tetracycline
B, C
Which of the following are examples of systemic infections, or those that spread to several sites and tissue fluids, usually in the bloodstream? A.) an infected cut B.) AID C.) typhoid fever D.) a wart E.) a boil
B, C
Which two factors determine the virulence of a particular pathogen? A.) The number in the inoculating dose B.) Its ability to cause damage to the host tissues C.) Its ability to establish itself in the host D.) The degree of immune system involvement in the infection E.) The overall health of the infected person
B, C
Which of the following are known to cause superinfections? A.) penicillin G B.) Clindamycin C.) Cephalosporin D.) Tetracyclines
B, C, D
Which of the following are not internal components of a prokaryotic cell? A.) cytoskeleton B.) glycocalyx C.) fimbriae D.) pili E.) endospore F.) inclusions G.)ribosomes
B, C, D
Which factors can influence the action of antimicrobial agents? A.) motility of the organisms B.) temperature of the environment C.) presence of interfering matter D.) O2 concentration of environment E.) microbial load
B, C, E
Great numbers of antibiotics are derived from which of the following fungal genera? A.) asperigillus B.) cephalosporin C.) streptomyces D.) penicillium
B, D
Which of the following fungal infections can be controlled with ketoconazole? A.) Aspergillosis B.) Vaginal and oral candidiasis C.) Cryptococcus meningitis D.) Cutaneous mycoses
B, D
Identify the three major modes of action of antiviral drugs. A.) Blocking incorporation of virus DNA into host genome B.) Blocking virus transcription and translation C.) Blocking virus binding to host cell receptors D.) Barring virus penetration into host cell E.) Preventing virus maturation
B, D, E
Which are examples of using moist heat to sterilize or disinfect materials? A.) incineration B.) autoclaving C.) hot air oven D.) boiling E.) pasteurization
B, D, E
Which of the following are synthetic antimicrobial drugs? A.) Streptomycin B.) Azoles C.) Penicillins D.) Quinolones E.) Quinines
B, D, E
True or false: Most cephalosporins are administered orally. A.) DNA polymerase B.) Penicillinase C.) Gamma interferon D.) Lipase E.) Beta-lactamase
B, E
Yellow acridine dyes are used for which of the following? A.) water treatment B.) antisepsis C.) air treatment D.) format disinfection E.) wound treatment
B, E
Which of the following are not internal components of a prokaryotic cell? A.) cytoskeleton b.) glycocalyx c.) endospore d.) inclusions e.) ribosomes f.) fimbriae g.) pili
B,F,G
What forms a complex association of microorganisms that grow on a surface or tissue matrix?
Biofilm
A bacterial toxin that is not ordinarily released but instead is an integral part of gram-negative cell walls is called a(n) ______. A.) toxoid B.) enterotoxins C.) endotoxin D.) exotoxin E.) exoenzyme
C
A live animal that transmits an infectious agent from one host to another is called a(n) ______. A.) sequela B.) portal C.) vector D.) carrier
C
A(n) ______ infection invades many compartments and organs via the bloodstream. A.) mixed B.) focal C.) systemic D.) localized E.) acute
C
A(n) ______ vector actively participates in the life cycle of the pathogen. A.) line B.) mechanical C.) biological D.) euclidean
C
Capsules and slime layers are both types of which of the following? A.) Protein B.) Cells C.) Glycocalyx
C
Clarithromycin controls infections and ulcers caused by which of the following bacteria? A.) Clostridium difficile B.) Proteus vulgaris C.) Helicobacter pylori D.) Escherichia coli
C
If an agent is transferred from an infected person to another person without an intermediate object, substance or space, it is said to be ______ transmission. A.) vehicle B.) indirect C.) contact D.) fomite
C
Microbes that occupy the human body for only short periods are called A.) indigenous B.) commensals C.) transients D.) colonists
C
Pathogens that do not usually cause disease unless the host's immune system is weakened or compromised in some way are known as _________ pathogens. A.) virulent B.) true C.) opportunistic D.) primary
C
Rifampin is used mainly to treat infections caused by which of the following? A.) Gram-negative bacteria B.) fungi C.) Gram-positive bacteria D.) protozoa
C
The rupture of the fetal membranes first exposes the fetus to _____ from the mother. A.) respiratory gases B.) red blood cells C.) normal microbiota
C
