NSG 330 Ch 29- Management of Complications from Heart Disease

Before discharge, which instruction should a nurse give to a client receiving digoxin?

"Call the physician if your heart rate is above 90 beats/minute." Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to notify the physician if his heart rate is greater than 90 beats/minute because cardiac arrhythmias may occur with digoxin toxicity. To prevent toxicity, the nurse should instruct the client never to take an extra dose of digoxin if he misses a dose. The nurse should show the client how to take his pulse and tell him to call the physician if his pulse rate drops below 60 beats/minute — not 80 beats/minute, which is a normal pulse rate and doesn't warrant action. The client shouldn't take digoxin with meals; doing so slows the absorption rate.

A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. The nurse knows that the client has left-sided heart failure when the client makes which statement?

"I sleep on three pillows each night." Orthopnea is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. The client commonly sleeps on several pillows at night to help facilitate breathing. Swollen feet, ascites, and anorexia are signs of right-sided heart failure.

A client has been admitted to the cardiac step-down unit with acute pulmonary edema. Which symptoms would the nurse expect to find during assessment?

moist, gurgling respirations Clients with acute pulmonary edema experience sudden dyspnea, wheezing, orthopnea, cough, cyanosis, and tachycardia. Respirations sound moist or gurgling.

The nurse is admitting a client with heart failure. What client statement indicates that fluid overload was occurring at home?

"I'm having trouble going up the steps during the day." Difficulty with activities like climbing stairs is an indication of a lessened ability to exercise. Eating small meals and not using salt are usually indicated for clients with heart failure. The client's assertion about morning being the best time of day is a vague statement.

The nurse instructs a client with heart failure on restricting sodium in the diet. Which client statement indicates that teaching was effective?

"Lemon juice and herbs can be used to replace salt when cooking." For the client on a low-sodium or sodium-restricted diet, a variety of flavorings, such as lemon juice, vinegar, and herbs, may be used to improve the taste of the food and facilitate acceptance of the diet. Sodium is contained in municipal water. Water softeners also increase the sodium content of drinking water. Although the major source of sodium in the average American diet is salt, many types of natural foods contain varying amounts of sodium. Even if no salt is added in cooking and if salty foods are avoided, the daily diet will still contain about 2000 mg of sodium. Fresh fruits and vegetables are low in sodium and should be encouraged.

A client is receiving furosemide, a loop diuretic, to prevent fluid overload. The order is for 50 mg intravenous now. The pharmacy supplies furosemide 80 mg per 2 mL. How many mL will the nurse give the client? Round your answer and record to one decimal place.

1.3 mL (50 mg x 2 mL/80 mg = 1.25 mL rounded to nearest tenth = 1.3 mL)

A client has been diagnosed with systolic heart failure. What percentage will the nurse expect the patient's ejection fraction to be?

30% The ejection fraction is normal in diastolic heart failure, but severely reduced in systolic heart failure. The normal EF is 55%-65%. An EF of 5% is not life sustaining and an EF of 30% is about half the normal percentage.

A client has been diagnosed with systolic heart failure. What percentage will the nurse expect the patient's ejection fraction to be?

30% Explanation: The ejection fraction is normal in diastolic heart failure, but severely reduced in systolic heart failure. The normal EF is 55%-65%. An EF of 5% is not life sustaining and an EF of 30% is about half the normal percentage.

When assessing the patient with pericardial effusion, the nurse will assess for pulsus paradoxus. Pulsus paradoxus is characterized by what assessment finding?

A systolic blood pressure that is lower during inhalation Systolic blood pressure that is markedly lower during inhalation is called pulsus paradoxus. The difference in systolic pressure between the point that is heard during exhalation and the point that is heard during inhalation is measured. Pulsus paradoxus exceeding 10 mm Hg is abnormal.

The nurse has entered a patients room and found the patient unresponsive and not breathing. What is the nurses next appropriate action?

Activate the Emergency Response System (ERS). After checking for responsiveness and breathing, the nurse should activate the ERS. Assessment of carotid pulse should follow and chest compressions may be indicated. Illuminating the call light is an insufficient response.

A patient presents to the ED complaining of increasing shortness of breath. The nurse assessing the patient notes a history of left-sided HF. The patient is agitated and occasionally coughing up pink-tinged, foamy sputum. The nurse should recognize the signs and symptoms of what health problem?

Acute pulmonary edema Because of decreased contractility and increased fluid volume and pressure in patients with HF, fluid may be driven from the pulmonary capillary beds into the alveoli, causing pulmonary edema and signs and symptoms described. In right-sided heart failure, the patient exhibits hepatomegaly, jugular vein distention, and peripheral edema. In pneumonia, the patient would have a temperature spike, and sputum that varies in color. Cardiogenic shock would show signs of hypotension and tachycardia

A nurse is caring for a client with left-sided heart failure. During the nurse's assessment, the client is wheezing, restless, tachycardic, and has severe apprehension. The clients reports that these symptoms came on suddenly. The nurse knows that these are symptoms of what condition?

Acute pulmonary edema Explanation: Clients with acute pulmonary edema exhibit sudden dyspnea, wheezing, orthopnea, restlessness, cough (often productive of pink, frothy sputum), cyanosis, tachycardia, and severe apprehension. These symptoms do not indicate progressive heart failure, pulmonary hypertension, or cardiogenic shock.

The nurse is administering sublingual nitroglycerin to a client with chest pain. What action will the nurse take after administering two sublingual tablets if the client continues with chest pain and has a blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg?

