micro exam 04

What is an example of a nontreponemal test? a. RPR b. Fluorescent treponemal antibody, absorbed (FTA-ABS) c. Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TPPA) d. Microhemagglutination-Treponema pallidum (MHA-TP)

a. RPR

What organism causes endemic typhus? a. Rickettsia typhi b. R. canada c. R. rickettsii d. R. prowazekii

a. Rickettsia typhi

What is the primary method used to screen for syphilis infections? a. Serology b. Microscopy c. Culture d. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

a. Serology

How is the true Gram stain reaction of an anaerobe determined? a. Special potency disks b. Shape and colony morphology c. Aerotolerance d. Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)

a. Special potency disks

Once infected with Borrelia recurrentis, a 2- to 15-day incubation period follows where high numbers of organisms are found in the blood. The infected individual experiences high fever, rigors, severe headache, muscle pains, and weakness. This febrile period lasts for about 3 to 7 days, but ends quickly with the induction of an immune response. However, a similar but less severe course of symptoms recurs several days to weeks later. What causes this relapse? a. The organism systematically changes its surface antigens during the course of a single infection. b. The organism produces extracellular toxins that cause the symptoms. c. This organism survives inside infected cells and once the cell dies, the organism is released into the blood, causing this relapse. d. This relapse occurs as the host is trying to mount the secondary antibody response.

a. The organism systematically changes its surface antigens during the course of a single infection.

Most Vibrio sp. are generally halophilic. However, which one can also grow in an environment with 0% sodium chloride? a. V. cholerae b. A. parahaemolyticus c. V. alginoltyticus d. V. vulnificus

a. V. cholerae

Which of the following is a curved, gram-negative rod that grows on thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS) agar? a. Vibrio b. Campylobacter c. Clostridium d. Fusobacterium

a. Vibrio

All the following are categories of bacterial growth requirements for oxygen and carbon dioxide, except a. ambient air (95% O2 and 5% CO2). b. microaerophilic (5% O2). c. anaerobic (0% O2). d. capnophilic (about 15% O2 and 5% to 10% CO2).

a. ambient air (95% O2 and 5% CO2).

Members of the Alcaligenes are usually susceptible to all the following antimicrobial agents, except a. aminoglycosides b. ceftazidime. c. SXT. d. piperacillin.

a. aminoglycosides

What is the name of the organism that is strongly associated with gastric, peptic, and duodenal ulcers, as well as gastrointestinal carcinoma? a. Campylobacter jejuni b. Campylobacter curvus c. Helicobacter pylori d. Helicobacter rectus

c. Helicobacter pylori

An invasive genital disease associated with buboes in the groin describes an infection caused by a. Rickettsia conorii. b. Rickettsia rickettsii. c. Chlamydophila psittaci. d. Chlamydia trachomatis.

d. Chlamydia trachomatis

All of the following are non-spore-forming, anaerobic, gram-positive bacilli, except a. Actinomyces. b. Bifidobacterium. c. Eubacterium. d. Clostridium.

d. Clostridium.

A vaginal swab is received for anaerobic culture. How should this request be handled or processed? a. Plate material to anaerobic plates and incubate b. Place swab in culture broth and incubate c. Place swab in sterile saline, vortex, use saline to inoculate anaerobic plates then incubate d. Contact the physician, this is an unacceptable specimen

d. Contact the physician, this is an unacceptable specimen

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to all the following antimicrobial agents, except a. Ampicillin. b. Chloramphenicol. c. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. d. Fluoroquinolones

d. Fluoroquinolones

What environment is Aeromonas spp. most commonly found in? a. Arthropods b. Wild animals c. Ocean water d. Fresh water

d. Fresh water

What diseases do Borrelia spp. cause? a. Undulant and hemorrhagic fevers b. Lyme disease and parrot fever c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever and relapsing fever d. Lyme disease and relapsing fever

d. Lyme disease and relapsing fever

What is the most common member of the genus Moraxella isolated in the clinical laboratory? a. M. nonliquefaciens b. M. osloensis c. M. lacunata d. M. catarrhalis

d. M. catarrhalis

The four major groups of anaerobic gram-negative bacilli include all the following, except a. Bacteroides fragilis. b. Porphyromonas. c. Prevotella. d. Mobiluncus.

d. Mobiluncus.

