PPL Tüm Derslerden Seçmeler
28 The position of the center of gravity (including fuel) equals... See figure(PFP-053e) (1,00 P.) a) 37.1 cm. b) 37.3 cm. c) 0.401 m. d) 0.403 m.
37.1 cm. (normalde 37,29 çıkıyor hesap)
98 How much taxi fuel must be consumed before take-off to reduce the aircraft mass to the maximum take-off mass? Maximum ramp mass (MRM): 1150 kg Actual ramp mass: 1148 kg Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 1145 kg (1,00 P.) a) 4.2 l b) 3.0 l c) 5.0 l d) 6.9 l
4.2 l (ban göre 3 l :) )
14 What is the ISA standard pressure at FL 180 (5500 m)? (1,00 P.) a) 1013.25 hPa b) 250 hPa c) 500 hPa d) 300 hPa
500 hPa
30 From about which altitude on does the night vision capability start to diminish? (1,00 P.) a) 3000 ft b) 5000 ft c) 7000 ft d) 10000 ft
5000 ft
79 What is the required distance to climb from FL 65 to FL 95 under the following conditions? Aircraft mass: 3000 lb. OAT in FL 65: -5° C OAT in FL 95: -15° C See annex (PFP-023) (1,00 P.) See annex 12 a) 8 NM b) 6 NM c) 7 NM d) 4 NM
6 NM
81 What is the required distance to climb to flight level (FL) 75 after a departure from an airfield which is located at a pressure altitude of 3000 ft with an initial mass of 3000 lbs? OAT at airfield: 25° C OAT in FL 75: 0° C See annex (PFP-023) (1,00 P.) See annex 12 a) 10 NM b) 6 NM c) 7 NM d) 4 NM
7 NM
18 From which altitude on does the body usually react to the decreasing atmospheric pressure? (1,00 P.) a) 2000 feet b) 7000 feet c) 10000 feet d) 12000 feet
7000 feet
24 Given the following information, what is the true altitude? QNH: 983 hPa Altitude: FL 85 Outside Air Temperature: ISA - 10° (1,00 P.) a) 9400 ft b) 7296 ft c) 7600 ft d) 7904 ft
7296 ft 8500-((1013,25-983)*27)-(8500/1000 *4*10)
29 After lift-off, a much stronger than expected airspeed rise is experienced during the initial climb phase. What may be expected if the aeroplane entered a microburst? (1,00 P.) a) A decreased climb rate and airspeed b) An increased climb rate and airspeed c) An increased climb rate and decreased airspeed d) A decreased climb rate and increased airspeed
A decreased climb rate and airspeed
118 What is a "PAPI" (Precision Approach Path Indicator)? (1,00 P.) a) An instrumental aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct approach to an aerodrome or an airport b) A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct departure track when departing from an aerodrome or an airport c) A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a tower controller acquire and maintain the correct approach to an aerodrome or an airport d) A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct glidepath to an aerodrome or an airport
A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct glidepath to an aerodrome or an airport
6 Where can the type of restriction for a restricted airspace be found? (1,00 P.) a) ICAO chart 1:500000 b) AIP c) AIC d) NOTAM
AIP
128 Weather and operational information about the destination aerodrome can be obtained during the flight by... (1,00 P.) a) VOLMET. b) PIREP. c) SIGMET. d) ATIS.
ATIS.
