Oral Pathology Ch. 6 Review Quiz
Hypothetically, an autosomal-dominant trait would be clinically present in: A. 50% of the offspring of an affected parent B. 75% of the offspring of an affected parent C. 25% of the offspring of an affected parent D. Only in males, never in female offspring
A. 50% of the offspring of an affected parent
Trisomy is defined as: A. A pair of chromosomes with an identical extra chromosome B. One extra chromosome in each pair C. The presence of two extra X chromosomes in a male D. Three extra chromosomes
A. A pair of chromosomes with an identical extra chromosome
The lyon hypothesis is demonstrated by: A. X-linked dominant traits B. X-linked recessive traits C. autosomal dominant traits D. autosomal recessive traits
A. X-linked dominant traits
Taurodontism is most often observed in A. native american B. asian C. european D. south american
A. native american
All of the following are involved in cherubism except one: A. coronoid process B. condyle C. posterior mandible D. ascending ramus
B. condyle
The process by which a primitive germ cell becomes a gamete is called: A. Mitosis B. Haploid C. Meiosis D. S phase
C. Meiosis
A 14-year-old boy is seen in consultation because of bilateral mandibular swelling. Radiographs show a bilateral multilocular lesion in the ascending mandibular rami. The mother of this patient has similar findings. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome B. Cleidocranial dysplasia C. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome D. Cherubism
D. Cherubism
Barr bodies are seen at the: A. Nuclear periphery of all human cells B. Periphery of the cytoplasm in all human cells C. Periphery of the cytoplasm in all cells from women D. Nuclear periphery of cells in women
D. Nuclear periphery of cells in women
A 9-year-old boy exhibits markedly swollen red and bleeding gingiva. In addition, he has tooth mobility, and the intraoral radiographs show marked alveolar bone atrophy with vertical periodontal pockets. Which of the following will be found in this child if he were to have Papillon-Lefèvre syndrome? A. Blue sclerae B. Lack of anterior vestibular sulcus C. Diminished sweating D. Palmar and plantar hyperkeratosis
D. Palmar and plantar hyperkeratosis
In dentinogenesis imperfecta type II, teeth have: A. Hard, dense dentin B. Dilacerated roots C. Markedly brittle enamel D. Roots that are short and thin
D. Roots that are short and thin
Patients with trisomy 21 (down syndrome) may present with A. macroglossia B. poor oral hygiene C. mental delay or disability D. all of the above
D. all of the above
The Papillon-Lefèvre syndrome is inherited according to a (an) A. Autosomal recessive pattern B. Autosomal dominant pattern C. X-linked dominant pattern D. X-linked recessive pattern
A. Autosomal recessive pattern
Intestinal polyps are the most significant clinical characteristic of which of the following syndromes A. Gardner B. Ellis-Van Creveld C. Laband D. Cleidocranial dysostosis
A. Gardner
The major concern for a dental hygienist when treating a patient with Osler-Rendu-Parkes Weber syndrome should be: A. Gingival hemorrhage B. Spontaneous ulcerations C. Severe infections D. Epithelial desquamation
A. Gingival hemorrhage
Patients with hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia characteristically have: A. Hypodontia B. Multiple tongue nodules C. Excessive amounts of hair D. Blue sclerae
A. Hypodontia
The so-called "enamel agenesis" is one of which type of amelogenesis imperfecta? A. Hypoplastic B. Hypocalcified C. Hypomaturation D. Hypoplastic-hypomaturation
A. Hypoplastic
The most frequently exfoliated teeth in patients with hypophosphatasia are the A. Mandibular primary incisors B. Maxillary primary incisors C. Mandibular permanent incisors D. Maxillary primary molars
A. Mandibular primary incisors
Radiographs of a patient with radicular dentin dysplasia show A. Pulp chambers with a half-moon appearance B. Taurodontic teeth C. Internal resorption of teeth D. Large pulp chambers with long pulp horns
A. Pulp chambers with a half-moon appearance
Which one of the following statements is true when comparing cyclic neutropenia and Kostmann syndrome? A. The oral lesions in Kostmann syndrome are always present unless systemic treatment is instituted. B. The oral lesions in cyclic neutropenia are more severe. C. Both conditions are associated with capillary fragility. D. Both conditions are inherited as autosomal-dominant.