A young man goes to his physician complaining of a discharge from his penis. The physician collects a slide for Gram stain and a swab for culture and sends them to the laboratory. The Gram stain reveals greater than 25 white blood cells/high-power field, no bacteria seen. The culture results after 48 hours show no growth. What is the most probable diagnosis and the organism responsible? a. Urethritis, Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Epididymitis, Moraxella c. Nongonococcal urethritis, Neisseria meningitidis d. Nongonococcal urethritis, Chlamydia trachomatis

d. Nongonococcal urethritis, Chlamydia trachomatis

Where on the body is the secondary syphilis rash typically seen? a. Chest and back b. Back and soles c. Buttocks and palms d. Palms and soles

d. Palms and soles

The three nonfermenters that make up the majority of isolates routinely seen in clinical laboratories include all the following, except a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. b. Acinetobacter spp. c. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia. d. Pseudomonas putida.

d. Pseudomonas putida.

What organism causes epidemic louseborne typhus? a. Rickettsia typhi b. R. canada c. R. rickettsii d. R. prowazekii

d. R. prowazekii

What organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever? a. Rickettsia prowazekii b. R. typhi c. R. canada d. R. rickettsii

d. R. rickettsii

What substances do organisms that use oxygen have to protect themselves from superoxide anions? a. Hyaluronidase and proteases b. Exotoxins and superoxide dismutase c. Enterotoxins and lipase d. Superoxide dismutase and catalase

d. Superoxide dismutase and catalase

Which of the following Vibrio species is most likely to be recovered from extraintestinal tract infections, e.g., septicemia? a. Vibrio alginolyticus b. V. parahaemolyticus c. V. cholerae d. V. vulnificus

d. V. vulnificus

What is a Leptospira infection called when it becomes a severe systemic disease? a. Niemann-Pick b. Bordet-Gengou c. Gaucher disease d. Weil disease

d. Weil disease

The microscopic method of choice in detecting treponemes in clinical specimens a. Gram stain. b. Giemsa stain. c. unstained wet mounts. d. dark-field microscopy.

d. dark-field microscopy.

Early-onset congenital syphilis is characterized by all the following symptoms, except a. osteochondritis. b. anemia. c. hepatosplenomegaly. d. encephalitis.

d. encephalitis.

All of the following are approaches to treating anaerobic infections, except a. surgical therapy. b. hyperbaric oxygen. c. antitoxins. d. enzyme inactivators.

d. enzyme inactivators.

All of the following are biochemical characteristics of Vibrio spp., except a. ferments glucose. b. reduces nitrate to nitrite. c. halophilic. d. oxidase negative.

d. oxidase negative.

Chlamydia trachomatis is the infectious agent in all the following conditions in humans, except a. trachoma. b. urogenital infections. c. lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV). d. pharyngitis.

d. pharyngitis.

What is the ideal anaerobic incubation system? a. Anaerobic chamber b. Anaerobic jars c. Anaerobic bags d. Candle jars

a. Anaerobic chamber

Which of the following is considered a better specimen for anaerobic culture than a swab? a. Aspirate b. Washing c. Scraping d. Lavage

a. Aspirate

What organism causes relapsing fever? a. Borrelia recurrentis b. B. burgdorferi c. Leptospira interrogans d. C. psittaci

a. Borrelia recurrentis

CAMPY-BAP (blood agar plate) contains a. Brucella agar base, 10% sheep red blood cells, vancomycin, trimethoprim, polymyxin B, amphotericin B, and cephalothin. b. Columbia agar base, 5% sheep red blood cells, erythromycin, spectinomycin, Diflucan, and ampicillin. c. Brucella agar base, 5% sheep red blood cells, Zithromax, sulfamethoxazole, nystatin, amphotericin B, and imipenem. d. Columbia agar base, glycerol, L-cysteine, hemin, streptomycin, amphotericin B, and gentamicin.

a. Brucella agar base, 10% sheep red blood cells, vancomycin, trimethoprim, polymyxin B, amphotericin B, and cephalothin.

What nonfermenter may produce a weak, slow, positive oxidase reaction? a. Burkholderia cepacia b. Pseudomonas putida c. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia d. P. stutzeri

a. Burkholderia cepacia

What organisms are considered obligate intracellular parasites? a. Chlamydia b. Mycoplasma c. Ureaplasma d. Haemophilus

a. Chlamydia

What disease manifests in acute cases as a severe gastroenteritis, accompanied by vomiting followed by diarrheic stools that are described as rice water and occur 10 to 30 times a day? a. Cholera b. Typhoid c. Dysentery d. Food poisoning

a. Cholera

An anaerobic culture reveals colonies with a double zone of hemolysis on SBA plate. There was no growth on plates incubated aerobically. The Gram stain of that organism was a boxcar-shaped, gram-positive bacillus. What organism is this? a. Clostridium perfringens b. C. difficile c. C. ramosum d. C. clostridioiforme

a. Clostridium perfringens

When does an untreated patient develop tertiary syphilis? a. Decades after the initial infection b. 2 to 3 years after the initial infection c. 1 year after the initial infection d. 5 years after the initial infection

a. Decades after the initial infection

What is the drug of choice for treating intestinal campylobacteriosis? a. Erythromycin b. Gentamicin c. Vancomycin d. Imipenem

a. Erythromycin

Spirochetes are made up of all the following, except a. Helicobacter. b. Leptospira. c. Borrelia. d. Treponema.

a. Helicobacter.

