High-Risk Neonatal Nursing Care Olds Maternal-Newborn

A nurse explains to new parents that their newborn has developed respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which of the following signs and symptoms would not be characteristic of RDS? 1. Grunting respirations 2. Nasal flaring 3. Respiratory rate of 40 during sleep 4. Chest retractions

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. A respiratory rate of 40 during sleep is normal.

The nurse is assessing a drug-dependent newborn. Which symptom would require further assessment by the nurse? 1. Occasional watery stools 2. Spitting up after feeding 3. Jitteriness and irritability 4. Nasal stuffiness

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Jitteriness and irritability can be an indicator of drug withdrawal.

The parents of a preterm newborn wish to visit their baby in the NICU. A statement by the nurse that would not support the parents as they visit their newborn is which of the following? 1. "Your newborn likes to be touched." 2. "Stroking the newborn will help with stimulation." 3. "Visits must be scheduled between feedings." 4. "Your baby loves her pink blanket."

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. The nurse always should encourage parents to visit and get to know their newborn, even in the NICU. Nurses foster the development of a safe, trusting environment by viewing the parents as essential caregivers, not as visitors or nuisances in the unit.

The nurse caring for a postterm newborn would not perform what intervention? 1. Providing warmth 2. Frequently monitoring blood glucose 3. Observing respiratory status 4. Restricting breastfeeding

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Breastfeeding is an appropriate means of feeding for the postterm newborn.

The nurse will be bringing the parents of a neonate with sepsis to the neonatal intensive care nursery for the first time. Which statement is best? 1. "I'll bring you to your baby and then leave so you can have some privacy." 2. "Your baby is on a ventilator with 50% oxygen, and has an umbilical line." 3. "I am so sorry this has all happened. I know how stressful this can be." 4. "Your baby is working hard to breathe and lying quite still, and has an IV."

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. This answer is best because it explains what the parents will see in terminology that they will understand. A trusting relationship is essential for collaborative efforts in caring for the infant. The nurse should respond therapeutically to relate to the parents on a one-to-one basis.

What factors influence the outcomes of the at-risk newborn? Select all that apply. a. Type and length of newborn illness. b. Maternal factors. c. Gestational age. d. Environmental factors. e. Birth weight.

Birth weight. Gestational age. Types and length of newborn illness. Environmental factors. Maternal factors. Rationale: All are correct. Maternal factors, such as age and parity; newborn weight; and gestational age also influence outcomes, as do environmental factors such as exposure to environmental dangers (toxic chemicals and illicit drugs).

What risk factor, when combined with alcohol, enhances the likelihood of fetal alcohol syndrome? a. Caffeine. b. Chocolate. c. Citrus fruits. d. Peanuts.

Caffeine. Rationale: The effects of other substances, such as nicotine, marijuana, and caffeine—as well as poor diet—combined with alcohol, often enhance the likelihood of FAS.

A 28-weeks'-gestation newborn experienced birth asphyxia at the time of delivery. What is a long-term complication of birth asphyxia? a. Intraventricular hemorrhage. b. Anemia of prematurity. c. Retinopathy of prematurity. d. Necrotizing enterocolitis.

Intraventricular hemorrhage. Rationale: Birth asphyxia will cause an insult to the brain, and more often than not will cause a bleed or intraventricular hemorrhage. Birth asphyxia is not directly correlated with NEC, retinopathy of prematurity, or anemia of prematurity. These are common for the premature infant, but not necessarily birth asphyxia.

What is the correct way to perform external cardiac massage on an infant without a detectable heart rate? a. Place two fingers a finger's width below the nipple line and compress 1/2 to 1 inch. b. Place both thumbs over the lower third of the sternum with fingers wrapped around and supporting the back. c. Place a thumb a finger width below the nipple line and compress at a 5:1 ratio. d. Use the heel of one hand at the nipple line and compress at a ratio of 5:1.

Place both thumbs over the lower third of the sternum with fingers wrapped around and supporting the back. Rationale: The infant is placed properly on a firm surface. The resuscitator stands at the foot or head of the infant and places both thumbs over the lower third of the sternum, with the fingers wrapped around and supporting the back. The two-thumb method is preferred because it can provide better coronary perfusion pressure; however, it decreases thoracic expansion during ventilation and makes access to the umbilical cord for medication administration more difficult.

What is the best explanation as to why the nursing diagnosis, Risk for Infection, often is a complication for the preterm infant? Select all that apply. a. Preterm newborns have immature immune systems. b. Preterm babies have thin and permeable skin. c. Preterm babies have immature cardiovascular systems. d. Preterm babies have immature gastrointestinal systems.

Preterm babies have thin and permeable skin. Preterm newborns have immature immune systems. Rationale: The preterm newborn is susceptible to infection because of an immature immune system and thin, permeable skin. Invasive procedures, techniques such as umbilical catheterization, mechanical ventilation, and prolonged hospitalization place the infant at greater risk for infection.

In planning care for a polycythemic infant, the nurse would know that common symptoms of polycythemia include: a. Apnea, hypotension, and hyperthermia. b. Bradycardia, hypotension, and leukopenia. c. Tachycardia, respiratory distress, and hyperbilirubinemia. d. Orthopnea, tachypnea, and hyperbilirubinemia.

Tachycardia, respiratory distress, and hyperbilirubinemia. Rationale: The following are documented symptoms of polycythemia: tachycardia and congestive heart failure due to the increase in blood volume; respiratory distress with grunting, tachypnea, and cyanosis; increased oxygen need, or respiratory hemorrhage due to pulmonary venous congestion, edema, and hypoxemia; hyperbilirubinemia due to increased numbers of red blood cells breaking down and a decrease in peripheral pulses; discoloration of extremities, and alteration in activity or neurologic depression; and renal vein thrombosis with decreased urine output, hematuria, or proteinuria due to thromboembolism.

A nurse is assessing a 37-weeks'-gestation newborn born by cesarean section, and now at 4 hours of age on room air. The newborn had no breathing problems at birth. The nurse notes the following signs: expiratory grunting, flaring of the nares, mild cyanosis, and respirations of 90 bpm. The newborn most likely is experiencing: a. Transient tachypnea of the newborn. b. Apnea of prematurity. c. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia. d. RDS (respiratory distress syndrome).