126 Which constructive feature provides less stick forces? (1,00 P.) a) Differential aileron deflection b) Aerodynamic rudder balance c) Vortex generators d) T-tail
Aerodynamic rudder balance
14 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "ARC"? (1,00 P.) a) Airworthiness Recurring Control b) Airspace Restriction Criteria c) Airworthiness Review Certificate d) Airspace Rulemaking Committee
Airworthiness Review Certificate
87 Which of the following factors affects the reception of VHF transmissions? (1,00 P.) a) Altitude b) Height of ionosphere c) Twilight error d) Shoreline effect
Altitude
56 How should a landing on a contaminated runway be conducted if it proves to be inevitable? (1,00 P.) a) Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down firmly with minimum speed, brake carefully b) Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use minimum flaps, touch down softly with minimum speed, do not apply brakes c) Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use minimum flaps, touch down softly with positive pitch and minimum speed, do not apply brakes d) Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down with negative pitch and minimum speed, brake carefully
Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down firmly with minimum speed, brake carefully
64 In what different ways can a risk be handled appropriately? (1,00 P.) a) Avoid, reduce, transfer, accept b) Avoid, ignore, palliate, reduce c) Ignore, accept, transfer, extrude d) Extrude, avoid, palliate, transfer
Avoid, reduce, transfer, accept
102 What is the name of the the cold, katabatic wind phenomena blowing from northeast into the Adriatic Sea? (1,00 P.) a) Scirocco b) Passat c) Mistral d) Bora
Bora
62 Regarding the communication model, how can the use of the same code during radio communication be ensured? (1,00 P.) a) By a particular frequency allocation b) By the use of radio phraseology c) By the use of proper headsets d) By using radios certified for aviation use only
By the use of radio phraseology
96 What weather conditions can be expected in high pressure areas during summer? (1,00 P.) a) Calm weather and cloud dissipation, few high Cu b) Calm winds and widespread areas with high fog c) Changing weather with passing of frontal lines d) Squall lines and thunderstorms
Calm weather and cloud dissipation, few high Cu
98 What weather conditions can be expected in high pressure areas during winter? (1,00 P.) a) Calm weather and cloud dissipation, few high Cu b) Calm winds and widespread areas with high fog c) Changing weather with passing of frontal lines d) Squall lines and thunderstorms
Calm winds and widespread areas with high fog
95 What weather characteristic results from the "westerly" situation? (1,00 P.) a) Calm weather and cloud dissipation, few high Cu b) Calm winds and widespread high fog c) Changing weather with passing of frontal lines d) Clear skies and moderate winds
Changing weather with passing of frontal lines
32 When air masses meet each other head on, how is this referred to and what air movements will follow? (1,00 P.) a) Divergence resulting in sinking air b) Convergence resulting in sinking air c) Divergence resulting in air being lifted d) Convergence resulting in air being lifted
Convergence resulting in air being lifted
92 How does inflowing cold air affect the shape and vertical distance between pressure layers? (1,00 P.) a) Increasing vertical distance, raise in height (high pressure) b) Decreasing vertical distance, raise in height (high pressure) c) Increase in vertical distance, lowering in height (low pressure) d) Decrease in vertical distance, lowering in height (low pressure)
Decrease in vertical distance, lowering in height (low pressure)
5 At what rate does the temperature change with increasing height according to ISA (International Standard Atmosphere) within the troposphere? (1,00 P.) a) Increases by 2° C / 100 m b) Decreases by 2° C / 100 m c) Decreases by 2° C / 1000 ft d) Increases by 2° C / 1000 ft
Decreases by 2° C / 1000 ft
76 What is the maximum allowed flight altitude at "Mauterndorf", if the pilot does not have contact to an ATC-station? See annex (ALW-026) (1,00 P.) See annex 2 a) 9.500 ft MSL. b) 7.500 ft MSL. c) FL 195. d) FL 125.
FL 125.
85 What pressure pattern can be observed during the passage of a polar front low? (1,00 P.) a) Rising pressure in front of the warm front, constant pressure within the warm sector, rising pressure behind the cold front b) Falling pressure in front of the warm front, constant pressure within the warm sector, falling pressure behind the cold front c) Falling pressure in front of the warm front, constant pressure within the warm sector, rising pressure behind the cold front d) Rising pressure in front of the warm front, rising pressure within the warm sector, falling pressure behind the cold front
Falling pressure in front of the warm front, constant pressure within the warm sector, rising pressure behind the cold front
90 What pressure pattern may result from cold-air inflow in high tropospheric layers? (1,00 P.) a) Formation of a low in the upper troposphere b) Formation of a high in the upper troposphere c) Formation of a large ground low d) Alternating pressure
Formation of a low in the upper troposphere
65 What factors are required for the formation of precipitation in clouds? (1,00 P.) a) Freezing temperatures, moderate to strong updrafts b) High humidity and high temperatures c) The presence of an inversion layer d) Calm winds and intensive sunlight insolation
Freezing temperatures, moderate to strong updrafts
75 The aerodrome Friesach/Hirt (LOKH) is located within airspace... See annex (ALW-024) (1,00 P.) See annex 1 a) D. b) E. c) F. d) G.