What disease, caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, is considered a sexually transmitted disease where the organisms enter the lymph nodes near the genital tract, resulting in bubo formation and ultimately rupturing the lymph node? : a. LGV b. Trachoma c. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) d. Conjunctivitis

a. LGV

A young woman notices a red bruiselike lesion that looks like a target on her lower leg. She cannot remember getting bruised, even though she went hiking through the woods last weekend. The bruise goes away in about a week and she thinks nothing more about it. About 2 weeks later, she develops joint and bone pain, extreme fatigue, and her heart just "doesn't feel right." What disease does she have, and what antimicrobial agent is used to treat it? a. Lyme disease and doxycycline b. Relapsing fever and macrolides c. Parrot fever and penicillin d. Hemorrhagic fever and gentamicin

a. Lyme disease and doxycycline

What type of an atmosphere do campylobacters require for growth? a. Microaerophilic and capnophilic b. Anaerobic and moist c. Capnophilic and halophilic d. Microaerophilic and high nitrogen content

a. Microaerophilic and capnophilic

What biochemical test will differentiate nonfermenters from Enterobacteriaceae (except Plesiomonas)? a. Oxidase b. Indole c. Citrate d. Voges-Proskauer (VP)

a. Oxidase

What two biochemical tests help distinguish Aeromonas spp. from other enterics? a. Oxidase and indole b. Oxidase and Simmon's citrate c. Simmon's citrate and indole d. Voges-Proskauer (VP) and indole

a. Oxidase and indole

A microbiologist is reading the plates from a sputum culture. The culture is from a patient with cystic fibrosis. One organism dominates the blood agar, chocolate, and MacConkey plates. The MacConkey plate shows an organism with a green pigment and a metallic sheen. The probable identification for this organism is a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Serratia marcescens. c. Chromobacterium violaceum. d. Prevotella melaninogenica.

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

What Pseudomonas sp. is the nonfermenter that is the leading cause of nosocomial pneumonia and bacteremia? a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. P. fluorescens c. P. putida d. P. mendocina

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

An oxidase-positive, nonfermentative gram-negative bacillus that characteristically produces dry, wrinkled colonies describes a. Pseudomonas stutzeri. b. Pseudomonas luteola. c. Pseudomonas mendocina. d. Pseudomonas putida.

a. Pseudomonas stutzeri.

All of the following reasons are cited for performing antimicrobial susceptibility testing on anaerobes by the Clinical and CLSI, except a. to determine the resistance mechanisms in anaerobes. b. to assist in the management of patients with serious illnesses. c. to monitor local and regional resistance patterns. d. to determine susceptibility of anaerobes to new antimicrobials.

a. to determine the resistance mechanisms in anaerobes.

What species of Aeromonas is the most frequently associated with gastrointestinal infections? a. A. hydrophila b. A. caviae c. A. veronii d. A. sobria

b. A. caviae

Which gram-negative coccobacilli can appear as gram-positive cocci in smears made from blood culture bottles? a. Pseudomonas putida b. Acinetobacter spp. c. Haemophilus d. Alcaligenes spp.

b. Acinetobacter spp.

What is an anaerobe? a. An organism that can live with very little oxygen b. An organism that does not require oxygen to live c. An organism that requires some oxygen but moderate concentrations of CO2 to live d. An organism that requires small amounts of oxygen and carbon dioxide to live

b. An organism that does not require oxygen to live

How are Borrelia organisms transmitted to the host? a. Respiratory droplets b. Arthropods c. Birds d. Blood or body fluids

b. Arthropods

Which nonfermenter is considered by government agencies to be a potential bioterrorist agent? a. Moraxella catarrhalis b. Burkholderia mallei c. Pseudomonas putida d. B. gladioli

b. Burkholderia mallei

A 4-day-old infant shows symptoms of conjunctivitis. A Giemsa stain of the conjunctival scraping shows perinuclear cytoplasmic inclusions. This organism is most likely a. C. trachomatis serovars A, B, Ba, C. b. C. trachomatis serovars D-K. c. C. trachomatis serovars L1, L2, L3. d. C. pneumoniae.

b. C. trachomatis serovars D-K.