The term ______ infection is used to refer to the initial infection in a previously healthy individual, which can later be complicated by an additional infection caused by a different microbe. A.) focal B.) secondary C.) primary D.) systemic E.) localized
C
The time period during a clinical infection when the infectious agent multiplies at high levels and exhibits its greatest toxicity is known as the ______. A.) prodromal stage B.) convalescent period C.) incubation period D.) period of invasion
C
The time period from the initial contact with an infectious agent to the appearance of the first symptoms is known as the ______. A.) convalescent period B.) period of invasion C.) incubation period D.) prodromal stage
C
These antibiotics are amino sugars linked to 6-carbon rings. A.) Macrolides B.) Penicillins C.) Aminoglycosides D.) Tetracyclines E.) Quinolones
C
Which HIV enzyme is responsible for incorporating the viral DNA into the host cell's chromosomes? A.) protease B.) reverse transcriptase C.) integrase D.) RNA polymerase
C
Which anti-influenza medication blocks the initiation of viral RNA synthesis? A.) Relenza B.) Tamiflu C.) Xofluza
C
Which of the following aminoglycosides is still the antibiotic of choice for treating bubonic plague and tularemia? A.) Kanamycin B.) Amikacin C.) Streptomycin D.) Gentamicin E.) Tobramycin
C
Which of the following describes a cluster of flagella emerging from the same site? A.) amphitrichous B.) monotrichous C.) lophotrichous
C
Which of the following drugs inhibits transcription? A.) Gentamycin B.) Sparfloxacin C.) Rifampin D.) Cipro
C
Which of the following is NOT a common site for health-care-associated infections? A.) skin B.) GI tract C.) brain and nerves D.) urniary tract E.) respiratory tract
C
Which of the following is NOT a means by which pathogens enter the skin? A.) bites of other organisms B.) Digestive enzymes of microorganisms creating a passageway C.) Diffusion across the stratum corneum D.) breaks in the skin E.) contaminated needles
C
Which of the following is not a function of ectoplasm in protozoa A.) protection B.) locomotion C.) reproduction D.) feeding
C
Which of the following structures is external and can protect the bacterial cell from various host immune responses? A.) cell wall B.) flagella C.) capsule D.) cell membrane
C
Which root indicates the ability to kill microorganisms? A.) static B.) stasis C.) cide
C
Which type of infection has occurred when an infectious agent comes from a single source and affects many individuals nearly simultaneously, as when everyone at a barbecue becomes ill? A.) common-source epidemic B.) propagated epidemic C.) point-source epidemic
C
Great numbers of antibiotics are derived from which of the following bacterial genera? A.) streptococcus B.) Penicillium C.) streptomyces D.) bacillus
C, D
Which of the following can cause permanent inactivation of microbial DNA? A.) ethylene oxide B.) formaldehyde C.) gamma rays D.) UV rays
C, D
Which of the following genera produce aminoglycosides? A.) Bacillus B.) Neisseria C.) Micromonospora D.) Streptomyces
C, D
Which two semisynthetic penicillins can be used against Gram-negative bacteria? A.) Dicloxacillin B.) Nafcillin C.) Amoxicillin D.) Ampicillin
C, D
The main portals of entry include ______. A.) lymphatic vessels B.) bloodstream C.) respiratory tracy D.) urogenital tract E.) skin F.) GI tract
C, D, E, F
Antibiotic-associated colitis is caused by which of the following bacteria? A.) Salmonella enteritidis B.) Clostridium botulinum C.) Escherichia coli D.) Clostridium difficile
D
Clarithromycin and azithromycin belong to which group of drugs? A.) Tetracyclines B.) Beta-lactams C.) Cephalosporins D.) Macrolides
D
Ingestion of a bacterial toxin causes a toxinosis known as ________. A.) endotoxic shock B.) toxemia C.) heolysis D.) intoxication
D
Moist heat works mostly by which of the following ways? A.) destoying of the cell wall B.) dehydrating the cell C.) oxidizing the cell to ashes D.) denaturing proteins
D
Polymyxins interact with which of the following membrane component(s), causing leakage of cellular contents? A.) cholesterol B.) glycolipids C.) lipoproteins D.) Phospholipids
D
Spread of a toxin from the site of infection through the blood is ________. A.) endotoxic shock B.) intoxication C.) hemolysis D.) toxemia
D
The Kirby-Bauer technique is not recommended for which bacterium? A.) Streptococcus pyogenes B.) Escherichia coli C.) Staphylococcus aureus D.) Mycobacterium sp.
