Chapter 1 - 28

You are treating a 38 year old female who has a large shard of glass impaled in her right leg. Care on the field for this patient includes: a. Stabilizing the object in place b. Using direct pressure on the site c. Leaving the object alone and rapidly transporting d. Carefully removing the object

A

You are treating a 45 year old female patient who has sustained considerable blood loss after slicing her hand while preparing food. She states that she feels nauseated. What is causing this symptom of feeling nauseated. A. blood is diverted from the digestive system B. blood rushes rapidly to the digestive system C. shock increases the production of digestive juices D. the patient has swallowed a great amount of blood

A

Participation in continuing education and keeping carefully written documentation are examples of the EMT's role in: A. Patient advocacy B. Medical direction C. Quality improvement D. Transfer of care

C

A passerby called the ambulance for a homeless patient you are now assessing because she thought he was unconscious. He has cold, dry skin, which is frequently associated with: A. high fever and/or hear exposure B. exposure to cold C. shock and anxiety D. a body that is losing heat

B

You are treating a 58 year old female who states that she is not feeling well after returning home from her dialysis treatment. Each of the following is a complicate of dialysis except: A. development of an aortic aneurism B. bleeding form the sire of the A-V fistula C. clotting and loss of function of the A-V fistula D. a bacterial infection of the blood

A

If an EMT with a duty to act fails to provide the standard of care, and if this failure causes harm or injury to the patient, the EMT may be accused of: A. Res ipsa loquitur B. Negligence C. Abandonment D. Assault

B

You are treating a diabetic patient who seems to have overdone his exercise routine today. he is a little confused about where he is and the day of the week. The most likely medical condition he has developed is called: A. hypoglycemia B. hyperglycemia C. diabetes mellitus D. acute pulmonary edema

A

You are treating a patient who has fertilizer all over his arms and legs. After ensuring your own safety with PPE, you should: A. brush off as much powder as possible, then irrigate B. immediately start irrigation with very cold water C. leave the powder in place and transport immediately D. irrigate with water for 20 minutes

A

You have a patient who was injured on the rooftop of a three-story structure. He is currently positioned on a scoop-style stretcher, and the fire department will be lowering him down a ladder bed to the ground. You should: A. Place the stretcher and patient in a plastic basket stretcher B. Transfer the patient to a Reeves stretcher C. Place the patient on a short spine board D. Lower the patient in the scoop stretcher

A

If the adult males patient you are treating is suffering from breathing difficulty but you decide he is breathing adequately, oxygen should be administered via: A. nasal cannula B. nonrebreather mask C. pocket face mask D. bag mask device with supplemental oxygen

B

If the number of patients is more than the responding units can effectively handle, the EMT should: A. involve bystanders in care of the injured B. call for additional EMS resources immediately C. advise medical direction that assistance is needed D. do all of these

B

You are treating a patient who is a diabetic with an altered mental status. He has a gag reflex, so oral glucose is your treatment. This is given between the patient's cheek and gum using a tongue depressor because: A. this method allows slow swallowing and absorption into the bloodstream B. it will not be aspirated if the patient suddenly becomes unconscious C. this area will cause the patient to regurgitate the stomach's content D. it will assist in dilating the coronary vessels as much as possible.

A

If the patient has an altered mental status, the EMT should consider a _____ move. A. Emergency B. Urgent C. Non-urgent D. Immediate

B

If the response time from the moment a call is received to arrival of the defibrillator is longer than ____ minutes, virtually no one survives a cardiac arrest. A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12

B

If you are treating a severely injured trauma patient, it may be appropriate to skip the: A. initial physical exam B. detailed physical exam C. baseline vital signs C. primary assessment

B

If you arrive at a collision scene where there are police, fire vehicles, and other ambulances already present, you should: A. immediately begin patient care B. conduct your own scene size-up C. ensure that no bystanders are injured D. all of these

B

You have decided that the most appropriate method of bleeding control for your patient is to apply a tourniquet. Once a tourniquet is in place, it must: A. not be removed or loosened unless ordered by medical direction B. be covered immediately to prevent accidental removal C. be loosened every 15 minutes to dislodge clots D. be used under the pneumatic antishock garment

A

You are treating a patient who was found on the floor in the nursing home. It seems evident that he has a fractured hip as he lies on the floor in pain. If you stop the search for diagnosis as soon as you come up with the cause of today's problem, this can lead to: A. missing out on the secondary diagnosis B. overconfidence and misdiagnosis C. overestimating the frequency of the problem D. all of these

A

You are treating a patient who was found unconscious in an alley. During your primary survey, you hear an airway sound that usually indicates the need for suction. This sound is called: A. gurgling B. crowing C. stridor D. wheezing

A

You are treating a patient who was involved in a head-on collision. She was the unrestrained driver who took the "up-and-over" pathway. To which part of her body was she most likely to have sustained injuries? A. Skull B. Fibula C. Knees D. Femur

A

You are treating a pitcher who was hit in the face with a ball that was hit by the batter. You remember from your EMT training that any blow above the ___ may damage the cervical spine. A. clavicles B. diaphragm C. femur D. pelvis

A

An example of ensuring continuity during the transfer of care of the patient would be: A. Providing pertinent patient information to the hospital staff B. Performing more hospital procedures in the field C. Only giving a report directly to a physician D. None of these

A

An oropharyngeal airway of proper size extends from the: A. corner of the patient's mouth to the tip of the earlobe B. lips to the larynx C. nose to the angle of the jaw D. none of these

A

As you approach a 35 year old male patient who has passed out while cleaning a large tank, you smell an unusual odor. What should you do? A. stand back and attempt to learn more about the chemical involved. B. rapidly remove the patient from the area using a drag maneuver C. ignore the smell; it is probably a normal odor around industrial sites D. ask his coworkers to bring the patient to your ambulance

A

Before connecting a regulator to an oxygen supply cylinder, the EMT should: A. remove the protective seal and then open the valve B. stand to the side of the main valve opening and crack the cylinder valve slightly C. attach the nonrebreather mask to the flowmeter, then attach to the tank D. do all of these

A

Blast injuries often include each of the following except: a. Potentially infectious disease b. Tertiary injuries from air injection into the skin c. Primary lacerations and abrasions d. Secondary projectile injuries

A

Bones in the upper extremities include the: A. Humerus and radius B. Humerus and calcaneus C. Phalanges and tibia D. Ulna and cervical

A

Cells and tissues of the brain, spinal cord, and ___ are the most sensitive to inadequate perfusion. A. kidneys B. lungs C. stomach D. heart

A

You are treating an unresponsive adult male patient. If he is making ____ sounds, he may have a serious airway problem requiring immediate intervention. A. snoring or gurgling B. slight wheezing C. sniffling D. whistling or grunting

A

Concerns about the dangers of giving too much oxygen to elderly patients with COPD: A. are invalid in the out-of-hospital setting of a patient in respiratory distress B. have been understated and proven to be a major problem C. are invalid when the patient is over the age of 60 D. are dealt with by using a nonrebreather mask at low flow rates

A

Each of the following diseases is thought to be spread by respiratory secretions or oral or nasal secretions except: A. Hepatitis B. Bacterial meningitis C. Pneumonia D. Tuberculosis

A

Examples of patient data on a PCR would be: A. date of birth and age B. time of arrival at the hospital C. ambulance identification number D. the hospital transported to

A

For the EMT to consider administering oral glucose, the patient must have an altered mental status, have a: A. history of diabetes, and be awake enough to swallow B. prescribed medication, and have an absent gag reflex C. history of seizures, and be awake D. Medic Alert tag that says "diabetic," and have a head injury

A

Good personality traits are very important to the EMT. You should be: A. Cooperative and resourceful B. Respectful and condescending C. Cunning and inventive D. Emotionally stable and shy

A

Hot, dry skin is frequently associated with: A. high fever and heat exposure B. exposure to cold C. shock and anxiety D. heat loss

A

If ____ is the burn agent, brush it from the patient's skin and then flush the patient with water. a. Dry lime b. Electricity c. Radiation d. Acid

A

Patients with heart problems may complain of any of the following except: A. pain in the center of the chest B. mild chest discomfort C. sudden onset of sharp abdominal pain D. difficulty breathing

C

If a 22 year old male patient has a partial thickness burn to the entire back, he should be: a. Wrapped in a dry, sterile burn sheet b. Cooled down with ice for 15 minutes c. Wrapped in a moist sterile dressing d. Dried and wrapped in an airtight dressing

A

If it is necessary to remove a nitroglycerin patch to defibrillate a patient, you should: A. wear gloves B. wear goggles C. ensure that you have a replacement patch D. cleanse the patient's skin with alcohol

A

If sugar is not replenished quickly for the diabetic patient who has developed hypoglycemia, the patient: A. may have permanent brain damage B. may go into pulmonary edema C. will have chest pain D. can live off his internal sugar supply for up to 2 weeks

A

If the EMT forgot to administer a treatment that is required by the state treatment protocols, he or she should: A. document on the PCR only treatment that was actually given B. be sure to document an excuse for why the treatment was skipped C. record that the patient was given the forgot treatment D. do none of these

A

If the diabetic is symptomatic and has a sugar level below ____, he is considered hyperglycemic. A. 120 B. 100 C. 80 D. 60

A

If your 35 year old male patient stands in a corner of the room with his fists clenched, screaming obscenities, you should: A. request police backup and keep the doorway in sight B. raise your voice to a higher level than the patient's C. challenge the patient in an attempt to calm him D. explain that you would respond the same way

A

You arrive on the scene of a large fire. If the personnel at the scene are using the incident command/management system, you should: A. follow the instructions of the person in charge B. drive past the scene and park off the road C. transport the first patient you come across D. tag all of the patients

A

The normal blood glucose meter reading should be: A. 40 to 60 mg/dl B. 60 to 80 mg/dl C. 80 to 100 mg/dl D. 100 to 120 mg/dl

B

In an adult patient an oral airway should be inserted: A. upside down, with the tip toward the roof of the mouth, then flipped 180 degrees over the tongue B. right side up, using a tongue depressor to press the tongue down and forward to keep it from obstructing the airway C. either of these D. neither of these

A

The normal or adequate breathing rate for an adult should be: A. 6 to 10 breaths per minute B. 12 to 20 breaths per minute C. 15 to 30 breaths per minute D. 25 to 50 breaths per minute

B

In some instances, the EMT may have to utilize force. The use of force by an EMT is allowed: A. to defend against an attack by an emotionally disturbed patient B. only when the police are present C. whenever a patient refuses any of your treatments D. whenever you suspect the patient has been drinking

A

The large leaf-like structure that protects the opening to the trachea is called the: A. oropharynx B. xiphoid process C. epiglottis D. cricoid cartliage

C

In the adult trauma patient, why is the capillary refill no longer used to ass the circulation? A. it is not a good indicator B. only children have capillary refill C. it is still a very important step D. because EMT's have difficulty remembering to use it

A

It is essential that the EMT do a good scene size-up. Your scene size-up should identify: A. the potential fora a violent situation B. the name and amount of toxic substances C. the number of patients and their diagnoses D. all of these

A

Medications that are routinely carried on the EMT-level EMS unit are: A. aspirin, oral glucose and oxygen B. oxygen and nitroglycerin C. epinephrine and prescribed inhalers D. all of these

A

One of the key contributions to improvement in EMS over the years has been" A. the type II, van-style ambulance vehicle B. development of radio links among dispatcher, mobile units, and hospitals C. the military antishock trousers D. air conditioning in the transport vehicles

B

One way to determine the patient's level of responsiveness it to: A. put ammonia inhalants into each nostril B. rub the patient's sternum briskly C. place the patent's hand in water D. press on the patent's nail beds

B

Most medical professionals and EMS leaders agree that the best course of action for an EMT who is experiencing significant stress from a serious call that involved multiple deaths is to: A. Seek help from a mental health professional who is experienced in these issues B. Give the EMS a week off form work C. Encourage the EMT to exercise vigorously D. Assign other EMTs to go talk with the EMT

A

Most members of the general public associate a ___ seizure with epilepsy. A. generalized tonic-clonic B. complex partial C. simple partial D. idiopathic

A

The leading cause of death in the young adulthood age group is (are): A. overdoes B. heart attacks C. accidents D. strokes

C

Movement of air in and out of the chest requires: A. A patent airway B. An alert mental status C. A large tidal volume to overcome the dead space D. All of these

A

National levels of EMS training includes all of the following except: A. Advanced first aid B. Emergency medical responder C. Advanced EMT D. EMT-paramedic

A

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated for the patient who has: A. an obvious head injury and altered mental status B. a systolic blood pressure of 110 C. not yet taken the maximum dose D. been complaining of pain for at least 20 minutes

A

Occasionally, EMT's may have only a limited amount of information about the patient to document on the PCR. An example of an instance in which it would not be unusual of the EMT to obtain only a limited amount of information is: A. during a multiple-casualty incident B. during an interhospital transfer C. while performing a nonemergency run D. when encountering a child abuse case

A

Of the following groups, the highest suicide rates occur in the ____ age group. A. 15-25 B. 25-30 C. 30-35 D. 35-40

A

Of the following signs and symptoms, which one is not seen with alcohol abuse but is seen with a diabetic emergency? A. acetone breath B. hallucinations C. slurred speech D. swaying and unsteadiness of movement

A

Patients who develop sepsis are prone to problems with: A. Capillary permeability B. Lack of insulin C. Blood vessel constriction D. All of these

A

Prior to coaching your 37 year old male patient on how to use his inhaler you should: A. shake the inhaler vigorously B. test the unit by spraying into the air C. ensure that the patient is no longer alert D. call the patient's personal physician

A

Seizures are commonly caused by all of the following except: A. cold exposure B. a high fever C. a brain tumor D. an infection

A

Shallow breathing occurs when: A. there is only slight movement of the chest or abdomen B. there is stridor or grunting on expiration C. there is a complete obstruction D. the chest muscles fully expand with each breath

A

The "P" in DCAP-BTLS refers to: A. punctures/penetrations B. palpation/pulse C. priapism/penetrations D. paradoxical motion/punctures

A

Patient care provided by the EMT should be: A. Delayed until transportation B. Based on assessment finding C. Guided by the service's attorney D. Based upon the diagnosis of the patient

B

The 18 year old male you are assessing was running with a sharp tool and tripped, impaling the tool in his right cheek. Which of the following is false about this impaled object? a. It should never be removed b. It can create an airway obstruction c. It can cause nausea and vomiting d. It is pulled out in the direction it entered

A

Patients with diabetes routinely test the level of sugar in their blood using a device called a(n): A. capnograph B. glucose meter C. end-tidal CO2 monitor D. oximeter

B

The 55 year old male continues to discuss his condition with you. His chief complaint is chest pain and when you ask "Do you have nausea or have you been vomiting?" you are questioning him about his: A. signs and symptoms B. medication history C. allergies D. pertinent past history

A

The adolescent years are the beginning of: A. self-destructive behaviors B. excellent decision-making skills C. nasal breathing D. the replacement of primary teeth

A

The patient has a long history of poorly controlled diabetes and hypertension. What life-ending disease is highly likely to occur in this patient? A. GI bleeding B. Renal failure C. Brain hemorrhage D. COPD

B

The patient you are treating has difficulty sleeping, so she takes tranquilizers. These sleeping pills are examples of: A. uppers B. downers C. narcotics D. hallucinogens

B

The peak physical condition occurs between the ages of _____ and _____. A. 12; 16 B. 19; 26 C. 30; 40 D. 35; 45

B

The bag-valve mask should be capable of: A. withstanding cold temperatures B. providing a high pressure in the chest and airway C. blowing off at pressures above 40 mm of water pressure D. receiving an oxygen inlet flow of 25 liters per minute

A

The final step in packaging a patient on a wheeled stretcher is: A. Securing the patient to the stretcher B. Placing a towel under the patients head C. Covering the patient with a top sheet D. Adjusting the position of the back rest

A

The functions of our blood include all of the following except: A. removal of oxygen from the cells B. control of bleeding by clotting C. delivery of waste products to the kidneys and the liver D. removal of carbon dioxide from the cells

A

The leading cause of internal injuries and bleeding is: A. blunt trauma B. penetrating trauma C. auto collisions D. large lacerations

A

The most commonly transported organ(s) is (are) the: A. kidney B. liver C. heart D. spleen

A

The negative side effects of positive pressure ventilation include of the following except: A. hypothermia B. gastric distention C. decreasing cardiac output D. dropping blood pressure

A

The pressure on the walls of an artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the ____ pressure. A. Systolic B. Arterial C. Diastolic D. Residual

A

The pulse oximeter is helpful because it: A. encourages you to be more aggressive with oxygen therapy B. helps you decide when you should withhold oxygen C. indicates when a patient is about the become hypothermic D. indicates that the patient is a heavy smoker

A

The reason an emergency occurs in most cardiac-related medical emergencies is due to: A. reduced blood flow to the myocardium B. cardiac arrest C. loss of consciousness D. breathing difficulty

A

The respiratory rate is classified as: A. normal, slow, or rapid B. noisy, shallow, or normal C. labored, quick, or noisy D. weak, thready, or full

A

The scene size-up is the first part of the patient assessment process. It begins as you approach the scene, surveying it to determine: A. if there are any threats to your patient's safety B. the number of injured C. personal safety of all those involved in the call D. the mechanism of injury (MOI)

A

The seat of the brain's respiratory control is a section called the: A. Medulla B. Foramen magnum C. Cerebellum D. Cerebrum

A

The second time a person is exposed to an allergen, the body reactions may include all of the following except: A. destruction of antibodies B. difficulty breathing C. massive swelling D. dilation of the blood vessels

A

The shockable rhythms include all of the following except: A. asystole and PEA B. ventricular fibrillation C. pulseless ventricular tachycardia D. ventricular tachycardia

A

The signs or symptoms that suggest the possibility of a particular problem that is very serious is referred to as a(n): A. red flag B. black triage tag C. unstable situation D. none of these

A

The skin has multiple layers. The layer called the ____ is composed of dead cells, which are rubbed or sloughed off and are replaced continuously. a. Epidermis b. Dermis c. Subcutaneous d. Epithelial

A

The spinal column includes the _____ vertebrae A. Thoracic and coccyx B. Cervical and orbit C. Lumbar and sternal D. Sacrum and pelvic

A

The systolic blood pressure is: A. created when the heart contracts B. listed as the lower number in the BP fraction C. created when the heart relaxes D. seldom used in prehospital care

A

The traditional approach to diagnosis involves: A. narrowing down a long list B. jumping to conclusions C. taking lots of shortcuts D. eliminating similar conditions

A

The treatment of neck vein injury includes all of the following except: a. Compressing the region of injury b. Preventing an embolus c. Preventing shock d. Stopping bleeding

A

The two main divisions of the nervous system are: A. Central and peripheral B. Bones and muscles C. Brain and skin D. Spinal cord and brain

A

When assessing the abdomen of an adult male critical trauma patient, the EMT should inspect/palpate for ___ in addition to wounds and deformities. A. distention of the kidneys B. colostomy and /or ileostomy C. crepitation D. paradoxical motion

B

There are laws, both state and federal, that protect patient privacy. An example of a method that an ambulance service would use to safeguard patient confidentiality is: A. requiring employees to place completed PCRs in a locked box B. using only patient last names during radio transmission C. allowing only PCRs with patient name to be distributed during QA meetings D. none of these is an acceptable procedure

A

Respiration is activated by changing pressure within the thorax. _____ is a(n) ____ process, and _____ is a(n) _______ process. A. Exhalation; active; inhalation; passive B. Inhalation; active; exhalation; passive C. Exhalation; active; inhalation; voluntary D. Inhalation; passive; exhalation; involuntary

B

There are varying degrees of DNR orders, expressed through a variety of detailed instructions that may be part of the order, such as: A. Allowing CPR only if cardiac or respiratory arrest was observed. B. Allowing comfort-care measures such as intravenous feeding C. Disallowing the use of long term life-support measures D. Specifying that only 5 minutes of artificial respiration will be attempted

A

To avoid trauma to a patient with an injured spine, the best patient-carrying device would be the: A. Long spine board B. Wheeled stretcher C. Stokes basket D. Portable ambulance stretcher

A

Serious family conflicts occur in some ____ as the children strive for _____ and the parents strive for _____? A. school-age children; freedom; control B. adolescents; independence; control C. early adults; control; independence D. preschoolers; independence; control

B

You were just on a call about which your agency medical director requires you to complete a special incident report. Special situation (incident) reports: A. document events that should be reported to local regulatory authorities B. can be submitted at any time after the call C. need not be accurate and or objective D. are required on each call

A

To control profuse bleeding resulting from an injury caused by an impaled object: a. Position your gloved hands on either side of the object and exert downward pressure b. Use a pressure point distal to the injury to control the bleeding c. Let the blood flow freely from the would left by removal of the object d. Stabilize the object with gloved hands and then immediately apply a tourniquet

A

To evaluate skin color in a dark-skinned patient, the EMT should also: A. evaluate the tissues of the lips or nail beds B. evaluate the tissues of the heels of the feet C. check the pupils of the eyes D. do all of these

A

To open the airway of a patient with a suspected head, neck, or spine injury, the EMT should use a _____ maneuver. A. jaw-thrust B. head-tilt, chin-lift C. head-tilt, neck-lift D. modified chin-thrust

A

When considering the mechanism of injury (MOI), which of the following would not be considered a significant MOI in an adult? A. high-speed motorcycle crash B. vehicle-pedestrian collision C. a 10-foot fall D. Rollover vehicle collision

C

Your 19 year old male patient has sustained a very serious injury, and it will be necessary to apply an occlusive dressing to the wound. An occlusive dressing is used to: a. Form an airtight seal b. Stabilize an impaled object c. Control severe bleeding d. Secure sprain injuries

A

Various techniques can be used by the EMT to provide artificial ventilation in the field. Given plenty of trained helpers, which would be the least effective? A. one-rescuer using a bag-valve mask B. a flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device C. two rescuers using a bag-valve mask with high-concentration supplemental oxygen at 15 lpm D. mouth-to-mouth with high-concentration supplemental oxygen at 15 lpm

A

Water management by the cells of the body is important because: A. It influences the concentrations of electrolytes B. Too much water leads to hypernatremia C. Too little water stops basic cell function D. All of these are true

A

What is the typical position of comfort that you should consider using for a 62 year old male patient who is complaining of crushing substernal chest pain and shortness of breath. His pulse is fast, BP is high, and pulse oxygen is in the low 90's. A. fowler B. supine C. prone D. lying down with knees bent

A

When a patient begins to vomit, it is essential that you have a (n) _____ ready to go at the patient's side. A. suction unit B. oxygen tank C. blood pressure cuff D. pocket mask

A

When a patient has been trapped in a building for several days, all of the following, including dehydration, are concerns of the EMT except: A. chronic renal failure B. shock C. acute renal failure D. stroke

A

When a patient is walking, she is using which type of muscle? A. Voluntary B. Involuntary C. Cardiac D. Smooth

A

When an EMT covers a patients mouth and nose with a mask to prevent the spread of an airborne disease, he or she should: A. Monitor the respirations and airway closely B. Write "TB alert" on the patients prehospital care report C. Wear a surgical mask to reduce the spread of TB D. Notify his or her supervisor prior to transporting the patient.

