Microbiology - Parasitology

71. Which of the following is matched correctly? A. Enterobius vermicularis ova - ovoid in shape with one side flattened. The embryo is separated from the shell by a clear space. B. Trichomonas vaginalis - is considered an important factor in the etiology of carcinoma of the bladder. The ova are elongated and are 60 X 160 microns. They are a yellowish color, slightly transparent, and possess a delicate terminal spine. C. Schistosoma haematobium ova - have a characteristic oval body with a long thin tail and are 50 microns in length. D. Sperm - is highly motile, measuring 8 - 15 microns with a characteristic pear shape. It has multiple anterior flagella and the nucleus is often apparent.

A

76. Which of the following parasites is/are considered as atrial ameba(e)? A. Naegleria fowleri B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Chilomastix mesnili D. Toxoplasma gondii

A

80. Which of the following helminths is a tissue nematode whose life cycle resides in a single host? A. Trichinella spiralis B. Taenia solium C. Taenia saginata D. Diphyllobothrium latum

A

13. Whipworm infection may be diagnosed in stool specimens by microscopic observation of adult worms or barrel-shaped eggs with polar plugs. Which species is known as the whipworm? A. Trichuris trichiura B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Necator americanus D. Enterobius vermicularis

A

137. Which of the following specimen processing techniques is based on the principle that parasites are heavier than sample debris and will be present in the sediment after being processed? A. Ethyl acetate concentration B. Zinc sulfate flotation C. Cellophane tape preparation D. Entero-test

A

44. Which Plasmodium morphologic form is considered most immature? A. Trophozoite B. Schizont C. Microgametocyte D. Macrogametocyte

A

46. Of the protozoa listed below, which of the following can be routinely cultured? A. Acanthamoeba species B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Chilomastix mesnili D. Entamoeba histolytica

A

110. The following is an inclusion that may be round in the immature cyst of amoebae such as Entamoeba histolytica and Entamoeba coli. This inclusion is rod-shaped, contains refractile chromatin, and may have smooth, rounded edges or splintered ends. This structure is called: A. Glycogen mass B. Chromatoid bars C. Karyosomes D. Flagella

B

64. As one of the morphological families of parasites, a feature that characterizes various Nematode species is: A. Disease cannot be transmitted via a fecal to oral route. B. Filariform larvae may serve as an infective form for humans. C. They are hermaphroditic. D. Addition of proglottids is the method by which they mature.

B

1. Microscopic examination of peripheral blood may be diagnostic for infection with each of the following parasites EXCEPT: A. Plasmodium vivax B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Trichinella spiralis D. Wuchereria bancrofti

C

33. The body of a cestode is known as its: A. Proglottid B. Scolex C. Strobila D. Rostellum

C

52. Which type of Plasmodium infection has a 72-hour cycle, tends to infect old cells, and will have normal sized red blood cells? A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium falciparum

C

96. Which of the following parasites can cross the placenta and cause serious infection to the fetus? A. Cryptosporidium parvum B. Giardia lamblia C. Toxoplasma gondii D. Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii)

C

98. Enterobius vermicularis infection is acquired by: A. Skin penetration of larvae B. Insect bite C. Ingestion or inhalation of egg D. Ingestion of infected fish

C

Which of these parasites can be contracted by swimming in infected water? A. Blastocystis hominis B. Taenia saginata C. Naegleria fowleri D. Babesia microti

C

10. What is the optimal specimen type to diagnose a Naegleria fowleri infection? A. Whole blood sample B. Water sample C. Stool sample D. Cerebrospinal fluid(CSF) sample

D

108. The following is the vector for the transmission of Onchocerca volvulus: A. Mosquitos B. Sandflies C. Reduviid D. Black Flies

D

11. Which parasite can be recovered from the eye? A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Paragonimus spp. C. Trichinella spp. D. Toxoplasma gondii

D

111. All of the following are included in a standard ova and parasites examination, EXCEPT: A. Visual examination B. Direct wet mount examination C. Permanent stained smear examination D. A parasite culture

D

116. From the following list of parasites, identify which one has the smallest egg? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Paragonimus westermani C. chistosoma mansoni D. Trichuris trichiura