D
The broad-spectrum quinolones inhibit which of the following? A.) sterols B.) DNA polymerase C.) phospholipids D.) helicase
D
The presence of type IV pili cause a type of twitching movement in bacteria of which of the following genera? A.) Staphylococcus B.) Yersinia C.) Escherichia D.) Pseudomonas
D
The spread of an epidemic across continents is said to be a(n) ______. A.) epidemic B.) endemic C.) sporadic D.) pandemic
D
What structural difference is found in gram-positive cells but not in gram-negative cells? A.) Plasma membrane B.) peptidoglycan C.) outer membrane D.) single cell membrane
D
Which is not an advantage of glutaraldehyde? A.) It continues to work in the presence of organic matter. B.) It is reliably sporicidal. C.) It can be used on plastics. D.) It is highly stable in the environment.
D
Which of the following antibiotics attaches to the 50S subunit of the ribosome in a way that prevents the formation of peptide bonds and blocks protein synthesis? A.) streptomycin B.) penicillin C.) gentamicin D.) chloramphenicol
D
Which of the following devices would not be used for dry heat conditions? A.) flame B.) oven C.) electric heating coil D.) autoclave
D
Which of the following is a term used to describe the reduction of microbial load on living tissues through mechanical means (e.g., using a scrubbing brush)? A.) asepsis B.) sterilization C.) disinfection D.) Degermation
D
What is a major side effect of tetracyclines?
Deposition in hard tissues
Infectious diseases that are acquired or develop during a stay in a medical facility are known as ______ infections. A.) secondary B.) primary C.) mixed D.) polymicrobial E.) healthcare-associated
E
Which of the following are antimicrobials that block the folic acid pathway in bacteria? A.) Penicillins B.) Isoniazids C.) Tetracyclines D.) Fosfomycin E.) Sulfonamides
E
Which of the following is a normal human glycoprotein produced in response to immune stimuli and can be used therapeutically to fight viruses and cancer? A.) Reverse transcriptase B.) insulin C.) complement D.) porin E.) interferon
E
What is the name given to the liquid fraction within amoeba that contains granular materials?
Endoplasm
Where are microorganisms found?
Everywhere and anywhere
As the volume of a solution to be autoclaved increases, what must also happen? A.) durations deceases B.) temp decrease C.) temp increases D.) pressure decreases E.) pressure increases F.) duration increases
F
True or false: The most effective drugs that treat infections caused by flukes, tapeworms, and roundworms eradicate the adult stages of the organisms.
False
True or false: bacteria have cilia
False: they can have fimbriae
What separates a gram negative from a gram positive bacteria?
Gram negative: has an outer cell membrane and a thin layer of peptidoglycan Gram positive: does not have an outer layer and has a thick layer of peptidoglycan
The exoenzyme that digests the main protein component in skin and hair is called ___
Keratinase
What term is used to describe bacteria lacking cell walls?
L-form
What are the 5 phylum of fungal classifications?
Phylum zygomycota: zygospores; mostly sporangiospores and some conidia Phylum ascomycota: ascospores; conidia Phylum basidiamycota: basidiospore; conidia Phylum chytridomycota: flagellated spores imperfect: fungi that produce only asexual spores
The concentration and action of the agent and the ____ and ____of the environment are factors which may influence the action of antimicrobial agents.
Temperature pH
What is the lag phase of the population growth curve?