G
81 What visual flight conditions can be expected after the passage of a cold front? (1,00 P.) a) Good visiblity, formation of cumulus clouds with showers of rain or snow b) Poor visibility, formation of overcast or ground-covering stratus clouds, snow c) Medium visibility with lowering cloud bases, onset of prolonged precipitation d) Scattered cloud layers, visbility more than 5 km, formation of shallow cumulus clouds
Good visiblity, formation of cumulus clouds with showers of rain or snow
114 What phenomenon is caused by cold air downdrafts with precipitation from a fully developed thunderstorm cloud? (1,00 P.) a) Electrical discharge b) Anvil-head top of Cb cloud c) Gust front d) Freezing Rain
Gust front
42 What is a Coriolis illusion? (1,00 P.) a) Wrong interpretation of altitude during approach b) Apparent movement of static objects at night c) False perception of colour due to strong accelerations d) Heavy vertigo due to head movements during turns
Heavy vertigo due to head movements during turns
108 What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground? (1,00 P.) a) Cleared for take-off b) Return to starting point c) Immediately taxi clear of runway in use d) Cleared to taxi
Immediately taxi clear of runway in use
133 With respect to aircraft accident and incident investigation, what are the three categories regarding aircraft occurences? (1,00 P.) a) Incident, Serious incident, Accident b) Happening, Event, Serious event c) Event, Serious event, Accident d) Event, Crash, Desaster
Incident, Serious incident, Accident
52 What danger does standing water on the runway pose to aircraft? (1,00 P.) a) Increased rolling resistance during take-off b) Decreased rolling resistance during take-off c) An increase in lift d) A decrease in lift
Increased rolling resistance during take-off
17 Which processes result in decreasing air density? (1,00 P.) a) Increasing temperature, increasing pressure b) Decreasing temperature, increasing pressure c) Decreasing temperature, decreasing pressure d) Increasing temperature, decreasing pressure
Increasing temperature, decreasing pressure
56 Which statement is correct with regard to the short-term memory? (1,00 P.) a) It can store 5 (±2) items for 1 to 2 minutes b) It can store 10 (±5) items for 30 to 60 seconds c) It can store 3 (±1) items for 5 to 10 seconds d) It can store 7 (±2) items for 10 to 20 seconds
It can store 7 (±2) items for 10 to 20 seconds
40 If you double the airflow speed, how does the parasite drag coefficient change? (1,00 P.) a) It is quadrupled b) It is doubled c) It does not change d) It is octuplicated
It does not change
97 What weather conditions in Central Europe are typically found in high pressure areas? (1,00 P.) a) Large isobar spacing with strong prevailing westerly winds b) Small isobar spacing with strong prevailing northerly winds c) Small isobar spacing with calm winds, formation of local wind systems d) Large isobar spacing with calm winds, formation of local wind systems
Large isobar spacing with calm winds, formation of local wind systems
63 How do lift and drag change when approaching a stall condition? (1,00 P.) a) Lift and drag increase b) Lift and drag decrease c) Lift decreases and drag increases d) Lift increases and drag decreases
Lift decreases and drag increases
84 How do lift and drag change when setting flaps to a lower position? (1,00 P.) a) Lift increases, drag increases b) Lift increases, drag decreases c) Lift decreases, drag increases d) Lift decreases, drag decreases
Lift increases, drag increases
61 What factors may indicate a tendency to fog formation? (1,00 P.) a) Low pressure, increasing temperature b) Strong winds, decreasing temperature c) Low spread, increasing temperature d) Low spread, decreasing temperature
