Test 4
Acne is the result of the inflammatory response. In this case, the inflammation is resulting in acne that is very painful (physically and emotionally) for Scott. However, inflammation is a critical component of a normal immune response. What are the main functions of the inflammatory response
-walling off" the site of injury or infection -destroying and eliminating the invading pathogen -repairing tissue damage resulting from inflammation
Chloe's mother wants to have another child. However, she is concerned that a second child might also have CF, so she encourages Chloe's stepfather to be tested. Tests reveal that he does NOT carry the CF gene. What is the chance that a second child born to Chloe's mother and stepfather will have CF?
0% chance of having CF
Infection with ________ produces symptoms similar to RMSF, except for the rash, making it difficult to diagnose
Anaplasma phagocytophilium
What makes neonatal herpes a very serious condition
Central nervous system infection of the neonate
Which of the following statements about rhinoviruses is FALSE
They are the only viruses that can cause a common cold
If ampicillin is the prescribed treatment for listeriosis, why might a physician instead prescribe trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Patients may be allergic to penicillins
How will the prescribed penicillin kill S. pyogenes that is causing Shelly's infection
Penicillin will interfere with peptidoglycan synthesis, ultimately weakening the cell wall and leading to cellular lysis
Which of the following is a family of double-stranded RNA viruses
Reoviridae
Which of the following virus families has a double-stranded RNA genome
Reoviridae
Epidemic typhus, spread by lice, is caused by
Rickettsia prowazekii
Which of the following bacteria causes epidemic typhus
Rickettsia prowazekii
What disease does Paul suspect Ron might have contracted?
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Which of the following is transmitted by ticks in the genus Dermacentor
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Budding release of virus may result in long lasting or persistent infection
True
Campylobacter gastroenteritis is usually caused by ingestion of contaminated poultry
True
Chlamydia trachomatis produces a dormant, resistant stage which is transmitted from one host to another
True
Cholera toxin causes intestinal cells to secrete large amounts of electrolytes, resulting in a very watery diarrhea
True
Human herpesvirus 4 (EBV) has been implicated as an etiological agent in some cases of Hodgkin's lymphoma
True
Lipid A causes disseminated intravenous coagulation (DIC
True
Most viruses cannot be seen by light microscopy
True
Nearly everyone appears to be infected with polyomaviruses BK and JC by the age of 15
True
Neisseria meningitidis is able to survive inside macrophages and be transported throughout the body in them
True
Shiga toxin kills cells by preventing protein synthesis
True
Staphylococcus aureus can produce a toxin that dissolves the desmosomes that hold the adjoining cytoplasmic membranes of cells together and causes the patient's skin cells to separate
True
The first documented human disease to be eradicated by vaccination was smallpox
True
What is the causative pathogen for bubonic and pneumonic plague
Yersinia pestis
How do clinicians primarily screen for tuberculosis in patients
Tuberculin skin test
The disease known as dengue hemorrhagic fever is actually
a hyperimmune response to reinfection with the dengue virus
What vector is implicated in the spread of the disease in this clinical case?
cat flea
Helicobacter pylori resists phagocyte activity due to its production of which of the following
catalase
To diagnose meningitis due to Listeria infection, physicians will first examine a patient's
cerebrospinal fluid
Papillomaviruses are transmitted by (aerosols/direct contact/secretions
direct contact
In contrast with its host cells, a virus may have a (dsDNA/dsRNA/protein) genome.
dsRNA
Which of the following is not a disease generally associated with Neisseria gonorrhoeae
dysentery
Which of the following is a characteristic of all enterics
glucose fermentation
The ________ of a virion determines the type of cell it enters
glycoproteins
What disease does this patient have? What is the common name for this disease?
gonorrhea; " the clap" Submit
The transmission of enteric hepatitis is most effectively prevented by
good public sanitation and personal hygiene
The characteristic lesion for tertiary syphilis is the presence of (gummas/necrosis/granulomas) in bones, in nervous tissue, or on the skin
gummas
The most significant streptococcal pathogens are found in which of the following Lancefield groups
groups A and B
Which of the following medications is/are specific treatments for infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis
isoniazid
Transmission of the causative agent of syphilis across the placenta often causes birth defects, such as mental retardation and organ malformation, if the woman is in which phase
latent
Which of the following is a zoonosis caused by a spirochete
leptospirosis
What virulence factor(s) do all Gram-negative bacteria share
lipid A
Listeria virulence is directly related to its ability to
live within cells and thus avoid exposure to the immune system of its host
Which of the following is a key diagnostic indicator of infection with Mycobacterium leprae
localized loss of the sense of touch
Which of the following cell types is NOT infected by HIV
lung cells
Oncogenic retroviruses HTLV-1 and 2 infect (liver/lymphocyte/nerve) cells
lymphocyte
Which of the following events may occur in a lysogenic infection but NOT a proviral infection
induction
Antimicrobial drugs against Clostridium botulinum are most effective in which of the following types of botulism?
infant botulism
Rickettsiosis is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii, a pathogen that
infects the lining of blood vessels and leads to leaking of plasma into tissue.
Chlamydia PID is just part of the overall spectrum of disease caused by Chlamydia organisms. Even though we now understand more about STIs and their complications, we are still exploring how the organisms "branch out" beyond just a single infection. Which of the following diseases have Chlamydia infection as an etiology? Select all diseases associated with Chlamydia.
infertility trachoma inclusion conjunctivitis cervical cancer lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) pneumonia
The reservoir for Orientia tsutsugamushi is (humans/mites/rodents
mites
Infection with Corynebacterium diphtheriae leads to the formation of (eschars/pseudomembranes/tubercles) which can severely impair respiratory function
pseudomembranes
Analysis of the second swab has confirmed that the causative organism is Streptococcus pyogenes, a gram-positive organism. Imagine that you are the technician looking at the Gram stain from Shelly's culture. What would you expect to see as you look through the microscope
purple, spherical-shaped organisms arranged in chainlike formations
Which of the following is the final stage in the development of smallpox lesions
pustules
When a UTI spreads to the kidneys it is called (cystitis/pyelonephritis/urethritis
pyelonephritis
The pattern of fever shown in the figure is most commonly seen with
relapsing fever
What is the recommended course of therapy?
oral fluids
Patients with AIDS are most likely to exhibit which of the following manifestations of EBV disease
oral hairy leukoplakia
Nine (orders/families/classes) represent the highest level of taxonomic rank used in classifying viruses
orders
A disease of birds that can be transmitted to humans is (campylobacteriosis/Lyme/ornithosis
ornithosis
The development of the poxvirus skin lesions develop in a characteristic order that allows for easy diagnosis of the disease. Choose the option that contains the stages in the correct order
macule, papule, vesicle, pustule
What is the host range for rabies
mammals
Which of the following diseases can be prevented by vaccination
typhoid fever
Reverse transcriptase is found in the virions of some (DNA/-ssRNA/+ssRNA) viruses
+ssRNA
The genome of which of the following types of animal virus can act directly as mRNA
+ssRNA viruses
Which of the following statements regarding antigenic shift are true?
-Antigenic shift results in a major change in the genetic composition of the virus. -Little immunity to virus strains resulting from antigenic shift exists in the population. -Viral strains resulting from antigenic shift contain RNA segments from different species.
Which of the following types of animal virus requires RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase to be replicated
-ssRNA viruses
Human herpesvirus (1/2/3/4) is usually associated with lesions on the genitalia
2
It is estimated that _____ of the world's population may be infected with tuberculosis
33%
Based on the clinical signs and symptoms of this patient, what would you predict his CD4 helper T cell count to be
<200/μl<200/μl of blood
Drag and drop the appropriate label to the indicated area.
A - bacteria lawn B - zone of inhibition C - antibiotic disk
Rickettsia rickettsii is a gram-negative, obligate intracellular pathogen. Which of the following statements about the R. rickettsii life cycle is FALSE?
After entering a host, R. rickettsii multiplies to levels high enough to successfully invade cells and establish an infection.
What is the best way to prevent the spread of this infection
All food handlers are required to wash their hands thoroughly after using the restroom
Where does human herpesvirus 4 (EBV) become latent
B lymphocytes
Which of the following cells is NOT infected by HIV
B lymphocytes
Which of the following viruses is responsible for erythema infectiosum
B19 virus
In countries where tuberculosis is common, people are vaccinated with (BCG/INH/MDR-TB), which contains attenuated Mycobacterium bovis bacteria
BCG
What is the name of the vaccine given to prevent TB in countries where it is endemic
BCG vaccine
The virus known as ________ primarily infects lymphocytes
BK virus
Cat scratch disease is caused by
Bartonella henselae
Children are most at risk for infections caused by which of the following
Bartonella henselae
Who do you think would be more likely NOT to recognize the symptoms of gonorrhea: a man or a woman? Why
Because of her particular anatomy, the normal discharge associated with the female reproductive tract, plus the fact that more women are asymptomatic for gonorrhea, a woman would be less likely to recognize the symptoms as being gonorrhea and seek treatment
Why are doxycycline and rifampin ideal agents for treating intracellular pathogens such as Brucella and Mycobacteria?
Both agents provide for good penetration of body tissues and reach therapeutic levels.
What characteristic does Vibrio share with Salmonella
Both have O polysaccharide antigens
Acute inflammation is a complex process with many events occurring simultaneously. Nonetheless, certain events must take place before others can begin. List the following items in the order in which they begin in the process of acute inflammation
Bradykinins Vasodilation and vascular permeability Diapedesis Phagocyte chemotaxis Edema
Which of the following is an intracellular parasite of humans that usually causes a mild pneumonia
Chlamydophila pneumoniae
Ornithosis, caused by ________, is usually a pneumonia-like disease but can sometimes lead to hepatitis or endocarditis
Chlamydophila psittaci
What organism causes thrush?
Candida albicans
Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by prions
Chagas' disease
Why did his sexual partners believe they were not infected with a STD?
Clinical signs/symptoms in females are often not detectable, especially early in the infection.
Which of the following bacteria produce one of the deadliest bacterial toxins known
Clostridium botulinum
Which of the following bacteria can cause life-threatening pseudomembranous colitis
Clostridium difficile
Painful swelling, partly due to accumulation of gas, and rapidly spreading subcutaneous tissue necrosis is characteristic of a wound infection by
Clostridium perfringens
How are patients typically infected with listeriosis
Contaminated food or drink
How do coronaviruses differ from togaviruses
Coronaviruses have helical capsids
Why were corticosteroids contraindicated in this case
Corticosteroids are immunosuppressive
Which of the following bacteria divide by "snapping division" in which daughter cells remain attached in characteristic V-shapes
Corynebacterium
The spread of hepatitis D is preventable by the hepatitis D vaccine
False
Vibrio vulnificus causes septicemia that is self-limiting and rarely fatal
False
Viruses cause most human cancers
False
What are the complete hepatitis B virions called
Dane particles
How did this man most likely become exposed to this disease agent?
He was likely to have been exposed while hunting elk in Colorado during his childhood.
Is this disease contagious?
No
Why is it important to get a new flu vaccine every year
Every season, the hemagglutinin and neuraminidase proteins on the viral envelope of influenza are subject to slight changes by mutation, allowing evasion of the immune system
Members of the genus (Bacillus/Enterococcus/Mycobacterium) are part of the normal microbiota of humans
Enterococcus
Which of the following events might trigger induction of a temperate bacteriophage
Exposure to UV light
The name Propionibacterium is derived from the fact that the organism produces propionic acid during fermentative metabolism. Which of the following statements about fermentative metabolism is true?