The "flat" period of adjustment, enlargement: little growth
What is taxonomy?
The science of organizing, classifying, and naming living organisms
Which of the following is the ratio of the toxic dose to the effective dose that is used to assess the safety and reliability of the drug?
Therapeutic index
What is the log/ exponential phase of the population growth curve?
This is where there is maximum growth and adequate nutrients and a favorable environment
Which tetracycline is being used in hospitals to treat MRSA infections? A.) Minocycline B.) Aureomycin C.) Doxycycline D.) Tigecycline
Tigecycline
What is identification?
Traits of organisms for placement into taxonomic schemes
True or False: Helminths range in size from 1mm to 25 m
True
True or false: An infection indigenous to animals but naturally transmissible to humans is called a zoonosis.
True
True or false: Antiviral drugs prevent penetration into a host cell, block transcription and translation, and prevent maturation of viral particles.
True
True or false: Ionizing radiation causes damage to DNA.
True
True or false: Tetracyclines can be used to treat infections caused by mycoplasmas.
True
Neisseria gonorrhoeae binds to the epithelial cells of the reproductive tract by means of what?
Type IV pili
______ radiation is most lethal from 240nm to 280nm.
UV
What is the stationary phase of the population growth curve?
Where the rate of growth equals the rate of death; has depleted nutrients and O2
___ or alkalis are limited in their application by their corrosive and hazardous nature.
acids
An infection characterized by rapid onset with severe but short-lived effects is a(n) ___ infection
acute
What does a definitive host harbor?
adult stages
___ are suspensions of fine dust or moisture in the air that contain live pathogens, whereas droplets are dried microscopic residues ejected from the mouth and nose.
aerosols
What is a common concern when physicians prescribe a new drug to patients for the second time?
allergic response
What is classification?
an orderly arrangement into groups
microbial ___ is the situation in which microorganisms compete for survival in a common environment and where resident microorganisms take actions that inhibit or destroy intruder microorganisms.
antagonism
The Etest uses a(n) __ gradient
antibiotic
What is a substance produced by natural metabolic processes of some microorganisms that can inhibit or kill other microorganisms?
antibiotic
____ chemotherapy is the use of chemotherapeutic drugs to control infections and diseases caused by many types of microorganisms.
antimicrobial
Which type of spores are used in the laboratory to identify fungi?
asexual spores
What is nomenclature?
assigning names
an ____ filament is a periplasmic flagellum found in some spirochete bacteria
axial
What is psychrophiles optimum temperature?
below 15 degrees C, but capable of growth at 0 degrees C
Bacteria that form ___ are difficult to control because the buildup of cells makes it difficult to for the antibiotic to reach a majority of the cells.
biofilms
Which of the following is a recommended method for disinfecting unsafe drinking water?
boiling
Pregnant women should avoid taking tetracyclines because these drugs can cross the placenta and affect fetal ___ and ___
bones teeth
An antibiotic that is effective against a wide variety of microbial types is called a(n) ___ spectrum antibiotic
broad
Which describes the spectrum of the highly potent fluoroquinolones?
broad
Clindamycin is a ___ spectrum antibiotic derived from ___
broad lincomycin
Tetracycline is an example of which type of drug?
broad spectrum
_____ species, which can cause undulant fever, are destroyed by pasteurization.
brucella
Which piece of equipment in the microbiology lab uses incineration to minimize contamination?
bunsen burner
Non-ionizing radiation works to damage cells by what?
by causing DNA mutations
The hard shells of the foraminiferans are composed of which compound?
calcium carbonate
___ sp. can cause superinfections of the oropharynx called thrush.
candida
Another name for phenol is __ acid
carbolic
Organisms resistant to penicillins and ___ often produce beta-lactamases that hydrolyze the beta-lactam ring structure of the antibiotic.
cephalosporins
the ___ are similar in structure to penicillins and interfere with cell wall synthesis.
cephalosporins
An infection that persists over a long duration is referred to as a ___ infection
chronic
An exoenzyme that causes the clotting of blood or plasma is called ___
coagulase
the phenol ___ quantitatively compares the effectiveness of a chemical to that of phenol.