What organism has a microscopic morphology of tiny, curved, gram-negative rods, with S-shapes or seagull-wing shapes on Gram stain? a. Helicobacter b. Campylobacter c. Haemophilus d. Acinetobacter

b. Campylobacter

What substances do nonfermenters fail to ferment in traditional media? a. Lipids b. Carbohydrates c. Proteins d. Alkaloids

b. Carbohydrates

What organism's unique life cycle contains an elementary body (EB) and a reticulate body (RB)? a. Haemophilus b. Chlamydia c. Ureaplasma d. Mycoplasma

b. Chlamydia

What organism is an opportunistic pathogen that strikes the immunocompromised patient with neutrophil deficits and produces a violet pigment on nonselective agar? a. Psychrobacter immobilis b. Chromobacterium violaceum c. Chryseomonas luteola d. Paracoccus phenylpyruvicus

b. Chromobacterium violaceum

What organism causes human monocytic ehrlichiosis (HME) and uses the lone star tick (Amblyomma americanum) as its primary vector? a. Neorickettsia sennetsu b. Ehrlichia chaffeensis c. Anaplasma phagocytophilum d. Leptotrombidium deliensis

b. Ehrlichia chaffeensis

What medium is used in the laboratory to grow leptospiral organisms? a. MacConkey b. Fletcher's c. Sheep blood agar d. None of the above

b. Fletcher's

An animal attendant at the zoo developed symptoms that included fever, chills, headache, severe myalgia, and malaise. His urinalysis revealed the presence of protein and blood. A couple of weeks earlier, the attendant was handling the chimpanzees, and one of the chimps urinated on him. What is the most likely cause of illness? a. Borrelia b. Leptospira c. Treponema d. Helicobacter

b. Leptospira

What is the preferred technique to rapidly detect Chlamydia trachomatis in clinical specimens? a. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) b. Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) c. Cell culture d. Cytologic methods

b. Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

What organism is a common cause of pulmonary disease among individuals with cystic fibrosis? a. Pseudomonas fluorescens b. P. aeruginosa c. P. putida d. P. mendocina

b. P. aeruginosa

What structure is responsible for motility in spirochetes? a. Axiles b. Periplasmic flagella c. Flexible cell wall d. Compressed nucleus

b. Periplasmic flagella

Which of the following is characteristic of members of the genus Clostridium? a. Catalase positive b. Spore-forming anaerobic bacilli c. Spore-forming anaerobic cocci d. Facultative anaerobes

b. Spore-forming anaerobic bacilli

What disease does Clostridium tetani cause? a. Botulism b. Tetanus c. Food poisoning d. Myonecrosis

b. Tetanus

What is the name of the organism that causes the disease cholera? a. Vibrio furnissii b. V. cholerae c. V. vulnificus d. V. parahaemolyticus

b. V. cholerae

A patient is brought to the emergency department with a severe case of gastroenteritis. The patient experienced gastrointestinal upset after eating raw oysters. What organism can be the culprit for this patient's condition? a. Vibrio trota b. V. parahaemolyticus c. V. cholerae d. V. vulnificus

b. V. parahaemolyticus

Aeromonads are generally susceptible to all these antimicrobial agents, except a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. b. ampicillin. c. aminoglycosides. d. quinolones.

b. ampicillin.

Diseases caused by rickettsial organisms are typically transmitted to humans by a. ingestion of contaminated food. b. an arthropod vector. c. animal bites. d. inhalation of aerosols.

b. an arthropod vector.

All of the following are urogenital infections in men, produced by Chlamydia trachomatis,except a. epididymitis. b. orchitis. c. prostatitis. d. nongonococcal urethritis (NGU).

b. orchitis.

What is the causative agent of glanders? a. Burkholderia cepacia b. B. gladioli c. B. mallei d. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

c. B. mallei

What organism mostly commonly causes gas gangrene? a. Clostridium difficile b. C. tetani c. C. perfringens d. C. botulinum

c. C. perfringens

What has an outer membrane similar to that of many gram-negative bacteria, with the most prominent feature being the major outer membrane protein? a. Haemophilus b. RB c. EB d. Intracellular parasites

c. EB

Why are antibody detection methods for Chlamydia trachomatis infection severely limited in the knowledge they provide the physician? = a. Because C. trachomatis is an intracellular parasite, the body does not produce antibodies against it. b. Only IgE antibodies are produced against C. trachomatis. c. Many people have antibodies from previous infections, and local infections do not cause great increases in antibody levels. d. All of the above.

c. Many people have antibodies from previous infections, and local infections do not cause great increases in antibody levels.