Administer the third sublingual nitroglycerin tablet. Explanation: The nurse will need to administer the third sublingual nitroglycerin tablet. Nitroglycerin is given as three doses for chest pain as the client's blood pressure can tolerate it. The health care provider will be notified after three tablets. The nurse should not hold any further treatment if the client has chest pain. The dosing of nitroglycerin is a five-minute wait.

A client has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and fatigue. The health care provider has ordered a diagnostic test in order to determine what type of heart failure the client is having. What diagnostic test does the nurse anticipate being ordered?

An echocardiogram Increasing shortness of breath (dyspnea) and fatigue are common signs of left-sided heart failure (HF). However, some of the physical signs that suggest HF may also occur with other diseases, such as renal failure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; therefore, diagnostic testing is essential to confirm a diagnosis of HF. Assessment of ventricular function is an essential part of the initial diagnostic workup. An echocardiogram is usually performed to determine the ejection fraction, identify anatomic features such as structural abnormalities and valve malfunction, and confirm the diagnosis of HF.

The nurse is performing a respiratory assessment for a patient in left-sided heart failure. What does the nurse understand is the best determinant of the patient's ventilation and oxygenation status?

Arterial blood gases Explanation: In left-sided heart failure, arterial blood gases may be obtained to assess ventilation and oxygenation.

A client with left-sided heart failure is in danger of impaired renal perfusion. How would the nurse assess this client for impaired renal perfusion?

Assess for elevated blood urea nitrogen levels. Explanation: Elevated blood urea nitrogen indicates impaired renal perfusion in a client with left-sided heart failure. Serum sodium levels may be elevated. Reduced urine output or elevated blood potassium levels do not indicate impaired renal perfusion in a client with left-sided heart failure.

A client arrives at the ED with an exacerbation of left-sided heart failure and reports shortness of breath. Which is the priority nursing action?

Assess oxygen saturation The nurse's priority action is to assess oxygen saturation to determine the severity of the exacerbation. It is important to assess the oxygen saturation in a client with heart failure because below-normal oxygen saturation can be life-threatening. Treatment options vary according to the severity of the client's condition and may include supplemental oxygen, oral and IV medications, major lifestyle changes, implantation of cardiac devices, and surgical approaches. The overall goal of treatment of heart failure is to relieve symptoms and reduce the workload on the heart by reducing afterload and preload.

The cardiac monitor alarm alerts the critical care nurse that the patient is showing no cardiac rhythm on the monitor. The nurses rapid assessment suggests cardiac arrest. In providing cardiac resuscitation documentation, how will the nurse describe this initial absence of cardiac rhythm?

Asystole Cardiac arrest occurs when the heart ceases to produce an effective pulse and circulate blood. It may be caused by a cardiac electrical event such as ventricular fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia, profound bradycardia, or when there is no heart rhythm at all (asystole). Cardiac arrest may also occur when electrical activity is present, but there is ineffective cardiac contraction or circulating volume, which is PEA. Asystole is the only condition that involves the absolute absence of a heart rhythm.

The triage nurse in the ED is assessing a patient with chronic HF who has presented with worsening symptoms. In reviewing the patients medical history, what is a potential primary cause of the patients heart failure?

Atherosclerosis Atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries is the primary cause of HF. Pleural effusion, endocarditis, and an atrial-septal defect are not health problems that contribute to the etiology of HF.

The nurse understands that a client with which cardiac arrhythmia is most at risk for developing heart failure?

Atrial fibrillation Explanation: Cardiac dysrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation may either cause or result from heart failure; in both instances, the altered electrical stimulation impairs myocardial contraction and decreases the overall efficiency of myocardial function.

The nurse is reviewing a newly admitted patients electronic health record, which notes a history of orthopnea? What nursing action is most clearly indicated?

Avoid positioning the patient supine. Orthopnea is defined as difficulty breathing while lying flat. This is a possible complication of HF and, consequently, the nurse should avoid positioning the patient supine. Oxygen supplementation may or may not be necessary and activity does not always need to be curtailed. Deep breathing and coughing exercises do not directly address this symptom.

A client with pulmonary edema has been admitted to the ICU. What would be the standard care for this client?

BP and pulse measurements every 15 to 30 minutes Explanation: Bedside ECG monitoring is standard, as are continuous pulse oximetry, automatic BP, and pulse measurements approximately every 15 to 30 minutes.

A health care provider in the outpatient department examines a client with chronic heart failure to investigate recent-onset peripheral edema and increased shortness of breath. The nurse documents the severity of pitting edema as +1. What is the best description of this type of edema?

Barely detectable depression when the thumb is released from the swollen area; normal foot and leg contours Explanation: Pitting edema is documented as a +1 when a depression is barely detectable on release of thumb pressure and when foot and leg contours are normal. A detectable depression of less than 5 mm accompanied by normal leg and foot contours warrants a +2 rating. A deeper depression (5 to 10 mm) accompanied by foot and leg swelling is evaluated as +3. An even deeper depression (more than 1 cm) accompanied by severe foot and leg swelling rates a +4.

The nurse is caring for an 84-year-old man who has just returned from the OR after inguinal hernia repair. The OR report indicates that the patient received large volumes of IV fluids during surgery and the nurse recognizes that the patient is at risk for left-sided heart failure. What signs and symptoms would indicate left-sided heart failure?