coefficient
Because of our perception of temperature, irradiation is considered a what type of sterilization?
cold
The use of two or more drugs to treat one infection or disease is called __ therapy
combined
A disease is considered ___ when the infectious agent can be transmitted from infected host to new host.
communicable
Elongated, rigid tubes on gram-negative bacteria that are involved in the transfer of DNA from one cell to another are called?
conjugation pili
A disease that is highly communicable, especially through direct contact, is referred to as ___
contagious
The time period when a patient is recovering from an infection as the immune response clears the infectious agent is known as the ___ period
convalescent
The lowest temperature that achieves that achieves sterilization in a given quantity of broth upon a 10-minute exposure is referred to as the thermal ___ ___
death point
The shortest length of time required to kill all test microbes at a specified temperature is referred to as the thermal ___ ___
death time
____ is the general term used for the reduction of the microbial load in order to lower the possibility of infection or spoilage
decontamination
The dehydration of pathogens that can lead to either death or preservation is referred to as ____
desiccation
The most common complaint associated with oral antimicrobial therapy is ___ .which is caused by the disruption of the intestinal microbiota.
diarrhea
Some type of contact must occur between the skin or mucous membranes of an infected person and an infectee in order for _____ transmission to occur
direct
Any deviation or change from a state of health is known as ____
disease
_____ _____ are dried residues of mucus and saliva sprayed while sneezing and coughing that can contain a bacterium and remain airborne for a long time.
droplet nuclei
The tolerance of an antimicrobial agent at a level which would normally be inhibitory is called what?
drug resistance
Viruses, prions, and ____ are relatively resistant to heat
endospores
an ___ is a bacterial toxin that is part of the gram-negative cell wall and is usually released only when the bacteria has been damaged or destroyed.
endotoxin
___ is the study of the frequency and distribution of disease and other health-related factors in defined human populations.
epidemiology
A toxin that is secreted and acts upon a specific cellular target is called a(n) ___
exotoxin
True or false: Aminoglycosides are very narrow-spectrum antibiotics.
false
True or false: Drug resistance only arises from an organism gaining the genetic information for the resistance from another organism.
false
True or false: Incineration is an example of using moist heat to sterilize or disinfect materials.
false
True or false: Most cephalosporins are administered orally.
false
True or false: Most vegetative forms of microorganisms are susceptible to the same exposure to heat.
false
pseudopods are important structures for locomotion and which other protozoan function?
feeding
Interferon is produced primarily by ___ and ___ in response to various immune stimuli.
fibroblasts leukocytes
What is the process of straining a fluid or air through a membrane to trap microorganisms?
filtration
the ___ method of pasteurization uses higher temperatures for a duration of seconds.
flash
Any inanimate object that can serve as a vehicle for the spread of disease when contacted by an infected individual is called a(n) ___
fomite
An agent that kills fungal spores, hyphae and yeasts is called?
fungicide
The antiparasitic agents mebendazole and thiabendazole disable several stages of roundworm development by blocking the utilization of __
glucose
What is thermopiles optimum temperature?
greater than 45 degrees C
Which bacteria could exhibit phototaxis?
helicobacter pylori
_____ transmission is a term used to describe the direct or indirect transmission of a pathogen through a population. HINT: This term is the opposite of the term used to describe the transmission of a pathogen from mother to offspring across the placenta.
horizontal
a virucide ___ viruses
inactivates
disease ___ measures the number of new cases over a given time period.
incidence
____ is the destruction of microbes by subjecting them to extremes of dry heat, reducing them to ashes and gas.
incineration
Transmission of infectious agents from host to host with the involvement of an intermediate inanimate material is considered to be ______ transmission.
indirect
Infectious agents that are transmitted from host to host with the involvement of an intermediate inanimate material are said to be ___ transmitted
indirectly
Many resident microbiota have the potential to cause ___ if the microorganisms spread beyond their natural microhabitat within the body or if the host's immune system is compromised.
infection
The condition in which pathogens enter, establish, and multiply in the human host is referred to as a(n) ______.