Fermentation produces significantly less ATP than aerobic respiration; however it generates NAD+, which can be used in glycolysis
__________ are the primary means by which Neisseria gonorrhoeae attaches to the mucous membranes of the reproductive tract
Fimbriae
Acute inflammation is a complex process with many events occurring simultaneously. Nonetheless, certain events must take place before others can begin. List the following items in the order in which they begin in the process of acute inflammation.
First to Last- Bradykinins Vasodialation and vascular permeability Diapedesis Phagocyte chemotaxis Edema
Mycoplasma is classified as a member of the Firmicutes in spite of the observation that it stains (acid-fast/Gram-positive/Gram-negative
Gram-negative
Classify the infectious agent based on the Gram staining
Gram-positive cocci
How did this patient most likely acquire the HIV infection?
HIV was transmitted to this patient through IV drug use in the "shooting gallery."
Infection with (EBV/HHV-8/HPV) may result in cancer of the oropharynx
HPV
Human herpesvirus 4 (EBV) is implicated in which of the following diseases
Hodgkin's lymphoma, chronic fatigue syndrome, and oral hairy leukoplakia
Infection by all influenza strains can be prevented with vaccines
false
Which of the following lists stages of a lytic replication cycle in order, from earliest to latest stages? I. Synthesis II. Assembly III. Attachment IV. Release V. Entry
III, V, I, II, IV
What was the best treatment for this patient once he went to the ER
IV fluids, sedation, and respiratory support
What is the recommended course of treatment when a rabid animal bites a person
Immediately wash the wound with soap and water, inject the bite area with rabies immunoglobulin, and begin a series of four rabies vaccine injections
What conditions may trigger reactivation of latent herpesvirus infections
Immune suppression or hormonal changes can both trigger reactivation
Why should children and teenagers never be given aspirin to treat the fever and aches of influenza
Infection with influenza and treatment with aspirin are associated with the development of Reyes syndrome
What is the role of neuraminidase during infection of the host
It hydrolyzes mucus
Which of the following statements describes a generalist virus
It infects many kinds of cells in many different hosts
The physical symptoms of cholera present only after a specific series of events has taken place. What is the most likely sequence of events in the pathogenesis of V. cholerae? Place the following statements in the order that best reflects the chronology of events during V. cholerae infection.
LEFT TO RIGHT V. cholerae is ingested via contaminated water V. cholerae survives passage through the stomach and enters the intestines V. cholerae attaches via pili V. cholerae release cholera toxinThe host intestinal cells are destroyed, resulting in a profuse watery diarrhea V. cholerae exits the host via the feces
Streptococci are frequently classified by
Lancefield antigen designations
The pleomorphic bacterium (Coxiella/Legionella/Francisella) is an intracellular parasite that can lead to respiratory disease when inhaled in aerosols from freshwater sources
Legionella
Which of the following is the result of inhalation of aerosols of fresh water containing a bacterial parasite of protozoa
Legionnaires' disease
Which of the following media is used to isolate Gram-negative organisms
MacConkey's agar plate
Red mites (chiggers) spread ________ among both humans and rodents
Orientia tsutsugamushi
The intracellular parasite Anaplasma phagocytophilium infects
neutrophils
During a lytic replication cycle, what action does a phage take to ensure that its host bacterium does NOT continue synthesizing cellular molecules
Phage enzymes degrade the bacterial DNA
Which of the following RNA virus families include the smallest viral pathogens in animals
Picornaviridae
Viruses with -ssRNA require the activity of (DNA polymerase/reverse transcriptase/RNA-dependent RNA polymerase) for their replication
RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
A patient comes to his primary care provider very ill with an infection. The primary care provider would be most likely to suspect HIV/AIDS if the patient was diagnosed with which of the following infections
Pneumocystis pneumonia
The first virus to be vaccine preventable is a member of the ________ family
Poxviridae
Which of the follow produces a rash that leaves permanent scars on the skin
Poxviridae
Prions are composed of a single protein called (plaque/BSE/PrP
PrP
How do Prevotella differ from Bacteroides
Prevotella are sensitive to bile
How could this disease be prevented
Receive a vaccination
Disease research and epidemiology bring together many different facets to help us better understand disease pathology and spread. Which of the following statements are true?
Some pathogens are able to cause disease within a host without penetrating the body. The interactions that occur between a microbe and host influence the evolution of both. Bacterial exotoxins can be altered to create toxoids, which can be used to produce protective immunity in a host.
Which of the following components of the immune system would likely be involved in the regression of a wart
T cells
Where does the name "scrapie" come from
The prion disorder causes infected sheep to scrape against objects until their skin is raw
As Lauren continues observing the bacteriophage (or phage), she takes the time to record her observations in her lab notebook. This phage looks different than other viruses she has worked with previously. It doesn't have a helical capsid, or an envelope! Lauren pulls out her reference textbook and starts to draw the various components that she can see. Luckily, her book also gives her further information about each piece of the phage and how it functions. Please drag the appropriate label to the figure. Some labels may not be used!
Target A - Capsid Target B - Tail Sheath Target C - Tail Fibers Target D - Baseplate with pins
What part of the nervous system is most affected by fatal familial insomnia
Thalamus
How are HIV virions rendered virulent
The action of protease releases reverse transcriptase and capsomeres after the virion buds from the cell.
Which of the following may result from lysogenic infection
The bacterium becomes resistant to infection and becomes pathogenic
How is the lytic cycle different from the lysogenic cycle with respect to the infected host cell
The host cell dies during the lytic stage
Why are the beta-pleated multimers of PrP potentially pathogenic
The multimers are more stable and resistant to protease
What effect will the penicillin have on Shelly's cells
The penicillin will not have any impact on Shelly's cells because it targets peptidoglycan, which is found only in bacteria
Which of the following is NOT a way in which viruses differ from all other living organisms
They live inside host cells
What does the term "arbovirus" mean?
The virus is vectored by arthropods
What would be the fate of a lytic bacteriophage if the host cell died prior to the assembly stage
The virus would not be able to infect new hosts
Which of the following statements regarding Neisseria meningitidis is FALSE
There are vaccines available to prevent infection with all strains
Based on the concept map, which of the following must happen during Lyme disease
There is an adaptive immune response
Even though Escherichia coli can cause, on occasion, severe human disease, there is no vaccine developed for it. Why do you think this is
There is no vaccine developed for Escherichia coli because it is an advantageous part of our normal intestinal flora
Which of the following is TRUE of spirochetes
They are able to penetrate a host's tissues.
What is unique about the Hepadnaviridae family of viruses
They contain both single-stranded DNA and double-stranded DNA
How do group A streptococci camouflage themselves from white blood cells
They have hyaluronic acid capsules
How was this disease transmitted?
This is most commonly transmitted by unprotected sex.
The STD characterized by three distinctly different symptomatic stages is the result of infection with
Treponema pallidum pallidum
A positive urease test in cultures from gastric samples provides preliminary identification of Helicobacter pylori
True
Which of the following statements regarding the association of hepatitis B with liver cancer is FALSE
Vaccination does not provide protection against the development of hepatic cancer
Which of the following conditions in humans is linked to bovine spongiform encephalopathy
Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
TE is an effective antibiotic for this infection
false
Rodents are the normal hosts for which of the following encephalitis viruses
Venezuelan equine encephalitis (VEE
Which of the following are properties of exotoxins?
Very small amounts of exotoxin can be lethal. Exotoxins target specific cellular structures or molecules. Exotoxins are protein molecules.
A gastroenteritis which usually resolves in 72 hours is contracted from eating shellfish contaminated with
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Which of the following levels of classification for viruses ends with -viridae
family
Is it possible for Rudy's warts to spread to other areas of his body
Yes. Papillomaviruses are spread by direct contact
Is Grandfather Davis contagious
Yes. The twins would probably develop chicken pox 2 weeks after their visit with Grandfather Davis
What is the mode of action for zanamivir
Zanamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor
The arthropod-borne (dengue/Rubeola/Zika) virus can cause serious congenital defects if infection occurs during pregnancy
Zika
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the rickettsias
absence of peptidoglycan
Children infected with (adenovirus/EBV/HHV-6) may have diarrhea
adenovirus
A member of the ________ has been implicated as having a role in obesity
adenoviruses
Infection of the respiratory system by ________ may develop into symptoms of a common cold
adenoviruses
The human T-lymphotropic virus 1 causes
adult acute T-cell lymphocytic leukemia.
Pneumonia caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae often involves the destruction of (alveoli/macrophages/epithelium) and the production of bloody sputum
alveoli
Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in men is
an acute painful infection with pus discharge
Pinkeye can be the result of infection with
an adenovirus
Which of the following characteristics distinguishes coronaviruses from rhinoviruses
an envelope is present
Transovarian transmission is a process in which
an infected female vector transmits the pathogen to the eggs forming in its ovaries.
Which of the following diseases is considered an emerging disease because it was unknown before 1987
anaplasmosis
Lysogeny is associated with all of the following EXCEPT __________
animal viruses
Which of the following might be affected in the presence of EBV infection?
antibody production
The most important preventive measure against rhinovirus infection is which of the following
antisepsis
Which of the following is the final event in only some Salmonella infections
bacteremia
The (body louse/cat flea/dog tick) is the primary vector of epidemic typhus
body louse
Which of the following are virulence factors contributing the pathogenicity of Neisseria species
both a capsule and fimbriae
Treatment of infection with Clostridium tetani includes cleaning the wound, antimicrobials and
both active and passive immunization
Which of the following poxviruses are zoonoses
both cowpox and monkeypox
Which of the following viruses are oncogenic
both human herpesvirus 4 and papillomavirus
Which of the following is an essential component of all viruses
capsid
Shingles, or herpes zoster, is caused by the virus that also causes
chickenpox
Primary atypical pneumonia is probably the most common form of pneumonia in which of the following groups
children 5-15 years old
Which of the following microorganisms have been referred to as energy parasites
chlamydias
The taxonomy of viruses includes all the following hierarchies EXCEPT
class
Antigenic shift of influenza viruses involves (co-infection/hybridization/reverse transcription).
co-infection
Bordetella pertussis produces (adenylate cyclase/dermonecrotic/pertussis) toxin which disrupts blood supply to respiratory tissues
dermonecrotic
Plaque assays are used for
determining the density of phage in a culture.
The bacterium Clostridium (botulinum/difficile/perfringens) is an opportunistic pathogen that can cause a severe, potentially fatal diarrhea
difficile
Lysozyme is important for which of the following stages of lytic replication in bacteriophage T4
entry and release
The enzyme lysozyme is critical for which of the stages of a bacteriophage T4 infection cycle
entry and release
Which of the following staphylococcal virulence factors produce the signs and symptoms of scalded skin syndrome
exfoliative toxin
Lipid A causes which of the following symptoms
fever and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
The common name for the disease caused by human parvovirus B19 is
fifth disease
Ebola hemorrhagic fever is caused by which type of virus
filovirus
The neurotoxins of Clostridium botulinum produce (flaccid/intermittent/tetanic) paralysis by preventing muscle contraction
flaccid
Virulence factors associated with this organism include all of the following, EXCEPT __________.
flagella
Which of the following is NOT a virulence factor associated with Francisella tularensis?
flagella
The West Nile virus is classified as a(n
flavivirus
Legionnaires' disease can be diagnosed by
fluorescent antibody tests.