A

When an infant developers anxiety and insecurity; this is often due to the psychosocial characteristic referred to as: A. trust versus mistrust B. temperament C. bonding D. scaffolding

A

When assessing the neck of an adult female critical trauma patient, the EMT should inspect/palpate for ___ in addition to wounds and deformities. A. jugular vein distension B. swelling C. lacerations D. burns

A

When assessing the pulse rate of a typical adult who is not in distress, you would expect to obtain a rate of: A. 60 to 100 B. 70 to 110 C. 80 to 120 D. 90 to 140

A

When caring for a 22 year old male burn patient: a. Think beyond the burn to possible medical causes and results b. Always begin transport before treatment c. Obtain the name of the product that caused the burn d. Determine the duration of the exposure

A

When caring for a 22 year old male who was burned: a. Do not neglect assessment to begin burn care b. Transport immediately c. Take the patient to the closest hospital d. Run cold water on the patient for at least 20 minutes

A

When is it appropriate to apply a cervical collar? A. If the mechanism of injury exerts great force on the upper body B. If there is any pain in the abdomen C. If there is any burn injury to the neck D. If the patient has experienced any trauma

A

When lifting a cot or stretcher: A. Use an even number of people so that balance is maintained B. Keep both of your feet together and flat on the ground C. Use a third person positioned on the heaviest side D. If you must use one hand only, compensate by using your back

A

When the body is subjected to exertion or stress, the heart rate will normally: A. increase B. decrease C. become irregular D. stop temporarily

A

When the left ventricle of the heart relaxes and refills, the pressure in the arteries is called the _____ pressure. A. diastolic B. carotid C. ventricular D. systolic

A

When treating a toddler who is sitting on the couch complaining of stomach pain, the best approach is to: A. kneel down so you are at the child's level B. speak louder so the child can hear you above all the crying C. star directly into the child's eyes D. tell the child you are a friend of his parents

A

When you are in sight of the collision scene., you should watch for the signals of police officers and other emergency service personnel because: A. they may have information about hazards or the location of injured persons B. the first ones on the scene are considered to be in charge C. federal law requires you to follow the command of other responders D. they are considered the medical-care experts on the scene

A

When you inform the adult patient of a procedure you are about to perform and its associated risks, you are asking for her or his: A. Expressed consent B. Negligence C. Implied consent D. Applied consent

A

When you must push an object: A. Keep the line of pull through the center of your body by bending your knees B. Push from an overhead position, keeping your knees locked C. Keep the weight you are pushing at least 20 inches away from your body D. Keep the elbows straight with arms close to your sides

A

When you place all fingers and the palm in contact with the object being lifted, you are using a: A. Power grip B. Power lift C. Lock grip D. Grip lift

A

Which is not an example of a penetrating trauma? A. blast injury B. gunshot wound C. knife wound D. ice-pick wound

A

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an idiopathic seizure? A. lasts longer than 10 minutes B. occurs spontaneously C. cause is unknown D. often starts in childhood

A

Which of the following is not a general principle of AED use? A. hook up oxygen before beginning defibrillation B. avoid contact with the patient during rhythm analysis C. be sure everyone is "clear" before delivering each shock D. avoid defibrillation in a moving ambulance

A

Which of the following is the best description of the concept of a " platinum 10 minutes?" A. the maximum on-scene time when caring fro a trauma or shock patient B. the optimum time limit from the time of injury until surgery C. the maximum time limit for controlling arterial bleeding before shock occurs D. the optimum time limit for applying PASG to the shock pateint

A

Which of the following is the most accurate definition of a poison? A. any substance that can harm the body, sometimes seriously enough to create a medical emergency B. any foreign substance swallowed by the patient C. any substance that could kill the patient if it is injected into the body D. any substance labeled with a hazardous material placard or label

A

Which of the following nervous system reflexes is not normally found in an infant? A. The Cushing reflex B. The Moro reflex C. The Rooting reflex D. None of these

A

Signs of a potentially inadequate airway include all of the following except: A. absent air movement B. air that can be felt at the nose or mouth on expiration C. unusual hoarse or raspy shound quality to the voice D. abnormal noises such as wheezing, crowing, or stridor

B

While in the living room of a private home and treating a patient for nausea, headache, and general body weakness, your eyes being to tear. Three family members have the same symptoms. You should immediately: A. evacuate all people form the building B. call for three additional ambulances C. notify the police department D. begin to flush out everyone's eyes

A

Why would last oral intake be an important part of your SAMPLE history to ask the patient id he has a chief complaint of abdominal discomfort? A. the food may have been spoiled B. food can lead to altered mental state in may instances C. visceral pain is more severe on an empty stomach D. referred pain is more severe on a full stomach

A

You are administering a medication for a specific purpose according to your treatment protocols. An action of a drug that is other than the desired action is called a: A. side effect B. overdose C. contraindication D. systemic effect

A

You are assessing a 25 year old male who has abdominal pain. When you palpate his abdomen, be sure to palpate the area with the pain: A. last B. first C. second D. third

A

Specialized nerve endings in the skin layer called the ____ are involved with the senses of touch, cold, heat and pain. a. Epidermis b. Dermis c. subcutaneous layers d. Epithelial cells

B

You are at the scene of a home invasion where the homeowner was shot to death by the perpetrators. At this crime scene, you should: A. Avoid disturbing any evidence at the scene unless emergency care requires B. Immediately remove the patient from the scene C. Move all obstacles from around the patient to make more room to work D.Search the house for clues to the cause of the crime

A

The most common results of poison ingestion are: A. altered mental status and diarrhea B. nausea and vomiting C. abdominal pain and diarrhea D. chemical burns around the mouth and stomach pain

B

You are dispatched to the scene of an explosion. On arrival, you find a 35 year old male who bystanders say was in an area of the explosion. In terms of injuries, you expect to find a(n): a. Mixture of open and closed injuries b. Series of penetrating objects c. Impaled object d. Amputation

A

You are evaluating a patient who sustained a penetrating injury. the injury is usually limited to the penetrated area in a ____ injury. A. low-velocity B. medium-velocity C. high-velocity D. super-velocity

A

You just treated a 17 year old male who was struck in the chest with a baseball and went into sudden cardiac arrest. you medical director says that you did a good job on the call but this was not the typical cardiac arrest victim. Who is the typical cardiac arrest victim? A. a male in his sixties B. a female in her forties C. a male in his seventies D. there is no pattern to cardiac arrest

A

You suspect that your 28 year old male patient may have been exposed to a poison that was absorbed. Examples of absorbed poisons include: A. insecticides and agricultural chemicals B. carbon monoxide and chlorine C. insect stings and snake bites D. aspirin and LSD

A

Your patient is a suspected stroke patient. A common sign you would expect to find in this patient is: A. tingling in both legs B. diminished urine flow C. low blood pressure D. headache

D

You are going to use an air sling to manage the bleeding on the lower leg of a 22 year old male patient. Which of the following is true about the use of an air splint? A. it is effective for controlling venous and capillary bleeding B. it should be used only if there is no suspected bone injury C. it is most effective for controlling arterial bleeding D. it should be used before other manual methods of bleeding control

A

You are in a rush during a call and did not have time to take a second set of vital signs. Your partner says, just write in another set ten minutes after the first one. Falsification of information on a PCR may lead to: A. suspension or revocation of your license or certification B. better EMT education C. longer response times D. none of these

A

You are on the scene of a call where a patient barricaded himself and his wife in their home and is threatening to do harm. The police have been at the scene for hours and after the wife escaped, they rushed in. It is now your responsibly to transport this now-restrained patient to the local ED. What should be your highest priority? A. Monitoring the patients mental status and vital signs B. Making sure your documentation shows you did not apply handcuffs C. Restraining the patient so he is not able to move D. Explaining to the patient that he no longer has any rights to refuse care

A

People with diabetes routinely test the level of sugar in their blood using a(n): A. capnograph B. glucose meter C. urinal D. oximeter

B

You are responding to a call for a 37 year old male patient who has had a seizure. Convulsive seizures may be seen with: A. epilepsy of hypoglycemia B. hyperventilation or AMI C. anaphylaxis or pulmonary embolism D. hyperglycemia or asthma

A

You are standing by at the finish line of a 5 kilometer road race when a runner crossed the line and is suddenly in distress. He is very thin and tall, and complaining of a sudden sharp pain when he breathe. What is his most likely respiratory condition? A. spontaneous pneumothorax B. pulmonary embolism C. cystic fibrosis D. a viral respiratory infection

A

The musculoskeletal system has three main functions. It gives the body shape, provides for body movements and A. Gives the body sensation B. Protects vital internal organs C. Provides for the body's outer covering D. Allows transport of oxygen into the cells

B

You are treating a 22 year old male patient who sustained a closed head injury when he was thrown off his bike. He is breathing adequately yet is confused about the day of the week and his location. The recommended interval for reassessment is every ___ minutes because this patient's status is ____. A. 5; unstable B. 15; stable C. 10; unstable D. 20; stable

A

You are treating a 27 year old female patient who has sustained a severe open would. Your first priority, as it relates to this type of wound is to: a. Control bleeding b. Clean the wound c. Prevent contamination d. Bandage the wound

A

You are treating a 27 year old female who has a condition that you suspect has been brought about by a decrease in insulin production. This condition is known as: A. diabetes mellitus B. hypotension C. hypoglycemia D. stroke

A

You are treating a 29 year old female factory worker who was involved in an accident where a machine has amputated her right forearm. Bleeding from a clean-edged amputation is usually cared for initially with: A. a pressure dressing B. cold application C. a tourniquet D. a pneumatic antishock garment

A

You are treating a 32 year old female who was found unconscious by her roommate when she got home late at night. Why is it important to determine when the ingestion of a poison occurred? A. different poisons act on the boy at different rates B. those who ingest poison in the evening tend to vomit more C. dilution of the poison is not effective after 10 minutes D. the antidote works more effectively once the poison is in the intestines

A

A "vibration" that can be palpated at the fistula in the arm of the dialysis patient is called a(n): A. thrill B. aneurism C. hematoma D. embolism

A

A 21 year old female who has overdosed on an "upper", may have signs and symptoms such as: A. excitement, increased pulse and breathing rates, dilated pupils, and rapid speech B. sluggish, sleepiness, and lack of coordination of body and speech C. fast pulse rate, dilated pupils, flushed face, and "seeing" or "hearing" things D. reduced pulse rate and rate and depth of breathing, constricted pupils, and sweating

A

A burn that involves only the epidermis is called a ____ burn. a. Superficial b. Partial thickness c. Full thickness d. Epi thickness

A

A common result of injured capillaries bleeding under the skin is called: A. swelling B. puncture C. laceration D. abrasion

A

A difference between a patient with respiratory distress and a patient with respiratory failure includes: A. respiratory failure shows mottled or blotchy skin color B. respiratory failure shows an alert mental status C. respiratory distress shows blue skin D. respiratory distress results in a comatose patient

A

A example of a condition where glands of the body are producing too much of a hormone is: A. Graves disease B. Diabetes C. Meningitis D. A stroke

A

A nonshockable rhythm that can be the result of a terminally sick heart or severe blood loss is called: A. pulseless electrical activity B. ventricular tachycardia C. pulseless ventricular tachycardia D. ventricular fibrillation

A

A partial thickness burn that involves less than 15 percent of the body surface is classified as: a. Minor b. Moderate c. Critical d. Unnecessary to treat

A

A respiratory condition that used to be prominent with children but has been virtually eliminated due to vaccinations of infants is: A. epiglottitis B. croup C. asthma D. emphysema

A

A seizure will normally last about ____ minutes. A. 1 to 3 B. 4 to 6 C. 7 to 10 D. 30

A

A severe fall for an adult is: A. over 15 feet B. often accompanied by an amputation C. less than 10 feet D. always fatal

A

You are treating a 35 year old male patient whose tip of the nose was cut or torn off. This is a(n) ___ injury. a. Avulsion b. Penetration c. Crush d. Amputation

A

Your 22 year old male patient has an epinephrine auto-injector in his backpack. Besides helping him take this medication, you should always: A. ask if the patient has any spare auto-injectors for the trip to the hospital B. call the patient's physician and request another dosage of the medication C. determining if other family members have a history of allergic reactions. D. take the insect or substance that caused the reaction to the hospital

A

Your 46 year old male patient is in shock, yet his body is still able to maintain perfusion to his vital organs. This is often referred to as _____ shock. A. compensated B. decompensated C. delayed D. irreversible

A

Your 55 year old male patient states that his pain seems to radiate from the chest. This sensation, when it is due to a hear problem, commonly radiates to the: A. arms and jaw B. feet and head C. stomach and lower abdomen D. right arm and lower abdomen

A

Your 62 year old female patient is going to need you to assist her ventilation. The best method for providing assisted ventilation is the: A. pocket face mask with supplemental oxygen B. two-rescuer bag mask device with supplemental oxygen C. flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device D. one-rescuer bag mask device with supplemental oxygen

A

Your local protocols require a direct medical order to allow you to assist the patient with her bronchodilator device.Whenever you request an order for medical direction over the radio, it is good practice to: A.repeat the physician's order word for word back to the physician B. question all verbal orders that are given C. speak quickly because the physician is busy D. call the physician back to verify

A

Your patient has a suspected air bubble that may have been sucked into a large vein in his neck. This is called a(n): a. Air embolus b. Blood clot c. Occlusion d. Case of the "bends"

A

Your patient has sustained a burn injury that is about the size of five of his palms. This burn would cover approximately ____ percent of the patient's total body surface area. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

A

Your patient is a 22 year old male who has been stealing fuel form his neighbor's cars at night. Tonight he may have sucked in too much gasoline, and his friend has called 911 because he continues to cough violently after ingestion. The appropriate treatment for this patient should: A. not include activated charcoal B. not include oxygen administration C. include immediate transportation D. be to treat him like a patient with an airway obstruction

A

Your patient is a 35 year old female who is very anxious and jittery. She has taken an overdoes of a drug that stimulates the nervous system to cause extreme excitement. These drugs are called: A. uppers B. downers C. narcotics D. antihypertensives

A

Your patient is taking a drug that was prescribed to help regulate his emotional activity, and to minimize the psychological and emotional peaks and valleys. These kinds of drugs are called: A. antidepressants B. analgesics C. antidysrhythmics D. anticonvulsants

A

Your patient was standing on the street corner when suddenly a truck cut the corner too close and ran over his legs. The bones in the lower extremities that he may have broken include the: A. Femur, calcaneus, and phalanges B. Ischium, tibia, and ulna C. Orbit, lumbar, and shin D. Radius, fibula, and metatarsals

A

the government agency that maintains order on the airwaves is called the: A. FCC B. FAA C. FEMA D. DOT

A

The name that the manufacturer uses in marketing a drug is called the ___ name: A. generic B. trade C. official D. original

B

The neck veins are usually not visible when the patient is: A. lying flat B. sitting up C. supine D. prone

B

5 year old male patient who you suspect is having a life-threatening allergic reaction. He was stung by a few bees when mowing the lawn The respiratory signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock include all o the following except: A. rapid breathing B. hives C. cough D. stridor

B

A 19 year old male patient crashed his bike and lid along the road on the rainy pavement. The oozing of blood from his capillary beds is from an injury called a(n): a. Amputation b. Abrasion c. Laceration d. Puncture

B

A closed wound that involves tissue damage and a collection of blood at the injury site is called a: a. Crush injury b. Hematoma c. Contusion d. Penetration

B

A component of the blood that is designed to aggregate as a response to a bleeding injury is called the: A. red blood cells B. platelets C. white blood cells D. hemoglobin

B

A condition in which a portion of the myocardium dies as a result of oxygen starvation is known as: A. coronary occlusion B. acute myocardial infarction C. myocardial starvation D. acute angina attack

B

A condition that is often the result of the build-up of fatty deposits on the inner walls of the arteries is called: A. pulmonary embolism B. coronary artery disease C. obesity D. congestive heart failure

B

A difference between the detailed physical exam and the rapid trauma exam includes: A. skipping the face, ears, eyes, nose and mouth in the detailed exam B. the detailed exam is usually done en route to the hospital C. the lungs are not listened to in a detailed exam D. the extremities and posterior are not assessed in the rapid exam

B

A disease that mothers are thought to be able to pass to their unborn children is: A. Chicken pox B. AIDS C. Tuberculosis D. Mumps

B

A federal act that establishes procedure by which emergency response workers can find out if they have been exposed to life-threatening infectious diseases is: A. OSHA 1910.1030 B. The Ryan White CARE Act C. NFPA 1207 D. OSHA 1910.1200

B

A leaf-shaped valve that prevents food and foreign objects from entering the trachea is called the: A. Pharynx B. Epiglottis C. Larynx D. Bronchi

B

A nasopharyngeal airway should be: A. inserted with the bevel on the lateral side of the nostril B. measured from the patient's nostril to the earlobe C. inserted in the left nostril when possible D. turned 180 degrees with the tip facing the roof of the mouth

B

A partial thickness burn that involves between 10 and 20 percent of the body surface area of a child under 5 years of age is considered a ___ burn. a. Minor b. Moderate c. Critical d. Fatal

B

A partial thickness burn that involves between 15 and 30 percent of the body surface is classified as a ____ burn. a. Minor b. Moderate c. Critical d. Life-threatening

B

A patient fell through a store window and has sustained a large cut, which is flowing blood from his forehead. What is the method of bleeding control that should be utilized? A. a tourniquet will need to be applied to control the bleeding B. direct pressure with a dressing and bandage should work C. apply cold directly to the wound right away D. lower the head below the heart and the bleeding will stop

B

A patient who has severe vomiting and diarrhea may have: A. An excess of body fluids B. A condition called dehydration C. Edema in the extremities D. All of these

B

A sign that gives important information about the patient's condition but is not considered a vital sign is: A. blood pressure B. mental status C. pulse rate D. respiratory rhythm

B

A statement such as "the patient has a swollen, deformed extremity" on the narrative of the PCR is an example of: A. subjective information B. objective information C. pertinent negative information D. police officer's statment

B

A steady flow of dark red or maroon blood is a result of ____ bleeding. A. arterial B. venous C. capillary D. pulmonary

B

A stress reaction that involves either physical or psychological behavior manifested days or weeks after an incident is called a: A. Acute stress reaction B. Post-traumatic stress disorder C. Cumulative stress reaction D. Burnout

B

A substance secreted by plants, animals, or bacteria that is poisonous to humans is called a: A. chemical B. toxin C. narcotic D. drug

B

After controlling bleeding from an extremity using a pressure dressing, be sure to: A. loosen the tourniquet B. check the distal pulse C. apply a PASG D. administer oxygen by nasal cannula

B

After three shocks, the EMT should ____ unless local protocol says otherwise: A. give two more shocks but this time, administer them in a row B. begin to transport the patient with high-quality CPR C. terminate the arrest because the patient will not survive D. increase the rate and volume of the ventilations

B

All of the following are examples of how an EMT's ability to communicate with a young patient can be complicated except: A. Fear of strangers B. Fear of death and dying C. Separation anxiety D. Embarrassment during adolescence

B

All of the following are part of the three R's of reacting to danger except: A. Retreat B. Respond C. Radio D. Reevaluate

B

All of the following are ways the EMT can plan safety precautions in advance of the call except: A. Keeping his or her tetanus immunization current B. Maintaining a list of communicable patients C. Verifying immune status D. Obtaining the hepatitis B vaccine

B

Always assume that any person with: A. A cold has a bloodborne disease B. A productive cough has TB C. A fever had typhoid D. Dehydration and sores has AIDS

B

Ambulance services and EMS personnel are required by ___ to take steps to safeguard patient confidentiality: A. OSHA law B. HIPAA C. the NHTSA D. the U.S. DOT

B

An EMT should routinely wear a mask when treating a patient with: A. Hepatitis B or C B. Potential for blood or fluid splatter C. AIDS D. All of these