What is the drug of choice used to treat syphilis? a. Tetracycline b. Fluoroquinolones c. Penicillin d. Macrolides

c. Penicillin

All the following organisms are found in the GI tract, except a. Bacteroides. b. Clostridium. c. Propionibacterium. d. Bifidobacterium.

c. Propionibacterium.

This bacterium is said to have a fruity or grapelike smell. a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Proteus mirabilis c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Nocardia sp.

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

An H2S-positive, oxidase-positive, nonfermenter describes a. Acinetobacter spp. b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. c. Shewanella. d. Sphingomonas.

c. Shewanella.

A man is taking a shower and notices a lesion on his penis that is not tender but is firm with a clean surface and raised edges. He goes to his physician. The physician orders a rapid plasmin reagin (RPR) and a dark-field microscopy. Both tests are positive. What is the probable diagnosis? a. Gonorrhea b. Nongonococcal urethritis c. Syphilis d. Human papillomavirus

c. Syphilis

What is the drug of choice for treating Borrelia infections? a. Aminoglycosides b. Macrolides c. Tetracyclines d. Penicillins

c. Tetracyclines

What is the name of the organism that is responsible for "summer diarrhea" in Japan? a. Vibrio cholerae b. V. vulnificus c. V. parahaemolyticus d. V. trota

c. V. parahaemolyticus

What is the name of the test used to detect rickettsial agents? a. Levy-Jennings b. Mueller-Hinton c. Weil-Felix d. Watson-Crick

c. Weil-Felix

Chlamydia trachomatis produces all the following conditions in adult women, except a. PID b. salpingitis c. bacterial vaginosis d. endometritis

c. bacterial vaginosis

All of the following diseases are associated with Chlamydia trachomatis,except a. undulant fever. b. urethritis. c. conjunctivitis. d. LGV.

c. conjunctivitis

On egg-yolk agar, Clostridium perfringens will demonstrate: a. brown to black colonies with a halo b. bluish-green sheen on surface of colonies c. off-white precipitate around colonies d. All of the above

c. off-white precipitate around colonies

All of the following characteristics describe the genus Plesiomonas,except a. ferments glucose. b. motile. c. oxidase negative. d. facultative anaerobes.

c. oxidase negative.

Aeromonads have been implicated in all of the following diseases, except a. osteomyelitis. b. meningitis. c. pneumonia. d. otitis.

c. pneumonia.

Acceptable specimens during the first week of leptospirosis include which of the following: a. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) b. Blood c. Urine d. A and B

d. A and B

How is Helicobacter pylori presumptively identified? a. A culture of a gastric biopsy b. A culture of gastric scrapings c. A rapid oxidase test done on gastric scrapings d. A rapid urease test done on a gastric biopsy

d. A rapid urease test done on a gastric biopsy

Characteristics of Moraxella include a. oxidase-positive and nonmotile. b. biochemically inert and aerobic. c. susceptible to penicillin and opportunistic pathogens. d. All of the above

d. All of the above

How are suspected colonies of anaerobes processed? a. Gram stain morphology and reaction is observed. b. An aerotolerance test is set up. c. A pure culture/subculture plate is inoculated and appropriate disks are added. d. All of the above

d. All of the above

What evidence indicates the presence of anaerobes in cultures? a. A foul odor upon opening an anaerobic jar or bag b. Growth on the anaerobic plates, but not on the sheep blood agar (SBA) plates incubated in the CO2 incubator c. Colonies on kanamycin-vancomycin laked-blood agar (KVLBA) that fluoresce brick-red under ultraviolet light d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following is a virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa? a. Endotoxin b. Exotoxins c. Capsule d. All of the above

d. All of the above

All of the following are poor prognostic factors associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa bacteremia, except a. Septic shock. b. Granulocytopenia. c. Septic metastatic lesions. d. Anemia

d. Anemia

Fifty years after his release from a concentration camp, a man develops signs and symptoms of typhus. He currently has no known contacts or source of disease exposure; however, he may have had it in 1945 when he experienced similar symptoms. What is the most likely current diagnosis? a. Oroya fever b. Q fever c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever d. Brill-Zinsser syndrome

d. Brill-Zinsser syndrome

When collecting specimens that may contain Campylobacter spp. bacteria, what transport medium should they be placed in, if a delay in transport is possible? a. Buffered glycerol-saline b. Regan-Lewis c. Aimes d. Cary-Blair

d. Cary-Blair