infection
The invasion and multiplication of a pathogen in the human host is referred to as a(n) ___
infection
The pathologic state involving the disruption and destruction of tissues by microbes is referred to as a(n) __ disease
infectious
___ is a nonspecific response to tissue injury or infection that protects the host from further damage.
inflammation
Selected substances that cannot withstand the temperatures of an autoclave can be subjected to ___ sterilization known as tyndallization
intermittent
A toxinosis caused by the ingestion of toxins is called ___
intoxications
the ___ period is the time during a clinical infection when the infectious agent multiplies at high levels and obvious signs/symptoms are present.
invasion
A limitation of griseofulvin to treat dermatophyte infections such as athlete's foot is that complete eradication is required and this drug is poisonous to the patient's __
kidneys
Identify the organic acid that is added to sauerkraut to prevent the growth of anaerobic bacteria, especially clostridia.
lactic acid
What does a intermediate host harbor?
larval or developmental stages
When a virus persists inside the host in an inactive state, this is specifically referred to as ___
latency
Antimicrobial chemicals can exist in what physical states?
liquid, gas, and solid
The size of a microbial population is often referred to as the microbial ___
load
An animal that transports an infectious agent but is not infected by it is known as a(n) ___ vector
mechanical
Cell ___ of eukaryotes serve as selectiviely permeable barriers in transport
membrane
the liquid metal ___ can be very toxic to humans if it is ingested, inhaled or absorbed through the skin, even in small doses.
mercury
The most effective drugs used to treat infections caused by flukes, tapeworms, and roundworms inhibit ___ at all stages of the life cycle rather than eradicating the adult worms.
metabolism
Long term microbial inhabitants of the skin and exposed mucosa, that participate in mutual or commensal association without generally causing disease in the host, are called normal resident ___
microbiota
MIC is the acronym for ___ ___ ___
minimum inhibitory concentration
The inability to ___ even under optimal growth conditions is the practical definition of microbial death.
multiply, reproduce
Drug resistance occurs with spontaneous ___ or gene transfer from another species.
mutations
Isoniazid works by interfering with the synthesis of __ acid
mycelia
Pasteurization of milk destroys ____ tuberculosis
mycobacterium
Nystatin is used only topically or orally to treat ___ of the skin
mycoses
Polymyxins work well on Gram ___ cells and daptomycin shows selectivity for Gram ___
negative Positive
Coliform bacteria are described as gram- ___ ___ fermenting, and ___ anaerobes
negative lactose faculative
An infectious disease that does not arrive through transmission of an infectious agent from host to host is referred to as ______.
noncommunicable
Lipopolysaccharide is located in the __ ___ of the cell envelope of gram-negative bacteria.
outer membrane
Tetracyclines may be given to children of which age?
over 8 years old
The germicidal effects of hydrogen peroxide are due to the direct and indirect actions of which gas?
oxygen
It is a concern that avian flu could become a(n) ___ with cases spread across multiple continents.
pandemic
A person who mechanically transfers a pathogen without ever being infected by it is called a(n) ___ carrier
passive
The cephalosporins closely resemble which group of antibiotics in terms of structure and function?
penicillins
Capsules that protect bacteria against immune cells are generally referred to as?
phagocytes
Bacterial pili are composed of the protein called what?
pilin
disease ___ is the total number of cases of a particular disease within the entire population.
prevalence
In some ciliates, cilia fuse together to form stiff props. When this occurs the cilia function in which way?
primitive rows of walking legs
The short period of mild symptoms that follows the incubation period of an infection is the ___ stage
prodromal
Ledipasvir interferes with the function of a ___ called NS5A that is required for RNA polymerase to function correctly for the hepatitis C virus.
protein
Many bacteria possess multidrug-resistant (MDR) ___ that actively transport drugs and other chemicals out of cells.
pumps
The bark of the Cinchona tree is used to make ___
quinine
In reference to diseases, the natural host or primary habitat of a pathogen is referred to as its ___
reservoir
The stable microbes that inhabit the skin and exposed mucous membranes on a permanent or long-term basis, and generally do not cause disease are referred to as ______ biota.