Which of the following is not typically associated with anaplasmosis
formation of reticulate bodies once inside a host
Viruses that infect ________ have no known extracellular state
fungi
Pneumocystis pneumonia is caused by an opportunistic __________.
fungus
Which of the following is a vaccine-preventable disease
genital warts
What is the recommended medication for treatment of this disease
gentamicin
Which viral component is responsible for inducing a host cell to take in an influenza virus by endocytosis
hemagglutinin
Ebola and Marburg viruses are emerging pathogens that cause life-threatening (encephalitis/diarrhea/hemorrhaging) fever, and can be transmitted in body fluids
hemorrhaging
Cat scratch disease is caused by Bartonella (bacilliformis/henselae/quintana
henselae
How would you know if you were "eaten alive" by chiggers?
intense itching, especially of the feet and legs
Host specificity of a virus is due to
interactions between viral and cellular surface molecules.
Bordetella pertussis causes disease by
interfering with the action of the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea
Members of the genus Mycoplasma are pleomorphic and stain Gram-negative because they
lack cell walls
Coliforms are distinguished from non-coliforms by their ability to ferment (glucose/citrate/lactose
lactose
Which of the following symptoms is LEAST characteristic of Clostridium perfringens food poisoning
moderate vomiting and fever
The poxvirus (Molluscipoxvirus/monkeypox/variola) is a zoonosis
monkeypox
What type of cell does Ehrlichia chaffeensis infect in humans
monocytes
Which of the following cells are a major reservoir for and distributor of HIV
monocytes and macrophages
Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED
non-pathogenic Enterobacteriaceae; Salmonella, Shigella
What causes warts
papillomavirus
An RNA that can be used by a ribosome to translate into protein is (double/positive/negative) strand RNA
positive
Which of the following is a feature shared by viruses and living organisms
possession of a genome that directs synthesis of materials necessary for replication
Polioviruses are present in body tissues in all of the following except __________
postpolio syndrome
The symptoms that Shelly is experiencing result from the interactions between Streptococus pyogenes (a prokaryote) and the cells (eukaryotes) within Shelly's body. Although there are similarities between these two types of cells, there are also important differences. Drag each of the structures to the appropriate bin to indicate whether it is found in prokaryotes only, in eukaryotes only, or in both.
prokaryote only -capsule eukaryote only -golgi complex -Rough endoplasmic reticulum -mitochondria -nucleus Both -flagella -plasma membrane -ribosomes-cytoplasm
Which of the following is an effective way to prevent many staphylococcal infections
proper cleansing of wounds
A(n) ________ is a bacterial virus which is integrated into the host cell DNA
prophage
Which of the following components of HIV functions after release of the virion from the infected cell
protease
The cell death observed in Corynebacterium diphtheriae infections results from interference with which of the following eukaryotic cellular processes
protein synthesis
Which of the following is an amplifying host of Yersinia pestis
rabbit
What disease is transmitted from bats to humans and produces the signs/symptoms displayed by this patient
rabies
The actively replicating form of chlamydias are known as
reticulate bodies
Reverse transcriptase is associated with which of the following
retroviruses
Replication of the hepadnaviridae genome requires (RNA polymerase/reverse transcriptase
reverse transcriptase
Which of the following enzymes allows retroviruses to transcribe DNA from ssRNA
reverse transcriptase
The clinical term for "runny nose" is (reovir/rhinorrhea/rhinovirus).
rhinorrhea
The mumps virus infects ________ cells.
salivary gland
An older adult is complaining of an intensely painful rash that has appeared as a patch on one side of his chest. This description is consistent with
shingles
Which of the following is a feature shared by Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis
slime layer (capsule
What viral disease has been successfully eradicated
smallpox
A strain of Staphylococcus aureus that loses the ability to produce staphylokinase will be unable to do which of the following
spread to new locations in the body
Which food is the most likely source of the infection
sprouts
All of the following are absent from mycoplasmas except __________
sterols
Once entry into the bacterial cell has been achieved, the next step in a lytic replication cycle is _____
synthesis
What part of the United States is endemic for RMSF?
the Appalachian region (North Carolina, Kentucky)
Why is lysogeny advantageous to a bacteriophage
the genetic material of the bacteriophage is amplified many times over that seen in a lytic phage.
The severity of polyomavirus infections is related to which of the following
the immune status of the host
Conventional genetic analyses of rRNA gene sequences is not possible for prions because __________
they do not contain nucleic acids
Disadvantages of continuous cell cultures include
they may be significantly different genetically from the original source animal.
A patient exhibiting arthritis secondary to Lyme disease is likely in which phase of the infection
third
Haemophilus ducreyi is transmitted by sexual contact
true
The zoonosis (brucellosis/bartonellosis/tularemia) can be acquired by humans in a variety of ways, including insect bites and ingestion of infected animals
tularemia
What disease is afflicting Jacob?
tularemia
A ________ is a mass of neoplastic cells
tumor
What was the most likely choice for the second antibiotic this patient received
vancomycin
Which virus is responsible for Grandfather Davis's shingles
varicella-zoster virus
A "summer cold" that lasts for weeks and is characterized by sore throat, mild fever, dry cough, and malaise may be (pneumococcal/staphylococcal/walking) pneumonia
walking
Fever, jaundice, and hemorrhaging which often results in "black vomit" are characteristics of
yellow fever
What disease does Duyen have? Assume that the desease is caused by DNA virus
hepatitis B
Deltavirus (hepatitis D virus) requires co-infection with ________ to produce infectious virions
hepatitis B virus
Which of the following is the only DNA virus known to can cause viral hepatitis
hepatitis B virus
The deadliest infectious disease in the U.S. is (hepatitis B/ hepatitis C/HIV
hepatitis C
Which of the following is not caused by an arbovirus
hepatitis C
Which of the following viruses can establish a chronic infection of the liver which may progress to liver cancer
hepatitis C
The devastating 1918 influenza pandemic killed an estimated 50 million people during the 1918-19 flu season. Unusually, young people between the ages of 15-24 were greatly impacted. It is believed that a robust immune response to this particular virus caused its virulence. Which of the following immune responses is likely to have caused these devastating consequences
high cytokine concentrations
Which of the following vaccines can be administered after exposure to the infectious agent
human diploid cell vaccine
Which of the following is not an expected transmission pattern of Yersinia pestis
humans - fleas - humans
The ability to produce (hyaluronidase/lipase/proteases) enables Staphylococcus aureus to penetrate and spread through tissues
hyaluronidase
Salmonella and Shigella, both causes of diarrhea, can be distinguished by which of the following tests
hydrogen sulfide (H2S) production
The MMR vaccine can prevent all of the following complications except __________
hydrophobia
What diagnostic test could be used to verify the diagnosis?
immunofluorescent antibody stain of a blood smear from this patient
Jonas Salk developed a(n) (attenuated/inactivated/subunit) polio vaccine in 1955
inactivated
Label the neuromuscular junction and indicate where the botulism toxin acts
infant botulism
How is pneumonic plague transmitted
inhalation of respiratory aerosols from a person infected with Yersinia pestis
The signs and symptoms of infection with Helicobacter pylori are the result of
invasion by H. pylori into the mucosa of the stomach
The sexually transmitted invasive form of chlamydia
is caused by the LGV strain of Chlamydia trachomatis
The envelope found in some virus particles differs from the cytoplasmic membrane of cells in that __________
it does not perform the physiological functions carried out by the cytoplasmic membrane
Treponema pallidum is transmitted almost solely by sexual contact because __________
it is extremely fastidious and sensitive to environmental factors
The most important virulence factor of Vibrio cholerae is
its ability to produce a potent exotoxin
What is the medical term for yellow discoloration of the sclera and mucous membranes
jaundice
The polyomavirus known as BK may establish latent infection of
kidney cells
Naked capsid animal viruses are commonly released from the infected cell by ________, a process the host cell does not survive
lysis
During the lysogenic cycle, it is possible for integrated phage genes to change the characteristics of the host cell. This is known as _____
lysogenic conversion
Tumors invade other organs and tissues in a process called
metastasis
What is the antimicrobial agent of choice for treating Bacteroides infections
metronidazole
The dengue viruses are spread by (fleas/mosquitoes/ticks
mosquitoes
Which of the following is the least likely transmission route for HIV infection
mouth-to-mouth kissing
The genome of influenza virus is
multiple pieces of linear ssRNA
Which of the following are symptoms of influenza infection
muscle pain headache fever
Which of the following streptococcal infections is usually fatal
necrotizing fasciitis
Reverse transcriptase synthesizes which of the following first from the genome of a retrovirus
negative single-stranded DNA
Streptococcus agalactiae is associated with which of the following diseases
neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pneumonia
Uncontrolled cell division in animals is known as (metastasis/neoplasia/cancer
neoplasia
Continuous cell cultures are developed from (embryonic/haploid/neoplastic) cells
neoplastic
Simplexviruses can establish latent infections of ________ cells
nerve
Newborns exposed to Neisseria gonorrhoeae may develop
ophthalmia neonatorum
Echoviruses are now known to cause viral meningitis and some colds. This means they are no longer classified as which of the following
orphan viruses
What biochemical test is used to distinguish between the Enterobacteriaceae and the Pasteurellaceae
oxidase test
A distinctive feature of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) rash is that is appears on the (limbs/face/palms) as well as the trunk
palms
The cauliflower-like growths on the genitalia called condylomata acuminata are caused by (herpesviruses/papillomaviruses/parvoviruses
papillomaviruses
Which of the following lesions is a hard, raised sore
papule
The major sign of pertussis occurs during which of the following phases of the disease
paroxysmal phase
The disease caused by B19 virus, a (papillomavirus/parvovirus/polyomavirus), is known as fifth disease and produces a distinctive rash
parvovirus
Undiagnosed or untreated infections with Neisseria gonorrhoeae can progress to
pelvic inflammatory disease (PID
Bacterial food poisoning resulting from Clostridium (botulinum/difficile/perfringens) contamination is characterized by watery diarrhea accompanied by intestinal cramping but not fever, and it resolves in about a day
perfringens
Prevotella is involved in almost all cases of which of the following
periodontal infections
Both Ehrlichia chaffeensis and Chlamydiae trachomatis reproduce in the (cytosol/nucleus/phagosome) of their hosts
phagosome
A wart on the bottom of the foot is known as a (flat/plantar/seed) wart
plantar
Viroids infect
plants
A (colony/plaque/prophage) is a clear zone on a bacterial lawn where cells have been killed by the activity of a bacteriophage
plaque
Of the three diseases caused by Yersinia pestis, only (bubonic/black/pneumonic) plague is communicable between humans
pneumonic
Which vaccine-preventable disease caused by an RNA virus has been nearly eradicated
polio
Painful, blister-like lesions that progressively become filled with pus suggest infection with a (herpesvirus/poxvirus/papillomavirus
poxvirus
Enteric hepatitis is fatal for 20% of people in which of the following groups
pregnant women
Which reason is LEAST likely to contribute to the transmission of Adenovirus
presence of a vector
Characteristic features of the herpesvirus used for diagnosis include the
presence of recurring lesions in the lip or genital regions and syncytia in infected tissue
The pathogenicity of primary tuberculosis is due to the fact that the mycobacteria
prevent fusion of lysosomes with vesicles
What is the most likely etiology (cause) of this disease?