Transient tachypnea of the newborn. Rationale: This is a clear picture of how transient tachypnea of the newborn presents. In transient tachypnea of the newborn, tachypnea is usually present by 6 hours of age, with respiratory rates consistently higher than 60 bpm. It is more prevalent in cesarean-birth newborns who have not had the thoracic squeeze that occurs during vaginal birth and removes some of the lung fluid.

The nurse is teaching the parents of an infant with an inborn error of metabolism how to care for the infant at home. What information does teaching include? 1. Specially prepared formulas 2. Cataract problems 3. Low glucose concentrations 4. Administration of thyroid medication

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. An afflicted PKU infant can be treated by a special diet that limits ingestion of phenylalanine. Special formulas low in phenylalanine, such as Lofenalac, Minafen, and Albumaid XP, are available.

A 3-month-old baby who was born at 25 weeks has been exposed to prolonged oxygen therapy. Due to oxygen therapy, the nurse explains to the parents, their infant is at a greater risk for which of the following? 1. Visual impairment 2. Hyperthermia 3. Central cyanosis 4. Sensitive gag reflex

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Extremely premature newborns are particularly susceptible to injury of the delicate capillaries of the retina causing characteristic retinal changes known as retinopathy of prematurity (ROP). Judicious use of supplemental oxygen therapy in the premature infant has become the norm.

The nurse is caring for the newborn of a diabetic mother whose blood glucose level is 39 mg/dL. What should the nurse include in the plan of care for this newborn? 1. Offer early feedings with formula or breast milk. 2. Provide glucose water exclusively. 3. Evaluate blood glucose levels at 12 hours after birth. 4. Assess for hypothermia.

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. IDMs whose serum glucose falls below 40 mg/dL should have early feedings with formula or breast milk (colostrum).

Which assessment findings by the nurse would require obtaining a blood glucose level on the newborn? 1. Jitteriness 2. Sucking on fingers 3. Lusty cry 4. Axillary temperature of 98°F

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Jitteriness of the newborn is associated with hypoglycemia. Aggressive treatment is recommended after a single low blood glucose value if the infant shows this symptom.

The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of phototherapy on a newborn. Which evaluation indicates a therapeutic response to phototherapy? 1. The newborn maintains a normal temperature 2. An increase of serum bilirubin levels 3. Weight loss 4. Skin blanching yellow

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Maintenance of temperature is an important aspect of phototherapy because the newborn is naked except for a diaper during phototherapy. The isolette helps the infant maintain his or her temperature while undressed.

The nurse is caring for the newborn of a diabetic mother. Which of the following should be included in the nurse's plan of care for this newborn? 1. Offer early feedings. 2. Administer an intravenous infusion of glucose. 3. Assess for hypercalcemia. 4. Assess for hyperbilirubinemia immediately after birth.

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Newborns of diabetic mothers may benefit from early feeding as they are extremely valuable in maintaining normal metabolism and lowering the possibility of such complications as hypoglycemia and hyperbilirubinemia.

In planning care for the fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) newborn, which intervention would the nurse include? 1. Allow extra time with feedings. 2. Assign different personnel to the newborn each day. 3. Place the newborn in a well-lit room. 4. Monitor for hyperthermia.

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Newborns with fetal alcohol syndrome have feeding problems. Because of their feeding problems, these infants require extra time and patience during feedings.

The mother of a premature newborn questions why a gavage feeding catheter is placed in the mouth of the newborn and not in the nose. What is the nurse's best response? 1. "Most newborns are nose breathers." 2. "The tube will elicit the sucking reflex." 3. "A smaller catheter is preferred for feedings." 4. "Most newborns are mouth breathers."

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Orogastric insertion is preferable to nasogastric because most infants are obligatory nose breathers.

The parents of a newborn have just been told their infant has tetralogy of Fallot. The parents do not seem to understand the explanation given by the physician. What statement by the nurse is best? 1. "With this defect, not enough of the blood circulates through the lungs, leading to a lack of oxygen in the baby's body." 2. "The baby's aorta has a narrowing in a section near the heart that makes the left side of the heart work harder." 3. "The blood vessels that attach to the ventricles of the heart are positioned on the wrong sides of the heart." 4. "Your baby's heart doesn't circulate blood well because the left ventricle is smaller and thinner than normal."

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Tetralogy of Fallot is a cyanotic heart defect that comprises four abnormalities: pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricle hypertrophy. The severity of symptoms depends on the degree of pulmonary stenosis, the size of the ventricular septal defect, and the degree to which the aorta overrides the septal defect.

The nurse prepares to admit to the nursery a newborn whose mother had meconium-stained amniotic fluid. The nurse knows this newborn might require which of the following? 1. Initial resuscitation 2. Vigorous stimulation at birth 3. Phototherapy immediately 4. An initial feeding of iron-enriched formula

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates that the fetus may be suffering from asphyxia. Meconium-stained newborns or newborns who have aspirated particulate meconium often have respiratory depression at birth and require resuscitation to establish adequate respiratory effort.

A nursing instructor is demonstrating how to perform a heel stick on a newborn. To obtain an accurate capillary hematocrit reading, what does the nursing instructor tell the student do? 1. Rub the heel vigorously with an isopropyl alcohol swab prior to obtaining blood. 2. Use a previous puncture site. 3. Cool the heel prior to obtaining blood. 4. Use a sterile needle and aspirate.

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. The site should be cleaned by rubbing vigorously with 70% isopropyl alcohol swab. The friction produces local heat, which aids vasodilation.

The pregnant client at 41 weeks is scheduled for labor induction. She asks the nurse whether induction is really necessary. What response by the nurse is best? 1. "Babies can develop postmaturity syndrome, which increases their chances of having complications after birth." 2. "When infants are born 2 or more weeks after their due date, they have meconium in the amniotic fluid." 3. "Sometimes the placenta ages excessively, and we want to take care of that problem before it happens." 4. "The doctor wants to be proactive in preventing any problems with your baby if he gets any bigger."