B

An EMT will occasionally need to assist the patient who has a terminal illness. Experts suggest all of the following except: A. Listen empathetically to the patient B. Tell the patient that everything will be fine C. Be tolerant of angry reactions from the patient or family members D. Try to recognize the patients needs

B

An example of checking interventions during the reassessment of a medical patient is: A. taking an initial blood pressure B. ensuring adequacy of oxygen delivery C. applying a tourniquet D. bandaging a severe laceration

B

An inadequate airway in a child is defines as: A. less than 15 breaths per minute B. retractions above the clavicles and between and below the ribs C. breathing that is primarily from the nose in infants D. none of these

B

Angina pectoris means, literally: A. a small heart attack B. a pain in the chest C. paralyzed chest muscles D. breathing difficulty

B

Another name for the squat lift used by weight lifters and EMTs is: A. Leg lift B. Power lift C. Thigh thrust D. Power grip

B

As a new EMT, you will witness many changes in the EMS system and patient care, moving from practices that have been based on ____ to those that are based on ____. A. In-hospital; prehospital B. Tradition; research C. Gut instincts; traditions D. Research; tradition

B

As an EMT, you have been assigned to take a terminally ill patient back and forth to radiation therapy on multiple trips for the past few weeks. You have come to know the patient and realize that he has been going through emotional states in the following order: A. Acceptance, rage, depression, acceptance, bargaining B. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance C. Bargaining, acceptance, denial, anger, depression D. Depression, bargaining, denial, acceptance, anger

B

Bacteria may produce toxins that cause deadly diseases such as: A. HIV B. botulism C. penicillin D. steroids

B

Because the chest wall is softer in infants and children, they: A. must inhale twice the amount of air to breathe B. depend more heavily on the diaphragm for breathing C. grunt and gurgle whenever they breathe D. expend less energy than adults do when breathing

B

Blood that has been depleted of oxygen and loaded with carbon dioxide empties into the ___, which carry I back to the heart. A. arteries B. veins C. capillaries D. tissues

B

Blowing oxygen or air continuously at a low pressure into the airway is a means of: A. preventing the alveoli from collapsing at the end of inhalation B. pushing fluid out of the alveoli and back into the capillaries C. providing artificial ventilation to the apneic patient D. all of these

B

Certain injuries are common to particular situations. Injuries to bones and joints are usually associated with: A. fights and drug usage B. falls and vehicle collisions B. fires and explosions D. bullet wounds

B

Chronic smokers may have a pulse oximeter reading that is: A. lower than normal B. higher than it actually is C. 20 to 25 percent off D. difficult to read

B

Clear fluid that is draining from the ears and nose is called _____ fluid. A. lymphatic B. cerebrospinal C. mucous D. synovial

B

Commonly required reporting situations include all of the following except: A. Child and elder abuse B. Crimes in public places C. Sexual assault D. Domestic abuse

B

Damage to the left ventricle and blood backing up into the lungs usually presents in the form of: A. pedal edema B. pulmonary edema C. fibrinolyitics D. diaphoresis

B

During the adolescent years of development, both males and females: A. begin to develop self-esteem B. reach reproductive maturity C. replace primary teeth D. all of these are correct

B

During your primary assessment of a patient who is alert and has a breathing rate that is greater than 24, you should provide the patient with: A. positive pressure ventilations with 100 percent oxygen B. high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask C. low-concentration oxygen via bag-valve mask D. medium-concentration oxygen via nasal cannula

B

During your reassessment of an unresponsive 45 year old female patient whom you are treating for a suspected stroke. You hear gurgling airway sounds. What intervention is the most appropriate for you to take? A. sit the patient up B. suction the patient C. check the oxygen tubing D. all of these are most appropriate

B

EMT's who administer medication or assist patients in taking their prescribed meds according to protocols need to know about pharmacodynamics. An example of a result of understanding the pharmacodynamics of a specific medication is: A pediatric patients would normally require larger doses B. geriatric patients have difficulty eliminating medications C. heavier patients require ten times the normal dose D. all of these

B

Each individual box on a PCR is called a: A. narrative B. data element C. key punch D. assessment

B

Each of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing in an adult patient except: A. inspirations or expirations that are prolonged B. breathing rate in an adult of 14-18 breaths per minute C. breathing is very shallow, very deep, or appears labored D. the patient is unable to speak in full sentences

B

Each of the following is an example of a call that has a high potential for causing excess stress on EMS providers except: A. Trauma to infants and children B. An adult cardiac arrest C. Elder abuse D. Death or serious injury of a coworker

B

Early in your assessment of the 56 year old male who presents with chest pain, you take his radial pulse. This is a very important vital sign because, if the heart is beating too fast or too slow, the patient with cardiac compromise may also: A. have stomach pain B. lose consciousness C. have a seizure or convulsion D. have right-sided weakness

B

Experienced EMT's often refer to a soft cervical collar as: A. the device of choice for a neck injury B. a "neck warmer" C. the requirement for all auto collision patients D. the preferred extrication collar

B

Expiration is a(n): A. active process that involves the relations of the intercostal muscled and the diaphragm B. passive process that involves the relaxation of the intercostal muscled and the diaphragm C. active process that involves the contraction of the intercostal muscled and the diaphragm D. passive process that involves the contraction of the intercostal muscled and the diaphragm

B

Finding arterial bleeding quickly is very important when assessing the 22 year old male that was in a bar fight. Which statement about arterial bleeding is correct? A. clot formation takes place rapidly B. it is often rapid and profuse C. it is the least difficult to control D. it causes the blood pressure to rise

B

For most poisonous substances, the reaction is more serious in: A. the evening hours B. the elderly and the ill C. smaller concentrations D. the summer

B

Forcing a competent adult patient to go to the hospital against his or her will may result in ____ charges against the EMT. A. Abandonment B. Assault and battery C. Implied consent D. Negligence

B

Fright, blood loss, drugs, and treatment with eye drops may cause the patient's pupils to become: A. constricted B. dilated C. unequal D. unreactive

B

Girls are usually finished growing by the age of what? A. 14 B. 16 C. 18 D. 20

B

If a cervical collar is the wrong size, it may: A. cause additional injury to the spine B. make breathing more difficult or obstruct the airway C. prevent the patient from moving her neck D. take too much time to adjust and apply correctly

B

If a patient is lying on his or her left side, the patient is said to be in the ______ position. A. Fowlers B. Recovery C. Left Supine D. Left Prone

B

If you receive an order from the on-line physician for ten times the normal dose of a medication (i.e. 1,500 mg of ASA instead of 150 mg), what should you do? A. switch to another frequency to find another physician B. question the physician about the order C. follow the physician's order as stated D. ignore the order and do what you believe is correct

B

In a hospital, long-term life-support and comfort-care measures would consist of intravenous feeding and: A. Routine inoculations B. The use of a respirator C. Infection control by the health care providers D. Hourly patient documentation

B

In terms of your initial approach to the focused history and physical exam of a middle aged male patient, the biggest difference between a responsive and an unresponsive patient is that: A. the responsive patient gets he OPQRST questions last B. the unresponsive patient will be given a rapid physical exam first C. bystanders become more important if the patient is responsive D. a rapid trauma exam is not done on an unconscious patient

B

In the narrative section of a PCR, the EMT should: A. list his or her conclusions about the situate B. include pertinent negatives C. use the radio codes for each treatment D. list the vital signs and times obtained

B

In the patient with an altered mental status, the EMT should always consider _____ before proceeding with the secondary assessment and transport. A. hypothermia B. an airway or breathing problem C. that the patient may have had a seizure D. internal blood loss

B

In which of the following sitaitons would it be necessary for you and your partner to call for additional assistance? A. you are treating a patien twho had flulike symptoms and also has a toddle with similar symptoms B. Your patient is a 350 pound male who fell down the stairs and has a broken leg C. you are treating a patient with a deep laceration in his right forearm D. your patent loses consciousness while you are carrying her to the ambulance

B

Injury prevention for geriatric patients and campaigns to reduce tobacco use are exampels of: A. Hospital responsibilities B. An EMT's role in public health C. The nursing domain D. Off-line medical direction

B

Involuntary, or smooth, muscle is found in the: A. Trachea B. Walls of the blood vessels C. Heart D. Quadriceps and biceps

B

It is a bright sunny day and you are treating a woman who fell off her bike. She is lying supine on the sidewalk. When you assess her pupils, you should: A. use a very bright light that is similar to the environmental light B. cover the patient's eyes for a few moments, then uncover one eye at a time C. apply a cold towel to the patient's eyelids for 10 seconds D. move the patient indoors to an area that has dimmer light

B

It is three in the morning and your partner is interviewing a patient with a minor complaint. You notice that he is standing with arms crossed looking down at the patient. What nonverbal message could he be sending to the patient? A. I am here to help you B. I am not really interested C. I can empathize with your problem D. I am afraid of catching your disease

B

Legislation that governs the skills and medical interventions that may be performed by an EMT is: A. Standardized (uniform) throughout the country B. Different from state to state C. Standardized (uniform) for regions within a state D. Governed by the US Department of Transportation

B

Many memory aids are used during the assessment process. OPQRST is a memory aid to help the EMT remember the: A. questions to ask about the past medical history B. questions that expand on the history of the present illness C. status of the patient's condition D. levels of the patient's mental status

B

Many resting people breathe more with their ___ than with their ___ muscles. A. diaphragm: pelvic B. diaphragm: chest C. chest: abdominal D. chest; pelvic

B

Obtaining feedback from patients and the hospital staff is a means of: A. Obtaining on-line medical direction B. Providing quality improvement C. Determining what is wrong with patients D. Avoiding charges of negligence

B

Of the following, which is an example of a patient who requires reassessment of your interventions en route to the hospital? A. a patient with a minor respiratory complaint B. a patient who had multiple fractures and to which you applied splints C. a patient whose airway you have spent the entire call attempting to clear D. a patient who was stable and had minor injuries

B

Of the following, which is not a major component in the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration's EMS system assessment standards? A. Transportation B. Computerization C. Communications D. Evaluation

B

Of the prescribed inhalers listed below, which is not considered a medication that would be used in an emergency to reverse airway constriction because its use is aimed at prevention of attacks by reducing inflammation? A. Ventolin B. Advair C. Proventil D. Albuterol

B

On your arrival at the scene, you notice that a bystander has placed a tongue blade in the corner of a seizure patient's mouth. What should you do? A. begin oxygen therapy with a nonrebreather mask B. carefully remove the object form the patient's mouth C. immobilize the patient on a long spine board D. immediately transport the patient to the hospital

B

One major difference between the primary assessment of a responsive trauma patient and the primary assessment of an unresponsive trauma patient is: A. the assessment is done more quickly on the responsive patient B. the unresponsive patient is a higher priority for immediate transport C. there is no difference between the two assessments D. a jaw-thrust maneuver should always be used on the responsive patient

B

Standard Precautions should be taken with all patients. The key element of Standard Precautions is to: A> always wear all the protective clothing B. always have personal protective equipment readily available C. place equipment on the patient as well as the rescuer D. determination which body fluids are a danger to the EMT

B

The 45 year old male patient you are assessing tells you that he has a history of chronic anemia. He is pale and complains of fatigue. This condition could be due to: A. recurrent heavy menstrual periods B. a slow GI bleed C. a disease that affects the white blood cells D. all of these

B

The 62 year old male patient who presented with a number of the signs and symptoms of a stroke was take to the ED yesterday. When talking with your Medical Director about the call, he tells you that the signs and symptoms were completely resolved within the past 24 hours. this patient was most likely suffering a(n): A. altered mental status (AMS) B. transient ischemic attack (TIA) C. acute myocardial infarction (AMI) D. hypoglycemic incident

B

The EMT needs to recognize respiratory distress and manager it so it does not proceed to respiratory failure. Respiratory failure is: A. the complete cessation of inspiration B. inadequate breathing, which is a precursor to respiratory arrest C. another term for respiratory arrest D. caused by electrocution in young children

B

The EMT should be skeptical about on condition being the actual cause of another condition a patient presents with. Drawing conclusions about the cause of a diagnosis can lead to a(n): A. anchoring adjustment B. illusory correlation C. search satisfying bias D. availability bias

B

The adequate rate of artificial ventilations for a nonbreathing adult patient is ___ breaths per minute. A. 8 B. 12 C. 16 D. 20

B

The age of the patient is an important factor in burns. Patients under ____ and over ____ years of age have the most severe body responses to burns. a. 3; 50 b. 5: 55 c. 10; 65 d. 15; 70

B

The alert 58 year old male who is complaining of chest pain goes on to describe other recent hospitalizations and the medical condition the doctor is treating him for. This information is considered: A. unnecessary information B. pertinent past history C. the cause of today's event D. the reason the ambulance was called

B

The bag-valve mask on your EMS unit should have: A. a nonrefilling shell that is easily cleaned B. a nonjam valve with an oxygen inlet C. a standard 9/12 mm fitting D. manual disabling pop-off valve

B

The basic approach that clinicians use to arrive at a diagnosis includes each of the following except: A. gather information B. administer many lab tests C. consider the possibilities D. reach a conclusion

B

The best places to assess skin color in adults are: A. under the chin and the nostrils B. the inside of the cheek and the nail beds C. the nail beds and the upper chest D. the toes and the earlobes

B

The blood component that is essential to the formation of blood clots is called: A. Plasma B. Platelets C. White blood cells D. Red blood cells

B

The body system that is responsible for the breakdown of food into absorbable forms is called the _______ system A. Nervous B. Digestive C. Endocrine D. Integumentary

B

The cell structure that contains the DNA, which is t he genetic blueprint, is called the : A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Nucleus C. Mitochondria D. Golgi apparatus

B

The collective set of regulations and ethical considerations governing the EMT is called: A. Duty of act B. Scope of practice C. Advance directives D. Good Samaritan law

B

The earliest documented emergency medical service was in: A. England in the 1890's B. France in the 1790's C. Seattle in the 1970's D. Miami in the 1960's

B

The final step of the detailed physical exam is to: A. complete the examination of airway, breathing and circulation B. make sure you have notified the emergency department C. remove the collar and recheck the neck D. roll the patient to examine the posterior of the body

B

The flow rate of a nonrebreather mask should be: A. adjusted so that when the patient inhales, the bag deflates by two-thirds B. 12 to 15 liters per minute C. adjusted to 6 liters per minute D. all of these

B

The heart has a right and left side as well as upper and lower chambers. The left atrium: A. Receives blood from the veins of the body B. Receives blood from the pulmonary veins C. Pumps blood to the lungs D. Pumps blood to the body

B

The hypoglycemia that EMT's see in the field has many causes. Which of the following is not a cause of hypoglycemia? A. the patient may have taken too much insulin by mistake B. the patient ate a box of candy too fast C. the patient has been vomiting D. the patient has been fasting

B

The hypopharynx is also called the: A. nares B. laryngopharynx C. trachea D. glottis

B

The liquid in which the blood cells and platelets are suspended is called: A. interstitial fluid B. plasma C. lymph D. coumadin

B

The main purpose of the jaw-thrust maneuver is to: A. open the mouth with only one hand B. open the airway without moving the head or neck C. create an airway for the medical patient D. create an airway when it is not possible to jut the jaw

B

The major artery in the thigh is called the A. Carotid B. Femoral C. Radial D. Brachial

B

The medical specialty concerned with renal/kidney diseases is called: A. neurology B. nephrology C. histology D. hematology

B

The membrane that covers the abdominal organs is called the _____ peritoneum. A. pleural B. visceral C. parietal D. serius

B

The more forceful the squeezing of the heart, the greater the stroke volume. This concept refers to the ______ of the heart. A. Resistance B. Contractility C. Preload D. All of these

B

The most common disorder of the digestive system is: A. Dizziness B. Nausea and/or vomiting C. Severe thirst D. Chills and fever

B

The police are concerned about the presence of microscopic evidence at the scene of a violent assault. Your crew was asked to be careful and limit their involvement in the scene to essential patient care. What are examples of microscopic evidence? A. The position the patient was initially found in B. Any dirt and carpet fibers C. Fingerprints that were found at the scene D. The condition of the scene

B

The primary care for a patient with a chemical burn is to: a. Wrap the patient in a dry, steril burn sheet b. Wash away the chemical with flowing water c. Dry the patient and wrap in an airtight dressing d. Wrap the patient with moist sterile dressings

B

The primary electrical disturbance resulting in cardiac arrest is: A. asystole B. ventricular fibrillation C. ventricular tachycardia D. pulseless electrical activity

B

The principal prehospital treatment of a 40 year old male patient who has inhaled poison is: A. administering activated charcoal to the patient B. administering high-concentration oxygen C. providing full spinal immobilization D. administering an antidote

B

The pulse at the thumb side of the wrist is referred to as the ___ pulse. A. femoral B. radial C. Carotid D. brachial

B

The pulse oximeter should be used routinely with: A. patients who have carbon monoxide poising B. p[patient complaining of respiratory problems C. any patient who is hypothermic D. any patient suffering from sever shock

B

The routine review of PCRs for conformity to current medical and organizational standards is a process called: A. initial feedback B. quality improvement C. stress debriefing D. system research

B

The stress triad, which Selye described as occurring during the exhaustion stage of stress, includes all of the following clinical signs except: A. Enlargement of the adrenal glands B. Excessive weight gain C. Bleeding gastric ulcers D. Wasting of the lymph nodes

B

The structure in the throat that is described as the voice box is called the: A. Pharynx B. Larynx C. Trachea D. Sternum

B

The time of dispatch is an example of ___ data on the PCR? A. assessment B. run C. patient D. narrative

B

The venom of a bite from a rattlesnake is an example of an ____ poison. A. ingested B. injected C. inhaled D. absorbed

B

To correct an error discovered while writing the PCR, the EMT should: A. scribble out the error so it cannot be seen B. draw a line through the error, initial it, and write the correct information C. place his or her initials over the error D. erase the error completely, and then write the correction

B

To ensure that the most medication is absorbed when using an inhaler, you should try to encourage the patient to: A. take short, shallow breaths B. hold the breath as long as possible C. take a short nap D. hyperventilate

B

Upon interviewing an asthmatic patient, you find that she is taking a medication for her disease. Drugs prescribed to relax the smooth muscles of the bronchial tubes are called: A. bronchospasms B. bronchodilators C. anticonvulsants D. bronchoconstrictors

B

Use of reasonable force to restrain a patient should involve an evaluation of all of the following except the: A. patient's size and strength B. family's ability to pay for your services C. patient's mental status D. available methods of restraint

B

When a clinician is specifically looking for evidence that supports the diagnosis he or she already has in mind, he or she is committing a(n) _____ bias. A. anchoring B. confirming C. satisfying D. illusionary

B

When a life threat is observed in the primary assessment, the EMT should: A. complete the assessment, then treat B. treat is immediately C. determine the patient's priority, then treat D. package the patient for transport

B

When a patient does not fit the classic pattern, such as a cardiac patient without crushing chest pain, the EMT has to be careful not to make a(n) ___ error or bias. A. confirmation B. representativeness C. overconfidence D. availability

B

When a patient tells you that he called because he cut his wrist with a razor, this is called the: A. primary assessment B. chief complaint C. SAMPLE history D. secondary assessment

B

When a patient's blood vessels constrict due to external blood loss, this process was originated by the brain due to messages received from the: A. Chemoreceptors in the aortic arch B. Stretch receptors in certain blood vessels C. Marrow in the long bones D. Endocrine system

B

When a sharp or pointed object, such as an ice pick or a bullet, passes through the skin or other tissue, a(n) ___ wound has occurred. a. Abrasion b. Puncture c. Amputation d. Crush injury

B

When applying pressure to the neck wound of your 32 year old male patient who was taking money of if an ATM when suddenly someone slashed his throat from behind and stole his money, be sure you do not: a. Apply pressure over the laceration b. Compress both carotids at the same time c. Administer oxygen to the patient d. Treat the patient for shock

B

When arriving at the scene of a collision the EMT should: A. start placing flares across the road B. don head protection, bunker coat, and a reflective vest C. immediately start additional units D. contact medical direction on the radio

B

When assessing a 28 year old female patient who has a medical complaint, be sure to check the extremities for: A. central cyanosis B. sensation and motor function C. edema and discoloration D. capillary refill in all adult patients

B

When assessing the breathing of an adult female patient, all of the following are important observations for the EMT to make except: A. the patient's positioning B. the lung sounds C. unusual anatomy such as a barrel chest D. pale, cyanotic, flushed skin

B

When assessing the chest of an adult female critical trauma patient, the EMT should inspect/palpate for ___ in addition to crepitations and deformities. A. hematoma B. paradoxical motion C. hemothorax D. jugular vein distention

B

When assessing your 45 year old patient, she says that she feels lightheaded. Lightheadedness, or dizziness, is a symptom that is often due to: A. too much blood being circulated to the brain B. poor perfusion to the brain C. too much fluid intake in too short a period of time D. standing erect for too long a period of time

B

When assessing your 53 year old male patient, you determining he is having difficulty saying what he is thinking even though he clearly understands you. This condition found in stroke patients is called: A. receptive aphasia B. expressive aphasia C. miscommunication D. confusion

B

When doing an assessment on a patient who is apparently lifeless, the approach is adapted to include: A. the pulse check for at least 20 seconds B. the C-A-B approach per AHA Guidelines C. the routine A-B-C approach per AHA Guidelines D. none of these are appropriate

B

When interviewing a patient with a specific chief complaint and a known history, the EMT may need to: A. contact medical direction for additional interview questions B. ask additional questions pertinent to the complaint C. immediately administer medications D. any one of these

