NUR 225 Exam 4

Which antiretroviral medication treatment stops the enzyme reverse transcriptase from working by binding to it? A. Non-nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs) B. Integrase Inhibitors C. Protease Inhibitors D. Fusion Inhibitors

A

________________ is a form of arthritis that is an autoimmune condition that causes inflammation within the joints, specifically the synovium. A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Osteoarthritis

A

Select the criteria below that is used to help diagnosed a patient with Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) (Select all that apply): A. CD4 count <200 cells/mm3 B. Presence of opportunistic infection C. CD4 count >1500 cells/mm3 D. WBC 9500 E. Absence of opportunistic infection

A, B

The nurse is caring for a child with cerebral palsy.Which intervention should the nurse use to support this patient's nutritional status? A. Use utensils with small, padded, adaptive handles. B. Provide small amounts of food at a time. C. Restrict fluid intake. D. Provide adequate protein.

B

The parents of a 5-year-old patient with mixed cerebral palsy (CP) ask why a baclofen pump is scheduled to be surgically implanted in the child.Which explanation should the nurse give about the purpose of this medication pump? A. It increases ankle range of motion. B. It controls muscle spasms. C. It allows flat-footed walking. D. It prevents infections

B

A nurse is reviewing STAT laboratory data of a client presenting in the emergency department. At what minimum blood alcohol level should a nurse expect intoxication to occur? A. 50 mg/dL B. 100 mg/dL C. 250 mg/dL D. 300 mg/dL

B

What isn't a symptom of TB? A. Fever B. Productive cough C. Night sweats D. Weight gain

D

The nurse is reviewing multiple cases of patients diagnosed with cerebral palsy (CP). Which patient would benefit most from enhanced mobility? A. A 15-year-old patient who uses a manual wheelchair at school. B. A 17-year-old patient who works at a grocery store as a bagger. C. A 55-year-old patient who lives in a group home and uses a walker. D. A 13-year-old patient who uses a wheelchair and has a private nurse at home.

A

Which statement is FALSE concerning rheumatoid arthritis? A. Rheumatoid arthritis most commonly affects the fingers and wrist. B. Rheumatoid arthritis is different from osteoarthritis in that it doesn't affect other systems of the body. C. Rheumatoid arthritis can occur at any age (20-60 year old most commonly). D. Ankylosis can occur in severe cases of rheumatoid arthritis.

B

You are assessing the diagnostic testing results for a patient that has rheumatoid arthritis. What result is NOT an indicator of this disease? A. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation B. X-ray imaging showing osteophyte formation C. Positive c-reactive protein D. Positive rheumatoid factor

B

A client with a history of renal calculi formation is being discharged after surgery to remove the calculus. What instructions should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching plan? 1. Increase daily fluid intake to at least 2 to 3 L.2. Strain urine at home regularly. 3. Eliminate dairy products from the diet. 4. Follow measures to alkalinize the urine.

1

The nurse teaches the parents of an infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip how to handle their child in a Pavlik harness. Which of the following is most appropriate? 1.Fitting the diaper under the straps. 2.Leaving the harness off while the infant sleeps. 3.Checking for skin redness under straps every other day. 4.Putting powder on the skin under the straps every day.

1

Which can occur in untreated developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)? Select all that apply. 1. Duck gait. 2. Pain. 3. Osteoarthritis in adulthood. 4. Osteoporosis in adulthood. 5. Increased flexibility of the hip joint in adulthood.

1, 2, 3

A nurse is assessing a newborn with a myelomeningocele. What clinical findings prompt the nurse to suspect hydrocephalus? Select all that apply. 1. tense fontanels 2. high-pitched crying 3. apgar score of less than 5 4. a defect in the lumbosacral area 5. head circumference 2 cm greater than the chest circumference

1, 2, 4

Which should the nurse stress to the parents of an infant in a Pavlik harness for treatment of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)? 1. Put socks on over the foot pieces of the harness to help stabilize the harness. 2. Use lotions or powder on the skin to prevent rubbing of straps. 3. Remove harness during diaper changes for ease of cleaning diaper area. 4. Check under the straps at least two to three times daily for red areas.