Bibasilar fine crackles Bibasilar fine crackles are a sign of alveolar fluid, a sequela of left ventricular fluid, or pressure overload. Jugular vein distention, right upper quadrant pain (hepatomegaly), and dependent edema are caused by right-sided heart failure, usually a chronic condition

A client is prescribed digitalis medication. Which condition should the nurse closely monitor when caring for the client?

nausea and vomiting Digitalis medications are potent and may cause various toxic effects. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of digitalis toxicity, not just during the initial period of therapy, but throughout care management. The most common signs and symptoms include nausea and vomiting which can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.

The nurse is caring for a client in the hospital with chronic heart failure who has marked limitations in his physical activity. The client is comfortable when resting in the bed or chair, but when ambulating in the room or hall, the client becomes short of breath and fatigued easily. What type of heart failure is this considered according to the New York Heart Association (NYHA)?

Class III (Moderate) Explanation: This client is comfortable at rest, but has "marked limitations" on physical activity. Merely walking down the hall causes fatigue and dyspnea. Therefore, this client is in Class III (moderate). With Class I (mild), ordinary physical activity does not cause undue fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea, and the client does not experience any limitation of activity. With Class II (mild), the client is comfortable at rest, but the ordinary physical activity of daily living results in fatigue, heart palpitations, or dyspnea; the client's activity is only slightly limited. With Class IV (severe), symptoms of cardiac insufficiency occur at rest, and discomfort increases if any physical activity is undertaken.

The nurse is caring for an adult patient with HF who is prescribed digoxin. When assessing the patient for adverse effects, the nurse should assess for which of the following signs and symptoms?

Confusion and bradycardia A key concern associated with digitalis therapy is digitalis toxicity. Symptoms include anorexia, nausea, visual disturbances, confusion, and bradycardia. The other listed signs and symptoms are not characteristic of digitalis toxicity.

A patient is undergoing a pericardiocentesis. Following withdrawal of pericardial fluid, which assessment by the nurse indicates that cardiac tamponade has been relieved?

Decrease in central venous pressure (CVP) Explanation: A resulting decrease in CVP and an associated increase in blood pressure after withdrawal of pericardial fluid indicate that the cardiac tamponade has been relieved. An absence of cough would not indicate the absence of cardiac tamponade.

Which medication reverses digitalis toxicity?

Digoxin immune FAB Digoxin immune FAB binds with digoxin and makes it unavailable for use. The dosage is based on the digoxin concentration and the client's weight

The nurse is assessing a patient who is known to have right-sided HF. What assessment finding is most consistent with this patients diagnosis?

Distended neck veins Right-sided HF may manifest by distended neck veins, dependent edema, hepatomegaly, weight gain, ascites, anorexia, nausea, nocturia, and weakness. The other answers do not apply

Which is a cerebrovascular manifestation of heart failure?

Dizziness Cerebrovascular manifestations of heart failure include dizziness, lightheadedness, confusion, restlessness, and anxiety. Tachycardia is a cardiovascular manifestation. Ascites is a gastrointestinal manifestation. Nocturia is a renal manifestation.

The nurse assessing a client with an exacerbation of heart failure identifies which symptom as a cerebrovascular manifestation of heart failure (HF)?

Dizziness Cerebrovascular manifestations of heart failure stemming from decreased brain perfusion include dizziness, lightheadedness, confusion, restlessness, and anxiety due to decreased oxygenation and blood flow.

The nurse is obtaining data on an older adult client. What finding may indicate to the nurse the early symptom of heart failure?

Dyspnea on exertion Left-sided heart failure produces hypoxemia as a result of reduced cardiac output of arterial blood and respiratory symptoms. Many clients notice unusual fatigue with activity. Some find exertional dyspnea to be the first symptom. An increase in urinary output may be seen later as fluid accumulates. Hypotension would be a later sign of decompensating heart failure as well as tachycardia.

Which diagnostic study is usually performed to confirm the diagnosis of heart failure?

Echocardiogram An echocardiogram is usually performed to confirm the diagnosis of heart failure. ECG, serum electrolytes, and a BUN are usually completed during the initial workup.

The pathophysiology of pericardial effusion is associated with all of the following except:

Increased venous return. Explanation: Venous return is decreased (not increased) with Pericardial effusion because there is an increase in the pericardial fluid, which raises the pressure within the pericardial sac and compresses the heart. Increased right and left ventricular end-diastolic pressures, inability of the ventricles to fill adequately, and atrial compression are all effects of pericardial effusion.

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure and a sudden onset of tachypnea. What is the nurse's priority action?

Elevate the head of the bed. Explanation: The nurse's priority action is to elevate the head of bed to help with breathing. The pulse oximetry reading provides more data, but is not the priority intervention. Reporting a decrease urine output is not a priority for the client. Notification of the family is not a priority to help with breathing.

A client with acute pericarditis is exhibiting distended jugular veins, tachycardia, tachypnea, and muffled heart sounds. The nurse recognizes these as symptoms of what occurrence?

Excess pericardial fluid compresses the heart and prevents adequate diastolic filling. The cardinal signs of cardiac tamponade are falling systolic blood pressure, narrowing pulse pressure, rising venous pressure (increased JVD), and distant (muffled) heart sounds. Increased pericardial pressure, reduced venous return to the heart, and decreased carbon dioxide result in cardiac tamponade (e.g., compression of the heart).