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. The term postmaturity applies to the infant who is born after 42 completed weeks of gestation and demonstrates characteristics of postmaturity syndrome.

The nurse is observing a student nurse care for a neonate undergoing intensive phototherapy. Which action by the student nurse indicates an understanding of how to provide this care? 1. Urine specific gravity is assessed each voiding. 2. Eye coverings are left off to help keep the baby calm. 3. Temperature is checked every 6 hours. 4. The infant is taken out of the isolette for diaper changes.

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. This action is correct. Specific gravity provides one measure of urine concentration. Highly concentrated urine is associated with a dehydrated state. Weight loss is also a sign of developing dehydration in the newborn.

The nurse is caring for several pregnant clients. Which client should the nurse anticipate is most likely to have a newborn at risk for mortality or morbidity? 1. 37-year-old, with a history of multiple births and preterm deliveries who works in a chemical factory 2. 23-year-old of low socioeconomic status, unmarried 3. 16-year-old who began prenatal care at 30 weeks 4. 28-year-old with a history of gestational diabetes

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. This client is at greatest risk because she has multiple risk factors: age over 35, high parity, history of preterm birth, and exposure to chemicals that might be toxic.

The nurse is caring for a 2-hour-old newborn whose mother is diabetic. The nurse assesses that the newborn is experiencing tremors. Which nursing action has the highest priority? 1. Obtain a blood calcium level. 2. Take the newborn's temperature. 3. Obtain a bilirubin level. 4. Place a pulse oximeter on the newborn.

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. Tremors are a sign of hypocalcemia. Diabetic mothers tend to have decreased serum magnesium levels at term. This could cause secondary hypoparathyroidism in the infant.

During newborn resuscitation, how does the nurse evaluate the effectiveness of bag-and-mask ventilations? 1. The rise and fall of the chest 2. Sudden wakefulness 3. Urinary output 4. Adequate thermoregulation

Answer: 1 Explanation: 1. With proper resuscitation, chest movement is observed for proper ventilation. Pressure should be adequate to move the chest wall.

In caring for the premature newborn, the nurse must assess hydration status continually. Assessment parameters should include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Volume of urine output 2. Weight 3. Blood pH 4. Head circumference 5. Bowel sounds

Answer: 1, 2 Explanation: 1. In order to assess hydration status, volume of urine output must be evaluated. 2. In order to assess hydration status, the infant's weight must be evaluated.

Which findings would the nurse expect when assessing a newborn infected with syphilis? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Rhinitis 2. Fissures on mouth corners 3. Red rash around anus 4. Lethargy 5. Large for gestational age

Answer: 1, 2, 3 Explanation: 1. Rhinitis is evident in the newborn exposed to syphilis. 2. Fissures on mouth corners and an excoriated upper lip indicate exposure to syphilis. 3. A red rash around the mouth and anus is observed.

The nurse caring for a newborn with anemia would expect which initial laboratory data to be included in the initial assessment? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Hemoglobin 2. Hematocrit 3. Reticulocyte count 4. Direct Coombs' test 5. Cord serum OgM

Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4 Explanation: 1. The initial laboratory workup for anemia should include hemoglobin measurements. 2. The initial laboratory workup for anemia should include hematocrit measurements. 3. The initial laboratory workup for anemia should include a reticulocyte count. 4. The direct Coombs' test reveals the presence of antibody-coated (sensitized) Rh-positive red blood cells in the newborn and should be included in the initial laboratory workup for anemia.

The nurse is caring for a newborn with full fontanelles and "setting sun" eyes. Which nursing interventions should be included in the care plan? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Measure head circumference daily. 2. Assess for bulging fontanelles. 3. Avoid position changes. 4. Watch for signs of infection. 5. Use a gel pillow under the head.

Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. The infant has congenital hydrocephalus. The nurse should measure and plot occipital-frontal baseline measurements, then measure head circumference once a day. 2. The infant has congenital hydrocephalus. Fontanelles should be checked for bulging and sutures for widening. 4. Infants with hydrocephalus are prone to infection. 5. The infant has congenital hydrocephalus. The enlarged head should be supported with a gel pillow.

The nurse is caring for a newborn with jaundice. The parents question why the newborn is not under phototherapy lights. The nurse explains that the fiber-optic blanket is beneficial because of which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Lights can stay on all the time. 2. The eyes do not need to be covered. 3. The lights will need to be removed for feedings. 4. Newborns do not get overheated. 5. Weight loss is not a complication of this system.

Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. With the fiber-optic blanket, the light stays on at all times. 2. The eyes do not have to be covered with a fiber optic blanket. 4. With the fiber-optic blanket, greater surface area is exposed and there are no thermoregulation issues. 5. Fluid and weight loss are not complications of fiber-optic blankets.

The nurse is teaching the parents of a newborn who has been exposed to HIV how to care for the newborn at home. Which instructions should the nurse emphasize? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Use proper hand-washing technique. 2. Provide three feedings per day. 3. Place soiled diapers in a sealed plastic bag. 4. Cleanse the diaper changing area with a 1:10 bleach solution after each diaper change. 5. Take the temperature rectally.

Answer: 1, 3, 4 Explanation: 1. The nurse should instruct the parents on proper hand-washing technique. 3. The nurse should instruct parents to that soiled diapers are to be placed in plastic bags, sealed, and disposed of daily. 4. The nurse should instruct parents that the diaper-changing areas should be cleaned with a 1:10 dilution of household bleach after each diaper change.

Which assessment findings would lead the nurse to suspect that a newborn might have a congenital heart defect? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Cyanosis 2. Heart murmur 3. Bradycardia 4. Low urinary outputs 5. Tachypnea

Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. Central cyanosis is defined as a visible, blue discoloration of the skin caused by decreased oxygen saturation levels and is a common manifestation of a cardiac defect. 3. The signs of congestive heart failure include tachycardia, not bradycardia. 4. The signs of congestive heart failure include low urinary output. 5. The signs of congestive heart failure include tachypnea.