4

When developing the teaching plan for parents using the Pavlik harness with their child, what should be the nurse's initial step? 1.Assessing the parents' current coping strategies. 2.Determining the parents' knowledge about the device. 3.Providing the parents with written instructions. 4.Giving the parents a list of community resources

2

The parents of a 3-year-old child with cerebral palsy (CP) do not wish to begin any physical therapy or use braces or positioning devices until the child is older.Which response should the nurse make to the parents? A. "The earlier the intervention is started, the better the long-term result to optimize independence." B. "You may want to wait until walking occurs." C. "You shouldn't wait because that could make the condition much worse." D. "It's up to you. It really doesn't matter when therapy is started.

A

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of renal calculi. The client is experiencing severe flank pain and nausea; the temperature is 100.6 ° F (38.1 ° C). Which of the following would be a priority outcome for this client? 1. Prevention of urinary tract complications. 2. Alleviation of nausea. 3. Alleviation of pain. 4. Maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance.

3

When teaching the family of an older infant who has had a spica cast applied for developmental dysplasia of the hip, which information should the nurse include when describing the abduction stabilizer bar? 1.It can be adjusted to a position of comfort. 2.It is used to lift the child. 3.It adds strength to the cast. 4.It is necessary to turn the child.

3

What should be the priority nursing diagnosis for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal? A. Risk for injury R/T central nervous system stimulation B. Disturbed thought processes R/T tactile hallucinations C. Ineffective coping R/T powerlessness over alcohol use D. Ineffective denial R/T continued alcohol use despite negative consequences

A

Which HIV test can give the earliest test results? A. Nucleic Acid Test (NAT) B. Antibody HIV Test C. Combination HIV antigen/antibody test D. CD4 count

A

Which would the nurse expect to assess on a 3-week-old infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)? Select all that apply. 1. Excessive hip abduction. 2. Femoral lengthening of an affected leg. 3. Asymmetry of gluteal and thigh folds. 4. Pain when lying prone. 5. Positive Ortolani test

3, 5

A pregnant patient is scheduled for an ultrasound to attempt to diagnose the possibility of cerebral palsy (CP).Which statement should the nurse use to explain to the patient how this test is used to identify the possibility of CP? A. "An ultrasound can detect abnormalities of the brain that can increase the likelihood of the presence of CP." B. "An ultrasound can detect specific deformities and developmental disorders that are associated with CP." C. "An ultrasound can determine the position of the fetus in the uterus, which can identify any possible abnormality leading to CP." D. "An ultrasound can positively detect CP by measuring the size of the brain."

A

During a routine exam, the nurse notices that a 2-year-old child shows signs of inadequate coordination and muscle stiffness.Which developmental disorder should the nurse suspect in this patient? A. Cerebral palsy B. Failure to thrive C. Autism spectrum disorder D. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

A

TRUE OR FALSE: The Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends that all people between the ages of 13-64 be tested at least once for HIV during a routine health visit, regardless of risk factors. A. True B. False

A

The client has been diagnosed to have glomerulonephritis. What should the nurse observe in the urine? a) blood b) pus c) white blood cells d) glucose

A

Hydrocephalus develops in an infant who was born with a meningomyelocele, and a ventriculoperitoneal shunt is inserted. What nursing intervention is most important in this infant's care during the first 24 hours after surgery? 1. placing in the high Fowler position 2. administering the prescribed sedative 3. positioning on the same side as the shunt 4. monitoring for increasing intracranial pressure

4

A 22-year-old patient with cerebral palsy (CP) is experiencing chronic pain. Which reason should the nurse identify that explains the most common cause of chronic pain in adults with this health problem? A. Muscle contractions B. Skin breakdown C. Skeletal deformities D. Brain lesions

A

A 25-year-old female is about to deliver a baby. The patient is HIV-positive and has been taking antiretroviral therapy during the pregnancy. What steps can be taken to help prevent transmitting the virus to the baby after birth? A. Substitute formula for breastfeeding. B. Administer antiretroviral treatment to the newborn for 2 weeks after birth. C. Avoid kissing and hugging the newborn. D. Stop taking antiretroviral therapy for 2 months postpartum.