Low spread, decreasing temperature
88 What information is provided in the general part (GEN) of the AIP? (1,00 P.) a) Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees b) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces c) Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces d) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples and validity periods
Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees
82 What is the meaning of the highlighted numbers on the chart? See annex (PFP-016) (1,00 P.) See annex 13 a) Maximum elevation figure: 13.400 ft above mean sea level b) Minimum safe altitude: 13.400 ft above mean sea level c) Minimum off route altitude for flights under instrument flight rules flight level 134 d) Lower limit of controlled airspace 134 ft above ground level
Maximum elevation figure: 13.400 ft above mean sea level
68 What conditions may be expected when flying through stratiform clouds (St)? (1,00 P.) a) Low precipitation, calm air, light turbulence b) Medium precipitation, medium turbulence, icing c) Visibility more than 1.5 km, no turbulence, no icing d) heavy rain, hail, heavy turbulence, heavy icing
Medium precipitation, medium turbulence, icing
52 Which are the minimum weather conditions for a "Special VFR" flight in a control zone? (1,00 P.) a) Minimum visibility in flight 1,5 km, ceiling not below 600 ft b) Minimum visibility in flight 2,5 km, ceiling not below 500 ft c) Minimum visibility in flight 3 km, ceiling not below 500 ft d) Minimum visibility in flight 3 km, ceiling not below 600 ft
Minimum visibility in flight 1,5 km, ceiling not below 600 ft
80 What visual flight conditions can be expected within the warm sector of a polar front low? (1,00 P.) a) Visibilty less than 1000 m, cloud-covered ground b) Good visibility, some isolated high clouds c) Moderate visibility, heavy showers and thunderstorms d) Moderate to good visibility, scattered clouds
Moderate to good visibility, scattered clouds
78 What visual flight conditions can be expected near a cold front? (1,00 P.) a) Visibilty less than 1000 m, cloud-covered ground b) Good visibility, some isolated high clouds c) Moderate visibility, heavy showers and thunderstorms d) Moderate to good visibility, scattered clouds
Moderate visibility, heavy showers and thunderstorms
147 In a co-ordinated turn, how is the relation between the load factor (n) and the stall speed (Vs)? (1,00 P.) a) N is greater than 1, Vs is greater than in straight and level flight. b) N is greater than 1, Vs is smaller than in straight and level flight. c) N is smaller than 1, Vs is smaller than in straight and level flight. d) N is smaller than 1, Vs is greater than in straight and level flight.
N is greater than 1, Vs is greater than in straight and level flight.
93 A Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB) contains a summary of current... (1,00 P.) a) AICs and other information of urgent character. b) NOTAM and other information of urgent character. c) NOTAM and other information of urgent character. d) ICAO Annexes and other information of urgent character.
NOTAM and other information of urgent character.
92 A Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB) is a presentation of current... (1,00 P.) a) AIP information of operational significance prepared prior to flight. b) NOTAM information of operational significance prepared prior to flight. c) AIC information of operational significance prepared after the flight. d) ICAO information of operational significance prepared after the flight.
NOTAM information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.