B

When interviewing an intoxicated 32 year old male patient, do not begin by asking if he has taken any drugs. The reason for this statement is that: A. the presence of drugs will negate the presence of the alcohol B. the patient may feel you are accusing him of a crime C. alcoholics generally do not take drugs D. the patient will probably not tell the truth

B

When is the importance of mechanism of injury (MOI) to airway care? A. an injured patient will need more oxygen B. the procedure for opening the patient;s airway is different in trauma C. patients without a mechanism of injury will have an open airway D. an injury can make airway care easier to manage than a medical emergency

B

When lifting a patient, you should do all of the following except: A. Communicate clearly with your partner B. Twist while you lift the patient C. Know your physical ability and limitations D. Communicate frequently with your partner

B

When might administration of aspirin be contraindicated? A. when there is no water available B. if the patient has a history of GI bleeding C. if the patient may be having a heart attack D. all of these

B

When performing mouth-to-mask ventilation on an adult patient, ventilations should be delivered over _____ second(s). A. 1/2 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

B

When performing the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver, the EMT should. A. allow the patient's mouth to close B. position himself at the top of the patient's head C. tilt the head by applying pressure to the patient's chin D. use the fingertips to lift the neck

B

When prolonged ventilations need to be done on a patient and there is only one EMT on the airway,. you should consider using a(n): A. Nonrebreather mask B. Automatic transport ventilator C. Pocket face mask D. BVM device

B

When the AED is analyzing the patient's heart rhythm, the EMT must: A. continue the CPR compressions B. avoid touching the patient C. hyperventilate the patient D. reassess for a carotid pulse

B

When the EMT has to lift with one hand, as in a litter carry, he must be careful not to: A. Lift with the legs B. Compensate by leaning C. Lift with the weight close to the body D. Take breaks if they are needed

B

When the legs are crushed under a slab of concrete, the blood supply is diminished to the cells in the legs. This condition often results in: A. Carbon dioxide being produced B. Lactic acid being produced C. Aerobic metabolism D. All of these

B

When the mother strokes the infant's lips and the baby starts sucking, this is a nervous system reflex known as the: A. Moro reflex B. Sucking reflex C. Palmar reflex D. Rooting reflex

B

When the patient tells you, in his own words, why he requested that an ambulance be called, this is referred to as the: A. general impression B. chief complain C. primary assessment D. secondary assessment

B

When there are no apparent hazards, consider the danger zone to extend at least ____ feet in all directions from the wreckage. A. 25 B. 50 C. 100 D. 200

B

When treating a cardiac arrest patient and there is no ALS unit in the community, the EMT should: A. discontinue resuscitative efforts and pronounce the patient dead B. package quickly, provide high-quality CPR and transport to the closest hospital C. call for ACLS from another town and wait for its arrival D. continue to provide CPR at the scene until the patient regains a pulse

B

When using an air mattress (vacuum mattress) the patient is placed on the device and the air is ____ by a pump. Then the mattress will form a ____ and conforming surface around the patient. A. Inflated; rigid B. Withdrawn; rigid C. Inflated; soft D. Withdrawn; soft

B

When we say that a patient is experiencing lower airway obstruction, it is likely that: A. he or she is chocking on a foreign object B. his or her bronchial passages or alveoli are congested C. his or her tongue is swollen D. none of these

B

When you are deciding which steps to follow in assessing your patient, what should you consider first and why? A. the past medical history of the patient because it predicts today's problem B. the primary assessment because that identifies the life threats C. the physical exam because subtle injuries are often severe D. the vital signs reveal all the serious medical conditions the patient may have

B

Your patient has overdosed on a narcotic medication that was prescribed for pain after a surgical procedure. This medication has been known to depress respirations and lead to: A. cyanosis B. hypoxia C. tachycardia D. delayed capillary refill

B

When you arrive on the scene, one of your first observations was the patient's position. When you note that she is in the tripod position due ot her respiratory distress, this means that she is: A. holding herself up by two legs and one arm B. leaning forward with hands resting on knees C. in the recovery position D. supine with knees flexed against the chest

B

When you ask a 65 year old woman with chest pain, "Can you think of anything that might have triggered or caused this pain?" you are questioning her about the ____ of the pain. A. onset B. provocation C. quality D. radiation

B

When you ask a male patient with back pain, "How bad is the pain?" you are questioning him about: A. quality B. severity C. time D. radiation

B

Which of the following burns will result in deep, intense pain, blisters and mottled skin? a. Superficial b. Partial thickness c. Full thickness d. Medium layer

B

Which of the following is an example of a difference in the reaction of a patient experiencing an anaphylactic reaction compared to a patent experiencing a simple allergic reaction? A. the allergic reaction has generalized hives B. the allergic reaction has localized swelling C. the anaphylactic reaction includes bradycardia and mild anxiety D. the anaphylactic reaction includes sneezing and coughing

B

Which of the following steps is not necessary to ensure that CPR can be delivered earlier to cardiac arrest victims? A. send CPR trained professional to patients faster B. ensure that heart specialists are involved in CPR training C. train the public in CPR D. have EMD's instruct callers in how to perform hands-only CPR

B

Which one of the following is not a way that poisons damage the body? A. destroying skin and other tissues B. enhancing normal biochemical processes C. over stimulating the central nervous system D. displacing oxygen on the hemoglobin

B

Which portable oxygen cylinder, when full, lasts the longest when delivering oxygen? A. D B. E C. A D. M

B

Why is administration of supplemental oxygen an important treatment for any trauma patient? A. it enhances blood clotting B. it improves oxygenation of the tissues C. it constricts the blood vessel D. it is important for all of these reasons

B

Why is it essential that vital signs be recorded as they are obtained? A. to avoid having to take them more than once B. to prevent forgetting them and to note the time they were taken C. to give the patient a chance to calm down D. because they will always change quickly

B

Why is it necessary to complete a PCR if, on each call, you give the emergency department staff a good oral report? A. The QI committee needs something to hold you to B. It provides a means for the ED staff to review the patient's prehospital care C. The ED usually does not listen to oral reports D. Duplication is helpful in emergency call documentation

B

Why is nitroglycerin administered to the patient with chest pain? A. it increases blood flow to the brain B. it dilates the blood vessels and decreases the work of the heart C. it constricts the blood vessels and raises the blood pressure D. It is easy to administer in unconscious patients

B

You are an EMT treating a patient who has developed a rash and uticaria on her chest and face. If you were to begin treating this patient as a victim of a severe allergic reactions rather than questioning her about previous development of a similar rash, you would be exhibiting an example of: A. an availability bias B. an illusionary correlation C. having overconfidence in your judgement D. an appropriate shortcut to take

B

You are artificially ventilation a 50 year old male patient who is in respiratory arrest. His chest is not rising and falling with each ventilation. This first action you should take is to: A. increase the oxygen flow rate B. increase the force of ventilations C. change the ventilator device D. recheck the airway

B

You are assessing a 25 year old female whose family members called the ambulance because they felt she was having a behavioral emergency. Which one of the following is not usually a common presentation for a patient like this? A. panic or anxiety B. neat appearance C. repetitive motions D. pressured-sounding speech

B

You are assessing a patient wand making observations about the scene. Finding drug-use paraphernalia a t the scene of an emergency is an example of: A. an indication of the patient's chief complaint B. the environment part of the general impression C. an assessment of the scene safety D. a medical history of drug addiction

B

You are called to care for a 22 year old male patient who has attempted suicide with a handgun or is threatening to attempt suicide. Your first concern should be: A. how you will restrain the patient B. your personal safety C. determining the patient's method for suicide D. the patient's and family's safety

B

You are concerned because your patient may have a depressed mental status. What does the "P" in AVPU stand for? A. Priority B. Painful C. Position D. Patient

B

You are interviewing a 21 year old female who state that she has no history of allergies. She is obviously having her first allergic reaction, so you should: A. consult with medical control B. treat for shock and transport immediately C. administer epinephrine via auto-injector D. attempt to determine the cause iummediately

B

You are interviewing the family members of a patient who just had a seizure. The best-known condition that results in seizure is: A. a stroke B. epilepsy C. measles D. eclampsia

B

You are on a call involving a severe allergic reaction in a child patient. Which statement is true related to anaphylactic reactions. A. infants frequently experience anaphylactic reactions B. children outgrow allergies as they mature C. anaphylactic reactions are common in younger children D. parents seldom can provide useful information about the child's medical history

B

You are on the scene of a 28 year old female who you suspect may have been poisoned. Which of the following is an environmental clue at the scene that can be used to help you deterring that your patient may have been poisoned? A. the patient appears to have been vomiting B. there is an empty pill bottle on the night stand C. the patient has an altered mental status D. the patient states that she has a headache

B

You are on the scene of a car crash. You patient has stable vital signs and is complaining of knee, leg, and hip pain. He also states that he was in the front seat of the car and did not have his seat belt on. What type of collision did he most likely experience? A. head-on, up-and-over B. rear-end C. head-on, down-and-out D. rotational impact

B

You are treating a 19 year old who experienced a series of lacerations. Your assessment of external bleeding includes all of the following items except: A. estimating the amount of blood lost in order to predict potential shock B. waiting for signs and symptoms of shock to appear before beginning treatment C. triaging, or prioritizing, bleeding patient properly D. identifying bleeding that must be treated during the primary assessment

B

You are treating a 22 year old female with a chief complaint of abdominal discomfort. Why would it be appropriate to ask her where she is in her menstrual cycle? A. to file a complete PCR B. to being to focus on the possibility of an ectopic pregnancy C. to definitively rule out an ectopic pregnancy D. to rule out the possibility that the patient could be pregnant

B

You are treating a 29 year old male patient who has taken an overdose of a drug that has a depressant effect on the central nervous system. These types of drugs are called: A. uppers B. downers C. narcotics D. hallucinogens

B

You are treating a 35 year old male patient who has partial thickness burns to the entire left arm. Chest, face, and neck. Using the rule of nines, approximate the size of the burn area. a. 18 percent b. 22 percent c. 27 percent d. 32 percent

B

You are treating a 35 year old male whose lower leg has been amputated by a train. Whenever possible you should: a. Place the amputated body part in ice and transport before the patient b. Transport the patient and the amputated body part in the same ambulance c. Apply a tourniquet after completing a partial amputation d. Immerse the amputated part in saline and transport before the patient

B

You are treating a 52 year old male whose throat was slashed in a robbery. When a large bleeding vein in the neck sucks in debris or an air bubble, this can cause: A. an evisceration B. heart stoppage C. infection D. severe bleeding

B

You are treating a 55 year old male patient who has a history of three past MIs and angina. Due to his difficulty breathing and normally sedentary lifestyle, you suspect he may be experiencing congestive heart failure (CHF). CHF is a(n): A. clotting of the coronary artery B. condition in which excessive fluids build up in the lungs and/or other organs C. infection in the heart that makes it difficult to oxygenate the blood D. chronic lung condition that requires a low concentration of oxygen administration

B

You are treating a 58 year old woman who has had a nosebleed for the last hour. The medical term for a nosebleed is: A. hemorrhage B. epistaxis C. epihemorrhage D. nostrium

B

You are treating a male patient in his forties who has a chief complaint of abdominal discomfort. he denies any difficulty breathing yet has vital signs consistent with a patient in shock or hypoperfusion. You should: A. transport him in the semi-Fowler position B. administer 10-15 lpm oxygen by nonrebreather mask C. apply a cervical collar and long spine board D. contact medical direction for permission to assist the patient with nitro

B

You are treating a patient who fell and sustained a laceration to his right arm. The bleeding is controlled and there are no other injuries. If the patient has normal vital signs, you would consider his condition to be ___ and the recommended interval for reassessment is every ___ minutes. A. stable; 5 B. stable; 15 C. unstable; 10 D. unstable; 20

B

You are treating a patient who has signs of inadequate breathing. These signs could include all of the following except: A. absent or minimal chest movement B. air that cane be felt at the nose or mouth on exhalation C. diminished or absent breath sounds D. noises such as wheezing, gurgling, stridor, or crowing

B

You are treating a patient who is under a doctor's care for chronic pain and is taking medication for his condition. Drugs prescribed for pain relief are called: A. antidysrythmics B. analgesics C. anticonvulsants D. antihypertensives

B

You are treating a patient who states that he is having another gall bladder attack. He says that he should not have eaten that fried food and that he has ping in his right shoulder blade. Why might the pain in his right shoulder blade be a symptom of gall bladder problems? A. the gallbladder is located under the right shoulder blade in most adult patients B. nerve pathways form the gallbladder return to the spinal cord by way of shared pathways with the shoulder C. the muscle that holds the gallbladder in position is attached to the right scapula D. it is not common for this to happen at all.

B

You are treating a patient who was in the front seat of an automobile involved in a collision. You observe a spider-web crack in the windshield and the facial lacerations on the patient. Most likely the patient: A. will have a life-threatening head injury B. did not ear a seat belt or three-point harness C. will also complain of leg injuries D. was involved in a rollover collision

B

You are treating an adult patient who you suspect is having a severe allergic reaction. he has an Epi-pen on him for situations like this. The recommended location for injection with the epinephrine auto-injector is the: A. center of the back B. lateral mid-thigh C. buttocks D. biceps

B

You are treating an elderly patient who fell and injured her ribs. She was found breathing at a rate of 44 and shallowly, yet she is starting to turn cyanotic. Why is this a serious threat to her life? A. she is inhaling too much oxygen B. her minute volume may be diminished C. her minute volume is excessive D. she is exceeding her dead space

B

Your patient tells you that she is taking a medication to control her irregular heartbeat. Drugs prescribed for heart rhythm disorders are called: A. antidiabetics B. bronchodilators C. antidysrhyhmics D. anticonvulsants

C

You are treating an elderly patient who has just had two back-to-back seizures without regaining consciousness. This is a serious condition called ____ and the treatment will include ____. A. repeating seizure; ventilation B. status epilepticus; ALS meds C. status asthmaticus: the recovery position D. convulsions; oxygen administration

B

You arrive on the scene that includes a 58 year old male patient. The ambulance was called because he has had chest pain for the past hour. The "chest pain" in this situation is called the: A. major past illness B. chief complaint C. presenting diagnosis D. call type

B

You have just conducted the reassessment of a 35 year old male patient who was struck by a vehicle. Which of the following is the last step in the reassessment? A. Reassess the vital signs B. Check interventions C. Repeat the primary assessment D. Repeat the focused assessment

B

You have responded to a call where a patient seems to have mixed a couple of cleaning agents and is now unconscious. there is a strong smell of rotten eggs in the air. What would you suspect? A. the mixture produced large quantities of chlorine B. the mixture may have produced hydrogen sulfide, which can be deadly C. the mixture contains cyanide because that chemical causes unconsciousness D. one of the chemicals was eggs, and they are often deadly when mixed with salts

B

You have responded to the local high school physical education center where a 17 year old male is complaining of lower abdominal pain. On palpation, he has a lump he is concerned about. Because this came on suddenly during exercising, what do you suspect it could be? A. a tension pneumothorax B. a hernia C. a spontaneous embolism D. an AAA

B

You responded to a high-speed collision involving a motorcycle and an automobile. The 22 year-old male cyclist has severe head injuries and is not likely to live through the evening. When treating this critical patient, who happens to have an organ donor card, the EMT should: A. Transport without delay and document a DNR B. Treat the patient the same as any other patient and inform the ED physician C. Withhold oxygen therapy from the patient to keep the organ hypoxic D. All of these

B

You should consider using nitroglycerin when the 65 year old female patient: A. is hypertensive and has a headache B. has her own nitroglycerin an has crushing chest pain C. loses consciousness after feeling dizzy D. has chest pain for over 5 minutes and is hypotensive

B

You should have been ventilating a patient with a BVM device. Your partner states you should be careful not to hyperventilate the patient because it causes: A. hypoxia in the heart tissue B. vasoconstriction and limited blood flow to the brain C. the blood pressure in increase excessively D. all of these

B

You suspect poisoning by ingestion in a child whom you have examined for a patent airway. You can now ask the patient for the child's: A. name B. weight C. last visit to a physician D. favorite drink

B

You suspect that your 52 year old male patient may have internal bleeding. Signs of internal bleeding include all of the following except: A. vomiting a coffee ground like substance B. bradycardia and a flushed face C. dark, tarry stools D. tender, rigid or distended abdomen

B

You were called to the scene of an incident where a 21 year-old male was knocked unconscious in a bar fight. Upon your arrival, the patient is awake and has a broken nose but no life threats. He admits to drinking six beers in the last hour. He wants to refuse medical attention. Why should you discourage a refusal? A. He is not legally old enough to consent B. He may not be mentally competent at this time C. Patients die from broken noses all the time D. He is unable to actually sign the release

B

Your 22 year old male patient has overdosed on a downer, according to his significant other. You can expect to see/observe signs and symptoms such as: A. excitement, increased pulse and breathing rates, dilated pupils, and rapid speech B. sluggish, sleepiness, and lack of coordination of body and speech C. fast pulse rate, dilated pupils, flushed face, and "seeing" or "hearing" things D. reduced pulse rate and rate and depth of breathing, constricted pupils, and sweating

B

Your 22 year old male patient was stabbed multiple times in a bar fight. Police are on the scene and it is safe to being your assessment and treatment. The use of ____ is essential whenever bleeding is discovered or simply anticipated. A. full protective gear B. standard precautions C. universal isolation precaution D. tyvek overalls

B

Your 35 year old female patient is experiencing a severe and sudden epigastric pain that seems to radiate to the shoulder. She says that it gets worse when she eats. Of the choices below, which is the most likely cause? A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Cholecystitis C. A hernia D. Renal colic

B

Your 40 year old male patient has been mixing alcohol with drugs. He exhibits: A. uncontrolled shivering B. depressed vital signs C. extreme calmness D. all of these

B

Your 70 year old female patient has a cardiovascular disorder that stems from weakened sections in the arterial walls. These weak spots begin to dilate to form a condition that is known as a(n): A. thrombosis B. aneurysm C. inflammation D. infarction

B

Your 8 year old male child has ingested a caustic substance that he should not have been able to access. Examples of caustic substances include all of the following except: A. lye B. venom C. toilet bowl cleaner D. oven cleaner

B

Your partner obtains a set of vitals and tells you his 45 year old male patient has a normal respiratory rate. The patient's rate at rest should be: A. 12 to 24 B. 12 to 20 C. 20 to 30 D. 20 to 40

B

Your patient has a chronic respiratory disease that has episodic exacerbations of flares. He most likely is suffering from: A. pulmonary edema B. asthma C. pneumonia D. emphysema

B

Your patient has a history of diabetes and takes medication by injection daily. Diabetics often present the EMT with all of the following signs and symptoms except: A. cold, clammy skin B. decreased heart rate C. anxiety D. combativeness

B

Your patient has been outdoors in the sun most of the day. He has reddened and blistered areas on his shoulders and neck called: A. abrasions B. burns C. lacerations D. contusions

B

Your patient has serious thermal burns to his face and forearm. In addition to the physical damage cause by burns, patients often suffer: a. Heart attacks b. Emotional and psychological problems c. Diabetic emergencies d. Delayed reactions such as developing skin cancer

B

Your patient is a 15 year old male who fell off his bike and struck his head. Frequently reassessing this patient establishes _____, which is (are) ____ for quality patient care. A. a paper trail; helpful B. trends; essential C. legal evidence; required D. a reason for treatment; needed

B

Your patient is a 16 year old male who was found huffing a rag drenched in chemicals. Cleaning fluid, glue and model cement are examples of: A. hallucinogens B. volatile chemicals C. diuretics D. narcotics

B

Your patient is a 22 year old male who sustained an electrical urn when improperly installing an outlet. Electrical burns are of special concern because they: a. Cause respiratory burns if superheated gas is inhaled b. Pose a great risk of severe internal injuries c. May remain on the skin and continue to burn for hours d. Cause the patient to lose hair over time

B

Your patient is a 6 year old male who fell off his skateboard and has numerous injuries to both of his legs. You should be especially careful when evaluating pediatric patient for shock because they: A. cannot be administered oxygen at low flow rates B. may display few signs and/or symptoms until a large percentage of blood volume is lost C. can decompensate for blood loss very quickly D. may exhibit erratic capillary refill times

B

Your patient is a 60 year old male who is having difficulty breathing, and he is working very hard to breathe. He is using the muscles in his neck and abdomen to assist his breathing. These are referred to as the ____ muscles of breathing: A. extra B. accessory C. subdiaphragmatic D. smooth

B

Your patient is a nose breather and her head is equal to 25 percent of her total body weight. What age group is she in? A. Toddler B. Infancy C. School age D. Preschool age

B

Your patient is a preschooler who has a history pf peanut allergies. he has an epinephrine auto-injector that is held by the school nurse. These devises come in two different sizes. The child size (for children weighing fewer than 66 pounds) contains: A. 0.05 ,g B. 0.15 mg C. 0.5 mg D. 1.0 mg

B

Your patient is a teenager who's parent states, "she had not accepted her disease and is managing it poorly." Poorly managed diabetes can cause: A. hypoxia, or low oxygen B. altered mental status C. dilation of the coronary arteries D. absorption of poisons

B

Your patient is approximately 400 pounds and experiencing breathing difficulty. While providing initial assessment and care, it would be helpful to call for: A. ALS providers if they are available B. A bariatric stretcher C. Additional crew members D. All of these

B

Your patient is dehydrated, yet also has massive edema. This could be due to: A. Blood loss from injury B. A dysfunctioning liver C. An excessive amount of eating D. All of these

B

Your patient is going to need oral glucose. Before and after administering the medication, you should make sure to: A. check for distal pulses in both arms B. document the mental status of the patient C. increase the oxygen flow rate by 5 liters per minute D. have the patient drink a glass of water

