Immanuel Kant & The Categorical Imperative

Categorical Imperatives

They are commands that you must follow, regardless of your desires. It also states that moral obligations came from pure reason.

Hypothetical Imperatives

They are commands that you should follow if you want something. It also states that commands are based on "being cautious", rather than being moral.

"Act so that you treat humanity, whether in your own person or in that of another, always as an end, and never as a mere means." - Treat others the way you want to be treated - Do unto others, as you would have others do unto you

What is the definition of "The Formula of Humanity?"

Hypothetical Imperatives are commands that you follow based on your "Desires", whereas Categorical Imperatives are commands that you MUST follow, "Regardless" of your desires.

[1] What is the difference between Hypothetical Imperatives & Categorical Imperatives?

Categorical Imperatives has application to our moral obligations because according to Kant, "We are Bound to Moral Law, and that you CAN'T choose to be moral or immoral."

[1] Which one of these applies to our moral obligations, and why?

The Chom-chom story explains the Universalizability Principle in that by stealing a banana from the Chom-chom store, you are "universalizing" the act of stealing, which means to allow everyone else to steal. But since Immanuel Kant specifically says no contradictions are allowed, that means the act of stealing a banana can't be "universalized". You can't make an "exception for yourself", that "only you can steal a banana."

[2] How does the Chom-chom's example illustrate this principle?

The Universalizability Principle

[2] What is Kant's 1st Formulation of the Categorical Imperative?

It is called the Universalizability Principle because it pretty much says that "You must act ONLY according to that principle, and that principle is also universal law, without contradiction. In short, it means "To think about the main rule that stands behind the action you consider doing."

[2] Why is it called the "Universalizability Principle?"

The Formula of Humanity

[3] What is Kant's 2nd Formulation of the categorical imperative?

Immanuel Kant sees the significance of this because he believes people can set their own ends & make their own free decisions based on rational wills. And since that makes us "morally worthy", people shouldn't manipulate others for their own benefit.

[3] Why are human autonomy & treating people as ends-in-themselves morally significant for Immanuel Kant?