84 What is the usual direction of movement of a polar front low? (1,00 P.) a) Parallel to the warm front line to the south b) Parallel to the the warm-sector isobars c) To the northeast during winter, to the southeast during summer d) To the northwest during winter, to the southwest during summer
Parallel to the the warm-sector isobars
5 Which two parameters have to be considered in a risk assessment? (1,00 P.) a) Probability of occurrence and own experience b) Level of familiarity and regulations c) Severity of outcome and amount insured d) Probability of occurrence and severity of outcome
Probability of occurrence and severity of outcome
141 During a descent at idle power with constant speed, the propeller lever is moved backwards. How do the propeller pitch and sink rate change? (1,00 P.) a) Propeller pitch is increased, sink rate is decreased b) Propeller pitch is increased, sink rate is increased c) Propeller pitch is decreased, sink rate is decreased d) Propeller pitch is decreased, sink rate is increased
Propeller pitch is increased, sink rate is decreased
122 What information is NOT found on Low-Level Significant Weather Charts (LLSWC)? (1,00 P.) a) Information about icing conditions b) Radar echos of precipitation c) Information about turbulence areas d) Front lines and frontal displacements
Radar echos of precipitation
129 Which meaning does the search and rescue signal "X" have when displayed on the ground? (1,00 P.) a) Indicates the direction to proceed b) Send a doctor c) Need food and water d) Unable to proceed
Send a doctor
86 What pressure pattern can be observed when a cold front is passing? (1,00 P.) a) Continually decreasing pressure b) Constant pressure pattern c) Shortly decreasing, thereafter rapidly increasing pressure d) Continually increasing pressure
Shortly decreasing, thereafter rapidly increasing pressure
44 How do spread and relative humidity change with increasing temperature? (1,00 P.) a) Spread remains constant, relative humidity decreases b) Spread increases, relative humidity decreases c) Spread increases, relative humidity increases d) Spread remains constant, relative humidity increases
Spread increases, relative humidity decreases
79 What cloud sequence can typically be observed during the passage of a cold front? (1,00 P.) a) Squall line with showers of rain and thunderstorms (Cb), gusting wind followed by cumulus clouds with isolated showers of rain b) In coastal areas during daytime wind from the coast and forming of cumulus clouds, dissipation of clouds during evening and night c) Wind becoming calm, dissipation of clouds and warming during summer; formation of extended high fog layers during winter d) Cirrus, thickening altostratus and altocumulus clouds, lowering cloud base with rain, nimbostratus
Squall line with showers of rain and thunderstorms (Cb), gusting wind followed by cumulus clouds with isolated showers of rain
30 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SERA"? (1,00 P.) a) Standardized European Rules of the Air b) Selective Radar Altimeter c) Specialized Radar Approach d) Standard European Routes of the Air
Standardized European Rules of the Air
128 How can flutter at the controls be prevented? (1,00 P.) a) Static rudder balance b) Aerodynamic rudder balance c) Higher speed d) Lower speed
Static rudder balance
119 Which weather chart shows the actual air pressure as in MSL along with pressure centers and fronts? (1,00 P.) a) Surface weather chart b) Prognostic chart c) Hypsometric chart d) Wind chart
Surface weather chart
90 What information is provided in the part "AD" of the AIP?(1,00 P.) a) Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees b) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces. c) Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts d) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples and validity periods
Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts
123 What information can NOT be obtained from a Significant Weather Chart (SWC)? (1,00 P.) a) Temperature at planned flight level b) Height of the tropopause c) Areas with expected icing conditions d) Areas with expected turbulence
Temperature at planned flight level
31 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "TRA"? (1,00 P.) a) Temporary Reserved Area b) Transponder Area c) Temporary Radar Routing Area d) Terminal Area
Temporary Reserved Area
60 What factor may affect the top of cumulus clouds? (1,00 P.) a) Relative humidity b) The spread c) The presence of an inversion layer d) The absolute humidity
The presence of an inversion layer
55 What does the brake coefficient specify? (1,00 P.) a) The proportion between friction force and contact pressing force between two objects b) The proportion between Coriolis force and contact pressing force between two objects c) The proportion between brake force applied and landing distance d) The proportion between brake force applied and landing ground roll
The proportion between friction force and contact pressing force between two objects
33 Which statement about the airflow around an aerofoil is correct if the angle of attack increases? (1,00 P.) a) The stagnation point moves up b) The stagnation point moves down c) The center of pressure moves down d) The center of pressure moves up
The stagnation point moves down.