B

Your patient is one of the five members of a family who may have been exposed to a leaky heating system and carbon monoxide. How does carbon monoxide affect the body? A. It causes severe respiratory burns B. it prevents the normal carrying of oxygen by the red blood cells C. it causes the tissues in the airway to sell, making breathing difficult D. it stimulates the central nervous system to decrease oxygen consumption

B

Your patient was in a car wreck, and on assessment you note he has no sensation and movement in both of his legs. When documenting this on the prehospital care report, you should note that the patient: A. Demonstrated quadriplegia B. Demonstrated paraplegia C. Had extreme pain in his extremities D. Was completely paralyzed

B

Your patient was thrown from his motorcycle when he stopped suddenly. His thighs are very painful and a strange shape. When a body part is injured and it no longer has its normal shape, this is referred to as a: A. hematoma B. deformity C. fracture D. crepitation

B

Your patient who is experiencing a severe allergic reaction meets the protocol criteria and has his own self-injector. After you administer epinephrine by an auto-injector, you should: A. prepare another does B. reassess the patient after 2 minutes C. decrease the oxygen being administered D. allow the patient to remain at home

B

unfortunately, nearly ____ of the patients who experience a cardiac arrest within 2 hours of the onset of symptoms have no previous history of cardiac problems. A. 10 percent B. 25 percent C. 60 percent D. 80 percent

B

use of the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) is controversial, and its use should be defined by your services Medical Director. Some "experts" agree that the PASG is useful for: A. controlling bleeding from head trauma B. controlling bleeding from the areas the garment covers C. penetrating chest trauma D. the patient in cardiogenic shock

B

Oxygen passes from the environment to the lungs in what order? A. Nose, bronchi, larynx, trachea, lung B. Larynx, esophagus, trachea, bronchi, alveoli C. Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli D. Epiglottis, trachea, cricoid, bronchi, alveoli

C

A physician realizes that his patient may become anxious and use his inhaler improperly. To help improve the volume of the medication that the patient is able to self-administer when in distress, the physician may prescribe a: A. tranquilizer B. decongestant C. spacer device D. heat treatment

C

A process of continuous self-review of all aspects of an EMS system for the purpose of identifying and correcting aspects of the system that require improvement is called: A. Off-line medical direction B. Patient advocacy C. Quality improvement D. Continuing education

C

One type of burn that can interrupt circulation to distal tissues is called a ____ burn. a. Circulation b. Radiation c. Circumferential d. Distal

C

A patient's exaggerated response of her body's immune system to any substance is called a(n) ____ reaction. A. vasoconstricting B. immune C. allergic D. syncopal

C

5 year old male patient who you suspect is having a life-threatening allergic reaction. He was stung by a few bees when mowing the lawn. To be considered a severe allergic reaction the patient must have signs and symptoms of shock or: A. a history of allergies B. massive swelling C. respiratory distress D. increased blood pressure

C

A 21 year old female sustained a cut on her hand while slicing carrots for a stew. This would is called a(n): a. Abrasion b. Puncture c. Amputation d. Crush injury

C

A 32 year old female patient who has overdosed on a hallucinogen may have signs and symptoms such as: A. excitement, increased pulse and breathing rates, dilated pupils, and rapid speech B. sluggish, sleepiness, and lack of coordination of body and speech C. fast pulse rate, dilated pupils, flushed face, and "seeing" or "hearing" things D. reduced pulse rate and rate and depth of breathing, constricted pupils, and sweating

C

A cardiac arrest that occurs within 2 hours of the onset of cardiac symptoms is referred to as: A. prehospital death B. prehospital arrest C. sudden death D. ventricular tachycardia

C

A comfortable device that can be used to transport a patient in the supine position who has sustained a spinal injury is a: A. Scoop stretcher B. Stair chair with tracks C. Vacuum mattress D. KED

C

A component of the blood that his critical to the body's response to infection is called: A. red blood cells B. platelets C. white blood cells D. hemoglobin

C

A federal organization responsible for issuing guidelines for employee safety around biohazards is called the: A. Food and Drug Administration B. Federal Communications Commission C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration D. Public Health Service

C

A fully pressurized oxygen tank should have approximately ___ psi. A. 1,000 B. 1,500 C. 2,000 D. 2,500

C

A major risk factor in heart disease and stroke is due to: A. Low blood pressure B. Low blood sugar C. Constriction of peripheral vessels D. All of these

C

A noisy, harsh sound when the patient is breathing is called: A. nasal flaring B. grunting C. crowing D. gurgling

C

A nonshockable rhythm that is commonly called flatline is named: A. pulseless electrical activity B. ventricular tachycardia C. asystole D. ventricular fibrillation

C

A partial thickness burnt hat involves more than 30 percent of the body surface area is classified as a ____ burn. a. Minor b. Moderate c. Critical d. Fatal

C

A patient is complaining of chest pain. In order for the EMT to administer nitroglycerin, all the following conditions must be met except: A. medical direction should authorize its administration B. the patient's physician should have prescribed the medication C. the patient's blood pressure is lower than 100 systolic D. the patient's blood pressure is greater than 100 systolic

C

A patient who has been diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea may use a ____ to sleep. A. bronchoconstrictor B. metered dose aspirator C. CPAP device D. sedative medication

C

A patient who sustained serious trauma is described as having a thready pulse. This patient most likely has a(n) ____ pulse. A. strong B. irregular C. weak D. infrequent

C

A patient who was working in a chemistry lab sustained a burn when a beaker of a strong acid spilled all over him. Chemical burns are of special concern because they: a. Cause respiratory burns if superheated gas is inhaled b. Pose a great risk of severe internal injuries c. May remain on the skin and continue to burn for hours d. Jump from one extremity to another

C

A significant danger faced by the EMT is violence. On arriving at the scene of a private home, you hear screaming from inside; there are beer cans piled up on the front porch; and, as you knock on the door, it suddenly gets very quiet inside. What should you do next? A. Enter the residence and search for weapons B. Contact the dispatcher to inquire if they have ever had violence at this location C. Retreat to a safe location and ask for the police to respond to secure the scene D. Yell into the house that you are EMS and not the police

C

A soft tissue injury caused by a force that can cause rupture or bleeding of internal organs is called a ___ injury. a. Contusion b. Hematoma c. Crush d. High-force

C

A technique that is designed to reduce the entry of air into the esophagus during ventilation is the: A. Jaw-thrust maneuver B. Hyperventilation technique C. Sellick maneuver D. Chest-thrust technique

C

A toddler has continuing developments and improvements from infancy. Examples include each of the following except: A. the brain is now 90 percent of an adult's brain weight B. the alveoli increase in numbers C. the child is less susceptible to illness D. all of the primary teeth should be in place

C

A(n) ___ is an injury in which the skin is interrupted, exposing the tissues underneath. a. Hematoma b. Closed wound c. Open wound d. Crush injury

C

According to the NHTSA, in addition to other data elements, the minimum data set on a PCR should include all of the following except: A. respiratory rate and effort and skin color and temperature B. times of incident, dispatch, and arrival at the patient C. patient's SSN D. capillary refill for patients less than 6 years old

C

Acute coronary syndrome is a blanket term that refers to: A. mild heart attack B. sudden death of the cells in the heart muscle C. any time the heart may not be getting enough oxygen D. a period of time when the heart stops beating

C

After contact with the blood or body fluids of a patient, an EMT may submit a request for a determination of exposure to his or her: A. Employer B. Medical Director C. Designated officer D. Local hospital

C

After the crash of a van carrying six children who were severely injured, the EMS Director conferred with the Medical Director and they decided to set up a meeting of all providers who were involved in the call. A meeting held by a team of peer counselors and mental health professional within 24 to 72 hours after an incident like this is called a: A. Incident critique B. MCI critique C. Critical incident stress debriefing D. Quality circle

C

After the first shock, the patient seems to move and you assess a strong carotid pulse. The patient is also breathing adequately. You should then _____ and transport. A. give high-concentration oxygen via bag-valve mask B. provide artificial ventilations with high-concentration oxygen C. give high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask D. administer two more shocks

C

All of the following are body systems except A. Respiratory B. Cardiovascular C. Abdominal D. Musculoskeletal

C

All of the following are examples of information that be put in quotation marks on the PCR except: A. bystander information B. chief complain C. objective information D. police officer's statments

C

All of the following potential acute coronary syndrome patients are candidates for immediate transport except a patient with: A. no history of cardiac problems B. a history of cardiac problems, who does not have nitroglycerin C. prescribed nitroglycerin D. a systolic blood pressure of less than 90-100

C

All of the following would be considered high-priority conditions except: A. difficulty breathing B. responsive but not following commands C. an uncomplicated childbirth D. chest pain with systolic pressure less than 100

C

An EMT is operating as the Medical Director's: A. Employee B. Replacement C. Designated agent D. Peer

C

An EMT may further his or her EMS education by: A. Re-reading the EMT textbook B. Repeating the EMT course C. Attending EMS conference D. All of these

C

An elderly patient is experiencing a fight or flight situation, and her body is attempting to compensate by increasing her cardiac output. How will the body do this on a moments' notice? A. By decreasing her pulse rate B. By increasing the stroke volume C. By increasing the heart rate D. By decreasing the respiratory rate

C

An example of a specialty hospital in the EMS system is a: A. Emergency department B. Correctional facility C. Poison control center D. Primary care center

C

An injury to the spinal cord at the _____ level may be fatal because control of muscles of breathing arise from the spinal cord at this level. A. Lumbar B. Sacral C. Cervical D. Thoracic

C

An oral or nasal airway should be: A. cleaned for reuse after the call B. inserted in all critically injured patients C. used to keep the tongue from blocking the airway D. used in order to prevent the need for suctioning

C

An organ containing acidic gastric juices that begin the breakdown of food into components that the body will be able to convert to energy is the: A. Large intestine B. Small intestine C. Stomach D. Liver

C

As an important part of your history taking, you will determine if the patient is taking any specific medications. Examples of medications a patient may have in his or her possession and that the EMT may assist the patient in taking under the appropriate circumstances are: A. glucose injections and anti convulsants B. home oxygen, antihypertensives, and anti-inflammatories C. epinephrine auto-injector, a bronchodilator inhaler, nitroglycerin, and aspirin D. insulin, antihypertensives, and anticonvulsants

C

As you arriving on the scene, the police officer tells you that the patient has been exhibiting self-destructive activity. Which one of the following is not an example of this type of activity? A. a defined lethal plan of action that has been verbalized B. giving away personal possessions C. denial of suicidal thoughts D. previous suicide threats

C

Aspin is administered by the EMT in he field to: A. treat headaches B. dilate the coronary arteries C. help prevent clot formation D. eliminate the pain from a serious injury

C

Assessing the quality of the pulse includes determining the : A. rhythm and rate B. rate and force C. rhythm and force D. presence and balance

C

Because of internal bleeding, the patient is developing inadequate tissue perfusion. This condition is referred to as: A. hyperperfusion B. hypoxia C. hypoperfusion D. hypotension

C

Besides motor vehicle exhaust, where else might you find carbon monoxide? A. in the patient compartment of your ambulance, there ma be CO B. wherever you can smell its odor, there is a large quantity of CO C. around an improperly vented wood-burning stove, there is CO gas D. around the foundation of a house, there is often CO gas

C

Boys are usually finished growing by the age of: A. 14 B. 16 C. 18 D. 20

C

Carbon monoxide, chlorine, and sulfur are examples of ____ poisons. A. ingested B. injected C. inhaled D. swallowed

C

Chest pain from the heart is typically described by the patient as a "crushing pain." It is also often described as any of the following except: A. dull B. squeezing C. tearing D. heavy

C

Drugs that have few legal uses and are dissolved in the mouth are called: A. narcotics B. uppers C. hallucinogens D. downers

C

During respiration, the movement of air into and out of the lungs requires that: A. oxygen exits on the exhalation phase B. carbon dioxide enters on the inhalation phase C. air flow be unobstructed and move freely D. the mouth be open at all times that the patient is breathing

C

During the primary assessment of an adult medical patient with a chief complaint of chest pain, you note that the breathing rate is 28. You should consider: A. oxygen by a nasal cannula B. providing bag-valve mask ventilations C. administering oxygen by nonrebreather mask D. using a paper bag to slow down the rate

C

During you radio report, you state, "the patient's mental status has not changed during our care." You are attempting to advise the hospital of the: A. the baseline vital signs B. the emergency medical care given C. the reponse of the patient to the emergency medical care D. pertinent findings of the physical exam

C

Each of the following is a good tip for the EMT to maintain a healthy lifestyle except: A. Maintaining solid personal relationships B. Participating in an exercise program to improve strength, flexibility, and fitness C. Being careful not to sleep more than 6 hours a day D. Limiting alcohol and caffeine intake

C

Every employer of EMTs must provide, free of charge: A. A yearly physical examination B. A life insurance policy C. A hepatitis B vaccination D. Universal health insurance

C

Experienced EMT's consider a good PCR as one that: A> protects them against QA review B. is vague enough to prevent lawsuit C. paints a picture of the patient D. identifies symptoms overlooked by the patient

C

From an EMT's perspective, what do the diseases H1N1, chicken pox, German measles, and whooping cough have in common? A. They are all caused by bloodborne pathogens B. They are all spread by exposure to oral secretions during suctioning C. They are all spread by the airborne route D. They all can be prevented by eating the right foods.

C

Humidified oxygen is: A. not possible in an ambulance B. not used for patients on chronic oxygen therapy C. not needed in adult patients being transported for short distances D. habit forming

C

If a 22 year old male patient has an impaled object in his right eye, the care you provide should include use of a: a. Pressure bandage placed over the eye b. Loose bandage placed over the eye c. Combination of 4x4 and a paper cup d. Combination of 3 inch gauze and a Styrofoam cup

C

If a 55 year old patient who has a cardiac pacemaker need to be defibrillated, the EMT should: A. perform the procedure as he or she would for other cardiac patients B. remove the pacemaker before defibrillation C. place the pad several inches away from the pacemaker battery D. double the power setting on the AED

C

If a patient is experiencing breathing difficulty and is breathing adequately, it is usually best to place him in the ___ position. A. tripod B. supine C. sitting-up D. none of these

C

If a patient who has been treated with CPCP for the past 10 minutes starts to experience a decrease in mental status, the EMT should: A. turn up the pressure B. remove CPAP and ventilate with a BVM C. lower the level of pressure in a CPAP device considerably D. administer a bronchodilator treatment per medical control

C

If an infant or child has ____ in the setting of a respiratory emergency, this usually indicates trouble: A. a fever B. cold skin C. a low pulse D. a rapid pulse

C

If something is placed in the patient's throat, the gag reflex causes the patient to: A. take deep breaths B. pass out C. vomit or retch D. all of these

C

If the EMT is treating a patient with a sustained respiratory rate above____ or below ____ breaths per minute, high-concentration oxygen must be administered: A. 20; 10 B. 20; 12 C: 24; 8 D. 24; 10

C

If the patient has a ____ and needs ventilatory assistance, the best device to use is a _____. A. stoma; pocket mask B. tracheotomy; positive pressure ventilator C. stoma; bag-valve mask D. tracheotomy; nasal airway

C

If the patient's blood pressure falls below 100 systolic after the EMT has administered nitroglycerin, the EMT should: A. administer another dose of nitroglycerin B. reassess the patient's vital signs C. treat for shock and transport promptly D. do all of these

C

If you are an EMT who wants to think like a highly experienced physician in your assessment of patients, you should try to: A. learn to hate ambiguity B. utilize a single strategy in all cases C. understand the limitations of technology and people D. reflect on what others have learned

C

In 1966, the ______charged the United States _____ with developing EMS standards. A. Uniform Traffic Act; Department of Transportation B. President; Fire Academy C. National Highway Safety Act; Department of Transportation D. American Medical Association; Department of Health and Human Services

C

In a normal healthy person, one would expect the oximeter reading to be: A. 86 to 90 percent B. 91 to 94 percent C. 95 to 99 percent D. none of these

C

In addition to chest pain or discomfort, the patient with cardiac compromise will also complain of: A. diarrhea B. shivering C. dyspnea D. headache

C

In the secondary assessment, you will be checking the patient from head to foot for pain and tenderness. The difference between pain and tenderness is: A. pain occurs only when you squeeze an injury site, whereas tender areas hurt all the time B. pain is considered unbearable, whereas tenderness is usually bearable C. tenderness may not hurt unless the area is palpated, whereas pain is evident without palpation. D. pain hurts only for the first 10 minutes, whereas tenderness doesn't go away

C

It is suggested that all EMTs who work or volunteer for an ambulance service be immunized with all of the following vaccines except: A. Tetanus B. Hepatitis B C. Purified protein derivative D. Influenza

C

It is the responsibility of the EMT to treat patients: A. As quickly as possible B. In their community or district C. In a nonjudgmental and fair manner D. Who are insured or injured at work

C

It is very useful for EMT's to understand how common illness and injuries affect the body and how the body reacts. The study of how disease processes affect the function of the body is called: A. Anatomy B. Physiology C. Pathophysiology D. Kinetics

C

Knowing the mechanism of injury assists the EMT in: A. immobilizing the patient's spine B. determining which Standard Precautions to use C. predicting various injury patterns D. all of these

C

Leaving a patient in the hallway stretcher in a busy ED and leaving without giving a report to a health care professional is an example of: A. Liability infraction B. Battery C. Abandonment D. Breach of duty

C

Medical abbreviations should be used on a PCR: A. to save space in the narrative section B. to replace all words you cannot spell C. only if they are standardized D. to ensure correct interpretation by physicians

C

Most of the over 1 million poisonings yearly in the United States are due to: A. suicide attempts by adults B. attempts to murder someone C. accidents involving young children D. teenagers using illicit drugs

C

Of the following components of a medical radio report, which is in the correct order? 1 - major past illness 2 - chief complaint 3 - unit identification and level of provider 4 - emergency care given A. 4, 1, 2, 3 B. 3, 4, 1, 2 C. 3, 2, 1, 4 D. 1, 2, 4, 3

C

On returning to the station after a call, you have the chance to reread your PCR. If information was omitted by mistake, you should: A. prepare another report and substitute that for the earlier one B . notify the service Medical Director immediately C. add a note with the correct information, the date, and initial it D. do nothing because information should never be added after the call

C

One indication that a child is experiencing inadequate breathing is that she: A. had a headache B. complains of nausea C. has nasal flaring when breathing D. is dizzy when standing

C

One indication that a patient is experiencing inadequate breathing is that she: A. has a headache B. complains of nausea C. talks in short, choppy sentences D. is dizzy when standing

C

One of the functions of the integumentary system is to: A. Eliminate excess oxygen into the atmosphere B. Regulate the diameter of the blood vessels in the circulation C. Protect the body from the environment, bacteria, and other organisms D. Allow environmental water to carefully enter the body

C

Reassessment is done on all patients. In a few instances, the reassessment may be omitted. This is appropriate only if: A. the PCR is not completed. B. you do not want to interrupt patient conversation C. life-saving interventions prevent doing it D. a short transport time prevents completion

C

Rough-edged amputations, usually produced by crushing or tearing injuries: A. are easily controlled by a pressure bandage B. tend to stop bleeding on their own C. often bleed very heavily D. constrict quickly to control bleeding

C

Serious hypotension in an adult patient is normally defined as a systolic below ____ mmHg. A. 200 B. 140 C. 90 D. 60

C

Shock absorption and insulation are major functions of which layer of the skin? a. Epidermis b. Dermis c. Subcutaneous d. Epithelial

C

Some of the most important decisions EMTs make in routinely dealing with patients in the field involve: A. Universal precautions B. General isolation C. Standard precautions D. Quarantine isolation

C

Some warning signs that an EMT is being addicted by stress include: A. Overheating and ringing in the ears B. Rapid urination and sweating C. Indecisiveness and guilt D. Increased sexual activity and sleep

C

Statistically, a leading killer of infants and children is: A. motor vehicle collisions B. heart attacks C. respiratory conditions D. infection

C

The "S" in DCAP-BTLS refers to: A. soft tissue B. stable C. swelling D. stomach

C

The AED pads are first attached to the cables. Then the pad attached to the ____ cable goes on the ____ lower ribs. A. white; left B. white; right C. red; left D. red; right

C

The EMT should list and look under the airbag after the patient has been removed from the vehicle in order to: A. obtain the serial number of the airbag B. see if a hazardous chemical had been released C. note any visible damage to the steering wheel D. determine if it deployed properly

C

The PCR serves as a legal document as well as a(n): A. press release form for your EMS agency B. receipt for the patient C. aid to research, education, and administrative efforts D. form to report all calls to the local police department

C

The adequate rate of artificial ventilations for a nonbreathing infant or child patient is ____ breaths per minute. A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25

C

The analytical process that assists the EMT in reaching a field diagnosis is referred to as: A. active assessment B. passive assessment C. critical thinking D. detailed assessment

C

The best assessment of the amount of air that gets into and out of the lungs each minute is the: A. End-tidal CO2 B. Tidal volume C. Minute volume D. SPO2

C

The body's response to stress was studied by Dr. Hans Selye, who found there is a: A. Resistance syndrome B. Excess of the chemical cortisone C. General adaptation syndrome D. Exhaustion syndrome

C

The brain stimulation to the respiratory system to increase the rate and/or tidal volume originates with the: A. Ribs and chest vault B. Nervous system and spinal cord C. Chemoreceptors in the brain and vascular system D. Pressure sensors located in the aortc arch and carotids

C

The comprehensive government publication listing all drugs in the United States is called the : A. Physician's Desk Reference B. Hazmat Guide C. US Pharmacopoeia (USP) D. National Medicine Guide