prion
Genes that play a role in proper cell division but may also play a role in some types of cancer are called (oncogenes/proto-oncogenes/promoters
proto-oncogenes
Which of the following is associated with the attachment of a bacteriophage to a bacterial cell
random collisions, chemical attractions, and receptor specificity
Which of the following is a reservoir for the natural endemic cycle of Yersinia pestis?
rat
Of the following food products, which one was the most likely the source of Mr. Williams's infection?
raw milk
One of the primary reasons the disease is able to evade the body's immunity is that it __________
resists digestion by phagocytes
Which of the following diseases is considered an autoimmune disease triggered by bacterial infection
rheumatic fever
The zoonosis known as RMSF is the result of infection with Rickettsia (prowazekii/rickettsii/typhi)
rickettsii
A childhood illness caused by a herpesvirus and characterized by a "rosy" rash all over the body is known as
roseola
Infection with (astrovirus/norovirus/rotavirus) is the most common cause of diarrhea in children worldwide
rotavirus
Which of the following viruses is considered a childhood disease, and is known to cause "three-day measles
rubella
Strep throat may progress to ________, characterized by a skin rash and a bright red swollen tongue
scarlet fever
Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis may progress to
scarlet fever or rheumatic fever
Infection with the intracellular parasite Orientia tsutsuganushi can result in
scrub typhus
In approximately 10% of patients tubercles rupture and reactivate infection. This is known as _____ tuberculosis
secondary
How Brucella establishes infection within a host Arrange the following statements in chronological order.
see picture
The HIV virion is best described as a(n
segmented RNA genome in an irregular polyhedron capsid with envelope
Which of the following is NOT typical of cholera
septicemia
Which of the following pathogenic characteristics would best allow Brucella organisms to produce a chronic infection in a host?
sequestering of organism within the endoplasmic reticulum Submit
Individuals who have been infected by varicella-zoster virus may develop (Kaposi's sarcoma/shingles/whitlows) later in life if they experience severe stress or immune suppression
shingles
Which of the following best describes Barbara's condition
shingles caused by the herpes zoster virus
What type of genome is found in influenza viruses
single stranded RNA
Mycobacterium leprae infects (epithelial/macrophage/skin) cells
skin
Viruses can be grown in all of the following EXCEPT __________
sterile nutrient agar
All of the following methods of food storage or preparation except which of the following can help prevent foodborne botulism
storing canned foods at room temperature
The CDC recommends immunization against all of the following meningococcal strains except __________
strain B
The stage of virus infection called (assembly/entry/synthesis) is the stage most dependent on host cell proteins
synthesis
Another term for a lysogenic phage is a (temperate/latent/prophage) phage
temperate
A patient has syphilitic gummas; which stage of syphilis does she have
tertiary
Syphilis is often called "the great imitator" because its signs and symptoms mimic many other diseases. Which stage of syphilis would cause the most confusing symptoms and why
tertiary syphilis
Which of the following stages of syphilis is almost never seen in developed countries
tertiary syphilis
Which of the following is NOT a virulence factor for Helicobacter pylori
the ability of H. pylori to enter cells for protection
In a lytic cycle of replication, release of phages involves _____
the bacterial cell bursting open
The two types of relapsing fever are differentiated by which of the following characteristics
the biological vector involved
Anthrax, which means "charcoal" in Greek, derives its name from
the black eschars it produces on human skin
Petechiae directly result when Neisseria meningitidis invades which of the following
the bloodstream
Which of the following is primarily responsible for the shape of a virion
the capsid
Which of the following membranes can give rise to a viral envelope
the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes and the endoplasmic reticulum
A major difference between the lytic and lysogenic cycles of phage replication is that during the lysogenic phase _____
the phage genome inserts itself into the host genome
Which of the following is diagnostic for Neisseria meningitidis
the presence of Gram-negative diplococci in CSF phagocytes
What differentiates virulent strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae from non-virulent strains
the presence of a polysaccharide capsule
Arenaviruses are different from most other viruses due to which of the following
the presence of ribosomes
The major damage caused by Neisseria meningitidis is a result of
the release of lipid A into the tissues, triggering severe inflammation and DIC
Smallpox (Orthopoxvirus variola) is the first human disease considered to be globally eradicated. All of the following factors played a huge role in its eradication EXCEPT for __________
the removal of animal reservoirs in nature
Diagnosis of Chlamydophila psittaci infection must be confirmed by serological testing because __________
the symptoms mimic those of other respiratory infections
Among the areas of the female genital tract, which of the following is NOT colonized by Neisseria gonorrhoeae
the vagina
People can reduce the chances of contracting rabbit fever by avoiding rabbits, muskrats, and (fleas/lice/ticks
ticks
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) is spread by
ticks
A rash that starts on the (face/hands/torso) and spreads to the rest of the body is characteristic of chickenpox
torso
The use of super-absorbent tampons has been implicated in which of the following staphylococcal diseases
toxic shock syndrome
Surgery can be an appropriate treatment for infections of which of the following
trachoma strains of Chlamydia trachomatis
Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of human body lice?
trench fever
Hepatitis A does not cause chronic liver disease, and complete recovery occurs 99% of the time
true
Norovirus is the leading cause of viral gastroenteritis in the United States
true
Protozoa are susceptible to viral attack
true
The practice of screening blood, blood products, and organ transplants for HIV has virtually eliminated the risk of HIV infection from these sources
true
The respiratory infection known as primary atypical pneumonia is caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae
true
An immune response against a species of enteric bacteria might be directed against all of the following except__________
type III secretion system proteins
Which of the following is a characteristic by which viruses are classified
type of nucleic acid
Humans infected with Brucella species develop ________ characterized by fever, chills, sweating, muscle aches, and headache
undulant fever
The natural means by which filoviruses infect humans is _____
unknown
Helicobacter pylori produces (cytotoxin/hyaluronidase/urease), a unique virulence factor important to colonizing the digestive system
urease
Leptospira interrogans exits the body in (feces/aerosols/urine)
urine
Which of the following viruses has the greatest potential to be used as a biological weapon
variola virus
Arboviruses are transmitted by the (contact/enteric/vector) route
vector
Which of the following streptococci is associated with dental caries
viridans streptococci
The extracellular state of a virus is a (capsid/nucleocapsid/virion
virion
Small circular RNAs called ________ are plant pathogens
viroids
Which of the following infectious particles do NOT have protein in their structure
viroids
The normal habitat for Vibrio cholerae is (humans/animals/water
water
An inflamed fluid-filled lesion on the finger caused by either HHV-1 or HHV-2 is known as a (blister/wart/whitlow
whitlow
Health care workers can wear gloves to guard against contracting which of the following types of herpes infections
whitlow
Bordetella pertussis causes a disease commonly called
whooping cough
xxx
xxx
A single dose of azithromycin is effective in treating (trachoma/syphilis/yaws
yaws
How does ββ-lactamase contribute to the virulence of Staphylococcus spp
ββ-lactamase breaks down penicillin and cephalosporin
Acute inflammation is a rapid response to microbial invasion that helps contain the infection and frequently successfully clears the infection. It is a complex process involving many components of innate immunity and a variety of cellular and physiological processes. Drag the term or phrase to the description of events of acute inflammation it most closely fits.
- Pain at a site of localized infection can be caused by edema. -Phagocytes exit capillaries in a process known as diapedesis. -Increased blood flow into the site of infection is the result of vasodilation. -Excess fluid accumulation in the area of infection is a result of changes in vascular permeability. -Macrophages and neutrophils migrate to the site of infection in response to chemotactic factors, such as C5a and leukotrienes . -Blood clot formation contributes to inflammation by producing bradykinins.
Considering that the digestive system is a major route of infection in most human cases of brucellosis, an investigator hypothesizes that the production of urease by the organism plays a key role as a virulence factor as well as in the organism's survival in the upper digestive tract. Indicate all of the following explanations that accurately describe the mechanism of action of the enzyme urease. Select all that apply.
-As a result of urea hydrolysis, there is an increase in pH due to the production of ammonia. -The increased production of ammonia by urea hydrolysis serves to neutralize stomach acid, promoting survival of the organism.
Two patients - a woman and her husband, ages 23 and 22, respectively - arrive at the health clinic one morning. They report having had severe abdominal cramps, grossly bloody diarrhea, nausea, and fever for 48 hours. Cultures of stool samples grown under microaerophilic, capneic conditions contain comma-shaped, Gram-negative bacilli. Both the patients are lactovegetarians and report being part of a "cow leasing" program at a local dairy in which patrons lease part of a cow's milk production so that they can drink natural, whole, raw milk. The couple devised the program so that they and several neighbors could circumvent state regulations prohibiting the sale of unpasteurized milk. Investigators obtained and cultured a milk sample from the dairy's bulk milk tank -What is the most likely cause of this couple's disease -How did this couple become infected with C. jejuni -What is the word used to refer to diseases transmissible from animals to humans
-Campylobacter jejuni -ingestion of contaminated, raw milk -zoonoses
Acute inflammation is an initial, nearly immediate response to microbial invasion. The acute inflammatory response can be beneficial and is frequently successful in containing and defeating bacterial infection. Scenario: an open cut is infected with Gram-negative bacteria. Place the events of acute inflammation in the most likely order from beginning of infection to fully developed inflammation.
-Complement cascadeinitiated bylectin pathway. -MAC formationdamages bacteria. -Endotoxin triggerscomplement cascadeby alternate pathway. -Vasodilation ofnearby arteriolesand capillaries. -Phagocytes enter tissueand attack bacteria. -Tissue around infectionsite becomes swollen,red, and warm to the touch.
The successful infection of a host, and subsequent spread to another, results from a specific sequence of events known as the replication cycle. Each of the statements below describes an important step in the replication cycle of influenza. Arrange the following statements in the order that best describes the sequence of events involved in the replication of influenza.
-Hemagglutinin (HA) spikes attach to host cells. -Influenza enters the host cell. -Nucleic acid enters the host cytoplasm. -Influenza proteins are synthesized. -Influenza nucleic acid is packaged in capsid. -Influenza particles bud from the cell, releasing the virus into the surrounding environment.
An indirect immunofluorescence assay is described as the CDC "gold standard serological test" for RMSF. Keeping in mind the principles behind indirect fluorescent-antibody (indirect FA) testing, which of the following characteristics contributes to its choice as the gold standard? Select all that apply.
-Indirect FA is more sensitive than direct immunofluorescent testing. -Indirect FA will detect R. rickettsii-specific antibodies present in the patient's serum. -Indirect FA uses an antibody that reacts with any human antibody. -Indirect FA is rapid, sensitive, and specific.
The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria contributes to their ability to cause disease (pathogenicity). One of the components of the outer membrane is called an "endotoxin". Match the following terms with their description as part of the Gram-negative bacterium.
-Lipid A is released when the outer membrane disintegrates -The lack of a thick Cell wall causes Gram-negative bacteria to stain pink, in contrast with Gram-positive bacteria staining purple. -Porin(s) allow monosaccharides to move across the membrane. -Periplasm contains water, nutrients, and enzymes necessary for bacterial survival.
Based on the morphological arrangement, to which genera could the bacteria belong
-Micrococcus -Staphylococcus
Acute inflammation is a rapid response to microbial invasion that helps contain the infection and frequently successfully clears the infection. It is a complex process involving many components of innate immunity and a variety of cellular and physiological processes
-Pain at a site of localized infection can be caused by edema. -Blood clot formation contributes to inflammation by producing bradykinins. -Phagocytes exit capillaries in a process known as diapedesis. -Increased blood flow into the site of infection is the result of vasodilation. -Macrophages and neutrophils migrate to the site of infection in response to chemotactic factors, such as C5a and leukotrienes . -Excess fluid accumulation in the area of infection is a result of changes in vascular permeability
The two most common STI organisms associated with PID in the United States are Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. There are many similarities between these STIs. Which of the following statements comparing chlamydia and gonorrhea are true? Select all statements that are TRUE.