) The nurse is caring for a prenatal client. Reviewing the client's pregnancy history, the nurse identifies risk factors for an at-risk newborn, including which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. The mother's low socioeconomic status 2. Maternal age of 26 3. Mother's exposure to toxic chemicals 4. More than three previous deliveries 5. Maternal hypertension

Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. Low socioeconomic status is associated with at-risk newborns. 3. Exposure to environmental dangers, such as toxic chemicals is associated with at-risk newborns. 4. Maternal factors such as multiparity are associated with at-risk newborns. 5. Preexisting maternal conditions, such as heart disease, diabetes, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and renal disease are associated with at-risk newborns.

Which fetal/neonatal risk factors would lead the nurse to anticipate a potential need to resuscitate a newborn? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Nonreassuring fetal heart rate pattern/sustained bradycardia 2. Fetal scalp/capillary blood sample pH greater than 7.25 3. History of meconium in amniotic fluid 4. Prematurity 5. Significant intrapartum bleeding

Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. Nonreassuring fetal heart rate pattern/sustained bradycardia would be considered a potential need to resuscitate a newborn. 3. History of meconium in amniotic fluid would be considered a potential need to resuscitate a newborn. 4. Prematurity would be considered a potential need to resuscitate a newborn. 5. Significant intrapartum bleeding would be considered a potential need to resuscitate a newborn.

Antibiotics have been ordered for a newborn with an infection. Which interventions would the nurse prepare to implement? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Obtain skin cultures. 2. Restrict parental visits. 3. Evaluate bilirubin levels. 4. Administer oxygen as ordered. 5. Observe for signs of hypoglycemia.

Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. The nurse will assist in obtaining skin cultures. Skin cultures are taken of any lesions or drainage from lesions or reddened areas. 3. The nurse will observe for hyperbilirubinemia, anemia, and hemorrhagic symptoms. 4. The nurse will administer oxygen as ordered. 5. The nurse will observe for signs of hypoglycemia.

When planning care for the premature newborn diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome, which potential complications would the nurse anticipate? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Hypoxia 2. Respiratory alkalosis 3. Metabolic acidosis 4. Massive atelectasis 5. Pulmonary edema

Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. The physiologic alterations of RDS can produce hypoxia as a complication. As a result of hypoxia, the pulmonary vasculature constricts, pulmonary vascular resistance increases, and pulmonary blood flow is reduced. 3. The physiologic alterations of RDS can produce metabolic acidosis as a complication. Because cells lack oxygen, the newborn begins an anaerobic pathway of metabolism, with an increase in lactate levels and a resulting base deficit. 4. The physiologic alterations of RDS can produce massive atelectasis as a complication. Upon expiration, the instability increases the atelectasis, which causes hypoxia and acidosis because of the lack of gas exchange. 5. The physiologic alterations of RDS can produce pulmonary edema as a complication. Opacification of the lungs on X-ray image may be due to massive atelectasis, diffuse alveolar infiltrate, or pulmonary edema.

The nurse is caring for an infant of a diabetic mother. Which potential complications would the nurse consider in planning care for this newborn? Note: Credit will be given if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Tremors 2. Hyperglycemia 3. Hyperbilirubinemia 4. Respiratory distress syndrome 5. Birth trauma

Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. Tremors are a clinical sign of hypocalcemia. 3. Hyperbilirubinemia is caused by slightly decreased extracellular fluid volume, which increases the hematocrit level. 4. Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is a complication that occurs more frequently in newborns of diabetic mothers whose diabetes is not well controlled. 5. Because most IDMs are macrosomic, trauma may occur during labor and vaginal birth resulting in shoulder dystocia, brachial plexus injuries, subdural hemorrhage, cephalohematoma, and asphyxia.

The nurse is caring for the newborn of a drug-addicted mother. Which assessment findings would be typical for this newborn? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Hyperirritability 2. Decreased muscle tone 3. Exaggerated reflexes 4. Low pitched cry 5. Transient tachypnea

Answer: 1, 3, 5 Explanation: 1. Newborns born to drug-addicted mothers exhibit hyperirritability. 3. Newborns born to drug-addicted mothers exhibit exaggerated reflexes. 5. Newborns born to drug-addicted mothers exhibit transient tachypnea.

Many newborns exposed to HIV/AIDS show signs and symptoms of disease within days of birth that include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Swollen glands 2. Hard stools 3. Smaller than average spleen and liver 4. Rhinorrhea 5. Interstitial pneumonia

Answer: 1, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. Signs that may be seen in the early infancy period include swollen glands. 4. Signs that may be seen in the early infancy period include rhinorrhea. 5. Signs that may be seen in the early infancy period include interstitial pneumonia.

The nurse is preparing an educational in-service presentation about jaundice in the newborn. What content should the nurse include in this presentation? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Physiologic jaundice occurs after 24 hours of age. 2. Pathologic jaundice occurs after 24 hours of age. 3. Phototherapy increases serum bilirubin levels. 4. The need for phototherapy depends on the bilirubin level and age of the infant. 5. Kernicterus causes irreversible neurological damage.

Answer: 1, 5 Explanation: 1. Physiologic or neonatal jaundice is a normal process that occurs during transition from intrauterine to extrauterine life and appears after 24 hours of life. 5. Kernicterus refers to the deposition of unconjugated bilirubin in the basal ganglia of the brain and to permanent neurologic sequelae of untreated hyperbilirubinemia.

The special care nursery nurse is working with parents of a 3-day-old infant who was born with myelomeningocele and has developed an infection. Which statement from the mother is unexpected? 1. "If I had taken better care of myself, this wouldn't have happened." 2. "I've been sleeping very well since I had the baby." 3. "This is probably the doctor's fault." 4. "If I hadn't seen our baby's birth, I wouldn't believe she is ours."

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. A sick infant is a source of great anxiety for parents. This response is from the mother would be unexpected.

One day after giving birth vaginally, a client develops painful vesicular lesions on her perineum and vulva. She is diagnosed with a primary herpes simplex 2 infection. What is the expected care for her neonate? 1. Meticulous hand washing and antibiotic eye ointment administration. 2. Intravenous acyclovir (Zovirax) and contact precautions. 3. Cultures of blood and CSF and serial chest x-rays every 12 hours. 4. Parental rooming-in and four intramuscular injections of penicillin.