The triage nurse in the ED is performing a rapid assessment of a man with complaints of severe chest pain and shortness of breath. The patient is diaphoretic, pale, and weak. When the patient collapses, what should the nurse do first?

Gently shake and shout, Are you OK? RABC Assessing responsiveness is the first step in basic life support. Opening the airway and checking for respirations should occur next. If breathing is absent, two breaths should be given, usually accompanied by supplementary oxygen. Circulation is checked by palpating the carotid artery.

The nurse is caring for a client with suspected right-sided heart failure. What would the nurse know that clients with suspected right-sided heart failure may experience?

Gradual unexplained weight gain Clients with right-sided heart failure may have a history of gradual, unexplained weight gain from fluid retention. Left-sided heart failure produces paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, which may prompt the client to use several pillows in bed or to sleep in a chair or recliner. Right-sided heart failure does not cause increased perspiration or increased urine output.

A client with congestive heart failure is admitted to the hospital after reporting shortness of breath. How should the nurse position the client in order to decrease preload?

Head of the bed elevated 45 degrees and lower arms supported by pillows Explanation: Preload refers to the degree of stretch of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibers at the end of diastole. The client is positioned or taught how to assume a position that facilitates breathing. The number of pillows may be increased, the head of the bed may be elevated, or the client may sit in a recliner. In these positions, the venous return to the heart (preload) is reduced, pulmonary congestion is alleviated, and pressure on the diaphragm is minimized. The lower arms are supported with pillows to eliminate the fatigue caused by the pull of the client's weight on the shoulder muscles.

A patient with HF is placed on a low-sodium diet. Which statement by the patient indicates that the nurses nutritional teaching plan has been effective?

I will have a baked potato with broiled chicken for dinner The patients choice of a baked potato with broiled chicken indicates that the teaching plan has been effective. Potatoes and chicken are relatively low in sodium. Ham, cheese, and soup are often high in sodium.

The nurse is assessing a patient who reports no symptoms of heart failure at rest but is symptomatic with ordinary physical activity. Under what classification does the nurse understand this patient would be categorized?

II Explanation: Classification II of heart failure is indicated by the patient being comfortable at rest, but experiencing fatigue, palpitation, or dyspnea during ordinary physical activity.

A patient admitted to the medical unit with HF is exhibiting signs and symptoms of pulmonary edema. The nurse is aware that positioning will promote circulation. How should the nurse best position the patient?

In a high Fowlers position Proper positioning can help reduce venous return to the heart. The patient is positioned upright. If the patient is unable to sit with the lower extremities dependent, the patient may be placed in an upright position in bed. The supine position and Trendelenburg positions will not reduce venous return, lower the output of the right ventricle, or decrease lung congestion. Similarly, side-lying does not promote circulation.

Following a left anterior myocardial infarction, a client undergoes insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter. Which finding most strongly suggests left-sided heart failure?

Increased pulmonary artery diastolic pressure Explanation: Increased pulmonary artery diastolic pressure suggests left-sided heart failure. Central venous pressure increases in heart failure rather than decreases. The cardiac index decreases in heart failure. The mean pulmonary artery pressure increases in heart failure.

A nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure for jugular vein distension (JVD). Which observation is important to report to the physician?

JVD is noted 4 cm above the sternal angle. JVD is assessed with the client sitting at a 45° angle. Jugular vein distention greater than 4 cm above the sternal angle is considered abnormal and is indicative of right ventricular failure.

A nurse reviews the client's medical record and reads in the progress notes that the client has decreased left ventricular function. What assessment will validate the diagnosis?

orthopnea Decreased left ventricular function would be characterized by orthopnea, dyspnea, anorexia, bibasilar rales not cleared with coughing, and resting tachycardia.

Which is a characteristic of right-sided heart failure?

Jugular vein distention Jugular vein distention is a characteristic of right-sided heart failure. Dyspnea, pulmonary crackles, and cough are manifestations of left-sided heart failure.

The clinical manifestations of cardiogenic shock reflect the pathophysiology of heart failure (HF). By applying this correlation, the nurse notes that the degree of shock is proportional to which of the following?

Left ventricular function The signs and symptoms of cardiogenic shock reflect the circular nature of the pathophysiology of HF. The degree of shock is proportional to the extent of left ventricular dysfunction.

The nurse is preparing a client for a multiple gated acquisition (MUGA) scan. What would be an important instruction for the nurse to give a client who is to undergo a MUGA scan?

Lie very still at intermittent times during the test. The nurse should instruct the client, who is to undergo a MUGA scan, to lie very still at intermittent times during the 45-minute test. The client need not drink plenty of fluids, avoid activities before/after the test, or avoid dairy products during the test.

Which feature is the hallmark of systolic heart failure?

Low ejection fraction (EF) A low EF is a hallmark of systolic heart failure (HF); the severity of HF is frequently classified according to the client's symptoms.

The nurse is working in a long-term care facility with a group of older adults with cardiac disorders. Why would it be important for the nurse to closely monitor an older adult receiving digitalis preparations for cardiac disorders?

Older adults are at increased risk for toxicity. Older adults receiving digitalis preparations are at increased risk for toxicity because of the decreased ability of the kidneys to excrete the drug due to age-related changes. The margin between a therapeutic and toxic effect of digitalis preparations is narrow

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a client admitted with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) who is receiving milrinone?