A

A 52-year old female patient is receiving medical treatment for a possible tuberculosis infection. The patient is a U.S. resident but grew-up in a foreign country. She reports that as a child she received the BCG vaccine (bacille Calmette-Guerin vaccine). Which physician's order below would require the nurse to ask the doctor for an order clarification? A. PPD (Mantoux test) B. Chest X-ray C. QuantiFERON-TB Gold (QFT) D. Sputum culture

A

A 9-month-old child is diagnosed with spastic cerebral palsy (CP).Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to assess in this patient? A. Hypertonia and rigidity B. Hemiplegia and hypotonia C. Bizarre twitching movements D. Tremors and exaggerated posturing

A

A client diagnosed with pyelonephritis asks the nurse "What is the disease?" The nurse's best response "Pyelonephritis is an: A. inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis." B. inflammation of the prostate gland." C. inflammation of the urethra." D. inflammation of the bladder."

A

A family caregiver asks why a 40-year-old patient with cerebral palsy (CP) developed hypertension at such a young age.Which response should the nurse make? A. "The effects of constant stress on the body caused by CP leads to the development of conditions earlier in life." B. "There may be a family history of hypertension that you did not know about." C. "People with CP are at increased risk of developing hypertension and other cardiovascular problems due to immobility." D. "You may want to reduce salt and fat in his diet. He obviously has not been eating a healthy diet."

A

The nurse is caring for a client who has cerebral palsy​ (CP). Which intervention should the nurse use to promote flexibility and prevent​ contractures? A. Provide muscle relaxants B. Perform​ range-of-motion (ROM) exercises C. Schedule speech therapy D. Administer mood stabilizers

A

A patient arrives to the clinic and requests an HIV test. The patient had unprotected sexual intercourse 2 days ago with a person who may have HIV. As the nurse you know there is a window period for detecting an infection of HIV. What statements should you provide to the patient about this window period and testing for HIV? Select all that apply: A. No test is available at this time to show immediate infection. B. The window period is the time when you become infected with HIV to when a test can deliver positive results. C. Window periods vary depending on the type of HIV test administered. D. The absolute earliest an HIV test can detect HIV is about 3 months.

A, B, C

The parents of a child with cerebral palsy​ (CP) ask if there are any medications available to help control the​ child's symptoms. Which type of medication should the nurse discuss with the​ parents? (Select all that​ apply.) A. Benzodiazepines B. Muscle relaxants C. Baclofen D. Botulinum toxin

A, B, C, D

A patient receiving medical treatment for an active tuberculosis infection asks when she can starting going out in public again. You respond that she is no longer contagious when: A. She has 3 negative sputum cultures B. Her signs and symptoms improve C. She has completed the full medication regime D. Her chest x-ray is normal E. She has been on tuberculosis medications for about 3 weeks

A, B, E

Identify the correct statements about the anatomy of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). Select all that apply: A. HIV is a retrovirus. B. Inside the virus is packaged DNA. C. The protein projections found on the virus' surface play a key role in attaching to the receptors on the helper t-cell. D. The glycoproteins (specifically GP140) are vital for engaging the receptors on the targeted cell.

A, C

Which patient below is presenting with signs and symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis? Select all that apply: A. A 35 year old patient who has severe morning stiffness for 45 minutes. B. A 45 year old male with crepitus in the right knee. C. A 30 year old female with warm, red, soft joints on the hands and wrist. D. A 40 year old male whose x-ray imaging results showed osteophytes formation and decreased joint space in the left knee.

A, C

The nurse plays a vital role in screening patients for a possible HIV infection. What questions below could the nurse ask to help identify a patient who is at risk for HIV? Select all that apply: A. "How often do you use alcohol or drugs?" B. "Have you recently experienced an abusive relationship?" C. "If you are sexually active, do you or your partner use protection?" D. "In the past month, have you felt sad or unable to get out of bed?" E. "Have you ever been treated for a sexually transmitted infection?" F. "Do you ever experience intrusive or unwanted thoughts?"