C

The copy of the PCR left at the hospital: A. is returned to the state for quality review and follow-up B. is thrown out once it is key-punched and added to computer file C. should become part of the patient's permanent hospital record D. is sent to the regional Emergency Medical Services agency

C

The decision on when to use activated charcoal is best made: A. en route to the hospital B. upon arrival at the emergency department C. with medical direction or poison control center consultation D. in consultation with the patient's family physician

C

The detailed physical exam is not designed for the: A. trauma patient with a significant mechanism of injury (MOI) B. trauma patient with an unclear mechanism of injury (MOI) C. medical patient with very few signs and symptoms D. critical trauma patient who could have a medical cause in addition to being involved in a car crash

C

The extent of limits of the EMT's job is called the: A. Ethical dilemma B. National curriculum C. Scope of practice D. Regional protocol

C

The federal law designed to protect the patients private medical information is the: A. NHTSA B. ANSI C. HIPAA D. OSHA

C

The first time a person is exposed to an allergen, the person; immune system: A. reacts violently B. shuts down C. forms antibodies D. ignores the allergen

C

The fluid that carries the blood cells and nutrients is called: A. Platelets B. Urine C. Plasma D. None of these

C

The major emphasis of the curriculum for the EMT deals with _____ of the ill or injured patient in the prehospital setting: A. Immediate life-threatening care B. Interpretation of electrocardiograms C. Assessment and care D. Techniques of advanced airway care

C

The maximum number of doses of nitroglycerin routinely given by the EMT with medical control permission, or taken by the patient at the advice of his physician, is: A. one B. two C. three D. four

C

The medical specialty concerned with the blood disorders is called: A. nephrology B. neurology C. hematology D. histology

C

The mental status of an unresponsive child or infant can be checked by: A. a sternal rub B. assessing the capillaries for refill C. shouting or by flicking the feet D. asking the parent to stick a pin in the child's foot

C

The most common mechanism of shock for a heart attack patient is: A. vasoconstriction B. fluid loss C. pump failure D. vasodilation

C

The normal mode of transmission of the disease chicken pox is thought to be through: A. Blood or stool B. Accidental needle sticks C. Airborne droplets D. Ventilation systems

C

The normal pulse rate for a school-age child (6-10 years) is: A. 120 to 160 B. 60 to 100 C. 70 to 110 D. 80 to 120

C

The normal respiration rate for a toddler (1-3 years) is: A. 12 to 24 B. 12 to 20 C. 20 to 30 D. 20 to 40

C

The number of breaths a patient takes in 1 minute is called the: A. minute volume B. minute pressure C. respiratory rate D. all of these

C

The organs outside the peritoneum that are found between the abdomen and the back are in the ____ space: A. posterior pelvic B. subxiphoid C. retroperitoneal D. dorsal back

C

The oxygen concentration of a nasal cannual is between: A. 4 and 6 percent B. 8 and 20 percent C. 24 and 44 percent D. 50 and 65 percent

C

The patient has already bled through a small pile of gauze pads. You will be applying some additional sterile pads to the injury. The initial layer of dressing should not be removed from a bleeding wound because it: A. can become a biohazard B. takes too long to remove C. is a necessary part of clot formation D. may increase the change of infection

C

The phases of adaptation to stress include alarm, exhaustion, and: A. Reaction B. Distress C. Resistance D. Rest

C

The physical exam includes the basics of the inspection, auscultation , and : A. interaction B. intuition C. palpation D. observation

C

The physical forces and energy that impinge on the patient are influenced by the laws of physics. One of those laws, the law of inertia, stat that: A. the faster you enter a turn, the more your vehicle will be pulled straight B. the slower the speed, the greater the energy loss C. a body in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force D. the mass or weight of an object is the most important contributor to an injury

C

The pressure wave around the bullet's tract through the body is called: A. exsanguination B. gas penetration C. cavitation D. pressure damage

C

The process by which an external medical system independent of the kidneys is used to remove toxins and excess fluid from the body is called: A. excretion B. dehydration C. dialysis D. all of these

C

The purpose of always following the general principles of radio transmission are to allow all persons to use frequencies and to; A. avoid having to repeat orders for medical direction B. enable the EMT to talk in code language C. prevent delays D. all of these

C

The purpose of suctioning may include removal of: A. teeth and large pieces of solid material B. excess oxygen from the patient C. blood, vomitus, and other secretions D. all of these

C

The reading of a glucose meter is reported in: A. percentage of oxygen in the hemoglobin B. percentage of CO2 in the exhaled air C. milligrams of glucose per deciliter of blood D. none of these

C

The reading on the glucose meter is responded in: A. grams of sugar per liter of blood B. centimeters of blood per decimeter of sugar C. milligrams of glucose per deciliter of blood D. none of these

C

The relationship of glucose to insulin is often described as: A. oppositional B. synergistic C. a lock and key mechanism D. antagonistic

C

The soft tissues of the body include all of the following except? a.Skin, fatty tissue, and muscles b.Blood vessels and fibrous tissues c.Teeth, bones and cartilage d.Nerves, membranes and glands

C

The steps of the primary assessment: A. are patient dependent B. depend on the baseline vital signs C. must be followed in order D. depend on the age and sex of the patient

C

The structure that divides that chest cavity from the abdominal cavity is called the ____ muscle. A. intercostal B. sternocleidomastoid C. diaphragm D. inguinal

C

The sweating , trembling, anxiety, and hallucinations found in the alcohol withdrawal patient are called: A. withdrawal signs B. seizures C. delirium tremens D. Parkinson tremors

C

The system that secretes hormones, such as insulin and adrenaline, and that is responsible for regulating many body activities, is called the _______ system A. Integumentary B. Nervous C. Endocrine D. Gastrointestinal

C

The vessel that carries oxygen-poor blood from the portions of the body below the heart and back to the right atrium is called the: A. Posterior tibial B. Internal jugular C. Inferior vena cava D. Aorta

C

To determine a patient's skin temperature, the EMT should: A. hold a thermometer in the axilla for 30 seconds B. have the patient exhale onto a warming device C. feel the patient's skin with the back of the hand D. listen carefully with a stethoscope

C

To distinguish between a partial thickness burn and a full thickness burn, look for ____ which indicates a full thickness burn. a. Blisters b. Mottled skin c. Dry and white areas d. Swelling

C

To ensure your own safety when lifting an adult patient, it is important to: A. Always wear a back brace B. Keep the weight as far away from your body as possible C. Use your legs, not your back to lift D. Avoid lifting a patient who weighs more than you do

C

To prevent violating patient confidentiality, the EMT should: A. Communicate with medical direction B. Perform an accurate interview C. Avoid inappropriate conversation D. Develop the ability to listen to others

C

To provide the appropriate level of precautions used to protect from infectious disease in the field, the EMT may need to use: A. Hand washing and SCBA B. A HEPA mask and shoe covers C. Disposable gloves and eye protection D. A paper gown and leather gloves

C

What is the most important consideration when assessing and managing the breathing of a child? A. the chest wall is more rigid and harder to ventilate B. children use a lost less oxygen than an adult uses C. the trachea is softer and more flexible D. all of these are equally important

C

When a 61 year old male patient tells you that he has a tearing sensation in the back and denies any recent injury, the EMT should suspect: A. an acute appendicitis B. kidney stone C. abdominal aortic aneurysm D. a flare-up of pancreatitis

C

When a cardiac patient has another heart attack and his cardiac output drops this is often due to: A. Ventricular irritability B. A decrease in the tidal volume C. A decrease in the strength of contractions D. An increase in the heart rate

C

When a clinician draws up a list of conditions that may be the cause of the patient's condition today, this is referred to as the: A. admission diagnosis B. presenting problem C. differential diagnosis D. assessment finding

C

When a collision vehicle is on fire, consider the danger zone to extend at least ___ feet in all directions, even if the fire appears small and limited to the engine compartment. A. 25 B. 50 C. 100 D. 200

C

When a mother states that her baby daughter is developing her reactions to the environment. This is also known as the psychosocial characteristic referred to as: A. trust versus mistrust B. temperament C. bonding D. scaffolding

C

When a patient finds out that he is dying, he may go through which of the following emotional stages? A. Anger and laughter B. Denial and empathy C. Depression and acceptance D. Bargaining and elation

C

When a patient is administered tiny aerosol particles to treat a disease, such as asthma, this is considered the ___ route of administration. A. intravenous B. sublingual C. inhaled D. oral

C

When a patient who has been having difficulty breathing is placed in a sitting-up position on a stretcher, this position is called: A. Prone B. Supine C. Fowlers D. Trendelenburg

C

When a physician orders dilution of an ingested substance, you can use either water or: A. a cola drink B. coffee C. milk D. apple juice

C

When assessing and interviewing a patient, we ask about and look for signs and symptoms. What is a sign? A. A photograph of the patient's wrecked vehicle B. The patient's description of how the injury occur ed C. An objective finding you can see, hear, or feel when examining the patient D. A subjective finding that the patient tells you about his current condition

C

When assessing the carotid pulse, the EMT should: A. palpate the artery as hard as he can B. assess both sides at exactly the same time C. be aware that excessive pressure can slow the heart D. apply pressure until he feels the pulse rate rise

C

When assessing the circulation during the primary assessment, the EMT should check for and control severe bleeding. This is important to do because: A. open woulds can become infected B. it may lead to long-term complications C. a patient can bleed to death in minutes D. the blood pressure may drop over time

C

When assessing the head of an adult male critical trauma patient, the EMT should inspect.palpate for ___ in addition to wounds and deformities. A. hematoma B. scalp lacerations C. crepitation D. abraisions

C

When assessing the pelvis of an adult male critical trauma patient, the EMT should inspect/palpate for ___ in addition to wounds, deformities and tenderness. A. paradoxical motion B. burns C. priapism D. rectal bleeding

C

When assessing your 42 year old female patient, you determine that she can speak clearly but cannot understand what you are saying. This is called: A. expressive aphasia B. hyperactivity C. receptive aphasia D. petit mal seizure

C

When assessing your adult female patient, which one of the following would be most important to observe about her breathing? A. presence of breathing and pulse rate B. breathing pattern and adequacy of breathing C. presence of breathing and adequacy of breathing D. patient position and adequacy of breathing

C

When conducting a physical exam of an unconscious adult patient with a suspected medical problem, you remember there was a "Vial of Life" sticker on the front door of the residence. This is important because it may: A. reveal the patient's name B. give clues to the patient's home address C. reveal that additional medical identification is in the refrigerator D. be the cause of the emergency

C

When doing a log roll, lean from your hips and: A. Keep your back curved only while leaning over the patient B. Position yourself at least 10 inches from the patient C. Use your shoulder muscles to help with the roll D. Roll the patient as fast as possible

C

When evaluating a patient during the focused physical exam, the EMT needs to ____ each body part. A. auscultate and visualize B. percuss and palpate C. inspect and palpate D. visualize and percuss

C

When is it inappropriate to use elevation to assist in bleeding control? A. as you apply direct pressure B. while trying to bandage an extremity C. if you suspect musculoskeletal injuries D. when a patient is found laying down

C

When it is time to transport the diabetic patient who does not responding to painful stimuli, which potion is most appropriate? A. supine B. prone C. recovery D. fowler's

C

When performing the detailed physical exam, you note blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. This tells you that the: A. patient was wearing contact lenses B. patient has a serious brain injury C. patient's eye is bleeding inside D. all of these

C

When the EMT-B makes the physical/emotional needs of the patient a priority, this is considered a ____ of the EMT. A. Advance directive B. Protocol C. Ethical Responsibility D. Legal Responsibility

C

When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, the size of the chest cavity A. Increases, causing inhalation B. Increases, causing exhalation C. Decreases, causing exhalation D. Decreases, causing inhalation

C

When the quality of a patient's respirations is abnormal due to something blocking the flow of air, this is referred to as ____ breathing. A. normal B. shallow C. noisy D. labored

C

When you ask an elderly female patient "How have you been feeling today?" you are asking her about the? A. pertinent past history B. signs and symptoms C. events leading to the illness D. last oral intake

C

Which of the following indicate adequate artificial ventilations? A. Chest does not rise and fall with ventilation B. Rate of ventilation is too slow or too fast C. patient's color changes from cyanotic to pink D. Patient's heart rate does not return to normal with ventilations

C

Which of the following is a sign that your patient may not be breathing adequately? A. air moving out of the nose and mouth B. equal expansion of both sides of the chest C. breathing limited to abdominal movement D. absence of blue or gray skin coloration

C

Which of the following is least likely to be considered a mechanism of injury for ta patient who was involved in ahead-on collision. She was the unrestrained driver who took the "up-and-over" pathway. A. steering wheel B. windshield C. brake pedal D. dashboard

C

Which of the following is not correct about an injury caused by an impaled object? a. The object may plug bleeding from a major artery b. Removal may cause further injury to the nerves, muscles, and soft tissue c. Pressure should be applied to the object to stabilize it d. All of these are incorrect

C

Which of the following is the best description of the role of medical direction in the treatment of a 55 year old male who you suspect is having an acute coronary syndrome? A. authorizing the EMT to administer oxygen via nonrebreather mask B. prescribing nitroglycerin that the EMT can then assist the patient in taking C. authorizing the EMT to assist the patient in taking his prescribed nitroglycerin D. contacting the patient's physician to ensure that the patient's nitroglycerin prescription is not out of date

C

Which of the following risk factors can be modified to reduce the risk of coronary artery disease? A. age B. heredity C. hypertension D. none of these

C

Which of the following would most likely indicate an alteration in the patient's blood sugar level? A. right lower abdominal pain B. nausea and vomiting C. change in mental status D. rigid abdomen or palpation

C

Which one of the following is an action you should not take if a patient refuses care? A. Leave phone stickers with emergency numbers B. Recommend that a relative call the daily physician to report the incident C. Tell the patient to call his or her family physician if the problem reoccurs D. Call a relative or neighbor who can stay with the patient

C

Which one of the following is not a type of consent required for any treatment or action by an EMT? A. Child and mentally incompetent adult B. Implied C. Applied D. Expressed

C

Which statement about children with diabetes is most correct? A. children are more likely than adults to eat correctly B. children are less likely than adults to exhaust blood sugar levels C. children are more at risk than adults for developing hypoglycemia D. children have a greater risk for medical emergencies than do adults

C

Why can nasal congestion be a major problem in the first few months of life? A. Because these children breathe with their diaphragm B. Because the liver is so large in a patient of this age C. Because children of this age are primarily nasal breathers D. Because it is an indication of life-threatening airway compromise

C

Why is it important for the EMT to determine the T in OPQRST when questioning the 58 year old male with a chief complaint of chest pain? A. the patient's temperature could be a contributing factor B. the patient may have fell and injured his tibia C. it is helpful to determine the time when the pain began D. the patient may have sustained a tension pneumothorax

C

Why is it possible for a patient to be allergic to peanuts and not to walnuts or almonds? A. because walnuts have a protective quality to them B. because almonds cause a vasoconstriction of the arteries C. because peanuts are legumes and not nuts D. all of these

C

You are assessing a 23 year old female who has colicky pain. This pain is often ____ pain from a ____ organ in the abdomen. A. tearing; hollow B. referred; solid C. visceral; hollow D. parietal; solid

C

You are assessing a 32 year old female who has breathing difficulty. To determine the quality of breathing, check for all of the following except: A. presence of breath sounds B. chest expansion C. breathing rhythm D. depth of respirations

C

You are assessing a patient who has a long history of depression and suicidal gestures or attempts. The family member who called the ambulance states that she has actually been exhibiting a sudden improvement from depression over the past few days. In this case, you should consider that the patient is: A. no longer suicidal B. now ready to accept care C. still at risk for suicide D. none of these

C

You are assessing a patient who just had a seizure. The most common cause of seizures in adults is: A. taking a double dose of antiseizure medication B. taking a small does of antiseizure medication C. not taking prescribed antiseizure medication D. use of illicit street drugs

C

You are assessing the chest of a 25 year old male who was shot. An injury that has both an entrance and an exit is called a ____ wound. a. Puncture b. Penetrating c. Perforation puncture d. Compression injury

C

You are assigned to move as many patients as possible from the hall of a nursing home because there is a fire in another wing of the building. The next patient you come to is on the floor, and you have decided to use an emergency move. This patient can be moved by: A. Rolling her like a log B. Using a spine board and strapping her down C. Pulling on her clothing in the neck and shoulder area D. Using one rescuer on each extremity

C

You are called to court to testify about a civil matter when a patient sues the city for a injury that occurred in a public place. Which of the following will best help you recall the events of the call? A. the questioning by the defense's attorney B. the questioning of the plaintiff's attorney C. a complete and accurate PCR D. your tape recording of the call dispatch

C

You are evaluating a 52 year old male patient who was the driver of a vehicle involved in a head-on collision. He was not wearing his seat belt. When he pitched forward, he smashed his chest into the steering column. This type of injury is called: a. Closed lung injury b. Penetrating injury c. Compression injury d. Puncture trauma

C

You are evaluating a 59 year old female patient who you suspect may be exhibiting the signs and symptoms of an acute coronary syndrome. Her signs and symptoms may include any of the following except: A. difficulty breathing and abnormal pulse rate B. sudden onset of sweating with nausea or vomiting C. sharp lower abdominal pain and a fever D. pain in the chest of upper abdomen

C

You are evaluating a patient who sustained an injury caused by a blow that hit the body but did not penetrate the skin. This type of injury is called a(n): A. inertia trauma B. cavitation C. blunt-force trauma D. rotational impact

C

You are evaluation an unresponsive male patient, in his fifties, who has only a few shallow, gasping breaths per minute. His treatment should involve: A. oxygen given via nasal cannula B. immediate transport to a medical facility C. immediate artificial ventilation with supplemental oxygen D. oxygen given via nonrebreather mask

C

You are examining a patient who was struck on the head last night. His mental status is altered, and he has a bruise behind the ear. This is referred to as: A. Raccoon's eye's B. Orbital hematoma C. Battle's sign D. Cushing reflex

C

You are treating a 22 year old female patient who was burned. She is having visual difficulties, is restless and irritable, and has irregular pulse rate and muscle tenderness. This patient probably suffered a(n) ____ burn. a. Chemical b. Thermal c. Electrical d. Radiation

C

You are treating a 22 year old female who has a chief complaint of back pain from a fall. You should repeat the reassessment en route to the hospital: A. after you have noticed and documented trends. B. whenever you or your partner has the time and opportunity to do so. C. whenever you believe there may have been a change in the patient's condition. D. when directed to do so by medical direction.