-Patients may be coinfected with both gonorrhea and chlamydia. -Chlamydia and gonorrhea can infect a patient and be transmitted without causing obvious symptoms. -Chlamydia is found more often in women, whereas gonorrhea is found more often in men.
Which of the findings listed below support the hypothesis
-Protein levels within the ileum loop fluid are increased up to 1000 units of toxin -.Histological observation indicates that morphological alteration and sloughing of epithelial cells occurs up to a maximum of 1000 units. -Increasing levels of sodium, potassium, bicarbonate, and chloride ions, as well as water, are secreted as toxin concentrations are increased from 25, 50, 100, and 150 units
Why does Dr. Turner change Chloe's initial antimicrobial therapy? Which of the following are valid reasons why Chloe's antimicrobial therapy should be changed?
-Results of antimicrobial susceptibility testing were conflicting. -The isolate is confirmed to be Burkholderia cepacia.
Part of the reason for Scott's acne is the overproduction of sebum. Scott's initial instinct is that shutting down production of sebum would be the quickest route to eliminating his acne; however, sebum actually plays an important role in maintaining the skin as a first line of defense against pathogens. Which of the following best describes the role of sebum as a component of the first line of defense
-Sebum helps to keep the pH of the skin low, which inhibits the growth of microorganisms -Sebum forms a protective layer over the skin
Part complete Which
-The sauce was prepared on an overcrowded steam table and, as a result, did not reach an appropriate temperature to kill any organisms -Large quantities of meat were prepared and kept warm for a long time before they were served
The IV regimen administered by Ron's doctors is consistent with the CDC's recommendation that doxycycline be administered when RMSF is suspected. Apply your knowledge of RMSF to choose the most likely reasons behind this recommendation. Select all that apply.
-The symptoms of RMSF are similar to those of several other infections, making definitive diagnosis difficult. -Most tests that can definitively identify R. rickettsii are not very effective early in infection. -A delay in treatment can lead to complications that include respiratory, cardiac, and renal failure. -Without prompt treatment, RMSF can have a mortality rate as high as 20%.
What are some of the current challenges to production of the influenza vaccine?
-The virus undergoes antigenic changes on a regular basis. -In order to yield a vaccine, the virus must be produced in eggs.
Predict which of the following are reasonable outcomes of the cytokine storm during the 1918 flu pandemic.
-an excessive inflammatory response leading to extensive tissue damage -increased fluid in the lungs and labored breathing
Predict which of the following would be outcomes of treatment with Tamiflu.
-an increase in the ability of the immune system to combat the infection -a decrease in the release of viral particles from the cell -overall decrease in the replication rate of influenza
Dr. Smith prescribes oral erythromycin for Scott. She also recommends that he consider using an over-the-counter gel or cream containing benzoyl peroxide. Although this regimen should be effective at treating Scott's acne, there are some possible side effects. Which of the following are possible side effects of Scott's treatment
-excessive drying of the skin -gastrointestinal problems resulting from a reduction/elimination of normal intestinal flora
Which of the following factors could have contributed to Barbara's development of shingles
-her daughter and grandchildren moving into her house shortly after the death of her husband -her age, 68
Research has indicated that during the inflammatory response to P. acnes, both the classical and the alternative complement pathways are activated. Which of the following are outcomes of activating complement pathways
-inflammation -opsonization -cytolysis
Because Chloe is complaining of stomachache and is refusing food, Dr. Turner orders tests to evaluate Chloe for pancreatic insufficiency. Which of the following test results would indicate pancreatic insufficiency?
-reduced pancreatic elastase levels -detection of fat in the feces, which indicates that fats are not being digested and appropriately absorbed in the intestine
Dr. Smith assures Scott that although inflammation may sound scary, there are several possible options for treating Scott's moderate acne. Which of the following would be the most appropriate for Scott's case
-topical treatment with a product containing benzoyl peroxide -an oral antibiotic such as erythromycin -Clear Light, a nonchemical, light-based system
Arrange in the correct order the following pathologic events in cystic fibrosis lung disease.
1) CFTR defect results in production of dehydrated thick mucus. 2) Thick mucus results in impaired ciliary clearance. 3) Bacteria become trapped in thick mucus, resulting in chronic bacterial infection. 4) As a result of bacterial infection , a chronic neutrophilic inflammatory response ensues. 5) Inflammation results in bronchiectasis and fibrosis of lung bronchial walls.
Mandy suspects the infectious agent is Staphylococcus epidermidis, Staphylococcus aureus, or Micrococcus luteum. Since many strains of S. aureus have acquired resistance to various antibiotics, she decides to do a few more tests to differentiate between the three suspected species. She needs to devise the test strategy first
1. Staphylococcus epidermidis characteristics include coagulase-negative, facultative anaerobe. 2. Staphylococcus aureus characteristics include coagulase-positive, facultative anaerobe. 3. Micrococcus luteum characteristics include coagulase-negative, obligate aerobe
Now that Lauren knows that she has a lytic bacteriophage, she decides that she needs to go one step further and understand lysogenic replication as well. Lysogenic replication is a modified replication cycle in which infected host cells grow and reproduce normally for several generations before lysis occurs. This growth time means that if Lauren's cultures get infected with a lysogenic phage, it may take longer to notice that there is an infection present! Jason offers to let Lauren have a sample of a common lysogenic virus from his lab, lambda phage. He gives her explicit instructions on how to grow it in the lab, and while she is working on it she notices how the lambda phage takes days to weeks to lyse the bacterial cultures. Please choose the correct description of the term below that is associated with lysogenic replication.
1. When the phenotype of a bacterium is changed via Lysogenic conversion, harmless bacteria can become pathogenic and are able to produce deadly toxins and proteins. 2. Temperate phages is another name for lysogenic phages that have a lysogenic replication cycle. 3. An inactive bacteriophage is a Prophage that can remain in the host chromosome and render the bacterium resistant to additional infection by other similar viruses. 4. When a bacteriophage infects hosts 19 cells and allows them to grow and replicate normally for many generations before lysis, this is considered Lysogeny. 5. In Induction, a phage is excised from the host chromosome via physical or chemical agents that damage the genetic material of the host.
RMSF results from the interactions that occur between the R. rickettsii pathogen and the host. The infection results from a coordinated series of events that ultimately result in disease. Apply your knowledge of bacterial pathogenesis and the symptoms of RMSF to predict the order of events that occur during RMSF.
1. tick bites transmit 2.R.rickettsii travels throughout the body 3.R.rickettsii invades endothelial cell 4.R.rickettsii multiplies 5blood begins to escape from vessel 6.symptom
What is the correct sequence of events for the replication of a DNA virus? Arrange the following statements in chronological order .
1. virions attach to the host cells. 2. viral DNA is released into the nucleus of the host cell 3. enzymes required for multiplication of viral DNA are produced via transcription and translation 4. a copy of the DNA is made 5. capsid and other structural proteins are manufactured 6. virions are assembled to form complete viruses and are released from the host cell
The "common cold" is so common because
100+ strains of rhinovirus and several other types of virus cause "colds."
As an epidemiologist, Dr. Thompson is interested in determining the frequency with which a specified event occurs within a particular population at a certain instant or during a particular period. This measure is known as a rate. In epidemiologic practice, an attack rate is the most commonly used method of determining the extent or frequency with which a disease is experienced by a population of individuals. In this instance, Dr. Thompson is interested in knowing what percentage of the individuals who attended the July 4 celebration became ill. The attack rate is the number of individuals treated and/or had symptoms divided by the number of attending individuals. What is the attack rate of food poisoning among the group who attended the July 4 celebration
105/150(100)= 70.0%
What is the recommended schedule for the first chicken pox vaccine in infants
12 months of age
In what year did Stanley Prusiner discover prions
1982
Typically, antiviral therapy must begin within __________ of infection to be effective.
48 hours
In which of the following cases would you suspect wound botulism
A person injures herself while gardening. Four days later she begins to feel weak and dizzy, with blurred vision and progressive paralysis
Lance's physician administered a tuberculin test to determine whether Lance had been infected during his flight from South Africa. How was this test performed
A small amount of cell wall material from Mycobacterium tuberculosis was injected into Lance's forearm skin
Which of the following is NOT true about viroids
A viroid causes chronic wasting disease in deer and elk
Which of the following is not a characteristic of adenoviruses
An envelope is present
What is listeriolysin O
An enzyme breaks the bacteria free from the phagosome
Although cholera can be treated with antibiotics, data suggest that antibiotic treatment alone is NOT the most effective therapy. Which of the following statements describes the most likely reason for supplementing antibiotic therapy?
Antibiotic therapy addresses only the growth of V. cholerae; it doesn't address the extreme dehydration suffered by a person infected with V. cholerae.
The culture indicates that this is a drastically different flu strain from those seen in recent years. How do you explain this
Antigenic shift has produced major antigenic changes in the viral genome
In which stage does formation of mature viruses occur
Assembly
The presence of a large amount of single-stranded DNA in a particular hepatitis B virion indicates which of the following
Assembly of this virion took place before replication was completed
After spending hours at the microscope and taking detailed notes about the phage that she has found in her cultures, Lauren decides to pick her work back up tomorrow. A virologist's work can be very involved! When Lauren arrives to work the next morning, she takes a peek at her cultures only to find that the media that she inoculated the night before look as if the virus had replicated in them as well. Lauren decides that in order for her to better understand how to avoid this happening again, she needs to understand how this phage replicates. She calls up her colleague Jason, who has worked with phages before, and hopes to get a better idea of what is going on inside the bacterial cell. Jason hints to Lauren that she may have a phage that exhibits lytic replication due to her seeing so many bacteria infected so quickly. Please place the correct description of lytic replication with its corresponding event number in the diagram above.
Attachment:In this stage of replication, the virion comes in contact with the bacterium and the tailfibers bind to the receptors on the surface on the bacterium cell wall. Entry:In this stage of replication, the virion overcomes the cell wall barrier and cytoplasmic membrane and injects its genetic material into the bacterium cell. Synthesis:In this stage of replication, the virus 19 enzymes cause the bacterium to synthesize viral molecules instead of its own molecules. The steps involved in this stage can very in complexity depending on what type of genetic material is housed in the viral capsid. Assembly:In this stage of replication, the phage is put together in the host cell. The capsid heads are made from capsomeres, the tails assemble and attach to heads, the tail fibers attach to tails, and this creates a mature virion. Release:In this stage of replication, the mature virions exit the cell and lysis occurs.
Which of the following habits will best prevent infection due to listerosis
Avoid eating raw fruits and vegetables
Lyme disease is caused by ____________ and is transmitted by __________
B. burgdorferi; Ixodes
Important members of the intestinal microbiota are the strictly anaerobic
Bacteroides
Based on its Gram status, why are penicillin and other beta-lactam antibiotics effective against Streptococcus pneumoniae
Beta lactam antibiotics are effective against Streptococcus pneumoniae because it is a Gram positive organism and does not have an outer membrane.
The host DNA is usually degraded during which stage
Biosynthesis
Which of the following Brucella species is most likely indicated in this case?