A, C, E

An​ 18-month-old client is suspected of having cerebral palsy​ (CP). Which test should the nurse expect to be prescribed to help diagnose this​ client? (Select all that​ apply.) A. PET scan B. Electrocardiographic studies C. Laboratory studies of protein levels in the bloodstream D. CT scan E. MRI

A, D, E

The wife of a patient who has undergone a TURP and has continuous bladder irrigation asks the nurse about the purpose of the continuous bladder irrigation. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "The bladder irrigation is needed to stop the postoperative bleeding in the bladder." b. "The irrigation is needed to keep the catheter from being occluded by blood clots." c. "Normal production of urine is maintained with the irrigations until healing occurs." d. "Antibiotics are being administered into the bladder with the irrigation solution."

B

True or False: Tuberculosis is a contagious bacterial infection caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis and it only affects the lungs. A. True B. False

B

What sign and symptoms in your patient with HIV indicates the disease is worsening and the immune system is severely compromised? A. Open, oozing lesions around the mouth B. White hair like spots on the side of the tongue C. Cheesy white film on the tonsils and inside cheeks D. Vision changes

B

What type of room should a patient with active TB be placed in? A. No isolation B. Negative pressure C. Close to nurses station D. With another medical patient

B

Which of the following symptoms do you expect to see in a patient diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis? a) Jaundice and flank pain b) Costovertebral angle tenderness and chills c) Burning sensation on urination d) Polyuria and nocturia

B

A 25-year-old patient reports that they engage in high risk activities that could lead to an HIV infection. The patient's test results show the patient is HIV-negative. The nurse should provide the patient with education about? A. PEP B. PrEP C. Opportunistic Infections D. Nucleic Acid Test (NAT)

B

A 48-year-old patient is HIV positive. The patient has no signs and symptoms and has a CD4 count of 400 cells/mm3. In addition, no opportunistic infections or diseases are present. These findings correlate with what stage of HIV? A. Acute B. Chronic C. AIDS

B

A 55-year old male patient is admitted with an active tuberculosis infection. The nurse will place the patient in ___________________ precautions and will always wear _____________________ when providing patient care? A. droplet, respirator B. airborne, respirator C. contact and airborne, surgical mask D. droplet, surgical mask

B

A client who has been diagnosed with calculi reports that the pain is intermittent and less colicky. Which of the following nursing actions is most important at this time? A. Report hematuria to the physician B. Strain the urine carefully C. Administer meperidine (Demerol) every 3 hours D. Apply warm compresses to the flank area

B

A client with a history of heavy alcohol use is brought to an emergency department (ED) by family members who state that the client has had nothing to drink in the last 24 hours. Which client symptom should the nurse immediate report to the ED physician? A. Tactile hallucinations B. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg C. Mood rating of 2/10 on numeric scale D. Dehydration

B

A patient with acute urinary retention associated with BPH is admitted to the emergency department. The patient has had no urine output for 16 hours, and the laboratory work shows a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 50 mg/dl and a creatinine of 3.0 mg/dl. The nurse will anticipate a health care provider order to a. schedule the patient for inpatient hemodialysis. b. insert a retention catheter. c. start an IV line for fluid administration. d. administer furosemide (Lasix).

B

The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) mainly attacks what type of cells in the human body? A. Red Blood Cells B. CD4 positive cells C. Stem Cells D. Platelets

B

The mother of a​ 4-month-old client is concerned that the client may be developmentally delayed. Which finding should lead the nurse to suspect cerebral palsy​ (CP) in the​ infant? A. Follows objects 180 degrees B. Hypotonia C. Head lag D. Tonic neck reflex

B

You're providing education to a patient with AIDS on how to prevent opportunistic infections. Which statement below requires the nurse to re-educate the patient about this topic? A. "I'm traveling to Puerto Rico next week and will be sure to pack bottled water." B. "I've switched to buying raw organic milk." C. "Last month I received the Pneumovax." D. "My neighbor bought a cat last week."