100 What does the reported runway condition "WET" mean? (1,00 P.) a) The surface of the runway is soaked, but there are no significant patches of standing water b) A large part of the surface is flooded c) Some water patches are visible d) The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow
The surface of the runway is soaked, but there are no significant patches of standing water
36 What is the meaning of an area marked as "TMZ"? (1,00 P.) a) Transponder Mandatory Zone b) Traffic Management Zone c) Touring Motorglider Zone d) Transportation Management Zon
Transponder Mandatory Zone
107 What situation may result in the occurrence of severe wind shear? (1,00 P.) a) Cross-country flying below Cu clouds with about 4 octas coverage b) Flying ahead of a warm front with visible Ci clouds c) When a shower is visible close to the airfield d) During final approach, 30 min after a heavy shower has passed the airfield
When a shower is visible close to the airfield
116 What danger is most imminent during an approach to an airfield situated in a valley, with strong wind aloft blowing perpendicular to the mountain ridge? (1,00 P.) a) Heavy downdrafts within rainfall areas below thunderstorm clouds b) Wind shear during descent, wind direction may change by 180° c) Reduced visibilty, maybe loss of sight to the airfield during final approach d) Formation of medium to heavy clear ice on all aircraft surfaces
Wind shear during descent, wind direction may change by 180°
27 Calculated take-off mass = 1082 kg, calculated CG = 0.254 m, fuel burn = 55 l on station 0.40 m. Where is the CG situated after the landing? (1,00 P.) a) 24.6 cm b) 24.8 cm c) 25.2 cm d) 25.4 cm
b) 24.8 cm (normalde 24.618 cm çıkıyor hesap)
40 Light turbulence always has to be expected... (1,00 P.) a) below cumulus clouds due to thermal convection. b) above cumulus clouds due to thermal convection. c) when entering inversions. d) below stratiform clouds in medium layers.
below cumulus clouds due to thermal convection.
46 The "spread" is defined as... (1,00 P.) a) relation of actual to maximum possible humidity of air. b) difference between actual temperature and dew point. c) difference between dew point and condensation point. d) maximum amount of water vapour that can be contained in air.
difference between actual temperature and dew point.
13 An inversion layer close to the ground can be caused by... (1,00 P.) a) ground cooling during the night. b) thickening of clouds in medium layers. c) large-scale lifting of air. d) intensifying and gusting winds.
ground cooling during the night.
23 The barometric altimeter with QNH setting indicates... (1,00 P.) a) height above standard pressure 1013.25 hPa. b) true altitude above MSL. c) height above the pressure level at airfield elevation. d) height above MSL.
height above MSL.
61 The term "ceiling" is defined as the... (1,00 P.) a) altitude of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft. b) height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft. c) height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 10000 ft. d) height of the base of the highest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.
height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.
36 Winds blowing downhill are defined as... (1,00 P.) a) anabatic winds. b) katabatic winds. c) convergent winds. d) subsident winds.
katabatic winds.
85 The VFR semicircular rules are based on the... (1,00 P.) a) magnetic track. b) true heading. c) magnetic bearing. d) true course.
magnetic track.
29 The position of the the center of pressure at a positively shaped profile... (1,00 P.) a) moves to the leading edge while the angle of attack becomes greater. b) Does not move and it is independent of the angle of attack. c) moves to the leading edge while the angle of attack becomes smaller. d) is located at approximately 25% of the chord, measured from the leading edge.
moves to the leading edge while the angle of attack becomes greater.
28 The position of the the center of pressure at a positively shaped profile... (1,00 P.) a) moves to the trailing edge while the angle of attack becomes smaller. b) does not move since it is independent of the angle of attack. c) moves to the leading edge while the angle of attack becomes smaller. d) is located at approximately 25% of the chord, measured from the leading edge.
moves to the trailing edge while the angle of attack becomes smaller.
94 An Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC) contains information for air navigation, which are... (1,00 P.) a) neither published in the AIP nor as NOTAM, but are considered necessary to be published for domestic air traffic. b) neither published in the AIP nor as NOTAM, but are considered necessary to be published for international air traffic. c) neither published in the AIP nor as NOTAM, but are considered necessary to be published for international air traffic. d) published by AIRAC and as NOTAM, but are considered necessary to be published additionally by AIC for international air traffic.
neither published in the AIP nor as NOTAM, but are considered necessary to be published for international air traffic.