Monitor blood pressure frequently Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that delays the release of calcium from intracellular reservoirs and prevents the uptake of extracellular calcium by the cells. This promotes vasodilation, resulting in decreased preload and afterload and reduced cardiac workload. Milrinone is administered intravenously to clients with severe HF, including those who are waiting for a heart transplant. Because the drug causes vasodilation, the client's blood pressure is monitored before administration because if the client is hypovolemic the blood pressure could drop quickly. The major side effects are hypotension and increased ventricular dysrhythmias. Blood pressure and the electrocardiogram (ECG) are monitored closely during and after infusions of milrinone.

Which assessment would be most appropriate for a patient who is receiving a loop diuretic for HF?

Monitor for hypotension Diuretic therapy increases urine output and decreases blood volume, which places the patient at risk of hypotension. Patients are at risk of losing potassium with loop diuretic therapy and need to continue with potassium in their diet; hypokalemia is a consequent risk. Liver function is rarely compromised by diuretic therapy and vitamin D intake is not relevant.

The nurse is providing discharge education to a patient diagnosed with HF. What should the nurse teach this patient to do to assess her fluid balance in the home setting?

Monitor her weight daily To assess fluid balance at home, the patient should monitor daily weights at the same time every day. Assessing radial pulses and monitoring the blood pressure may be done, but these measurements do not provide information about fluid balance. Bowel function is not indicative of fluid balance

A nurse is teaching clients newly diagnosed with coronary heart disease (CHD) about the disease process and risk factors for heart failure. Which problem can cause left-sided heart failure (HF)?

Myocardial ischemia Explanation: Myocardial dysfunction and HF can be caused by a number of conditions, including coronary artery disease, hypertension, cardiomyopathy, valvular disorders, and renal dysfunction with volume overload. Atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries is a primary cause of HF, and coronary artery disease is found in the majority of clients with HF. Ischemia causes myocardial dysfunction because it deprives heart cells of oxygen and causes cellular damage. MI causes focal heart muscle necrosis, myocardial cell death, and a loss of contractility; the extent of the infarction correlates with the severity of HF. Left-sided heart failure is caused by myocardial ischemia. Ineffective right ventricular contraction, pulmonary embolus, and cystic fibrosis cause right-sided heart failure.

Which describes difficulty breathing when a client is lying flat?

Orthopnea Orthopnea occurs when the client is having difficulty breathing when lying flat. Sudden attacks of dyspnea at night are known as paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Tachypnea is a rapid breathing rate and bradypnea is a slow breathing rate.

The client with cardiac failure is taught to report which symptom to the health care provider or clinic immediately?

Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-sided heart failure. Loss of appetite, weight gain, interrupted sleep, unusual shortness of breath, and increased swelling should also be reported immediately.

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has been prescribed digoxin. What laboratory value for the client can precipitate digoxin toxicity?

Potassium 3.0 mEq/L

The nurse is caring for a 68-year-old patient the nurse suspects has digoxin toxicity. In addition to physical assessment, the nurse should collect what assessment datum?

Potassium level The serum potassium level is monitored because the effect of digoxin is enhanced in the presence of hypokalemia and digoxin toxicity may occur. Skin turgor, white cell levels, and peripheral pulses are not normally affected in cases of digitalis toxicity.

The nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client with severe heart failure. What lab study should be of most concern for this client while taking furosemide?

Potassium level of 3.1 Severe heart failure usually requires a loop diuretic such as furosemide (Lasix). These drugs increase sodium and therefore water excretion, but they also increase potassium excretion. If a client becomes hypokalemic, digitalis toxicity is more likely. The BNP does not demonstrate a severe heart failure. Sodium level of 135 is within normal range, as is the hemoglobin level.

Which term describes the degree of stretch of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibers at the end of diastole?

Preload Explanation: Preload is the degree of stretch of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibers at the end of diastole. Afterload is the amount of resistance to ejection of blood from a ventricle. The ejection fraction is the percentage of blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole that is ejected during systole. Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricle with each contraction.

The nurses comprehensive assessment of a patient who has HF includes evaluation of the patients hepatojugular reflux. What action should the nurse perform during this assessment?

Press the right upper abdomen. Hepatojugular reflux, a sign of right-sided heart failure, is assessed with the head of the bed at a 45- degree angle. As the right upper abdomen (the area over the liver) is compressed for 30 to 40 seconds, the nurse observes the internal jugular vein. If the internal jugular vein becomes distended, a patient has positive hepatojugular reflux.

A client is admitted to the hospital with systolic left-sided heart failure. The nurse knows to look for which assessment finding for this client?

Pulmonary congestion When the left ventricle cannot effectively pump blood out of the ventricle into the aorta, the blood backs up into the pulmonary system and causes congestion, dyspnea, and shortness of breath. All the other choices are symptoms of right-sided heart failure. They are all symptoms of systolic failure.

A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with left-sided heart failure. What clinical manifestations does the nurse anticipate finding when performing an assessment? (Select all that apply.)

Pulmonary crackles Dyspnea Cough The clinical manifestations of pulmonary congestion associated with left-sided heart failure include dyspnea, cough, pulmonary crackles, and low oxygen saturation levels

he nurse notes that a patient has developed a cough productive for mucoid sputum, is short of breath, has cyanotic hands, and has noisy, moist-sounding, rapid breathing. These symptoms and signs are suggestive of what health problem?