Brucella abortus
Consuming unpasteurized dairy products may result in infection with
Brucella species
Aerobic bacteria in the genus ________ are metabolically diverse soil-dwellers which also cause opportunistic disease in cystic fibrosis patients
Burkholderia
The pathology of cepacia syndrome is often complex and due to multiple factors. All of the following factors may contribute to the development of cepacia syndrome EXCEPT which one?
Burkholderia cepacia produces an inducible beta-lactamase.
HIV attaches to T-cell and macrophages by means of an interaction between gp120 and a(n) (antibody/CD4/gp41) receptor
CD4
AIDS is diagnosed by reduced levels of which of the following types of cells
CD4+ T cells
Which of the following is a family of six-pointed, star-shaped viruses that cause gastrointestinal diseases
Caliciviridae
The bacterium ________ is a common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis contracted from contaminated food, especially poultry
Campylobacter jejuni
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for the most common bacterial gastroenteritis in the United States, usually accompanied by frequent, bloody diarrhea
Campylobacter jejuni
Why is immunization against HBV recommended for all children
Children are typically at a high risk of chronic infection
The intracellular parasite ________ infects cells of the conjunctiva and mucous membranes throughout the body
Chlamydia trachomatis
Which of the following is the cause of the STD known as lymphogranuloma venereum
Chlamydia trachomatis
Which of the following has been implicated in the development of atherosclerosis
Chlamydophila pneumoniae
People who handle birds infected with ________ may develop pneumonia-like disease
Chlamydophila psittaci
Which of the following prion diseases is found in deer and elk
Chronic wasting disease
Which of the following species causes infections characterized by tissue death and foul-smelling gaseous waste products
Clostridium perfringens
Think about the many factors that are used to classify viruses. In order for Lauren to determine the type of virus she may have, she needs to understand some basic concepts about how viruses are characterized. Please sort the following statements as being true or false regarding characteristics of viruses
Correct Statements Viruses are not capable of metabolic activity on their own; they must have a host cell to reproduce. The genetic material of a virus can be DNA or RNA. Viruses can have different shapes. Capsids function to surround and protect the nucleic acid core. The genomes of viruses are usually smaller than the genomes of bacteria Incorrect Statements Capsids are acquired from the host cell during replication or release. All viruses have both a capsid and an envelope. The intracellular state of a virus is called a virion
What is the causative pathogen of Q fever
Coxiella burnetii
Which of the following forms of the hepatitis B virus is complete and cause an infection
Dane particles
How might an infected patient transmit listeriosis to another human
During pregnancy
Which of the following tests would be useful in identifying Escherichia coli
E. coli is a Gram-negative bacillus that ferments lactose and glucose, but not sucrose. It is motile and does not utilize citrate or urea.
People bitten by the Lone Star tick (Amblyomma americanum) are at risk for exposure to which of the following rickettsias
Ehrlichia chaffeensis
What is empyema
Empyema refers to a pocket of pus in between the lung and the inner surface of the chest wall
The organism isolated from the sprouts is oxidase negative, motile, ferments glucose and lactose, and cannot utilize citrate. What organism is it
Escherichia coli
Which of the following coliforms is the most common cause of non-nosocomial urinary tract infections
Escherichia coli
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by
Escherichia coli O157:H7
What is the best way to prevent nosocomial MRSA infections
Everyone should wash their hands before eating and after contact with any potentially contaminated surface/person
Various types of damage can lead to acute inflammation, including cuts and abrasions, heat, and microbial damage. Some microbes have structures which can trigger the acute inflammatory response when they invade tissues. What structural characteristics common to Gram-negative bacteria may trigger the acute inflammatory response?
External polysaccharides Lipid A
All DNA viruses of animals replicate in the nucleus of the host cell
False
All of the rickettsias are spread by transovarian transfer
False
All poxviruses that infect humans are zoonoses
False
All viruses use the host cell's nucleic acid polymerases for replication
False
An effective vaccine to prevent infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV, HHV-4) is available
False
An expanding rash that resembles a bull's-eye is a characteristic of secondary syphilis
False
Bacteriophage release is a gradual process in which small numbers are released at a time
False
Coxiella burnetii is transmitted to humans mainly via the bite of infected tick vectors
False
Echoviruses cause gastroenteritis
False
Erythema infectiosum is a dangerous but treatable disease
False
Gonococcal infections result in lifelong immunity against Neisseria gonorrhoeae
False
Group B streptococci only causes disease in infants
False
Human herpesviruses have been designated by combining HHV (human herpesvirus) with numbers corresponding to the severity of the diseases they cause
False
Humans are the only hosts of Rickettsia rickettsii
False
Identify the TE disk on the plate and interpret the results. True or False: TE is an effective antibiotic for this infection.
False
Infectious mononucleosis (mono) is caused by VZV (HHV-3
False
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is able to persist and be spread in aerosols due to its ability to produce endospores
False
Pseudomonas aeruginosa has no virulence factors and therefore never causes disease
False
Rhinoviruses are enveloped viruses and so are easy to inactivate
False
Small doses of antimicrobial agents are very effective in treating the late stages of Borrelia infection because most of the symptoms result from immune responses
False
Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning is long-lasting because ingested bacteria produce enterotoxins in the digestive system
False
Two doses of the MMR vaccine provide full protection from infection with the mumps virus
False
A subset of select agents and toxins have been designated as Tier 1 because these biological agents and toxins present the greatest risk of deliberate misuse with significant potential for mass casualties or devastating effect to the economy, critical infrastructure, or public confidence. They also pose a severe threat to public health and safety. Why is Francisella tularensis considered a select agent?
Francisella tularensis can penetrate unbroken skin. Disease can result from as few as 10 organisms and there are many different modes of transmission.
Why was Jacob given streptomycin, not penicillin?
Francisella tularensis produces β-lactamase.
Non-motile members of the Enterobacteriaceae lack (H/K/O) antigens
H
Which strain of influenza virus has become resistant to all currently approved antiviral drugs
H7N9
Reactivation of ________ in immunosuppressed persons may produce Kaposi's sarcoma, a cancer of the blood vessels
HHV-8
Research suggests a link between ________ and multiple sclerosis (MS
HHV-8
What additional virus should this man be tested for?
HIV
Members of the genus ________ may cause epiglottitis and middle ear infections
Haemophilus
Which of the following bacteria requires heme for its growth
Haemophilus
Infection with ________ usually produces acute upper respiratory disease but may cause meningitis in infants 3-18 months old
Haemophilus influenzae
Why does Dr. Johnson order a PPD for Mr. Williams?
He wants to rule out the possibility of bovine tuberculosis.
Infection with ________ may result in peptic ulcers and stomach cancer
Helicobacter pylori
Helicobacter pylori can survive in the acidic environment of the stomach but is actually considered to be a neutrophile. How can this be?
Helicobacter pylori can survive in the acidic environment of the stomach because it can neutralize the pH in the local area of infection
How is this disease most likely to be transmitted
Hepatitis B is a sexually transmitted disease
Which of the following families of DNA viruses is the most prevalent in humans
Herpesviridae
Streptococcus pneumoniae is found as part of the normal microbiota of the mouth and pharynx and yet can cause disease in some people when it is inhaled into lungs. Why do you think this is?
If Streptococcus pneumoniae is inhaled from the nasopharynx into lungs damaged by a previous viral infection or in an immune compromised person, it can flourish
Streptococcus pneumoniae is found as part of the normal microbiota of the mouth and pharynx and yet can cause disease in some people when it is inhaled into the lungs. Why do you think this is?.
If Streptococcus pneumoniae is inhaled from the nasopharynx into lungs damaged by a previous viral infection or in an immune-compromised person, it can flourish
Name the disease shown in each photo. Drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets.
Image 1(upper left). Chicken pox: Itchy, blister-like rash on the skin. Image 2 (upper right). Kaposi's sarcoma: Kaposi sarcoma had brownish red-to-bluish red cutaneous nodules that tended to enlarge into dome-shaped tumors. Image 3. Oral herpes: Tiny, fluid-filled lesions. Image 4. Herpetic withtlow: Herpetic whitlow is an intensely painful infection of the hand involving 1 or more fingers that typically affects the terminal phalanx. Image 5. Shingles: A painful rash that may appear as a stripe of blisters on the torso. Image 6. Molluscum contagiosum: Round, firm, painless bumps.
The BCG vaccine is available to immunize people against tuberculosis. Had Lance been vaccinated, he would not have been concerned about becoming infected on the airplane. Why was he NOT vaccinated
Immunized patients have a positive skin reaction when tested, even if they have not been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Such "false positive results" hinder the work of epidemiologists trying to track the spread of the disease
Many of the most severe strains of influenza A have originated in Asia. Asia is a major originator of pandemic strains and a major site of antigenic shift. Which of the following reasons could be a cause of this
In Asia, the population density of humans, domesticated birds, and pigs is very high
From the preliminary analysis, it would appear that individuals who consumed barbecue with Bubba-Qs sauce had the highest attack rate, followed by the dry-rubbed barbecue. Some of the individuals who said they ate the barbecue with the sauce did not become ill. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for such an occurrence
Individuals who became ill may have consumed larger quantities of the food than individuals who did not become ill
What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci
It can produce coagulase
The pneumococcal vaccine was made using the purified capsular material from 23 common strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae, but it is not effective against all strains. Why is this
It cannot cover all the strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae because not all strains have the same antigens on their surface
Which of the following statements concerning the causative agent of syphilis is TRUE
It is a large helically coiled bacterium motile by means of endoflagella
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the viral envelope
It is composed of cellular phospholipid membrane, cellular and viral proteins
Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE
It is considered a common complication of pyoderma
What is the fate of the prophage during the lysogenic stage
It is copied every time the host DNA replicates
Which of the following statements is FALSE about Adenovirus and the treatment of colds caused by it
It is impossible to develop a vaccine for Adenovirus
Which of the following statements regarding trachoma is FALSE
It is most often a disease of adults who suffer from sexually transmitted chlamydia
Which of the following statements is true
It is possible to be infected with HIV without having AIDS
Which of the following statements about Bacillus anthracis is FALSE
It is primarily a disease of humans
Which of the following statements concerning Pasteurella is FALSE
It is very resistant to a wide variety of antibacterial drugs including fluoroquinolones.
Which of the following statements concerning the hepatitis B vaccine is FALSE
It must be repeated every five years
Which of the following statements regarding Streptococcus pyogenes is FALSE
It produces protein A, which inhibits opsonization
Which of the following is the MOST CORRECT description of the function of reverse transcriptase
It synthesizes a DNA strand from an RNA template
Which of the following statements regarding Ehrlichia is FALSE
It usually causes a spotted rash similar to Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Which of the following conclusions are supported by the current research data?
It would appear that the environment may serve as a reservoir for acquiring Burkholderia cepacia complex strains. Genomovars III and II appear to be the most virulent or transmissible to humans. Burkholderia cepacia complex appears to be very diverse in its habitat and distribution.
Which of the following statements concerning tetanus is FALSE
Its only source is from deep puncture wounds from rusty nails
Immunosuppressed persons infected with (B19 virus/EBV/JC virus) may develop progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML
JC virus
A diagnostic sign of measles are (herpangina/Koplik's spots/macules) in the mouth
Koplik's spots
Which of the following prion diseases was also known as laughing disease
Kuru
Label the structures and steps of growth and reproduction of Ehrlichia and Anaplasma in an infected leukocyte. Drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets.