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Administering intravenous acyclovir (Zovirax) and contact precautions are appropriate measures for an infant at risk for developing herpes simplex 2 infection.

A mother who is HIV-positive has given birth to a term female. What plan of care is most appropriate for this infant? 1. Test with a HIV serologic test at 8 months. 2. Begin prophylactic AZT (Zidovudine) administration. 3. Provide 4 to 5 large feedings throughout the day. 4. Encourage the mother to breastfeed the child.

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. For infants, AZT is started prophylactically 2 mg/kg/dose PO every 6 hours beginning as soon after birth as possible and continuing for 6 weeks.

A client in labor is found to have meconium-stained amniotic fluid upon rupture of membranes. At delivery, the nurse finds the infant to have depressed respirations and a heart rate of 80. What does the nurse anticipate? 1. Delivery of the neonate on its side with head up, to facilitate drainage of secretions. 2. Direct tracheal suctioning by specially trained personnel. 3. Preparation for the immediate use of positive pressure to expand the lungs. 4. Suctioning of the oropharynx when the newborn's head is delivered.

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. If the infant has absent or depressed respirations, heart rate less than 100 beats/min, or poor muscle tone, direct tracheal suctioning by specially trained personnel is recommended.

The nurse is planning care for four infants who were born on this shift. The infant who will require the most detailed assessment is the one whose mother has which of the following? 1. A history of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) 2. Chlamydia 3. Delivered six other children by cesarean section 4. A urinary tract infection (UTI)

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Infants born to mothers with chlamydia infections are at risk for neonatal pneumonia and conjunctivitis, and require close observation of the respiratory status and eyes. Page

The nurse notes that a 36-hour-old newborn's serum bilirubin level has increased from 14 mg/dL to 16.6 mg/dL in an 8-hour period. What nursing intervention would be included in the plan of care for this newborn? 1. Continue to observe 2. Begin phototherapy 3. Begin blood exchange transfusion 4. Stop breastfeeding

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia must be considered pathologic if the serum bilirubin concentration is rising by more than 0.2 mg/dL per hour. If the newborn is over 24 hours old, which is past the time where an increase in bilirubin would result from pathologic causes, phototherapy may be the treatment of choice to prevent the possible complications of kernicterus.

The nurse is preparing an educational session on phenylketonuria for a family whose neonate has been diagnosed with the condition. Which statement by a parent indicates that teaching was effective? 1. "This condition occurs more frequently among Japanese people." 2. "We must be very careful to avoid most proteins to prevent brain damage." 3. "Carbohydrates can cause our baby to develop cataracts and liver damage." 4. "Our baby's thyroid gland isn't functioning properly."

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. PKU is the inability to metabolize phenylalanine, an amino acid found in most dietary protein sources. Excessive accumulation of phenylalanine and its abnormal metabolites in the brain tissue leads to progressive, irreversible intellectual disability.

The nurse is caring for a jaundiced infant receiving bank light phototherapy in an isolette. Which finding requires an immediate intervention? 1. Eyes are covered, no clothing on, diaper in place 2. Axillary temperature 99.7°F 3. Infant removed from the isolette for breastfeeding 4. Loose bowel movement

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Temperature assessment is indicated to detect hypothermia or hyperthermia. Normal temperature ranges are 97.7°F-98.6°F. Vital signs should be monitored every 4 hours with axillary temperatures.

What indications would lead the nurse to suspect sepsis in a newborn? 1. Respiratory distress syndrome developing 48 hours after birth 2. Temperature of 97.0°F 2 hours after warming the infant from 97.4°F 3. Irritability and flushing of the skin at 8 hours of age 4. Bradycardia and tachypnea developing when the infant is 36 hours old

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Temperature instability is often seen with sepsis. Fever is rare in a newborn.

The nurse is assessing a 2-hour-old newborn delivered by cesarean at 38 weeks. The amniotic fluid was clear. The mother had preeclampsia. The newborn has a respiratory rate of 80, is grunting, and has nasal flaring. What is the most likely cause of this infant's condition? 1. Meconium aspiration syndrome 2. Transient tachypnea of the newborn 3. Respiratory distress syndrome 4. Prematurity of the neonate

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. The infant is term and was born by cesarean, and is most likely experiencing transient tachypnea of the newborn.

An HIV-positive mother delivered 2 days ago. The infant will be placed in foster care. The nurse is planning discharge teaching for the foster parents on how to care for the newborn at home. Which instructions should the nurse include? 1. Do not add food supplements to the baby's diet. 2. Place soiled diapers in a sealed plastic bag. 3. Wash soiled linens in cool water with bleach. 4. Shield the baby's eyes from bright lights.

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. The nurse should instruct the parents about proper hand-washing techniques, about proper disposal of soiled diapers, and to wear gloves when diapering.

The client with blood type O Rh-negative has given birth to an infant with blood type O Rh-positive. The infant has become visibly jaundiced at 12 hours of age. The mother asks why this is happening. What is the best response by the nurse? 1. "The RhoGAM you received at 28 weeks' gestation did not prevent alloimmunization." 2. "Your body has made antibodies against the baby's blood that are destroying her red blood cells." 3. "The red blood cells of your baby are breaking down because you both have type O blood." 4. "Your baby's liver is too immature to eliminate the red blood cells that are no longer needed."

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. This explanation is accurate and easy for the client to understand. Newborns of Rh-negative and O blood type mothers are carefully assessed for blood type status, appearance of jaundice, and levels of serum bilirubin.

The nurse is assessing a newborn diagnosed with physiologic jaundice. Which findings would the nurse expect? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Jaundice present within the first 24 hours of life 2. Appearance of jaundice symptoms after 24 hours of life 3. Yellowish coloration of the sclera of the eyes 4. Cephalohematoma or excessive bruising 5. Cyanosis

Answer: 2, 3 Explanation: 2. Physiologic or neonatal jaundice is a normal process that occurs during transition from intrauterine to extrauterine life and appears after 24 hours of life. 3. Jaundice is a yellowish coloration of the skin and sclera of the eyes that develops from the deposit of yellow pigment bilirubin in lipid/fat-containing tissues.