A. The oral lesions in Kostmann syndrome are always present unless systemic treatment is instituted.
Which is true of cyclic neutropenia? A. a periodontal disease is a common feature B. there are periods of leukocytosis C. it is an X-linked trait D. supernumerary teeth are characteristic
A. a periodontal disease is a common feature
Premature loss of the mandibular incisor teeth may be seen in which of the following conditions A. hypophosphatasia B. vitamin D resistant rickets C. down syndrome D. gorlin syndrome
A. hypophosphatasia
Kostmann syndrome is a variety of which of the following A. neutropenia B. leukemia C. osteogenesis D. hemophilia
A. neutropenia
Which of the following statements regarding Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is false? A. patients will develop adenomatous polyps are the gastrointestinal tract B. patients will develop perioral pigmentation C. it is caused by an alteration in chromosome 19 D. all of the above
A. patients will develop adenomatous polyps are the gastrointestinal tract
Both gardner syndrome and cleidocranial dysplasia may be associated with which of the following oral manifestations A. supernumerary teeth B. osteomas of the mandible C. multiple odontogenic keratosis of the jaw D. premature exfoliation of mandibular incisor teeth
A. supernumerary teeth
All of the following are characteristics of ribosomes, except one. Which one is the exception? A. they are located in the nucleus B. they facilitate the formation of new proteins C. they are partly made of RNA D. they bind the tRNA molecules
A. they are located in the nucleus
Cannon disease is also known as: A. white sponge nevus B. gingival fibromatosis C. chronic neutropenia D. cherubism
A. white sponge nevus
Patients with an X-linked hereditary condition: A. Have cells with many Barr bodies B. Are generally affected more severely if they are men C. Are always men D. Are always women
B. Are generally affected more severely if they are men
The most serious clinical manifestation of the MEN 2B syndrome is considered to be: A. Carcinoma of the colon B. Carcinoma of the thyroid gland C. Pheochromocytoma D. Basal cell carcinomas
B. Carcinoma of the thyroid gland
The short and long arms of each chromosome are joined by a constriction called the: A. Chiasmata B. Centromere C. Chromatid D. Equatorial plate
B. Centromere
The most frequent site of hemorrhage in patients with hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is the A. Gingiva B. Nasal mucosa C. Lip mucosa D. Eyelids
B. Nasal mucosa
The order of the four stages of mitosis is: A. Prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase B. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase C. Metaphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase D. Anaphase, metaphase, telophase, prophase
B. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
A 19-year-old woman is diagnosed with cleidocranial dysplasia. She has absent clavicles and a mushroom-shaped skull. Which of the following conditions is she also most likely to have? A. Taurodontism B. Supernumerary teeth C. Pegged lateral incisors D. Large pulp chambers
B. Supernumerary teeth
Patients with osteogenesis imperfecta may develop dental anomalies that may resemble which of the following conditions A. amelogenesis imperfecta B. dentinogenesis imperfecta C. radicular dentin dysplasia D. taurodontism
B. dentinogenesis imperfecta
Which of the following tumors is potentially life threatening? A. neuroma B. medullary carcinoma of the thyroid C. osteoma D. pheochromocytoma
B. medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
Bilateral acoustic neuromas are seen in which of the following syndromes A. neurofibromatosis type I B. neurofibromatosis type II C. MEN 2B D. cleidocranial dysplasia
B. neurofibromatosis type II
Which of the following does not have gingival fibromatosis as a clinical feature? A. leband syndrome B. papillon-lefevre syndrome C. murray-puretic-drescher syndrome D. hypertrichosis, epilepsy, and mental retardation
B. papillon-lefevre syndrome
Trisomy 13 is also referred to as A. down syndrome B. patau syndrome C. gorlin syndrome D. gardner syndrome
B. patau syndrome
Which of the following is typically found in the MEN 2B syndrome? A. carcinoma of the pancreas B. pheochromocytoma C. basal cell carcinoma D. carcinoma of the colon
B. pheochromocytoma
The karyotype of a patient with Turner syndrome shows: A. 43 autosomes and XYY B. 44 autosomes and XXY C. 44 autosomes and XO D. 44 autosomes and XYY
C. 44 autosomes and XO
Taurodontic teeth: A. Are supernumerary B. Have thistle-shaped pulp chambers C. Are pyramidal in shape D. Have long roots
C. Are pyramidal in shape
Which one of the following is associated with cyclic neutropenia? A. Chipping away of enamel B. Premature loss of primary teeth C. Diminished number of circulating neutrophils D. Exfoliating teeth because of short roots
C. Diminished number of circulating neutrophils
Torus mandibularis and torus palatinus are: A. Inherited as an autosomal-recessive trait B. More prevalent in males C. Inherited as an autosomal-dominant trait D. Sporadic traits
C. Inherited as an autosomal-dominant trait
Which of the following is characteristically associated with oral ulcerations? A. Gardner syndrome B. Gorlin syndrome C. Kostmann syndrome D. Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome
C. Kostmann syndrome
Deafness is a consistent feature of A. Leband syndrome B. Ellis-Van Creveld C. Mandibulofacial dysostosis D. Cherubism
C. Mandibulofacial dysostosis
Which of the following is a component of the Peutz-Jeghers syndrome? A. Multiple jaw cysts B. Multiple supernumerary teeth C. Multiple pigmented macules in the lower lip D. Multiple nodules on the tip of the tongue
C. Multiple pigmented macules in the lower lip
Odontogenic keratocysts are a clinical component of: A. MEN 2B syndrome B. Cherubism C. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome D. Neurofibromatosis of von Recklinghausen
C. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome
Which of the following is true for von Recklinghausen disease? A. Patients experience a generalized whitening of the oral mucosa. B. Patients have multiple fibromatoses. C. Patients may have gingival neurofibromas. D. It is inherited as an autosomal-recessive trait.