Pulmonary edema As a result of decreased cerebral oxygenation, the patient with pulmonary edema becomes increasingly restless and anxious. Along with a sudden onset of breathlessness and a sense of suffocation, the patients hands become cold and moist, the nail beds become cyanotic (bluish), and the skin turns ashen (gray). The pulse is weak and rapid, and the neck veins are distended. Incessant coughing may occur, producing increasing quantities of foamy sputum. Pericarditis, ventricular hypertrophy, and cardiomyopathy do not involve wet breath sounds or mucus production.

The nurse recognizes which symptom as a classic sign of cardiogenic shock?

Restlessness and confusion Cardiogenic shock occurs when decreased cardiac output leads to inadequate tissue perfusion and initiation of the shock syndrome. Inadequate tissue perfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation).

A client is admitted to the ICU with a diagnosis of heart failure. The client is exhibiting symptoms of weakness, ascites, weight gain, and jugular vein distention. The nurse would know that the client is exhibiting signs of what kind of heart failure?

Right-sided heart failure Signs and symptoms of Right Ventricular Failure include: Weakness; Ascites; Weight gain; Nausea, vomiting; Dysrhythmias; Elevated central venous pressure; Jugular vein distention. The scenario does not indicate whether the heart failure is chronic or acute.

Which is a potassium-sparing diuretic used in the treatment of heart failure (HF)?

Spironolactone Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Chlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic is Diuril. Bumetanide and ethacrynic acid are loop diuretics.

A nurse in the CCU is caring for a patient with HF who has developed an intracardiac thrombus. This creates a high risk for what sequela?

Stroke Intracardiac thrombi can become lodged in the cerebral vasculature, causing stroke. There is no direct risk of MI, hemorrhage, or peripheral edema.

Which is a manifestation of right-sided heart failure?

Systemic venous congestion Right-sided heart failure causes systemic venous congestion and a reduction in forward flow. Left-sided heart failure causes an accumulation of blood in the lungs and a reduction in forward flow or cardiac output that results in inadequate arterial blood flow to the tissues. Some clients with left-sided heart failure get episodes of dyspnea at night, known as paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

A patient in cardiogenic shock after a myocardial infarction is placed on an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP). What does the nurse understand is the mechanism of action of the balloon pump?

The balloon inflates at the beginning of diastole and deflates before systole to augment the pumping action of the heart. Explanation: The IABP uses internal counterpulsation through the regular inflation and deflation of the balloon to augment the pumping action of the heart. It inflates during diastole, increasing the pressure in the aorta during diastole and therefore increasing blood flow through the coronary and peripheral arteries. It deflates just before systole, lessening the pressure within the aorta before left ventricular contraction, decreasing the amount of resistance the heart has to overcome to eject blood and therefore decreasing left ventricular workload.

Assessment of a client on a medical surgical unit finds a regular heart rate of 120 beats per minute, audible third and fourth heart sounds, blood pressure of 84/64 mm Hg, bibasilar crackles on lung auscultation, and a urine output of 5 mL over the past hour. What is the reason the nurse anticipates transferring the client to the intensive care unit?

The client is going into cardiogenic shock. Explanation: This client's findings indicate cardiogenic shock, which occurs when the heart fails to pump properly, impeding blood supply and oxygen flow to vital organs. Cardiogenic shock also may cause cold, clammy skin and generalized weakness, fatigue, and muscle pain as poor blood flow causes lactic acid to accumulate and prevents waste removal. Left-sided and right-sided heart failure eventually cause venous congestion with jugular vein distention and edema as the heart fails to pump blood forward. A ruptured aneurysm causes severe hypotension and a quickly deteriorating clinical status from blood loss and circulatory collapse; this client has low but not severely decreased blood pressure. Also, in ruptured aneurysm, deterioration is more rapid and full cardiac arrest is common.

A client with right-sided heart failure is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. What information obtained from the client may indicate the presence of edema?

The client says his rings have become tight and are difficult to remove. Explanation: Clients may observe that rings, shoes, or clothing have become tight. The client would most likely be urinating more frequently in the evening. Accumulation of blood in abdominal organs may cause anorexia, nausea, flatulence, and a decrease in hunger. Shortness of breath with ambulation would occur most often in left-sided heart failure.

A client has a myocardial infarction in the left ventricle and develops crackles bilaterally; 3-pillow orthopnea; an S3 heart sound; and a cough with pink, frothy sputum. The nurse obtains a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What do these signs and symptoms indicate for this client?

The development of left-sided heart failure When the left ventricle fails, the heart muscle cannot contract forcefully enough to expel blood into the systemic circulation. Blood subsequently becomes congested in the left ventricle, left atrium, and finally the pulmonary vasculature. Symptoms of left-sided failure include fatigue; paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (being awakened during sleep w/ sudden SOB, gasping); orthopnea; hypoxia; crackles; cyanosis; S3 heart sound; cough with pink, frothy sputum; and elevated pulmonary capillary wedge pressure. COPD develops over many years and does not develop after a myocardial infarction. The development of right-sided heart failure would generally occur after a right ventricle myocardial infarction or after the development of left-sided heart failure. Cor pulmonale is a condition in which the heart is affected secondarily by lung damage.

A nurse is teaching a client about heart failure. What will the nurse explain is causing the heart to fail?

The heart cannot pump sufficient blood to meet the body's metabolic needs. Heart failure is the inability of the heart to pump sufficient blood to meet the body's metabolic needs. Heart failure does not mean the heart pumps too fast or too slow; it means it cannot contract effectively to eject the blood in the ventricles. A fibrillating heart involves a problem with conduction, not failure.