B

____________ affects the joints in a symmetrical fashion. A. Osteoarthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis

B

Your patient is diagnosed with a latent tuberculosis infection. Select all the correct statements that reflect this condition: A. "The patient will not need treatment unless it progresses to an active tuberculosis infection." B. "The patient is not contagious and will have no signs and symptoms." C. "The patient will have a positive tuberculin skin test or IGRA test. D. "The patient will have an abnormal chest x-ray." E. "The patient's sputum will test positive for mycobacterium tuberculosis."

B, C

A 30-year-old patient is in the Acute Stage of HIV. What findings below correlate with this stage of HIV? Select all that apply: A. CD4 level <500 cells/mm3 B. No present of Opportunistic Infections C. High viral load D. Patient reports flu-like symptomsE. Patient is asymptomatic

B, C, D

Your patient is in the last stage of HIV. The patient CD4 count is 100 cells/mm3. Which of the following FUNGAL infections if your patient at risk for? Select all that apply: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Candidiasis C. Coccidioidomycosis D. Toxoplasmosis E. Histoplasmosis

B, C, E

You're teaching a group of long-term care health givers about the signs and symptoms of tuberculosis. What signs and symptoms will you include in your education? A. Cough for a minimum of 6 weeks B. Night sweats C. Weight gain D. Hemoptysis E. Chills F. Fever G. Chest pain

B, D, E, F, G

A patient has a PPD skin test (Mantoux test). As the nurse you tell the patient to report back to the office in _________ so the results can be interpreted? A. 24-48 hours B. 12-24 hours C. 48-72 hours D. 24-72 hours

C

A patient is taking Streptomycin. Which finding below requires the nurse to notify the physician? A. Patient reports a change in vision. B. Patient reports a metallic taste in the mouth. C. The patient has ringing in their ears. D. The patient has a persistent dry cough.

C

A patient taking Isoniazid (INH) should be monitored for what deficiency? A. Vitamin C B. Calcium C. Vitamin B6 D. Potassium

C

A patient with AIDS has developed CMV (cytomegalovirus). The nurse makes it priority to educate the patient about which of the following regarding CMV? A. Avoiding exposure to cat feces. B. Drinking water from clean sources only. C. Scheduling an eye appointment. D. Isolating for 14 days to prevent transmission of CMV to others.

C

A patient with HIV is prescribed to start antiretroviral therapy. The nurse is providing education about these medications. Which statement below by the patient indicates they need re-education on these medications? A. "If I take these medications as prescribed by viral load will become undetectable, and I have a low risk of transmit the virus to others." B. "Drug resistance is likely to develop if I'm non-compliant with my medications." C. "I currently take a medication called St. John's Wort to treat depression." D. "This therapy does not cure me from HIV but helps me live a healthier and longer life."

C

An 18 y.o. student is admitted with dark urine, fever, and flank pain and is diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Which would most likely be in this student's health history? A. Renal calculi B. Renal trauma C. Recent sore throat D. Family history of acute glomerulonephritis

C

An older male patient visits his primary care provider because of burning on urination and production of urine that he describes as "foul smelling." The health care provider should assess the patient for what factor that may put him at risk for a urinary tract infection (UTI)? A. High-purine diet B. Sedentary lifestyle C. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) D. Recent use of broad-spectrum antibiotics

C

Clinical manifestations of acute glomerulonephritis include which of the following? A. Chills and flank pain B. Oliguria and generalized edema C. Hematuria and proteinuria D. Dysuria and hypotension

C

Diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis has been established your nursing intervention includes the following except: a) provide health teaching and discharge planning b) administer antibiotic c) measure I and O d) provide adequate comfort and rest

C

On the first day of a client's alcohol detoxification, which nursing intervention should take priority? A. Strongly encourage the client to attend 90 Alcoholics Anonymous meetings in 90 days. B. Educate the client about the biopsychosocial consequences of alcohol abuse. C. Administer ordered chlordiazepoxide (Librium) in a dosage according to protocol. D. Administer vitamin B1 to prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

C

The nurse is giving an overview of cerebral palsy (CP) to a group of new nurses.Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "CP is a progressive disease that is inherited." B. "CP is identified during the prenatal period." C. "Not all patients with CP have an intellectual disability." D. "The pathogenesis of CP is the same in most cases."