C

You are treating a 28 year old female who sustained several deep lacerations when she fell off her bike and then fell onto a guardrail. The most common and effective way to control severe external extremity bleeding is by: A. cold application B. elevation C. tourniquet D. direct pressure

C

You are treating a 28 year old male patient who you feel is becoming a danger to himself or the others around him and will need to be transported against his will. You should: A. restrain the patient immediately B. transport the patient with the family's assistance C. contact the police for assistance D. contact the patient's physician

C

You are treating a 29 year old female who has major airway problems. She has thick secretions and blood in her upper airway that needs to be suctioned with a Yankauer. Which of the following is not true of the Yankauer suction tip? A. it has a rigid tip B. it allows for excellent control over the distal end of the device C. it is used most successfully with responsive patients D. it has a larger bore than flexible catheters

C

You are treating a 35 year old female who was scalded by a pot full of boiling water. Which of the following is not considered a critical burn in this case? a. Entire genital area b. Full thickness burn to the entire chest and abdomen c. Full thickness burn to the front of the right forearm d. Partial thickness burn to both lower extremities

C

You are treating a 35 year old male who sustained an injury from an impact with a blunt object. There is no external bleeding. This wound is called a ____ injury. a. Stabbing b. Laceration c. Closed d. Perforation

C

You are treating a 35 year old male whose lower leg has been amputated by a train. The most effective treatment for an amputation is to: a. Apply a tourniquet b. Place the amputated part in ice c. Place a snug pressure dressing over the stump d. Apply ice over the stump

C

You are treating a 37 year old male patient who has chief complaint of breathing difficulty. The best way to determine if the patient is improving or deteriorating en route to the hospital is to: A. ask the hospital what needs to be done next B. contact medical direction by radio C. do frequent reassessments of the patient D. keep repeating the primary assessment

C

You are treating a 37 year old male patient who managed to stick his hand into the chute of an operating snow blower. He was severely injured and all of his fingers are severed. The amputated parts torn from his body should be wrapped and placed in a: a. Cup of dry ice placed in an airtight container b. Plastic bag filled with ice c. Plastic bag on top of a sealed bag of ice d. Salience and ice solution

C

You are treating a 45 year old female patient who has sustained considerable blood loss after slicing her hand while preparing food. She states that she feels nauseated. The pulse of this patient will: A. decrease B. be absent C. increase D. be irregular

C

You are treating a 59 year old male patient whose wife called EMS because he had difficulty breathing and was acting anxious and confused. He is diaphoretic and cyanotic, and his vitals are rapid respirations, tachycardia, and hypertension. He has swollen ankles and is coughing up pink sputum. What do you suspect is wrong with the patient? A. he is having an asthma attack B. he is having an acute myocardial infarction C. he has CHF as well as right heart failure D. he is in the end stages of his emphysema

C

You are treating a 62 year old female who is complaining of difficulty breathing. This medical patient does not take any prescribed medication for her condition, so you should generally: A. look for a medical identification device B. consult with the patient's personal physician C. transport the patient to the hospital D. do all of these

C

You are treating a 62 year old male patient who has a chief complaint of chest pain. You are considering administering aspirin to the patient. Of the following considerations, which would not be pertinent to administering this medicine? A. the patient has allergies B. there is a history of asthma C. the patient has taken Viagra D. the patient is on anti-clotting meds

C

You are treating a 62 year old male patient who is complaining of crushing substernal chest pain and shortness of breath. His pulse is fast, BP is high, and pulse oxygen is in the low 90's. The EMT management of the patient with a suspected acute coronary syndrome should include all of the following except: A. placing the patient in the position of comfort B. administering high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask C. administering high-flow oxygen by a nasal cannula D. assisting the patient with nitroglycerin administration if medical direction authorizes

C

You are treating a diabetic patient who has low blood sugar., as documented by a glucometer. When reassessing the patient after you administered oral glucose, you note the patient's condition has not improved. What action should you take? A. call the patient's personal physician B. give glucose in orange juice C. consult medical control about whether to administer more glucose D. administer oxygen by nasal cannula

C

You are treating a firefighter in at the rehab sector at a house fire. Your partner reminds you that the oximeter produces falsely high readings in patients with: A. hypoxia B. barbiturate poisoning C. carbon monoxide poisoning D. croup

C

You are treating a patient who is actively seizing. He is rapidly becoming cyanotic. After convulsions end, what action should you take? A. wait for the patient's color to return to normal B. place a nonrebreather mask with oxygen on the patient C. provide artificial ventilations with supplemental oxygen D. monitor the pulse closely for 2 minutes

C

You are treating a patient who is unconscious for an unknown reason. The clues that a patient is a diabetic include all of the following except: A. a medical identification bracelet B. the presence of insulin in the refrigerator C. low-fat food in the freezer D. information provided by family members

C

You are treating a patient who passed out while waiting in a long line to get into a concert. When a patients faints, the medical term to describe this is usually a(n) ____ and the treatment would involve ____. A. hypoglycemic incident; oxygen administration B. stroke; Fowler position C. syncopal episode; oxygen administration D. hyperglycemic incident; Trendelenburg position

C

You are treating a patient who was assaulted, and the bar where the fight occurred is still noisy. In a situation like this, it makes sense to take the patient's BP by ____ revealing only the ____ pressure. A. auscultation; systolic B. auscultation; diastolic C. palpation; systolic D. palpation; diastolic

C

You are treating a patient who was found unconscious at the bottom of a stairwell. Consent that is based on the assumption that an unconscious patient would approve the EMT's life-saving interventions is called: A. Expressed B. Negligence C. Implied D. Applied

C

You have a standing order to use activated charcoal if the patient meets the criteria. Activated charcoal is used to: A. acts as an antidote B. dilute the poisonous substance C. reduce the amount of poison absorbed by the body D. speed up the digestion of most chemicals in the body

C

You have administered aspirin to the patient with chest pain per your protocols. The patient has his own prescribed nitro and a stable BP, so you decide to assist him in administering one of his nitro pills. After administering the nitroglycerin, it is important for you to: A. immediately administer the next dose B. discontinue the oxygen therapy C. reassess the vital signs D. lay the patient down

C

You have determined that your patient is a V as far as mental status is concerned. What does the "V" in AVPU stand for? A. Violent B. Very painful C. Verbal D. Venous

C

You will be doing a complete body scan search of the 22 year old male patient was stabbed multiple times in a bar fight to look for bleeding. Bleeding is classified as all o the following except: A. arterial B. venous C. cellular D. capillary

C

You will need to be alerting the trauma center of the patient's condition directly from the scene. because your portable radio does not have the power to reach the hospital from the scene, you will need to rely on a device that picks up radio signals from lower-powered units and re-transmits them at a higher power. This device is called a: A. mobile B. cellular C. repeater D. portable

C

You're assessing a 34 year old male whim you suspect is experiencing a stress reaction. to calm this patient, you should: A. complete your assessment as quickly as possible B. allow the patient to control the situation C. explain things to the patient honestly D. restrain the patient quickly

C

Your 35 year old male patient has severe bleeding form a large laceration on his right forearm. You tried direct pressure and it obviously did not work. A blood pressure cuff: A. can be used as a tourniquet if it is inflated to 70mmHg B. should never be used for bleeding control C. can be used as a temporary tourniquet if it is inflated to 150 mmHg D. should always be used to control arterial bleeding

C

Your 55 year old male patient called the ambulance because he has been feeling weak and dizzy most of the day. He states that she has no chest pain or difficulty breathing, but he is nauseated and has had very dark colored diarrhea all day. What do you suspect is his most likely problem? A. an acute myocardial infarction B. an abdominal aneurism C. a bleeding ulcer D. food poisoning

C

Your 56 year old male patient is exhibiting altered behavior tanging from irritability to altered mental status. This behavior can be due to any of the following except: A. lack of oxygen B. head trauma C. hypoactivity D. hypoglycemia

C

Your 56 year old male patient tells you that he has kidney problems and must go to the clinic three times a week. The reason he goes there is probably to: A. do blood tests B. take blood transfusions C. receive hemodialysis D. undergo peritoneal dialysis

C

Your 62 year old female patient is only able to speak in short, choppy sentences. This may mean that she: A. has a language problem B. is unable to hear you clearly C. is experiencing breathing difficulty D. is afraid of you

C

Your 62 year old patient has a history of cardiac problems and takes nitro. The drug nitroglycerin is used to ___ vessels. A. dilate the peripheral B. constrict the peripheral C. dilate the coronary D. constrict the coronary

C

Your patient has a history of diabetes. You were called to her home because her family noticed her mental status was altered. The most common medical emergency for the diabetic patient is called: A. diabetes mellitus B. hypotension C. hypoglycemia D. stroke

C

Your patient has had a seizure. You find on interviewing her after she wakes up that she has not been taking her medication this week. Drugs prescribed for prevention and control of seizures are called: A. antiabetics B. antuhypertensives C. anticonvulsants D. antipdepressants

C

Your patient has no life-threatening external hemorrhagic but has skin that is cool, pale and moist. This could be an indication of: A. increased profusion B. high blood pressure C. poor circulation D. cold exposure

C

Your patient has sustained a large road rash from sliding along the highway when he laid down his motorcycle. Bleeding described as oozing usually is a result of ____ bleeding. A. arterial B. venous C. capillary D. bronchiole

C

Your patient has taken an overdose of a drug that is capable of producing stupor or sleep; it is also normally used to relieve pain. These types of medications are called: A. uppers B. downers C. narcotics D. hallucinogens

C

Your patient is a 32 year old male who is having signs and symptoms of an inhalation. The most common inhaled poison is: A. carbon dioxide B. nitrogen C. carbon monoxide D. phosgene

C

Your patient is a 37 year old male with a history of breathing distress. He has his prescribed inhaler with him. Once you receive permission form medial direction to assist a patient with an inhaler, make sure you have all of the following except: A. the right dose B. an inhaler that is not expired C. a large enough syringe D. a patient who is alert enough to cooperate

C

Your patient may have sustained a significant blood loss form an injury. This condition may result in skin that is: A. flushed B. gray C. pale D. jaundiced

C

Your patient tells you he has a genetic disease but was not specific. He goes on to say that he had to have his spleen removed a few years ago. He called the ambulance today because he has severe pain in his arms, legs, and abdomen. What is a likely cause of this condition? A. a stroke B. a pulmonary embolism C. a sickle cell crisis D. a blood clot in the aorta

C

Your patient us a 52 year old female who states that she ahs a long history of asthma and chronic bronchitis. it would not be unusual for her to carry ____ in her purse. A. nitroglycerin B. an epinephrine auto-injector C. a bronchodilator D. a bronchoconstrictor

C

Your patient was involved in a car crash and it took all night to find his car. He is unable to move his lower extremities and you suspect he is in shock. Shock caused by the failure of the nervous system to control the diameter of blood vessels is called ____ shock. A. hypovolemic B. cardiogenic C. neurogenic D. reversible

C

Your patient was involved in a fight in a bar. You suspect he may have a broken his upper jaw. What is the name of the bone involved? A. Mandible B. Orbit C. Maxillae D. Nasal bone

C

Your record of a patients refusal of medical care (aid) or transport should include all of the following except: A. Informing the patient of the risks and consequences of refusal B. Documenting the steps you took C. Signing of the form by the Medical Director D. Obtaining a release form with the patient's witnessed signature

C

the use of CPAP may be indicated if the patient who you suspect has ____ also has stable vital signs. A. a viral respiratory infection B. epiglottitis C. acute pulmonary edema D. spontaneous pneumothorax

C

If you are carrying a patient down stairs, when possible: A. Flex at the waist with bent knees B. Keep your lower back muscles loose C. Place one hand on the railing for balance D. Use a stair chair instead of a stretcher

D

If you are treating a patient who could be either medical or trauma, it is always best to assess for: A. the medical problem first B. both problems at once C. the trauma problem first D. primary survey problems first

D

A 28 year old male patient fell and you suspect he has sustained internal bleeding. He may have all of the following except: A. painful, swollen, or deformed extremities B. signs and symptoms of shock C. bright red blood in the stool D. a laceration to the forearm

D

A complication that may be found in a 35 year old male who has sickle cell anemia is: A. destruction of the spleen B. acute chest syndrome C. priapism D. all of these

D

A general procedure involved in making evidence-based patient care decisions includes: A. Reviewing the literature B. An evaluation of evidence C. Forming a hypothesis D. All of these

D

A medical identical devise that indicates serious patient medical conditions comes in the form of each of the following except: A. Bracelets B. Necklaces C. Cards D. Patches

D

A patient is very confused and disoriented. Before deciding the patient has a behavioral problem, the EMT should consider all of the following except: A. a potential head injury B. a brain tumor C. hypoxia D. glucose allergy

D

A patient with a lack of oxygen in the red blood cells resulting from inadequate breathing or inadequate heart function will exhibit ____ skin. A. pink B. pale C. flushed D. cyanotic

D

A trade name for oral glucose is: A. D5W B. lactose C. insulin D. insta-glucose

D

A winter storm over the last few days has closed the schools and affected travel on the roads. You are called to the home of a 62 year old male patient who states that he missed his dialysis twice this week because of the storm. What are the symptoms that he may exhibit? A. shortness of breath B. fluid in the lungs C. swollen ankles, hands, and face D. all of these

D

All of the following are lifestyle changes that may benefit an EMT in preventing and dealing with EMS job stress except: A. Developing more healthful and positive dietary habits B. Devoting time to relaxing C. Exercising D. Avoiding talking about his or her feelings

D

Although CPAP is frequently effective in relieving a patient's difficulty with breathing, it can have a side effect of: A. producing hypotension B. pneumothorax C. gastric distension D. any of these may occur

D

An EMT recently had a patient with heat stroke. The next time he or she has a patient in a warm environment, the EMT is more likely to think of this as the diagnosis as opposed to more common problems, such as dehydration. This bias is referred to as: A. overconfidence B. illusory correlation C. confirmation D. availability

D

An example of a medication carried by EMTs that may require a physician consultation to administer is: A. Lidocaine B. Oral glucose C. Oxygen D. Aspirin

D

An example of a patient whose minute volume is likely to have diminished considerably would be: A. A 35 year old female experiencing an asthma attach B. A 22 year old male who has overdosed on a narcotic C. A 16 year old who just broke three ribs D. All of these

D

An important principle to remember when examining a patient is to: A. tell the patient what you are going to do B. assume spinal injury C. try to maintain eye contact D. all of these are correct

D

An intoxicated appearance and uncharacteristic behavior are typical of: A. shock B. dehydration C. cardiac arrest D. diabetic emergency

D

An organism that causes infection is referred to as a: A. Airborne B. Bloodborne C. Allergen D. Pathogen

D

Another name for DNR is: A. Deviated nervous response B. Duty not to react C. Refusal of treatment D. Advance directive

D

Based upon the pulse alone, a sign that something may be seriously wrong with a patient could be: A. a sustained rate below 48 beats per minute B. a sustained rate above 126 beats per minute C. a rate above 150 beats per minute D. all of these

D

If you suspect a conscious 49 year old female has had a stroke, you should transport in the ____ position and pay close attention to her ____. A. recovery; heart rate B. supine; breathing rate C. prone; skin color D. semi-sitting; airway

D

Burn injuries often involve structures below the skin, including muscles and: a. Nerves b. Bones c. Blood vessels d. All of these

D

Burns to the face are of special concern because they: a. Continue to burn for hours b. Can cause heart irregulations c. Increase the potential for shock d. May involve airway injury

D

Complications of diabetes include: A. kidney failure B. heart disease C. blindness D. any of these

D

Components of a communications system include: A. base stations B. mobile units C. portable radios D. all of these

D

Critical burns include all of the following except: a. Circumferential burns b. Moderate burns in an infant or elderly patient c. Burns complicated by musculoskeletal injuries d. Partial thickness burns on the wrist

D

Cyanosis can be checked by observing the patient's: A. tongue B. earlobes C. nail beds D. tongue, nail beds, and earlobes

D

Due to the poisons they produce, plants such as ____ can be dangerous to humans or pets. A. mistletoe B. mushrooms C. rubber plants D. all of these

D

During the general impression, the EMT should: A. look B. listen C. smell D. all of the above

D

During the process of ventilation: A. the intercostal muscles expand, causing the air to be forced out of the chest B. carbon dioxide enters the body during each expiration C. oxygen enters the body during each expiration D. the diaphragm and chest muscles contract and relax to change the pressure in the chest

D

During your reassessment of a 22 year old female who is complaining of abdominal cramps, you note that her pulse is rapid and her skin is cool, pale, and clammy. This may indicate: A. deterioration in mental status B. an occluded airway C. heat exhaustion D. the onset of shock

D

Each of the following are considered common heuristics or biases except: A. illusory correlation B. availability C. representativeness D. underconfidence

D

Early signs of shock that are actually the body's compensating mechanisms include all of the following except: A. increased heart rate B. increased respirations C. pale, cool skin D. decreased capillary refill time

D

Elevation is used to assist in bleeding control for all of the following reasons except: A. it slows bleeding B. it raises the limb above the heart C. it helps to reduce blood pressure in the limb D. it speeds up the pulse rate

D

En route to the hospital, you will be reassessing your 25 year old male patient, who sustained a rib fracture. Which of the following is not a step you should do when repeating the reassessment? A. reestablish patient priorities B. monitor skin color, temperature, and condition C. maintain an open airway D. apply a cervical collar

D

Every EMS system should have a: A. Minimum of three EMT's on each vehicle B. Call review on a monthly basis C. Contract with the local hospital D. Medical Director

D

Examples o the psychosocial challenges a person in late adulthood has to deal with include: A. financial burdens B. self-worth C. living environment D. all of these

D

Examples of agents causing burns include all of the following except: a. AC current b. Hydrochloric acid c. Dry lime d. Distilled water

D

Factors that put a person at risk for developing acute coronary syndromes include: A. age B. cigarette smoking C. obesity D. all of these

D

Fluid distribution is determined by: A. The brain and kidneys regulating thirst and eliminating excess fluid B. The large proteins in our blood plasma pulling fluid into the bloodstream C. The permeability of both cell membranes and the walls of the capillaries helping to determine how much water can be held in and pushed out of cells and blood vessels D. All of these

D

High-priority conditions include: A. poor general impression B. unresponsiveness C. shock (hypoperfusion) C. all of these

D

How might the age of the patient affect your assessment? A. The parent or caregiver will need to help you when assessing an infant B. The patient who is in late adulthood is likely to have cardiovascular disorders C. The adolescent often experiments with alcohol and tobacco D. All of these are challenges you might come across

D

How should the EMT's feet be positioned when lifting? A. Shoulder-width apart B. On firm ground C. On flat ground D. All of these

D

If a complication is found in a 35 year old male who has sickle cell anemia needs emergency treatment, the EMT should provide: A. high-flow supplemental oxygen B. monitoring for a high fever C. treatment for shock D. all of these would be appropriate

D

If a patient's skin is warm, dry and a normal color, it indicates: A. a serious sunburn B. heat exposure C. alcohol abuse D. good circulation

D

If an EMT is not in control of personal habits, he or she might: A. Contaminate the patients wounds B. Make inappropriate decisions C. Render improper care D. Do all of the above

D

If the diabetic is symptomatic and has a sugar level below ____, he is considered hypoglycemic. A. 140 B. 120 C. 100 D. 80

D

If the patient's chest does not rise and fall when using a bag-valve mask, the EMT should do all of the following except: A. reposition the head and reattempt ventilations B. check for escape of air around the mask C. use an alternative method of artificial ventilation D. increase the rate at which the bag is squeezed

D

If your 20 year old female patient, who fell off her bike, has a head injury, and you note bleeding or loss of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the patient's ears of nose, you should: A. apply direct pressure to the skull B. apply direct pressure to the ears and nose C. apply cold packs to the ears and nose D. allow the drainage to flow freely

D

In addition to looking for deformities,. you should look for all of the following except ____ when examining the mouth. A. possible airway obstruction B. loose or broken teeth C. tongue lacerations or swelling D. crepitation

D

In most regions, in addition to taking the pulse and respirations, the baseline vital signs of adult medical patients include: A. determining what they last ate B. assessing the CO2 in their blood C. determining their capillary refill time D. the oxygen saturation

D

In the primary assessment, the circulation assessment includes evaluating all of the following except: A. pulse B. skin C. severity of bleeding C. blood pressure

D

Infants get their immunity and antibodies from: A. Breastfeeding by their mother B. The vaccinations they receive C. Beginning to produce their own D. All of these

D

It is thought by some psychologists that, for CISM to be effective: A. It must not be an investigation of the events of the call B. Information discussed must remain confidential C. An EMT must feel open to discuss feelings, fears, and reactions D. All of these

D

Of the cardiac arrest patients listed below, which one can be defibrillated immediately? A. soaking-wet patient lying in the rain B. trauma patient with severe blood loss C. patient on a metal deck being cradled by another person D. patient with an implanted defibrillator

D

On interviewing your 45 year old male patient, you are told he has a liver abnormality. This may help explain why his skin appears: A. flushed B. mottled C. pale D. jaundiced

D

Once restrained, your 22 year old male patient begins spitting at you and your partner. This behavior can be managed best by: A. placing the patient in a prone position on the stretcher B. wrapping the patient's mouth with roller gauze C. placing 3-inch tape across the patient's mouth D. placing a surgical mask on the patient's face

D

Once the decision has been made to restrain your 22 year old male patient, which one of the following steps should be avoided? A. use multiple straps to restrain the patient B. reassure the patient throughout the procedure C. reassess the patient's distal circulation frequently D. use two rescuers to secure the patient

D

Oxygenation of the body's tissue is reduced in a patient with inadequate breathing, so the skin may be ____ in color and feel ____. A. pale: dry and cool B. red; clammy and hot C. yellow; dry and warm D. blue: clammy and cool

D

Pain from an organ is often described as intermittent and: A. dull B. achy C. diffuse D. any of these

D

Pain originating from an organ in the abdomen is called: A. somatic B. parietal C. referred D. visceral

D

Part of the treatment to a seriously ill patient will involve administration of a drug. Prior to administering the medication, you must know all of the following except: A. the route of administration B. the proper dose to administer C. the actions the medication will take D. both the generic and chemical names

D

Patient advocacy is: A. Assessing your patient B. Abandoning your patient C. Executing your primary responsibility as an EMT D. Speaking up for your patient

D

Patients have many different types of nerves. Nerves that carry information from throughout the body to the brain are _____ nerves. A. Motor B. Cardiac C. Spinal D. Sensory

D

Physical causes of altered behavior include all of the following except: A. inadequate blood flow to the brain B. mind-altering substances C. excessive heat or cold D. differing lifestyles

D

Poisons may enter the body through any of the following routes except: A. inhalation B. ingestion C. injection D. excretion

D

Signs of labored breathing include all of the following except: A. increase in the work of breathing B. use of accessory muscles C. retractions above the collarbone D. delayed capillary refill

D

Signs of neurological impairment include: A. Inability or difficulty speaking B. Visual or hearing disturbance C. Weakness (sometimes limited to one side) D. All of these

D

Stressors affecting the EMT may include: A. Unpleasant dealing with people B. Environmental factors C. Performance expectations D. All of these

D

Sudden blood loss of ____ in a 1 year old infant is considered serious. A. 25 cc B. 50 cc C. 100 cc D. 150 cc

D

Sudden blood loss of ____ in a child is considered serious. A. 200 cc B. 300 cc C. 400 cc D. 500 cc

D

Sudden blood loss of ____ in an adult is considered serious. A. 250 cc B. 500 cc C. 600 cc D. 500 cc

D

The AED should routinely be used on: A. trauma victims B. patients under 55 pounds C. all patients under 8 years of age D. adults, infants, and children in cardiac arrest

D

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends the use of _____ when soap and water are not immediately available to help kill microorganisms on a rescuer's hands. A. Liquid Cydex II solution B. Hydrogen peroxide solution C. Dry powder application D. Alcohol-based hand cleaners

D

Which of the following is not a function of the skin? a. Protection b. Shock absorption c. Temperature regulation d. Blood insulation

D

The EMT can release confidential patient information in all of these following circumstances except to: A. Inform other health care professional who need to know information to continue care B. Report incidents required by state law, such as rape or abuse C. Comply with a legal subpoena D. Protect the other victims of a motor vehicle collision

D

The EMT can safeguard his or her well-being by: A. Understanding and dealing with job stress B. Ensuring scene safety C. Practicing Standard Precautions D. All of these

D

The EMT should not discuss information about a patient except to relay pertinent information to the physician at the emergency department. Information considered confidential includes: A. Patient history gained through interview B. Assessment findings C. Treatment rendered D. All of these

D

The EMT who wants to think like a highly experienced physician tries to do each of the following techniques except: A. organize data in her or his head B. reflect on what he or she has learned C. realize that no one strategy works for everything D. try not to learn from others

D

The EMT's Standard Precautions equipment during the scene size-up may include all of the following except: A. eye protection B. disposable gloves C. face mask or eyeshield D. nonrebreather mask

D

The average person ejects approximately 60 ml of blood with each contraction of the heart. This is known as: A. Afterload B. Vascular resistance C. Preload D. Stroke volume

D

The difference between on-line and off-line medical direction is that: A. Off-line medical direction does not need protocols B. Off-line orders are given by the on-duty physician, usually over the radio or phone C. On-line medical direction uses standing orders D. On-line orders are given by the on-duty physician, usually over the radio or phone.