Which nursing interventions are appropriate when caring for the newborn undergoing phototherapy? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Cover the newborn's eyes at all times, even when not under the lights. 2. Close the newborn's eyelids before applying eye patches. 3. Inspect the eyes each shift for conjunctivitis. 4. Keep the baby swaddled in a blanket to prevent heat loss. 5. Reposition the baby every 2 hours.

Answer: 2, 3, 5 Explanation: 2. Apply eye patches over the newborn's closed eyes during exposure to banks of phototherapy. 3. Discontinue conventional phototherapy and remove the eye patches at least once per shift to assess the eyes for the presence of conjunctivitis. 5. Repositioning allows equal exposure of all skin areas and prevents pressure areas.

A NICU nurse plans care for a preterm newborn that will provide opportunities for development. Which interventions support development in a preterm newborn in a NICU? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Schedule care throughout the day. 2. Silence alarms quickly. 3. Place a blanket over the top portion of the incubator. 4. Do not offer a pacifier. 5. Dim the lights.

Answer: 2, 3, 5 Explanation: 2. Noise levels can be lowered by replacing alarms with lights or silencing alarms quickly. 3. Dimmer switches should be used to shield the baby's eyes from bright lights with blankets over the top portion of the incubator. 5. Dimming the lights may encourage infants to open their eyes and be more responsive to their parents.

Which of the following are considered risk factors for development of severe hyperbilirubinemia? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Northern European descent 2. Previous sibling received phototherapy 3. Gestational age 27 to 30 weeks 4. Exclusive breastfeeding 5. Infection

Answer: 2, 4, 5 Explanation: 2. Previous sibling received phototherapy is considered a risk factor for development of severe hyperbilirubinemia. 4. Exclusive breastfeeding, particularly if nursing is not going well and excessive weight loss is experienced, is considered a risk factor for development of severe hyperbilirubinemia. 5. Infection is considered a risk factor for development of severe hyperbilirubinemia.

Benefits of skin-to-skin care as a developmental intervention include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Routine discharge 2. Stabilization of vital signs 3. Increased periods of awake-alert state 4. Decline in the episodes of apnea and bradycardia 5. Increased growth parameters

Answer: 2, 4, 5 Explanation: 2. Stabilization of vital signs is a benefit of skin-to-skin care as a developmental intervention. 4. Decline in the episodes of apnea and bradycardia is a benefit of skin-to-skin care as a developmental intervention. 5. Increased growth parameters are a benefit of skin-to-skin care as a developmental intervention.

The nurse is planning care for a preterm newborn. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority? 1. Tissue Integrity, Impaired 2. Infection, Risk for 3. Gas Exchange, Impaired 4. Family Processes, Dysfunctional

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Gas Exchange, Impaired is related to immature pulmonary vasculature and inadequate surfactant production and has the highest priority.

The nurse is caring for an infant who was delivered in a car on the way to the hospital and who has developed cold stress. Which finding requires immediate intervention? 1. Increased skin temperature and respirations 2. Blood glucose level of 45 3. Room-temperature IV running 4. Positioned under radiant warmer

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. IV fluids should be warmed prior to administration and the newborn can be wrapped in a chemically activated warming mattress immediately following birth to decrease the postnatal fall in temperature that normally occurs.

During discharge planning for a drug-dependent newborn, the nurse explains to the mother how to do which of the following? 1. Place the newborn in a prone position. 2. Limit feedings to three a day to decrease diarrhea. 3. Place the infant supine and operate a home apnea-monitoring system. 4. Wean the newborn off the pacifier.

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Infants with neonatal abstinence syndrome are at a significantly higher risk for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) when the mother used heroin, cocaine, or opiates. The infant should sleep in a supine position, and home apnea monitoring should be implemented.

A laboring mother has recurrent late decelerations. At birth, the infant has a heart rate of 100, is not breathing, and is limp and bluish in color. What nursing action is best? 1. Begin chest compressions. 2. Begin direct tracheal suctioning. 3. Begin bag-and-mask ventilation. 4. Obtain a blood pressure reading.

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Most newborns can be effectively resuscitated by bag-and-mask ventilation.

The nurse assesses the gestational age of a newborn and informs the parents that the newborn is premature. Which of the following assessment findings is not congruent with prematurity? 1. Cry is weak and feeble 2. Clitoris and labia minora are prominent 3. Strong sucking reflex 4. Lanugo is plentiful

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. Poor suck, gag, and swallow reflexes are characteristic of a preterm newborn.

The nurse is caring for an infant born at 37 weeks that weighs 1750 g (3 pounds 10 ounces). The head circumference and length are in the 25th percentile. What statement would the nurse expect to find in the chart? 1. Preterm appropriate for gestational age, symmetrical IUGR 2. Term small for gestational age, symmetrical IUGR 3. Preterm small for gestational age, asymmetrical IUGR 4. Preterm appropriate for gestational age, asymmetrical IUGR

Answer: 3 Explanation: 3. The infant is preterm at 37 weeks. Because the weight is below the 10th percentile, the infant is small for gestational age. Head circumference and length between the 10th and 90th percentiles indicate asymmetrical IUGR.

The nurse is working with parents who have just experienced the birth of their first child at 34 weeks. Which statements by the parents indicate that additional teaching is needed? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. "Our baby will be in an incubator to keep him warm." 2. "Breathing might be harder for our baby because he is early." 3. "The growth of our baby will be faster than if he were term." 4. "Tube feedings will be required because his stomach is small." 5. "Because he came early, he will not produce urine for 2 days."

Answer: 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 3. Preterm infants grow more slowly than do term infants because of difficulty in meeting high caloric and fluid needs for growth due to small gastric capacity. 4. Although tube feedings might be required, it would be because preterm babies have a marked danger of aspiration and its associated complications due to the infant's poorly developed gag reflex, incompetent esophageal cardiac sphincter, and inadequate suck/swallow/breathe reflex. 5. Although preterm babies have diminished kidney function due to incomplete development of the glomeruli, they can produce urine. Preterm infants usually have some urine output during the first 24 hours of life.