C

The parent of a child with cerebral palsy (CP) ask the nurse, "What is the purpose of these braces?"Which response by the nurse is correct? A. "Braces will help promote flexibility." B. "Braces will help strengthen muscles." C. "Braces help with mobility and provide stabilization." D. "Braces will protect your child from broken bones."

C

The physician orders an acid-fast bacilli sputum culture smear on a patient with possible tuberculosis. How will you collect this? A. Collect 2 different sputum specimens 12 hours apart B. Collect 3 different sputum specimens (one in the morning, afternoon, and at night) C. Collect 3 different sputum specimens on 3 different days D. Collect 2 different sputum specimens on 2 different days

C

To determine the severity of the symptoms for a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), the nurse will ask the patient about a. the presence of blood in the urine. b. any erectile dysfunction (ED). c. occurrence of a weak urinary stream. d. lower back and hip pain.

C

What is a normal CD4 count? A. 200-500 cells/mm3 B. 1500-3500 cells/mm3 C. 500-1500 cells/mm3 D. <200 cells/mm3

C

Which of the following complaints is common in a client with pyelonephritis? a) right upper quadrant pain b) left upper quadrant pain c) pain at the costovertebral region d) pain at the suprapubic region

C

Which statement below is not true regarding the role of the helper t cell? A. The helper T cell releases cytokines to help activate other immune system cells. B. The helper T cell is part of the adaptive immune system. C. The helper T cell is cytotoxic and kills invaders. D. The helper T cell has CD4 receptors found on its surface.

C

Which statement is correct regarding mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. This bacterium is an anaerobic type of bacteria. B. It is an alkali bacterium that stains bright red during an acid-fast smear test. C. It is known as being an aerobic type of bacteria. D. It's an acid-fact bacterium that stains bright green during an acid-fast smear test.

C

Your patient with a diagnosis of latent tuberculosis infection needs a bronchoscopy. During transport to endoscopy, the patient will need to wear? A. N95 mask B. Surgical mask C. No special PPE is needed D. Face mask with shield

C

Your patient, who is receiving Pyrazinamide, report stiffness and extreme pain in the right big toe. The site is extremely red, swollen, and warm. You notify the physician and as the nurse you anticipated the doctor will order? A. Calcium level B. Vitamin B6 level C. Uric acid level D. Amylase level

C

The mother of a​ 4-year-old child with cerebral palsy​ (CP) asks how this health problem occurred. Which prenatal insult should the nurse explain as a possible​ cause? (Select all that​ apply.) A. Brain injury B. Hyperbilirubinemia C. Genetic factors D. Prematurity E. Fetal viral infection

C, D, E

You are assessing your newly admitted patients who are all presenting with atypical signs and symptoms of a possible lung infection. The physician suspects tuberculosis. So, therefore, the patients are being monitored and tested for the disease. Select all the risk factors below that increases a patient's risk for developing tuberculosis: A. Diabetes B. Liver failure C. Long-term care resident D. Inmate E. IV drug user F. HIV G. U.S. resident

C, D, E, F

The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) can NOT be spread in what type of fluid below? Select all that apply: A. Breastmilk B. Blood C. Tears D. Semen E. Vaginal Fluid F. Sweat

C, F

A 48-year old homeless man, who is living in a local homeless shelter and is an IV drug user, has arrived to the clinic to have his PPD skin test assessed. What is considered a positive result? A. 5 mm induration B. 15 mm induration C. 9 mm induration D. 10 mm induration

D

A 7-year-old girl with dyskinetic cerebral palsy (CP) uses either a stroller or wheelchair for mobility since birth. Which assessment should the nurse consider the priority? A. Height and weight B. Nutrition status and bowel function C. Swallowing difficulty D. Skin integrity and body alignment

D

A client has been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. During history-taking the nurse first asks the client about a recent history of: a) bleeding ulcer b) deep vein thrombosis c) myocardial infarction d) streptococcal infection

D

A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed disulfiram (Antabuse) as a deterrent to alcohol relapse. Which information should the nurse include when teaching the client about this medication? A. "Only oral ingestion of alcohol will cause a reaction when taking this drug." B. "It is safe to drink beverages that have only 12% alcohol content." C. "This medication will decrease your cravings for alcohol." D. "Reactions to combining Antabuse with alcohol can occur 2 weeks after stopping the drug."