LEFT DOWN THEN LONE RIGHT Entry Elementary body in phagosome Initial body Morula Release Nucleus
Scott's pimples result from the inflammatory response generated in his hair follicles. The statements below describe events that occur during this response
LEFT TO RIGHT -Overproduction of sebum leads to an accumulation in the follicle. -P. acnes metabolizes glycerol in sebum, forming free fatty acids. -Free fatty acids stimulate the release of proinflammatory cytokines within the follicle. -The blood vessels surrounding the follicle dilate and become more permeable. -Immune cells such as neutrophils and phagocytes move into the follicle to try to eliminate P. acnes. -The buildup of dead cells, bacteria, and body fluids causes a raised pustule to appear on the skin surface.
The LPS, or endotoxin, of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is slightly different from most Gram-negative organisms because of the absence of repeating O-antigens; hence, it is called LOS instead of LPS. How could LOS be a major virulence factor for Neisseria gonorrhoeae
LOS is a major virulence factor for Neisseria gonorrhoeae because during the course of the infection, the LOS is released by autolysis. The release of LOS (endotoxin) and the damage it causes to host cells is the major cause of most of the symptoms of gonorrhea
Gram-negative bacteria are responsible for the majority of Healthcare Associated Infections (HAI's, also known as nosocomial infections). Serious disease may result when Gram-negative bacteria establish opportunistic infection of nearly all body systems. These HAI's have several signs in common. The signs of opportunistic HAI's with Gram-negative bacteria typically include high fever, inflammation, tissue edema, low blood pressure and DIC. What common structural characteristic of Gram-negative bacteria is directly or indirectly responsible for these signs
Lipid A
Bacteria are grouped into two categories reflecting structural features of their cells. Bacteria are classified as Gram-positive or Gram-negative based on whether or not they retain the crystal violet dye used in the Gram stain procedure. Cell wall structure determines the ability to retain the dye, thus cell wall structure is the basis of categorization into Gram-positive (G+) and Gram-negative (G-
Lipopolysaccharide
Eating food contaminated with ________ may result in meningitis in at-risk persons
Listeria monocytogenes
Borrelia burgdorferi is an unusual bacterium that lacks iron-containing enzymes and proteins and causes (Brill-Zinser/Lyme/RMSF) disease in humans
Lyme
Match the genera of pathogens to their appearance in stained smears. Drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets.
Methenamine Silver - Actinomyces Gram - Staphylococcus Gram - Bacillus acid fast - Mycobacterium Gram - Stretococcus Gram - Clostridium
Using a mouse model, the investigator orally inoculates mice with a mutated strain of Brucella lacking the gene for production of urease. Indicate which of the following would LEAST support the hypothesis that urease plays a role as a virulence factor in establishing Brucella infection.
Mutant and nonmutant strains will demonstrate the ability to transition through intestinal mucosa.
Which of the following signs or symptoms is characteristic of an infection with the flu virus
Myalgia
An opportunistic pathogen frequently seen in AIDS patients, ________ spreads rapidly to various organs
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
What is the name for the dark-staining bodies observed in the brain cells from this patient
Negri bodies
Gonorrhea is usually a sexually transmitted disease caused by the organism Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Which of the following statements regarding the transmission of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is FALSE
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is commonly transmitted through the sharing of needles during drug use or by contaminated blood products
What is the function of neuraminidase spikes
Neuraminidase releases the influenza virions from the host cell.
Are Clostridium botulinum vegetative cells required to be present for foodborne botulism to occur
No, foodborne botulism is caused by the botulinum toxin produced by the bacteria, not the bacteria themselves
Are Clostridium botulinumvegetative cells required to be present for foodborne botulism to occur
No, foodborne botulism is caused by the botulinum toxin produced by the bacteria, not the bacteria themselves
Barbara is worried about spending time with her grandchildren while being treated for shingles. Can her grandchildren contract chickenpox or shingles from spending time with their grandmother?
No. Because of their ages, the grandchildren have most likely been vaccinated against the chickenpox. They are also safe from contracting shingles because they are young
Could this patient have gotten the flu from the "shot
No. The injectable multivalent influenza vaccine contains inactivated virus. It cannot cause the disease
Mycetoma, which is a painless long-lasting infection characterized by swelling, pus production, and draining sores, is commonly caused by
Nocardia
How do normal prion proteins (PrP) differ from the infectious prion proteins
Normal PrP have alpha-helices; infectious PrP have beta-pleated sheets
How can Leptospira interrogans be distinguished from other spirochetes
One end of the bacterium looks like a question mark
What portion of bacteriophage T4 enters E. coli
Only the T4 genome enters the bacterial cell.
Which of the following viruses are the only ssDNA viruses that cause disease in humans
Parvoviridae
In which stage is the viral DNA introduced into the cell
Penetration
How does the number of infectious prions increase
Prions transform normal proteins into the misfolded beta-pleated sheet configuration; therefore, prions multiply by conversion.
In its role in the development of acne, (Propionibacterium/Staphylococcus/Actinomyces) typically grows in sebaceous glands of the skin
Propionibacterium
Increased sebum secretion can fuel the overgrowth of the opportunistic pathogen ________ in its normal habitat, leading to disease
Propionibacterium acnes
From which phrase is the term "prions" derived
Proteinaceous infectious particles
The growth pattern in the figure is characteristic of which organism
Proteus
Urinary tract infections with ________ are frequently complicated by the formation of kidney stones
Proteus mirabilis
Which of the following is the CORRECT pairing of rickettsial pathogen and vector
R. prowazekii; louse
Which of the following is a characteristic of biological transmission from Dermacentor to a human host?
R. rickettsii is transmitted to the human host during a bite, when tick saliva enters the wound.
Why is exposure to the rabbit significant?
Rabbits are reservoirs for Francisella tularensis.
Syncytia play an important role in which of the following diseases
SSPE (subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Which of the following is MISMATCHED
Salk vaccine; administered orally
Which disease did Stanley Prusiner first identify as being caused by prions
Scrapie
Infections with Gram negative bacteria are considered particularly serious. Gram-negative bacteria share a virulence factor that can cause severe inflammation, which compounds the inflammation normally occurring during bacterial infection, complicating treatment and recovery. Drag the labels to their correct locations on the concept map.
See picture
Label the steps shown for HIV retroviral replication. Drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets.
See picture
A 5-year-old girl arrives at her pediatrician's office with very red bloodshot eyes and a thick, yellow, and crusty discharge. Her eyes are itchy and burning. The doctor prescribes antibiotic drops, but after several days she still has symptoms. Why does she still have symptoms
She has conjunctivitis, or pinkeye, most likely caused by Adenovirus
Further testing reveals this is a strain of E. coli O157:H7. What virulence factor produced by this strain could cause the heart and lung damage observed in this case
Shiga-like toxin
The true pathogen (Salmonella/Shigella/Yersinia) is a non-coliform, non-motile, oxidase-negative member of the Enterobacteriaceae that does not produce hydrogen sulfide
Shigella
Smallpox is a historically important disease. Which of the following events did NOT contribute to its historical importance
Smallpox was used as a bioterrorism agent in the 2001 bioterrorist attacks
Treponema pallidum is a spirochete. How does this morphology contribute to the pathogenesis of this organism
Spirochetes like Treponema pallidum have a tightly coiled, helical morphology, which allows them to move by rotation and burrow into tissues
Compare the results with the classification scheme and determine the infectious agent. The infectious organism is __________
Staphylococcus aureus
Which of the following lists the criteria for a diagnosis of Staphylococcus aureus infection
Staphylococcus aureus cultures are coagulase positive, catalase positive, yellow colonies that are composed of Gram-positive cocci
Which practice would NOT be a good way to prevent foodborne botulism
Storing canned foods at room temperature
Enterococcus is most likely to be confused with members of which of the following genera in clinical specimens
Streptococcus
Immunization for ________ may reduce the incidence of otitis media and sinusitis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Otitis media may lead to dangerous meningitis in children due to infection with
Streptococcus pneumoniae
A man comes to the clinic with an oozing wound he got while preparing dinner. The doctors at the clinic suspect infection with E. coli and treat him with an antibiotic. The man goes home and his symptoms improve, so he discontinues the antibiotic. Within a few days he becomes gravely ill with shocklike symptoms such as fever, hypotension, high heart rate and fatigue/mental confusion. Why did the man become so sick after taking the antibiotic that was supposed to make him better
The antibiotic given to the man and the man's own immune response caused the lysis of the E. coli cells and release of endotoxin (LPS). This caused his secondary symptoms of endotoxic shock
Why does tuberculosis involve months of antibiotic treatment
The bacteria grow very slowly
Strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae can cause disease only when a capsule is present. Why is the presence of a capsule considered a virulence factor
The capsule prevents the bacterium from being digested after endocytosis in the cells of the host
Which of the following statements is TRUE of both molluscum contagiosum and smallpox
The causative agent is a large dsDNA virus with a complex capsid
Which of the following statements about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is FALSE
The gonococci induce lasting immunity
Which of the following statements concerning genital warts is FALSE
The incidence is relatively low because treatment is available
Of the pathogenic forms of Escherichia coli, the strain O157:H7 is the primary cause of hemorrhagic colitis, or bloody diarrhea, and can progress to the often fatal hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS). What is the main reason for the severity of illness from this strain of E. coli
The main reason for the severity of illness comes from the ability of this particular strain of E. coli to produce Shiga-like toxin, which causes an intense inflammatory response in the gut
Streptococcus pneumoniae was originally named Diplococcus pneumoniae. Why was the genus name Diplococcus originally given to this organism
The prefix "di-" means two, and these organisms are usually found in pairs under the microscope
The antiviral drug oseltamivir (Tamiflu) blocks the release of the virus from infected cells and must be given within 24-48 hours of infection to be effective against the duration of the flu symptoms. Based on how the influenzavirus manifests signs and symptoms, why is the 24-48 hour window important
The signs and symptoms of the flu are caused by the release of cytokines from the host immune system. After 48 hours, this response has already been sufficiently triggered
How does the toxin from Clostridium tetani produce its action
The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the central nervous system
The polymerization of actin filaments allows Listeria to form pseudopods extending from the host cell. How does this aid the bacteria during infection
They are able to spread to neighboring cells sheltered from detection by the host immune system
How are prions different from all other known infectious agents
They lack nucleic acid
How are prions different from other infectious agents
They lack nucleic acid
Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why?
They produce ββ-lactamase
How are viruses different from eukaryotic cells
They require a host in order to reproduce.
Some studies have indicated that the ID50 for Vibrio cholerae can be as high as 108 organisms. Which of the following most likely explains the requirement for this relatively high ID50?
To establish infection, V. cholerae must survive the host immune response and the acidic environment of the stomach.