The nurse is assessing the newborn for symptoms of anemia. If the blood loss is acute, the baby may exhibit which of the following signs of shock? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Increased pulse 2. High blood pressure 3. Tachycardia 4. Bradycardia 5. Capillary filling time greater than 3 seconds

Answer: 3, 5 Explanation: 3. Tachycardia would be a sign of shock. 5. Capillary filling time greater than 3 seconds would be a sign of shock.

A 7 pound 14 ounce girl was born to an insulin-dependent type II diabetic mother 2 hours ago. The infant's blood sugar is 47 mg/dL. What is the best nursing action? 1. To recheck the blood sugar in 6 hours 2. To begin an IV of 10% dextrose 3. To feed the baby 1 ounce of formula 4. To document the findings in the chart

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. A blood sugar level of 47 mg/dL is a normal finding; documentation is an appropriate action.

The nurse is analyzing assessment findings on four newborns. Which finding might suggest a congenital heart defect? 1. Apical heart rate of 140 beats per minute 2. Respiratory rate of 40 3. Temperature of 36.5°C 4. Visible, blue discoloration of the skin

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Central cyanosis is defined as a visible, blue discoloration of the skin caused by decreased oxygen saturation levels and is a common manifestation of a cardiac defect.

A 38-week newborn is found to be small for gestational age (SGA). Which nursing intervention should be included in the care of this newborn? 1. Monitor for feeding difficulties. 2. Assess for facial paralysis. 3. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia. 4. Maintain a warm environment.

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Hypothermia is a common complication in the SGA newborn; therefore, the newborn's environment must remain warm, to decrease heat loss.

A nurse is caring for a newborn on a ventilator who has respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). The nurse informs the parents that the newborn is improving. Which data support the nurse's assessment? 1. Decreased urine output 2. Pulmonary vascular resistance increases 3. Increased PCO2 4. Increased urination

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. In babies with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) who are on ventilators, increased urination/diuresis may be an early clue that the baby's condition is improving.

A newborn is receiving phototherapy. Which intervention by the nurse would be most important? 1. Measurement of head circumference 2. Encouraging the mother to stop breastfeeding 3. Stool blood testing 4. Assessment of hydration status

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Infants undergoing phototherapy treatment have increased water loss and loose stools as a result of bilirubin excretion. This increases their risk of dehydration.

The nurse is caring for a newborn in the special care nursery. The infant has hydrocephalus, and is positioned in a prone position. The nurse is especially careful to cleanse all stool after bowel movements. This care is most appropriate for an infant born with which of the following? 1. Omphalocele 2. Gastroschisis 3. Diaphragmatic hernia 4. Myelomeningocele

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Myelomeningocele is a saclike cyst containing meninges, spinal cord, and nerve roots in thoracic and/or lumbar area. Meticulous cleaning of the buttocks and genitals helps prevent infection. The infant is positioned on abdomen or on side and restrain (to prevent pressure and trauma to sac). Hydrocephalus often is present.

The neonatal special care unit nurse is overseeing the care provided by a nurse new to the unit. Which action requires immediate intervention? 1. The new nurse holds the infant after giving a gavage feeding. 2. The new nurse provides skin-to-skin care. 3. The new nurse provides care when the baby is awake. 4. The new nurse gives the feeding with room-temperature formula.

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. Preterm babies have little subcutaneous fat, and do not maintain their body temperature well. Formula should be warmed prior to feedings to help the baby maintain its temperature.

Parents have been told their child has fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). Which statement by a parent indicates that additional teaching is required? 1. "Our baby's heart murmur is from this syndrome." 2. "He might be a fussy baby because of this." 3. "His face looks like it does due to this problem." 4. "Cuddling and rocking will help him stay calm."

Answer: 4 Explanation: 4. The FASD baby is most comfortable in a quiet, minimally stimulating environment.

Which nursing intervention is appropriate in the management of the preterm infant with hypothermia? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Warm the baby rapidly to reverse the hypothermia. 2. Monitor skin temperature every 2 hours to determine whether the infant's temperature is increasing. 3. Keep IV fluids at room temperature. 4. Initiate efforts to maintain the newborn in a neutral thermal environment. 5. Warm the baby slowly to reverse hypothermia and reach a neutral thermal environment

Answer: 4, 5 Explanation: 4. The nurse should initiate efforts to block heat loss by evaporation, radiation, convection, and conduction. 5. The infant should be warmed slowly to prevent hypotension and apnea.

In the transition from intrauterine to extrauterine life, what intervention is of high priority when working with an infant of a diabetic mother? a. Administer IV fluids. b. Obtain lab work to look for infection. c. Keep under radiant warmer. d. Check blood glucose frequently.

Check blood glucose frequently. Rationale: Lab work, IV fluids, and the radiant warmer bed could be required for interventions if indicated, but frequent blood glucose checks are especially important in the infant of the diabetic mother to ensure that blood glucose levels are being maintained. The infant's temperature must be assessed before placing the infant under the warmer.

The nurse informs the parents of a small-for-gestational-age newborn that complications can occur, including: a. Hyperthermia. b. Leukocytosis. c. Hyperglycemia. d. Cognitive difficulties.

Cognitive difficulties. Rationale: SGA newborns often subsequently exhibit learning disabilities. The disabilities are characterized by hyperactivity, short attention span, and poor fine-motor coordination. Some hearing loss and speech defects also can occur. The SGA newborn does not exhibit symptoms of high blood sugar, increased temperature, and high white blood cell count.

The need for resuscitation of the newborn at risk can be anticipated if what risk factors are present? Select all that apply. a. Multiple births. b. Female infant. c. Difficult birth. d. Known congenital heart disease. e. Prematurity.

Difficult birth. Multiple births. Known congenital heart disease. Prematurity. Rationale: Neonatal risk factors for resuscitation are as follows: non-reassuring fetal heart rate pattern; difficult birth; fetal scalp/capillary blood sample acidosis; history of meconium in amniotic fluid; apneic episode; inadequate ventilation; male infant; prematurity; SGA; multiple births; structural lung abnormality; congenital heart disease; prematurity.