D

A patient with AIDS has dark purplish brown lesions on the mucus membranes of the mouth. As the nurse you know these lesions correlate with what type of opportunistic disease? A. Epstein-Barr Virus B. Herpes Simplex Virus C. Cytomegalovirus D. Kaposi's Sarcoma

D

A patient with active tuberculosis is taking Ethambutol. As the nurse you make it priority to assess the patient's? A. hearing B. mental status C. vitamin B6 level D. vision

D

A patient, who is in the Chronic Stage of HIV, has a CD4 count ordered. What does this test measure? A. Red blood cells B. B cells C. Cytotoxic T cells D. Helper T cells

D

An infant, who is not meeting developmental goals and is displaying spastic motion, will be evaluated for possible cerebral palsy (CP). Which component of the infant's medical history should the nurse identify as the greatest risk factor for the health problem? A. Family history of CP B. The mother having had numerous respiratory infections during pregnancy C. No prenatal care during pregnancy D. Born premature at 29 weeks of gestation

D

As the nurse you know that one of the reasons for an increase in multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis is: A. Incorrect medication ordered B. Increase in tuberculosis cases nationwide C. Incorrect route of drug ordered D. Noncompliance due to duration of medication treatment needed

D

The health care provider orders a blood test for prostate-specific antigen (PSA) when an enlarged prostate is palpated during a routine examination of a 56-year-old man. When the patient asks the nurse the purpose of the test, the nurse's response is based on the knowledge that a. elevated levels of PSA are indicative of metastatic cancer of the prostate. b. PSA testing is the "gold standard" for making a diagnosis of prostate cancer. c. baseline PSA levels are necessary to determine whether treatment is effective. d. PSA levels are usually elevated in patients with cancer of the prostate.

D

The mother of an 18-month-old child is concerned about the child not meeting developmental milestones and wants the child tested for cerebral palsy.Which diagnostic approach should the nurse explain to this mother? A. CT scan B. Laboratory test for certain proteins C. Urinalysis D. Observation of symptoms and ruling out other disorders

D

What shouldn't be included in patient teaching about meds for TB? A. Your urine will be orange/red B. Take with a full glass of water C. You will need liver function testing throughout D. You will need kidney function testing throughout

D

Which intervention do you plan to include with a patient who has renal calculi? A. Maintain bed rest B. Increase dietary purines C. Restrict fluids D. Strain all urine

D

Which patient below is a candidate for PEP (Post-exposure Prophylaxis)? A. A 32-year-old patient who reports sharing IV drug injection devices with a person who is HIV-positive 5 days ago. B. A 28-year-old patient who engages in high risk activities on a regular basis that could lead to an HIV infection. C. A 55-year-old who is HIV-positive. D. A 30-year-old who was sexually assaulted two days ago.

D

Which statement below is not a true statement about Antiretroviral Treatment? A. "The patient starts out taking 3 medications from at least 2 drug classes." B. "ART decreases the amount of virus in the blood within about 6 months." C. "ART helps decrease the risk of developing an opportunistic infection." D. "Antiretroviral medications are taken when signs and symptoms appear and then tapered off."

D

Which type of opportunistic infection occurs from inhaling a parasitic organism that can be found in cat and bird feces? A. Histoplasmosis B. Crytococcosis C. Mycobacterium Avium complex D. Toxoplasmosis

D

You note your patient's sweat and urine is orange. You reassure the patient and educate him that which medication below is causing this finding? A. Ethambutol B. Streptomycin C. Isoniazid D. Rifampin

D