The nurse is administering furosemide to a client with heart failure. What best describes the therapeutic action of the medication?

The medication blocks sodium reabsorption in the ascending loop and dilate renal vessels. Explanation: Loop diuretics such as furosemide blocks sodium reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle, which promotes water diuresis. Furosemide also dilate renal vessels. Although loop diuretics block potassium reabsorption, this isn't a therapeutic action. Thiazide diuretics, not loop diuretics, promote sodium secretion into the distal tubule.

The nurse overseeing care in the ICU reviews the shift report on four patients. The nurse recognizes which patient to be at greatest risk for the development of cardiogenic shock?

The patient admitted following an Cardiogenic shock may occur following an MI when a large area of the myocardium becomes ischemic, necrotic, and hypokinetic. It also can occur as a result of end-stage heart failure, cardiac tamponade, pulmonary embolism, cardiomyopathy, and dysrhythmias. While patients with acute renal failure are at risk for dysrhythmias and patients experiencing a stroke are at risk for thrombus formation, the patient admitted following an MI is at the greatest risk for development of cardiogenic shock when compared with the other listed diagnoses.

The nurse is assessing an older adult patient with numerous health problems. What assessment datum indicates an increase in the patients risk for heart failure (HF)?

The patients age is greater than 65 HF is the most common reason for hospitalization of people older than 65 years of age and is the second most common reason for visits to a physicians office. A potassium level of 4.7 mEq/L is within reference range and does not indicate an increased risk for HF. The fact that the patient takes Lasix 20 mg/day does not indicate an increased risk for HF, although this drug is often used in the treatment of HF. The patient being an African American man does not indicate an increased risk for HF.

A client with a history of heart failure is returning from the operating room after inguinal hernia repair and the nurse assesses a low pulse oximetry reading. What is the most important nursing intervention?

Titrate oxygen therapy. Explanation: The nurse needs to titrate oxygen therapy to increase the client's oxygen levels. Assessing for jugular vein distention and examining the surgical incision area will not meet the oxygen demands. Administering pain medication will not increase oxygenation levels.

The nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is receiving cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). For which reason will the client be prescribed to receive amiodarone during the resuscitation efforts?

Treat pulseless ventricular tachycardia. During CPR, the medications provided will depend upon the client's condition and response to therapy. Amiodarone is used to treat pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Sodium bicarbonate is used to correct metabolic acidosis. Norepinephrine and dopamine are used to prevent the development of hypotension. Magnesium sulfate is used for the client with torsade de pointes.

The physician writes orders for a patient to receive an angiotensin II receptor blocker for treatment of heart failure. What medication does the nurse administer?

Valsartan (Diovan) Explanation: Valsartan (Diovan) is the only angiotensin receptor blocker listed. Digitalis/digoxin (Lanoxin) is a cardiac glycoside. Metolazone (Zaroxolyn) is a thiazide diuretic. Carvedilol (Coreg) is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent (beta-blocker).

A client is at risk for excess fluid volume. Which nursing intervention ensures the most accurate monitoring of the client's fluid status?

Weighing the client daily at the same time each day Explanation: Increased fluid volume leads to rapid weight gain — 2.2 lb (1 kg) for each liter of fluid retained. Weighing the client daily at the same time and in similar clothing provides more objective data than measuring fluid intake and output, which may be inaccurate because of omitted measurements such as insensible losses. Changes in vital signs are less reliable than daily weight because these changes usually are subtle during early stages of fluid retention. Weight gain is an earlier sign of excess fluid volume than crackles, which represent pulmonary edema. The nurse should plan to detect fluid accumulation before pulmonary edema occurs.

The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. The nurse obtains an apical pulse rate for 1 minute and determines a rate of 52 beats/minute. What is the first action by the nurse?

Withhold the medication and notify the physician of the heart rate. Digitalis drugs are withheld if the heart rate is less than 60 or more than 120 beats/minute until a physician is consulted

While auscultating the heart sounds of a client with heart failure, the nurse hears an extra heart sound immediately after the second heart sound (S2). How should the nurse document this sound?

a third heart sound (S3). Explanation: An S3 is heard following an S2, which commonly occurs in clients experiencing heart failure and results from increased filling pressures. An S1 is a normal heart sound made by the closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves. An S4 is heard before an S1 and is caused by resistance to ventricular filling. A murmur is heard when there is turbulent blood flow across the valves.

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. What sign will lead the nurse to suspect right-sided and left-sided heart failure?

ascites Explanation: Right-sided heart failure is characterized by signs of circulatory congestion, such as leg edema, jugular vein distention, ascites, and hepatomegaly. Left-sided heart failure is characterized by circumoral cyanosis, crackles, and a productive cough. Mixed heart failures can have all symptoms of right and left plus cool extremities, resting tachycardia, and weight gain.

The nurse is admitting a client with frothy pink sputum. What does the nurse suspect is the primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema?

decreased left ventricular pumping

The nurse is providing care to a client with cardiogenic shock requiring a intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP). What is the therapeutic effect of the IABP therapy?

decreased left ventricular workload Explanation: The signs and symptoms of cardiogenic shock reflect the circular nature of the pathophysiology of HF. The therapeutic effect is decreased left ventricular workload. The IABP does not change right ventricular workload. The IABP increases perfusion to the coronary and peripheral arteries. The renal perfusion is not affected by IABP.