What is the function of the structural elements of a virus
To package and protect the viral genome
About half of the large number of HPVs can integrate into the host cell genome
True
Adult food-borne botulism can be prevented by thoroughly cooking food (minimum 80°C for 20 minutes) before it is eaten
True
After a week of asymptomatic infection with Bordetella pertussis, the patient has cold-like (catarrhal) symptoms for a week or two followed by a period of severe paroxysmal episodes of coughing that leave the patient anoxic and fatigued
True
All stages of Ixodes, the vector for Lyme disease, may feed on humans
True
Astroviruses are common causes of gastroenteritis
True
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is an example of a prion disease
True
Contact with a minute quantity of blood is sufficient for infection with hepatitis B virus
True
Fertilized chicken eggs are used to culture some vaccine strains
True
Group A streptococci are considered more virulent if their cytoplasmic membrane contains M protein
True
Humans are the sole hosts of Salmonella enterica subtype Typhi (formerly S. typhi
True
Infection in the bloodstream with Staphylococcus species can result in heart damage
True
Members of a virus family have the same type of nucleic acid
True
The primary reservoir of anthrax is herbivores
True
What are the two categories of influenza virus
Type A and Type B
Over 90% of urinary tract infections (UTIs) are caused by Escherichia coli strains. UTIs are 14 times more common in women than in men. Why do you think this is
UTIs caused by E. coli are 14 times more common in women than in men because women have a shorter urethra than men and the proximity of the urethra to the anus is much closer in women
What factor may induce a prophage to enter the lytic cycle?
UV light
Until very recently, it was thought that peptic ulcers were caused by stress, spicy foods, alcohol consumption, and excess stomach acid production. Why was it controversial to suggest that a bacterium could be a root cause for peptic ulcers
Until recently, scientists did not believe that bacteria could survive and reproduce in the harsh, acidic environment of the stomach
In what ways do viruses differ from other pathogens?
Viruses lack cytoplasm and organelles
What is the characteristic lesion of Yersinia pestis
a bubo
A patient is diagnosed with primary syphilis, he likely has
a chancre
Erythema infectiosum begins in which of the following ways?
a characteristic rash on the cheeks
Our patient needs antibiotics to overcome this infection and prevent any further complications. Which of the following would be the best choice?
a combination therapy of cephalosporin-class AND macrolide-class. Submit
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and sterility caused by Chlamydia trachomatis infections are largely a result of which of the following
a hypersensitive immune response
The typical lesion of primary syphilis is
a painless reddened lesion called a chancre at the site of infection
Lysogenic viral DNA which has integrated into the host genome is referred to as
a prophage
Contact between a phage and its bacterial host occurs by _____
a random collision
What is a virion
a single virus particle outside a cell
The common childhood illness called "hand-foot-and-mouth disease" because it causes lesions in these areas is caused by
a strain of coxsackie A virus
An appropriately stained smear was prepared of a sputum specimen obtained from the sick woman on Lance's flight. Using oil-immersion magnification on your microscope, what would you observe that would aid in the diagnosis of tuberculosis
acid-fast rods
What is the most common disease caused by Propionibacterium
acne
The ability of Vibrio cholerae to cause disease depends on a number of factors. Which of the following are general requirements for any organism to cause disease within a host?
adherence to host tissues evasion of host defenses gaining access to the host via a portal of entry
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is considered a(n) __________
aerobe
How is tuberculosis transmitted
aerosol droplets released by a cough or sneeze
Group B strep (GBS) is also known as Streptococcus (agalactiae/mutans/pyogenes
agalactiae
Major mutations in influenza viruses that occur approximately every decade are known as __________ and result in new strains of virus
antigenic shift
The primary treatment for food-borne botulism is (antibiotics/antitoxin/muscle relaxants
antitoxin
Enteroviruses gain their name from the fact that they
are transmitted by the fecal-oral route
The normal function of the PrP protein in mammals is believed to be
assisting in normal synaptic development and function
Because of the existence of (acute/asymptomatic/passive) carriers, the eradication of meningococcal disease is unlikely
asymptomatic
The majority of infections with poliovirus are (asymptomatic/nonparalytic/paralytic
asymptomatic
Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes respiratory disease by
attaching to and ultimately killing the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea
Rubella vaccine is a(n) (attenuated/inactivated/subunit) vaccine and should not be given to pregnant women
attenuated
What type of vaccine would be used to vaccinate the twins
attenuated virus vaccine
Which of the following is the best way to avoid infection by Neisseria meningitidis
avoidance of crowded living conditions
Prevention of Q fever generally involves which of the following
avoiding the inhalation of dust
A(n) ________ is a virus that infects bacterial cells
bacteriophage
Food can be treated with (antibiotics/bacteriophage/probiotics) to prevent listeriosis
bacteriophage
The acellular infectious agent in the figure is most likely a (bacteriophage/prion/viroid
bacteriophage
Over the past couple of decades, most human rabies infection in the United States have been the result of contact with rabid
bats
Which of the following toxins produced by Bordetella pertussis results in the accumulation of excess mucus in the trachea
both pertussis toxin and adenylate cyclase toxin
The outermost layer of a virion fulfills which of the following functions of the virus
both protection and recognition
Adenoviruses infect
both the digestive tract and the respiratory tract
Treponema pallidum can be transmitted
both through sexual intercourse and from an infected mother to her unborn child
Inhaling aerosols of dried bodily fluids from infected animals may result in
both tularemia and Q fever
Which test confirmed the presence of this prion disease?
brain scan
Which of the following bodily fluids is commonly a source of infection by HIV
breast milk, semen, and vaginal secretions
Sexually transmitted chlamydia is similar to infection with Yersinia pestis in that they both can produce
buboes
What are swollen, painful lymph nodes called
buboes
The Texas Department of Health has isolated Yersinia pestis from wood rats and prairie dogs in West Texas and the Texas panhandle. In addition to the fever, chills, and severe headache, this patient has developed hemorrhages under the skin. What disease is this camper likely to have
bubonic plague
The process known as ________ is a mechanism of release for enveloped viruses
budding
The type of polio that involves the infection of the brain stem and medulla is
bulbar poliomyelitis
Which of the following would be the LEAST likely way to become infected with HIV
by working the front desk at an AIDS clinic
Enterococcus faecalis bacteria can be distinguished from other Gram-positive cocci because enterococci
can grow in the presence of bile
What type of cancer is more likely to develop in people who have had papillomavirus infections
cancer of the tonsils
The process during viral infection known as "uncoating" involves the removal of the (capsid/envelope/matrix
capsid
Viral capsids are composed of subunits called (capsomeres/nucleocapsids/prions
capsomeres
The Quellung reaction is a test to detect
capsule antigens
The presence of ________ can be used to distinguish Staphylococcus from other Gram-positive cocci
catalase enzyme
Researchers culture Treponema pallidum in
cell cultures
Genes for beta-lactamase are present in Burkholderia cepacia but are not normally expressed unless they are induced. Exposure to which of the following agents most likely induced the expression of beta-lactamase resistance in Burkholderia cepacia? (Select the one best answer.)
cephalexin
Based on the recommendations in this textbook, which antibiotic would be the treatment of choice for this disease?
cephalosporin
If the mother has (chlamydia/syphilis/yaws) at the time of birth, the pathogen can infect the newborn's eyes and may cause blindness
chlamydia
The physician performs a pelvic exam, which reveals the presence of an abnormal thin, watery vaginal discharge and inflammation of the cervix. The physician then palpates the abdomen (examines by touch and pressure) and finds that the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries are enlarged and tender. The physician takes a swab sample of the cervix and sends it to the laboratory to determine the causal organism. Light microscopy and simple staining of the sample in the lab reveal an organism with a very unique life cycle. The organism is classified as gram-negative, but it stains very poorly compared to other classic gram-negative STI pathogens. The stain shows both a nonreplicating, extracellular infectious elementary body and a replicating, noninfectious reticulate body inside mucosal cells from the cervical epithelium swab. Based on the symptoms and these new laboratory findings, which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis for the patient?
chlamydia Submit
Neisseria species can be cultured in the lab using (bile-esculin/chocolate/MacConkey) agar
chocolate
The test results show that the organism is __________
coagulase-positive and a facultative anaerobe
Which of the following increases the risk of permanent liver damage with hepatitis B infection
coinfection with hepatitis D virus
What disease does the human herpesvirus-1 cause
cold sores or fever blisters
Patients who have recovered from Colorado tick fever should not donate blood for several months after recovery because __________
coltiviruses can persist in red blood cells
Retroviruses __________
contain reverse transcriptase enzymes that make a dsDNA molecule from their +ssRNA genome
The recent epidemic of MERS virus was caused by a(n)
coronavirus
Which of the following viruses is suspected of being a cause of diabetes mellitus
coxsackie B virus
Some patients who have suffered from polio develop symptoms 30-40 years later in the form of
crippling deterioration and dysfunction in the polio-affected muscles
What is the most prevalent viral infection seen in neonates
cytomegalovirus
Which of the following is NOT an accepted treatment for warts
daily application of tincture of iodine to the wart surface
The rash of spotted fever rickettsiosis is the result of
damage to endothelial cells
Untreated syphilis may persist in a latent state for (months/years/decades) before manifesting as tertiary syphilis
decades
What is the typical incubation period for prion diseases?
decades
In cystic fibrosis, a defective gene and its protein product lead to the production of thick and dehydrated mucus because of __________.
defective secretion of chloride ions and excess absorption of sodium
Which of the following events occurs in the lytic cycle of bacteriophage T4 infection but NOT in the lysogenic cycle
digestion of host DNA
Which of the following characteristics are common to Poxviridae, Herpesviridae, and Hepadnaviridae
double-stranded DNA in the virion and the presence of an envelope
What is the treatment of choice for this disease?
doxycycline
Replication of most ________ viruses is similar to normal cellular processes
dsDNA
Which nucleic acid is part of the varicella-zoster virion
dsDNA
The Ixodes tick can infect humans with Borrelia burgdorferi during which stage(s) of its life cycle
either as a nymph or an adult
The infectious form of chlamydia is the (elementary/initial/inclusion) body
elementary
Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence for stages of Ehrlichia development in infected host cells
elementary body, initial body, morula
What disease is this man most likely to have?
endemic typhus
Attachment of herpesviruses results in ________, a process in which the host cell facilitates viral entry
endocytosis
Hepatitis B virus releases a large amount of viral antigen, which benefits the patient by
ensuring plentiful substrate for binding with labeled antibodies in diagnostic tests
Which of the following infectious particles is most susceptible to damage
enveloped virus
A lipid membrane is present in which of the following
enveloped viruses
When streptococcal infections involve the skin and surrounding lymph nodes, triggering pain and inflammation, the condition is known as (erysipelas/folliculitis/pyoderma
erysipelas
The skin lesions characteristic of cutaneous infections with Bacillus anthracis are
eschars
Members of the Enterobacteriaceae produce toxins known as (exotoxins/hemolysins/siderophores) which cause diarrhea
exotoxins
Which of the following organs have cells that can be infected by Chlamydia trachomatis
eyes, trachea, rectum, and urethra
Enterobacteriaceae are rarely pathogenic
false
Infants infected with the coxsackie B virus do not develop myocarditis and, therefore, the virus is rarely fatal
false
Salmonellosis is acquired by inhalation
false
Serratia marcescens can be identified by its distinctive blue-green pigment pyocyanin
false
Which of the following would be the LEAST likely way you could contract syphilis
from an unclean toilet seat
The condition in which athletes develop herpes lesions on their skin as a result of coming in contact with herpes lesions during wrestling is known as herpes (gladiatorum/whitlow/zoster
gladiatorum
Humans may become infected with ________ by inhaling aerosols of dried rodent excrement
hantavirus
Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED
hantavirus; paralysis
Which of the following viruses is a DNA virus that infects liver cells
hepadnaviruses
Fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, and a yellow color of the sclera and skin, without hemorrhaging or kidney damage, are typically observed with
hepatitis
A serum sample from a patient is examined on an electron microscope, and observed to contain Dane particles, filamentous, and spherical virion particles in abundance. This observation indicates infection with
hepatitis B