D

The difference between the adult airway and the pediatric airway is that: A. the adults tongue takes up proportionately more space in the mouth than the childs B. the trachea is softer and more flexible in an adult C. the cricoid cartilage is softer in an adult D. all structures are smaller and more easily obstructed in a child

D

The direct ground lift is an example of a ____ move for a patient who has no spine injury. A. Emergency B. Urgent C. Immediate D. Nonurgent

D

The effects on the cardiac system of an allergic reaction of a 35 year old male patient who was stung by a few bees when mowing the lawn could include ____ heart rate and ____ blood pressure. A. decreased; decreased B. increased; increased C. decreased; increased D. increased; decreased

D

The experts believe that the highest levels of job stress occur in which age group? A. adolescent B. school-age C. middle adult D. young adult

D

The five elements of the chain of survival include early access and each of the following links except: A. CPR B. defibrillation C. advanced care D. prevention

D

The flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device should: A. operate in both ordinate and extreme environmental conditions B. have an audible alarm when the relief valve is activated C. have a trigger so two hands can be used to seal the mask D. do all of these

D

The force exerted by large proteins in the blood tends to attract water away from the area around body cells and into the bloodstream is called the: A. Gravitational pull B. Inertia C. Hydrostatic pressure D. Plasma oncotic pressure

D

The general impression is an evaluation of all of the following except: A. the patient's chief complaint B. appearance C. the environment D. past medical history

D

The history of the present illness or injury for a trauma patient include: A. the direction and strength of the force B. actions taken to prevent or minimize injury C. equipment used to protect the patient D. all of these

D

The layers of the skin include all of the following except? a. Epidermis b. Dermis c. Subcutaneous d. Epithelial

D

The most common witness to a cardiac arrest is a: A. male in his forties B. female in her forties C. man in his sixties D. female in her sixties

D

The need for cervical immobilization should be based on: A. the trauma patient's level of responsiveness B. the location of injuries to the patient C. the mechanism of injury D. all of these

D

The oxygen concentration of a nonrebreather mask is between: A. 50 and 60 percent B. 60 and 70 percent C. 70 and 80 percent D. 80 and 90 percent

D

The patient's stroke volume depends on the patient's: A. Afterload B. Contractility C. Preload D. All of these

D

The person who completed a PCR may be called to court to testify about: A. the call in a criminal proceeding B. the care provided to the patient C. the call in a civil proceeding D. all of these

D

The policy an ambulance service develops concerning patient rights and confidentiality must take into consideration: A. state regulations B. local regulations C. HIPAA D. all of these

D

The pupils may be unequal due to any of the following conditions except: A. stroke B. head injury C. eye injury D. shock

D

The sign(s) of a lower airway problem include all of the following except: A. wheezing B. increased breathing effort upon exhalation C. rapid breathing without stridor D. yellow skin color

D

The signs of inadequate breathing in infants and children include all of the following except: A. nasal flaring B. grunting C. seesaw breathing D. lip quivering

D

The single most important factor in determining survival from cardiac arrest is: A. nitroglycerin administration B. training middle-aged and older people in CPR C. early high-quality CPR D. early defibrillation

D

The situation in which an emergency move would be used include all of the following except: A. Fire or immediate danger of fire B. Explosives or other hazardous chemicals C. Inability to protect the patient from other hazards at the scene D. Dispatcher is holding another, more serious, call

D

The study of drugs, their solutions, and their effects is called: A. anatomy B. physiology C. medicinology D. pharmacology

D

The term used to describe the conclusion that an EMT makes about a patient's condition after assessing that patient is called the: A. presumptive diagnosis B. EMT diagnosis C. EMS diagnosis D. all of these are correct

D

The type of shock most commonly seen by EMT's is ____ shock. A. cardiogenic B. irreversible C. neurogenic D. hypovolemic

D

The types of muscle tissue include: A. Striated B. Involuntary C. Cardiac D. All of these

D

The very first step to aid a patient who is not breathing is to: A. clear the mouth B. administer oxygen C. apply positive ventilation D. open the airway

D

The very first step to aid a patient who is not breathing is to: A. clear the mouth B. administer oxygen C. apply positive ventilations D. open the airway

D

To manage a patient in cardiac arrest, the EMT should provide high-quality CPR as well as do all of the following except: A. use a bag-valve-mask device with oxygen B. use an automated external defibrillator C. request advanced life support backup (when available) D. administer epinephrine via IV

D

What is meant by anatomical dead space: A. the maximum amount of room for dying cells in the body B. The compartment where tissue swells like edema C. Hollow chambers like the sinus D. The area in the lungs outside the alveoli

D

When a highly experienced physician comes to a diagnosis, he or she most likely used: A. heuristics B. pattern recognition C. shortcuts D. all of these

D

When a patient cuts a blood vessel, the body attempts to protect the patient even prior to the first bandage being applied by an EMT. The body's natural responses to bleeding are constriction of the injured blood vessel and: A. perfusion B. hypoperfusion C. compensation D. clotting

D

When a patient inhales, air enters the throat, which is divided into the: A. nasopharynx B. oropharynx C. laryngopharynx D. all of these

D

When assessing a patient who has an altered mental status, it is not uncommon for the EMT to utilize: A. a glucose meter B. a BL cuff and stethoscope C. a pulse oximeter D. all of these

D

When assessing an aggressive patient for a possible threat to you or your crew, take all of the following actions except: A. try to determine the patient's history of aggressive behavior B. pay attention to the patient's vocal activity C. note the patient's posturing D. assess the patient in the kitchen

D

When assessing the lungs of a 55 year old male who presented in respiratory distress, you hear a fine bubbling sound upon inspiration. This sound is caused by fluid in the alveoli and is called: A. wheezes B. stridor C. rhonchi D. crackles

D

When completing a PCR on a patient refusal, the EMT should document all of the following except: A. that he or she was willing to return if the patient changed his or her mind B. the complete patient assessment C. that alternative methods of care were offered D. the patient's definitive diagnosis

D

When inserting a nasopharyngeal airway, lubricate the outside of the tube with: A. petroleum jelly B. an oil-based lubricant C. a silicone-based gel D. a water-based lubricant

D

When interviewing a patient, you should consider the common causes of allergic reactions; these causes include all of the following except: A. hornet stings B. eggs and milk C. poison ivy and penicillin D. red fruits and vegetables

D

When observing the patient who you suspect may be in shock, additional signs may include any of the following except: A. thirst B. dilated pupils C. cyanosis around the lips and nail beds D. flushed, warm skin

D

When obtaining the medical history of a seizure patient, interview the bystanders to find out all of the following except: A. how long the seizure lasted B. what the patient did after the seizure C. what the patient was doing prior to the seizure D. what the family's reaction was to the seizure

D

When performing the jaw-thrust maneuver, the EMT should do each one of the following except: A. kneel at the top of the patient's head B. stabilize the patients head with the forearms C. use the index fingers to push the angles of the patient's lower jaw forward D. tilt the head by applying gentle pressure to the patient's forehead

D

When the EMT determines that the patient is not breathing or breathing is inadequate, it will be necessary to provide: A. positive pressure ventilation B. aritficial ventilation C. assistance with a BVM device D. any of these

D

When treating a patient who is dizzy and passing out, the EMT should place the patient lying flat with her or his head lower than her or his legs. This position it called A. Prone B. Supine C. Fowlers D. Trendelenburg

D

When ventilating a 35 year old male head trauma patient with a bag-valve mask, it is most effective to do all of the following except: A. use a device with a volume of 1,000 to 1,600 mL B. use two EMT's to perform the procedure C. position the EMT who is maintaining the mask seal at the patient's head D. maintain the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver

D

When ventilating an unconscious patient, a bag-valve mask is complete is it is used with: A. a reservoir bag B. an oral airway C. an oxygen tank and lite flow regulator D. all of these

D

When you question an elderly woman with a respiratory complaint, she speaks in short, two or three word sentences. Is this significant? A. No, she is probably always like that. B. Yes, she must have a complete airway obstruction C. No, elderly people always talk slowly D. Yes, she is probably very short of breath

D

Which of the following is not a guideline for supplementing bleeding control wit ha cold application? A. wrap the ice pack in a cloth or towel B. do not apply the cold application directly onto the skin C. do not leave the cold pack in place for more than 20 minutes D. insert the ice directly into the wound

D

Which of the following is not an appropriate action when you near the scene of a traffic collision? A. look and listen for other EMS units as you near intersections B. look for signs of collision-related power outages C. observe traffic flow to anticipate blockage at the scene D. attempt to part your vehicle downhill from the scene

D

Which of the following is the most accurate statement about scene size-up? A. it takes place as you are approaching the scene B. is it replaced by patent care once you arrive at the scene C. it occurs during the first part of the assessment process D. it continues throughout the call

D

Which of the following steps in not necessary for the EMT to take when using a fully automated defibrillator? A. assess the patient B. turn on the power C. put the pads on the patient's chest D. press the button to deliver the shock

D

Which of the following steps is not part of the primary assessment of a responsive patient with a medical problem? A. Assess the patient's mental status B. Assess the adequacy of breathing C. Determine the patient's priority D. Obtain the patient's blood pressure

D

Which pair of signs/symptoms is not commonly associated with breathing difficulty? A. crowing/restlessness B. retractions/shortness of breath C. increased pulse/tightness in chest D. vomiting/headache

D

Which type of collision is most serious when the occupant is not restrained because it has the potential for multiple impacts? A. side impact B. rear-end impact C. head-on, up-and-over D. roll-over

D

Why isn't the oral medication called syrup of ipecac routinely used for toxic ingestions when the patient is found still alert? A. vomiting can occur after the mental status diminishes, increasing the chance of aspirations B. it removes only about one-third of the stomach contents C. it is slow to react compared with other substances or dilution D. all of these are correct reasons

D

You are assessing a 24 year old female who was involved in a car crash. You take her pulse, and the rate exceeds 100 beats per minute. This is called: A. normal B. regular C. bradycardia D. tachycardia

D

You are assessing a 25 year old male who has no primary survey problems but is writhing in pain. He just cannot seem to find a comfortable position form his pain in the lower back and flank. What would you suspect is his most likely problem? A. Peritonitis B. A hernia C. AAA D. Renal colic

D

You are assessing a 6 year old male who is having difficulty breathing. Signs of inadequate breathing in a child this age may include: A. cyanotic skin. lips. tongue, or earlobes B. retractions between and below the ribs C. nasal flaring D. all of these

D

You are assessing a patient who fell of his bike and landed on hid right shoulder. First you determine his mental status using AVPU. What does the "A" in AVPU stand for? A. Action B. Airway C. Assess D. Alert

D

You are assessing a patient who was involved in a serious motor vehicle collision. She is not alert and her breathing rate is slower than 8. As the EMT in charge, you should: A. give high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask B. quickly valuate the patient's circulation and treat for shock C. suction the patient and perform rescue breathing D. provide positive pressure ventilations with 100 percent oxygen

D

You are en route to the hospital with a 27 year old female who is in pain. During your radio report you say, " the patient's abdomen feels rigid." You are actually advising the hospital of: A. the baseline vital signs B. the emergency medical care given C. the reponse of the patient to the emergency medical care D. pertinent findings of the physical exam

D

You are on the scene of a local bar where there was just a shooting. The police are there, and the scene is now considered "safe at this point". Various types of guns, when fired at close range, can cause all of the following except: a. Burns around the entry wound b. Injection of air into the tissues c. Large contusion to the tissue d. Significant cold injuries

D

You are treating a 22 year old female patient who you suspect is having an allergic reaction. Why would an allergic reaction some times be treated as a high-priority patient? A. the patient can vomit B. the patient can become covered in hives C. an allergic reaction can speed up the heart rate D. an allergic reaction can cause airway obstruction

D

You are treating a 22 year old who fell off his motorcycle. He has some road rash and no major injuries and is mostly concerned about his bike. He does not want to go to the hospital and had a friend who can drive him home and take care of him. Before leaving the scene, you should: A. document assessment findings and care report B. try again to persuade the patient to go to the hospital C. ensure the patient is able to make rational, informed decision D. the patient's definitive diagnosis

D

You are treating a 28 year old male who accidentally ingested a poison. Activated charcoal is not routinely used with ingestion of: A. caustic substances B. strong acids C. strong alkalis D. all of these

D

You are treating a 35 year old male who was involved in a fall. The components of the vital signs you will assess include all of the following except: A. respiratory rate and quality B. skin color and condition C. pulse rate and quality D. pulse oximetry

D

You are treating a 45 year old female patient who has partial thickness burns totally covering the legs, chest, and abdomen. Using the rule of nines, approximate the size of the burn area. a. 18 percent b. 36 percent c. 45 percent d. 54 percent

D

You are treating a 45 year old female patient who has sustained considerable blood loss after slicing her hand while preparing food. She states that she feels nauseated. She has a drop in her blood pressure and this is: A. an early sign of shock B. an early sign of shock in a child C. always present in shock D. a late sign of shock

D

You are treating a 5 year old male who sustained multiple injuries in a fall. En route to the hospital, you will be conducting a reassessment, which includes all the following steps except: A. reassess vital signs B. repeat the primary assessment for life threats C. repeat the focused assessment D. repeat all interventions

D

You are treating a 50 year old female patient who called the ambulance because her nose has been bleeding for quite a while. To stop a nosebleed, try each of the following except: A. place the patient in a sitting position, leaning forward B. apply direct pressure by pinching the nostrils C. keep the patient calm D. apply cold packs to the bridge of the nose

D

You are treating a 58 year old male patient who you suspect maybe having a stroke. The signs and symptoms this patient presents with might include: A. vomiting B. seizures C. loss of bladder control D. all of these

D

You are treating a family whose fireplace may not have been properly vented to the outside of their home. You might expect to see these patients exhibit any of the following except: A. cyanosis B. altered mental status C. dizziness D. cherry-red lips

D

You are treating a patient who just came off an airplane arriving from an international destination. A respiratory condition that may be caused by a deep vein thrombosis after sitting for a very long flight is called: A. epiglottitis B. asthma C. acute pulmonary edema D. pulmonary embolism

D

You are treating a patient who was struck by an automobile. It is obvious that the patient has broken left because a bone is protruding through the skin. the patient asks you "Is my leg broken?" What would be the most appropriate response? A. Relax and stay calm. You will be all right B. I am not qualified to make that determination C. No, its a bad cut, and I'll control the bleeding with a bandage D. Yes, it is, and I will be as gentle as possible splinting it.

D

You are walking around a vehicle that was involved in a collision. All of the following are examples of mechanisms of injury except a: A. 18 inch dent into the side door B. spiderweb crack in the windshield C. broken steering column in a collision D. flat rear tire

D

You have been called to the home of a woman who fell in the kitchen. When you get a medical history. you find she is taking medicine for control of high cholesterol, and she states that she has been dieting this week and was a little dizzy. What is her most likely age (age group)? A. school age B. adolescent C. young adulthood middle adulthood

D

You suspect that your patient may be going into shock. Shock may develop as a result of all of the following except: A. pump failure B. lost blood volume C. dilated blood vessels D. injury to the head

D

You will be conducting a rapid physical exam on an unresponsive 54 year old female medical patient. You should include all of the following steps except: A. look for jugular vein distention B. determine firmness or rigidity of abdomen C. check for incontinence of urine or feces D. ask the SAMPLE history questions

D

You will need to conduct a reassessment on each of your patients. Which one of the following statements is most accurate for describing the purpose of performing the reassessment? A. to stabilize the patient's condition or to treat any life threats B. to detect and treat life threats and to evaluate the EMS system's effectiveness C. to evaluate the EMS systems effectiveness and to detect changes in patient condition D. to repeat key elements of assessment procedures already performed in order to detect changes in patient condition

D

Your 25 year old male patient has taken a mind-altering drug designed to act on the nervous system and produce intense excitement or distortion of the patient's perceptions. This drug was most likely a(n): A. upper B. downer C. narcotic D. hallucinogen

D

Your 32 year old male patient was taking money of if an ATM when suddenly someone slashed his throat from behind and stole his money. To treat a neck laceration like this, you should use a(n): a. Pressure bandage b. Thin dressing c. ACE bandage d. Occlusive dressing

D

Your 33 year old male patient has sustained an injury that tore open his left leg. There is no break in the bone, but there is a large avulsed flap of tissue that has been torn loose but not off. You should do all of the following except: a. Fold the skin back to its normal position b. Control bleeding and dress the wound c. Clean the would surface d. Tear off the remainder of the flap and put it on ice

D

Your 40 year old female patient has sustained a 3 inch laceration on her right forearm. Care for this injury includes: a. Applying a tourniquet above the elbow b. Applying a butterfly bandage, then releasing the patient c. Pulling apart the edges to inspect the wound d. Checking the pulse distal to the injury

D

Your 52 year old male patient ahs been taking double to triple his pain relief medication, but that is not even touching the pain for him. If he was to overdose on the narcotic he takes, he may have signs and symptoms such as: A. excitement, increased pulse and breathing rates, dilated pupils, and rapid speech B. sluggish, sleepiness, and lack of coordination of body and speech C. fast pulse rate, dilated pupils, flushed face, and "seeing" or "hearing" things D. reduced pulse rate and rate and depth of breathing, constricted pupils, and sweating

D

Your 62 year old female patient is going to need you to assist her ventilation. You are unsure whether the patient requires artificial ventilations, you should: A. contract medical direction immediately B. move to the ambulance and transport rapidly C. increase the liter flow rate to the nonrebreather mask D. provide artificial ventilation

D

Your patient is a child approximately 4 years old and is in respiratory distress, which may be leading to respiratory failure. Inadequate breathing in a child this age is defined as: A. less than 12 breaths per minute B. more than 36 breaths per minute C. cyanosis of the lips and earlobes D. any of these

D

Your patient is a child who is having difficulty breathing. You need to recall that the structure of an infant's or child's airway is different from an adult's in each of the following ways except: A. all airway structures are smaller and more easily obstructed B. their tongues are proportionately larger than an adult's C. the trachea is softer and more flexible D. the cricoid cartilage is more rigid

D

Your patient is a young child who was suddenly injured. During the reassessment of a child, the EMT should do which of the following and why? A. be sure to avoid eye contact at all times because it will scare the child B. try to stand above the patient so he can look up at you and see you at all times C. speak in a loud voice so the patient can hear every one your instructions D. use a reassuring voice to help calm the patient

D

Your patient is an alert 58 year old male who is complaining of chest pain. The components of the secondary assessment for a responsive medical patient include all of the following except: A. history of the present illness B. SAMPLE history C. baseline vital signs D. rapid trauma exam

D

Your patient is being treated for lung disease and was referred to a specialist for further treatment. The type of physician he is going to see is most likely a: A. Cardiologist B. Internist C. Asthmatologist D. Pulmonologist

D

Your patient may be having a heart attack. the best method for an EMT to use when giving a high concentration of oxygen to this breathing patient is a: nasall cannula B. venturi mask C. simple face mask D. nonrebreather mask

D

Your patient tells you he is not supposed to take a specific medication when his blood pressure is low or he feels dizzy. A circumstance in which a drug should not be used because it may cause harm to the patient or offer no effect in improving the patient's condition or illness is called a: A. indication B. side effect C. adverse reaction D. contraindication

D

Your patient with severe internal bleeding is struggling to deal with the blood loss. When the body has lost the battle to maintain perfusion to the organ systems, the patient is experiencing _____ shock. A. delayed B. compensated C. decompensated D. irreversible

D

the major methods used to control external extremity bleeding include all of the following except: A. direct pressure B. elevation C. tourniquet D. vessel clamps

D

the patient you are assessing who has been complaining of chest pain asks you what causes most cardiovascular emergencies. You explain that these conditions are caused, directly or indirectly, by all of the following except: A. changes in the inner walls of arteries B. problems with the heart's electrical function C. problems with the heart's mechanical function D. complications resulting from cardiovascular surgery

D

you are treating a 22 year old male who has a deep laceration that is continuing to bleed. Use of direct pressure may not be effective if the wound: A. was caused by an impaled object B. was accompanied by spinal injury C. is at the distal end of a limb D. is a profusely bleeding artery

D

your history reveals that the suspected cardiac patient is also taking a medication to control his hypertension. Drugs prescribed to reduce high blood pressure are called: A. antidysrythmics B. analgesics C. anticonvulsants D. antihypertensives

D

your patient was the driver of a car that stopped suddenly when she hit a pole. She was not wearing her seat belt and has a bruise on her neck. When you questions her, she speaks very softly and seems to have raspy voice. Is this significant or just a sign of nervousness about the collision? A. No, many patients get quiet after a motor vehicle crash B. Yes, if she were nervous, she would be more excited C. No, bot the bruise could mean that she has significant bleeding D. Yes, low volume and raspy tone could be due to airway swelling from neck or laryngeal trauma

D