A nurse is caring for a client with left-sided heart failure. What should the nurse anticipate using to reduce fluid volume excess?

diuretics. Explanation: Diuretics, such as furosemide, reduce total blood volume and circulatory congestion. Antiembolism stockings prevent venostasis and thromboembolism formation. Oxygen administration increases oxygen delivery to the myocardium and other vital organs. Anticoagulants prevent clot formation but don't decrease fluid volume excess.

A client has been having cardiac symptoms for several months and is seeing a cardiologist for diagnostics to determine the cause. How will the client's ejection fraction be measured?

echocardiogram The heart's ejection fraction is measured using an echocardiogram or multiple gated acquisition scan

A nurse is administering digoxin. What client parameter would cause the nurse to hold the digoxin and notify the health care prescriber?

heart rate of 55 beats per minute Digoxin therapy slows conduction through the AV node. A heart rate of 55 is slow and the digoxin therapy may slow the heart rate further

The nurse is caring for a client with advanced heart failure. What treatment will be considered after all other therapies have failed?

heart transplant Heart transplantation involves replacing a person's diseased heart with a donor heart. This is an option for advanced HF patients when all other therapies have failed. A ventricular access device, ICD, and cardiac resynchronization therapy would be tried prior to a heart transplant.

The nurse is assessing a client with crackling breath sounds or pulmonary congestion. What is the cause of the congestion?

inadequate cardiac output Pulmonary congestion occurs and tissue perfusion is compromised and diminished when the heart, primarily the left ventricle, cannot pump blood out of the ventricle effectively into the aorta and the systemic circulation. Ascites is fluid in the abdomen, not a cause of congestion. Hepatomegaly is an enlarged liver, which does not cause crackling breath sounds. Nocturia, or voiding at night, does not cause crackling breath sounds.

The critical care nurse is caring for a client with cardiogenic shock. What is the premise for inserting an intra-aortic balloon pump?

inadequate tissue perfusion Explanation: The classic signs of cardiogenic shock are related to tissue hypoperfusion and an overall state of shock that is proportional to the extent of left ventricular damage. Reduced cardiac output and stroke volume reduces arterial blood pressure and tissue perfusion. A myocardial infarction may lead to cardiogenic shock, but is not the premise for the intra-aortic balloon pump. Coronary artery stenosis is not related to shock. Right arterial flutter is not indicative of shock.

When the client has increased difficulty breathing when lying flat, the nurse records that the client is demonstrating

orthopnea. Clients with orthopnea prefer not to lie flat and will need to maintain their beds in a semi- to high Fowler position. Dyspnea upon exertion refers to difficulty breathing with activity. Hyperpnea refers to increased rate and depth of respiration. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea refers to orthopnea that occurs only at night.

A client is receiving captopril for heart failure. During the nurse's assessment, what sign indicates that the medication therapy is ineffective?

peripheral edema Explanation: Peripheral edema is a sign of fluid volume excess and worsening heart failure. A skin rash and postural hypotension are adverse reactions to captopril, but they don't indicate that therapy is ineffective. The individual will also most likely experience tachycardia instead of bradycardia if the heart failure is worsening ang not responding to captopril.

The nurse is administering digoxin to a client with heart failure. What laboratory value may predispose the client to digoxin toxicity?

potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L Conditions that may predispose a client to digoxin toxicity include hypokalemia (evidenced by a potassium level less than 3.5 mEq/L), hypomagnesemia (evidenced by a magnesium level less than 1.5 mEq/L), hypothyroidism, hypoxemia, advanced myocardial disease, active myocardial ischemia, and altered autonomic tone

A client with a history of an anterior wall myocardial infarction is being transferred from the coronary care unit (CCU) to the cardiac step-down unit (CSU). While giving a report to the CSU nurse, the CCU nurse says, "His pulmonary artery wedge pressures have been in the high normal range." What additional assessment information would be important for the CSU nurse to obtain?

pulmonary crackles Explanation: High pulmonary artery wedge pressures are diagnostic for left-sided heart failure. With left-sided heart failure, pulmonary edema can develop causing pulmonary crackles. In left-sided heart failure, hypotension may result and urine output will decline. Dry mucous membranes aren't directly associated with elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressures.

A client who was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of thrombophlebitis 1 day ago suddenly reports chest pain and shortness of breath and is visibly anxious. The nurse immediately assesses the client for other signs and symptoms of

pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a potentially life-threatening disorder typically caused by blood clots in the lungs. This disorder poses a particular threat to people with cardiovascular disease. Blood clots that form in the deep veins of the legs and embolize to the lungs can cause a pulmonary infarction, whereby emboli mechanically obstruct the pulmonary vessels, cutting off the blood supply to sections of the lung. Clinical indicators of pulmonary embolism can vary but typically include dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachypnea.

A nurse suspects that a client has digoxin toxicity. The nurse should assess for:

vision changes. Vision changes, such as halos around objects, are signs of digoxin toxicity

A client with heart failure must be monitored closely after starting diuretic therapy. What is the best indicator for the nurse to monitor?

weight. Explanation: Heart failure typically causes fluid overload, resulting in weight gain. Therefore, weight is the best indicator of this client's status. One pound gained or lost is equivalent to 500 ml. Fluid intake and output and vital signs are less accurate indicators than weight. Urine specific gravity reflects urine concentration, indicating overhydration or dehydration. Numerous factors can influence urine specific gravity, so it isn't the most accurate indicator of the client's status.