resident
Any RNA virus that can convert its own RNA into double-stranded DNA is called a(n) ___
retrovirus
___ is the recommended antibiotic for prophylaxis in Neisseria meningitidis.
rifampin
What type of body shape do nematodes have?
round
Most of the microbes that live in the water and soil are ___ , meaning they live off of decomposing matter.
saphrobes
The process of degermation usually involves what?
scrubbing of the skin or immuersion in chemicals or both
a ___ infection is an infection that occurs as a complication of a pre-existing one.
secondary
The most common approach to drug production is the ____ method, which combines both natural and synthetic methods.
semisynthetic
What is an antimicrobial drug isolated from natural sources and then chemically modified in the laboratory?
semisynthetic
A systemic infection associated with microorganisms multiplying in circulating blood is described as ___
septicemia
a ___ is an objective assessment of disease, as opposed to a(n) __ , which is the subjective assessment perceived by the patient.
sign symptom
Some microbes secrete a ___ or ___ that makes it physically difficult for a phagocyte to engulf them
slime capsule
a strong ___ hydroxide solution is one of the substances that reliably destroys prions.
sodium
____ is a nucleotide analog which targets the RNA polymerase of the virus that causes hepatitis C.
sofosbuvir
_____ are spiral-shaped bacteria characterized by periplasmic flagella and display a worm-like mode of locomotion
spirochetes
What are the 3 genera that can produce endospores?
sporsarcina clostridium bacillus
The root ___ is used to indicate the inhibition of microbial growth
stasis or static
A chemical agent that can destroy bacterial endospores and leave an inanimate object free of all life is known as?
sterilant
Sulfonamides,or ___ drugs, are synthetic antimicrobial drugs that interfere with essential metabolic processes of bacteria and some fungi.
sulfa
Agents that work by lowering the surface tension of cell membranes are called?
surfactants
Some microbes have adapted to ___ inside phagocytes after ingestion.
survival
What occurs when antibiotics interact in ways that enhance or magnify each other?
synergism
Amphotericin B is one of the few drugs that can be injected to treat ___ fungal infections such as cryptococcus meningitis.
systemic
The staining of teeth is one side effect of the antibiotic group known as the __
tetracycline
How do surfactants work to destroy microorganisms?
thye cause leaky membranes
The primary target of fluoroquinolones in Gram-positive cells is the enzyme, ___
topoisomerase
___ is defined as the ability of an organism to produce toxins.
toxigenicity
a ____ is a product of an organism that is poisonous to other organisms
toxin
Diseases that are caused by toxins produced by other organisms are generally called ___
toxinoses
Microbes that do not colonize the human host, but instead are lost rapidly are referred to as ___
transients
most protozoa have a ___ state, but not all produce a ____ in response to unfavorable conditions
trophozoite cyst
True or false: Catheters, endoscopes, and implants are not heat-sterilizable.
true
True or false: Microorganisms that produce antibiotics in their natural habitat may have a selective advantage over neighboring microbes.
true
True or false: The Etest can be used to quantify developing resistance of a particular organism to an antibiotic.
true
True or false: most protozoa are free-living inhabitants of water and soil.
true
The antibiotic ___ is non-beta-lactam cell wall inhibitor that is usually restricted to the most serious and life-threatening conditions
vancomycin
An animal that transmits infectious agents from one host to another is called a(n) ___
vector
___ transmission is a term used to describe the transmission of a pathogen from mother to offspring in utero.
vertical
the ___ of a particular microbe is determined by its ability to establish itself in the host and cause damage.
virulence
___ is the azole of choice in treating fungal meningitis because it can cross the blood-brain barrier.
voriconazole
Desiccation can preserve foods by reducing the availability of which element/compound to microbes necessary for their metabolism?
water
What is the death phase of the population growth curve?
when the limiting factors intensify and cells die exponentially
Which bacteria are the most susceptible to antibiotics that target the cell wall?
young, growing
An infectious disease that normally occurs in animals but humans can acquire through direct or indirect contact with infected animals is called a(n) ___
zoonosis