What is the best intervention a nurse can utilize to promote parent-infant attachment with a preterm or high-risk newborn? a. Provide an extensive handbook with information related to the preterm newborn. b. Encourage rooming in. c. Contact support families that have been through the same diagnosis with their own child and allow time to discuss the situation. d. Allow for privacy.

Encourage rooming in. Rationale: All will help strengthen the attachment bond, but the best answer would be to encourage rooming in. Rooming in can provide a great opportunity for the stable preterm infant and family to get acquainted; it offers both privacy and readily available help.

Which of the following techniques is used to perform a heel stick on a newborn? a. Grasp the infant's lower leg and foot to impede venous return slightly. b. Perform venipuncture; heel sticks are rarely performed on the neonate. c. Apply a specially designed chemical heat pad. d. Apply pressure to the heel with moderate force.

Grasp the infant's lower leg and foot to impede venous return slightly. Rationale: Grasp the infant's lower leg and foot to impede venous return slightly. Applying pressure to the heel can cause bruising to the neonate and alter the blood results. Venipuncture is rarely done; heel sticks are most common.

The nurse should anticipate that the physiologic alterations of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) can produce which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Hemoglobinopathies. b. Hypoxia. c. Metabolic alkalosis. d. Respiratory acidosis.

Hypoxia. Respiratory acidosis. Rationale: RDS can cause hypoxia, respiratory acidosis, and metabolic acidosis. RDS specifically does not cause hemoglobinopathies.

The primary goal for the drug-dependent newborn is to reduce withdrawal symptoms and promote adequate respiration, temperature, and nutrition. What intervention best reflects that goal? a. N.P.O. status. b. Administer medications such as methadone. c. Proper positioning of the infant in the right side-lying or in semi-Fowler's position. d. Monitor for hyperthermia.

Proper positioning of the infant in the right side-lying or in semi-Fowler's position. Rationale: Proper positioning in the right side-lying or semi-Fowler's position to avoid possible aspiration of vomitus or secretions is the best choice. The nurse would monitor for hypothermia; the infant would not be made NPO because of the vomiting/diarrhea; and the infant would not be placed on methadone, because of its addictive qualities.

A physician or practitioner would order Coombs' test in order to determine: a. Blood type of the infant. b. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. c. Whether jaundice is due to Rh or ABO incompatibility. d. A positive left shift indicating possible infection.

Whether jaundice is due to Rh or ABO incompatibility. Rationale: Coombs' test is performed to determine whether jaundice is due to Rh or ABO incompatibility. Actual blood type of the infant does not affect Coombs' testing, and hemoglobin and hematocrit testing also will not affect Coombs' tests. A left shift has to do with a complete blood count; a physician or practitioner would look at a left shift if considering sepsis as a diagnosis.

Mild or chronic anemia in an infant may be treated adequately which of the following? 1. Transfusions with O-negative or typed and cross-matched packed red cells 2. Iron supplements or iron-fortified formulas 3. Steroid therapy 4. Antibiotics or antivirals

Answer: 2 Explanation: 2. Mild or chronic anemia in an infant may be treated adequately with iron supplements or iron-fortified formulas.

The nurse correctly describes physiologic jaundice to the parents of a newborn in the following manner: a. "There is no statistical difference between breastfed and bottle-fed babies regarding bilirubin levels." b. "It is considered a normal process that occurs during transition from intrauterine to extrauterine life, and appears after 24 hours of life." c. "Jaundice is considered an abnormal process that occurs during transition from intrauterine to extrauterine life and appears before 24 hours of life." d. "Jaundice usually stays visible for 20-25 days."

"It is considered a normal process that occurs during transition from intrauterine to extrauterine life, and appears after 24 hours of life." Rationale: Jaundice is usually not visible after 14 days. The pattern of physiologic jaundice differs between breastfed and formula-fed babies; breastfed babies tend to be higher. Physiologic jaundice appears after 24 hours of life. Pathologic jaundice usually occurs before 24 hours of life.

Which is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a newborn who has meconium aspiration syndrome? a. Pain. b. Hyperthermia. c. Altered Nutrition: More than Body Requirements. d. Impaired Gas Exchange (lungs and at the cellular level).

Impaired Gas Exchange (lungs and at the cellular level). Rationale: Meconium aspiration syndrome causes respiratory issues. Pain, increased temperature, and nutritional status generally are not issues identified at the time the syndrome is diagnosed.

The highest-priority nursing diagnosis for a neonate experiencing RDS is: a. Altered Nutrition: More Than Body Requirements. b. Alterations in Parenting. c. Acute Pain. d. Impaired Gas Exchange, related to inadequate lung surfactant.

Impaired Gas Exchange, related to inadequate lung surfactant. Rationale: Altered Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements would be appropriate but not the highest priority. Impaired Gas Exchange would be the highest priority, although Alterations in Parenting and Acute Pain could be included on the comprehensive list of nursing diagnoses. Diagnoses related to airway, breathing, or circulation are first-level priorities.

The preterm newborn of a mother who used cocaine during pregnancy is experiencing vomiting, diarrhea, weight loss, irritability, tremors, and tachypnea. What is the best explanation for these symptoms? a. Maternal substance abuse. b. Traumatic birth. c. Sepsis. d. Gestational diabetes.

Maternal substance abuse. Rationale: The severity of withdrawal that an infant experiences can be assessed by using a scoring system such as the Finnegan scale. This scale is based on observations and measurement of the responses to neonatal abstinence from substances. It evaluates the infant on potentially life-threatening signs such as vomiting, diarrhea, weight loss, irritability, tremors, and tachypnea.

The highest-priority intervention the nurse must perform before resuscitating a newborn with asphyxia is: a. Drawing a blood gas. b. Suctioning. c. Initiating positive pressure ventilation. d. Intubation.

Suctioning. Rationale: Suctioning is always performed before resuscitation so that mucus, blood, or meconium is not aspirated into the lungs. None of the other answers is the highest priority.