C. Patients may have gingival neurofibromas.
Karyotype refers to A. a portion of a chromosome attached to another chromosome B. a pair of chromosomes with an identical extra chromosome C. a microphotograph showing a person's chromosomes from a single cell D. the position occupied by a gene in a cell
C. a microphotograph showing a person's chromosomes from a single cell
Which of the following are the same in mitosis and meiosis? A. the number of chromosomes in each cell at the end B. chiasmata formation between chromosome pairs and crossing over occurs C. before division, the DNA is replicated in S phase D. two rounds of cell division occur
C. before division, the DNA is replicated in S phase
Which syndromes are caused by nondisjunction? A. down syndrome B. klinefelter syndrome C. both A and B D. neither A or B
C. both A and B
If a patient with cherubism were to have a jaw lesion biopsied the histology would closely resemble which of the following? A. odontogenic keratosis B. dentigerous cyts C. central giant cell granuloma D. ameloblastoma
C. central giant cell granuloma
Which of the following is characteristically associated with teeth with large pulp chambers? A. coronal dentin dysplasia B. dentinogenesis imperfecta C. hypophosphatemia D. pitted autosomal dominant amelogenesis imperfecta
C. hypophosphatemia
Hypertrichosis means: A. increased number of sweat glands B. diminished number of sweat glands C. increased amount of hair D. decreased amount of hair
C. increased amount of hair
Which is true regarding cherubism? A. it is not detectable radiographically B. it affects only the maxilla C. it often causes hypertelorism D. the fibro-osseous lesions grow throughout life
C. it often causes hypertelorism
All of the following are considered components of Nevoid Basal Cell Carcinoma syndrome (Gorlin syndrome) except one. Which is the exception? A. palmar and plantar pitting B. multiple odontogenic keratosis of the jaw C. multiple osteomas of the jaw D. bifid or splayed ribs
C. multiple osteomas of the jaw
Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome has all of the following characteristics except one. Which is the exception? A. multiple capillary dilations B. scalp and ear are affected C. supernumerary teeth D. epistaxis
C. supernumerary teeth
Patients with hypophosphatasia characteristically have: A. Obliterated pulp chambers B. Marked gingival keratinization C. Increase in serum alkaline phosphatase levels D. Absence of root cementum
D. Absence of root cementum
In all inherited varieties of gingival fibromatosis, the gingival enlargement is characterized by a marked: A. Hyperplasia of the covering epithelium B. Chronic inflammatory cellular infiltrate C. Alveolar bone hypertrophy D. Collagenization of the connective tissue
D. Collagenization of the connective tissue
Two characteristic clinical components of mandibulofacial dysostosis are: A. Cleft lip and fistulas of lower lip B. Lack of clavicles and delayed teeth eruption C. Hypodontia and dysplastic nails D. Hypoplastic mandible and deafness
D. Hypoplastic mandible and deafness
Which of the following is the most serious component of Gardner syndrome? A. Multiple osteomas B. Teeth hypercementosis C. Mandibular odontomas D. Intestinal polyposis
D. Intestinal polyposis
The cause of all forms of labial and palatal clefting is considered to be: A. Autosomal dominant B. Environmental C. Autosomal recessive D. Multifactorial
D. Multifactorial
The characteristic finding in permanent teeth affected with coronal dentin dysplasia is: A. Crowns with amber color B. Markedly short roots C. Large, square pulp chambers D. Thistle-shaped pulp chambers on radiographs
D. Thistle-shaped pulp chambers on radiographs
Teeth in snowcapped amelogenesis imperfecta have: A. Short, blunted roots B. Obliterated pulp chambers C. A thin, brown enamel D. White hypocalcified enamel at the incisal and occlusal thirds
D. White hypocalcified enamel at the incisal and occlusal thirds
All of the are characteristics of cherubism, which one is the exception? A. pseudoanodontia B. autosomal dominant C. ocular hypertelorism D. autosomal recessive
D. autosomal recessive
Which of the following is not considered a component of MEN 2B syndrome? A. pheochromocytoma B. medullary thyroid carcinoma C. multiple mucosal neuromas D. bilateral acoustic neuromas
D. bilateral acoustic neuromas
What is assessed by a patient's karyotype? A. protein B. RNA C. bone structure D. chromosomes
D. chromosomes
In which of the following conditions can the shoulders be brought forward to the midline as a result of hypoplastic clavicles? A. cherubism B. ellis-van creveld syndrome C. turner syndrome D. cleidocranial dysplasia
D. cleidocranial dysplasia
Which of the following is not characteristic of an ameloblastoma? A. in an odontogenic tumor B. is benign but locally invasive C. histologically reveals epithelium and stellate reticulum tissue D. only affects major salivary glands
D. only affects major salivary glands
Ellis-Van Creveld syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A. anterior maxillary vestibule is absent B. dwarfism C. poludactyly D. pseudoanodontia
D. pseudoanodontia
Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia has all of the following features except one. Which one is the exception? A. hypotrichosis B. hypohidrosis C. saddle ridge nose D. supernumerary teeth
D. supernumerary teeth
What is the most common intraoral location for hemangioma?
tongue