27 Above the friction layer, with a prevailing pressure gradient, the wind direction is... (1,00 P.) a) perpendicular to the isobars. b) perpendicular to the isohypses. c) at an angle of 30° to the isobars towards low pressure. d) parallel to the isobars.
parallel to the isobars.
119 An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is a... (1,00 P.) a) rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the ground. b) fixed beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air. c) rotating beacon installed at the beginning of the final approach to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air. d) rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air.
rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air.
91 Cold air inflow in high tropospheric layers may result in... (1,00 P.) a) showers and thunderstorms. b) stabilisation and calm weather. c) frontal weather. d) calm weather and cloud dissipation.
showers and thunderstorms.
38 "Foehn" conditions usually develop with... (1,00 P.) a) stability, high pressure area with calm wind. b) instability, high pressure area with calm wind. c) instability, widespread air blown against a mountain ridge. d) stability, widespread air blown against a mountain ridge.
stability, widespread air blown against a mountain ridge.
45 The "dew point" is defined as... (1,00 P.) a) temperature below which air has to be cooled to obtain condensation. b) temperature to which air has to be cooled to obtain condensation. c) temperature to which air has to be heated to obtain vaporisation. d) temperature above which air has to be heated to obtain vaporisation.
temperature below which air has to be cooled to obtain condensation.
71 In motorplanes the stall warning is usually activated by a change of... (1,00 P.) a) the center of pressure. b) the center of gravity. c) the stagnation point. d) the transition point.
the stagnation point.
19 The height of the tropopause of the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is at... (1,00 P.) a) 36000 ft. b) 11000 ft. c) 5500 ft. d) 48000 ft.
36000 ft. (veya 11000 m.)
11 The mean temperature lapse rate with increasing height within the troposphere is... (1,00 P.) a) 2° C / 100 m. b) 2° C / 100 ft. c) 1° C / 100 m. d) 0,65° C / 100 m.
0,65° C / 100 m.
52 The saturated adiabatic lapse rate has a mean value of... (1,00 P.) a) 0,65° C / 100 m. b) 1,0° C / 100 m. c) 0,6° C / 100 m. d) 2° C / 1000 ft
0,6° C / 100 m.
78 What is the required fuel to climb from FL 65 to FL 95 under the following conditions? Aircraft mass: 3000 lb. OAT in FL 65: -5° C OAT in FL 95: -15° C See annex (PFP-023) (1,00 P.) See annex 12 a) 1.4 GAL b) 0.8 GAL c) 1.6 GAL d) 1.2 GAL
0.8 GAL
104 What temperatures are most dangerous with respect to aircraft icing? (1,00 P.) a) 0° to -12° C b) +20° to -5° C c) +5° to -10° C d) -20° to -40° C
0° to -12° C (80AGK- most likely -5° to +20° C)
51 The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of... (1,00 P.) a) 0,65° C / 100 m. b) 1,0° C / 100 m. c) 0,6° C / 100 m. d) 2° / 1000 ft
1,0° C / 100 m.
40 What is the minimum height above an industrial site working with inflammables and explosives? (1,00 P.) a) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft b) 500 ft AGL c) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft d) 2000 ft AGL
1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft
84 Which of the following frequencies is designated for VHF voice communication? (1,00 P.) a) 118.75 MHz b) 118.75 kHz c) 327.25 MHz d) 327.25 kHz
118.75 MHz
85 Which of the following frequencies is designated for VHF voice communication? (1,00 P.) a) 108.80 MHz b) 120.50 MHz c) 115.15 MHz d) 117.30 kHz
120.50 MHz
19 Which altitude marks the lower limit where the the body is unable to completely compensate the effects of the low atmospheric pressure? (1,00 P.) a) 7000 feet b) 5000 feet c) 12000 feet d) 22000 feet
12000 feet