D

12. A stool specimen has been left at room temperature overnight. The next day, many motile larvae with a short buccal cavity are seen upon microscopic exam, but there are no ova observed. What is the most likely identification and life stage of this parasite? A. Necator americanus - rhabditiform larvae B. Strongyloides stercoralis - adult C. Ancylostoma duodenale - filariform larvae D. Strongyloides stercoralis - rhabditiform larvae

D

121. Which of the following describes a cestode? A. Adults are round resembling unsegmented earthworms B. Adults worms are cylindrical with the female living in the male C. Adults are dorsoventrally flat with oral and ventral suckers D. Adults are ribbonlike and contain segments

D

125. The ideal stool sample for parasitic examination is one that is freshly collected and submitted to the laboratory at: A. Refrigerator temperature (2° C) B. Incubation temperature (37° C) C. A temperature of -70° C D. Room temperature (approximately 22° C)

D

129. The Knott technique serves as a means of identifying: A. Plasmodium vivax B. Babesia microti C. Loa loa D. Strongyloides stercoralis

C

135. Which type of stain is recommended to speciate Plasmodium species? A. Thick trichrome-stained B. Thin trichrome-stained C. Thick iodine-stained D. Thin-stained Giemsa smears

D

139. Methods of detecting and identifying intestinal parasites include all of the following except: A. Molecular methods B. Wet mounts C. Permanent stained smears D. Thin and thick Giemsa smear

D

14. How long after hospitalization would stool samples be rejected for testing for parasitic infections? A. No set time B. Greater than 24 hours C. Greater than 48 hours D. Greater than 72 hours

D

18. Upon reviewing a fecal preparation for Ova and Parasites, a technologist thought they had just identified the egg of Taenia saginata. After a quick look, the microbiology supervisor reminded the technologist that T. saginata eggs are indistinguishable from which of the following? A. Dipyllidium caninum B. Echinococcus granulosus C. Hymenolepis diminuta D. Taenia solium

D

19. Methods of detecting and identifying intestinal parasites include all of the following except: A. Molecular methods B. Wet mounts C. Permanent stained smears D. Thin and thin Giemsa smear

D

24. Which one of the following parasites gives birth to live larvae known as microfilariae? A. Strongyloides stercoralis B. Necator americanus C. Diphyllobothrium latum D. Onchocerca volvulus

D

25. Trypanosoma cruzi is the etiologic agent of: A. African sleeping sickness B. Relapsing fever C. Filariasis D. Chagas' disease

D

48. Which of the following parasites migrate either to or through the lungs in their corresponding life cycle? A. Fasciola species B. Taenia solium C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Paragonimus westermanni

D

49. Houseflies are a possible transport host for which of these categories of parasites? A. Sporozoa and amebae B. Amebae and hemoflagellates C. Hemoflagellates and flagellates D. Flagellates and amebae

D

59. Which parasitic infection may result from human ingestion of contaminated fish? A. Dipylidium caninum B. Taenia saginata C. Taenia solium D. Diphyllobothrium latum

D

7. Which of the following adult parasites are found in the lungs and the eggs are most commonly recovered in sputum samples? A. Fasciola spp. B. Clonorchis sinensis C. Opisthorchis spp. D. Paragonimus spp.

D

70. Which of the following organisms is an obligate intracellular parasite? A. Proteus B. Escherichia C. Klebsiella D. Rickettsia

D

78. Which of the following parasites causes both intestinal and extraintestinal amebiasis? A. Entamoeba coli B. Endolimax nana C. Iodamoeba butschlii D. Entamoeba histolytica

D

82. Which of the following is considered the technique of choice for isolating the oocysts of Isospora belli and Cryptosporidium parvum? A. Knott technique B. Giemsa stain C. Trichrome stain D. Zinc sulfate flotation

D

99. In which of the following categories does the helminth Ascaris lumbricoides belong? A. Protozoan B. Cestode C. Trematode D. Nematode

D

86. Although not always the most practical, animal inoculation may be used to identify all but which of the following conditions? A. Malaria B. Leishmaniasis C. Toxoplasmosis D. Trypanosomiasis

A

87. The diagnostic stage for helminths is: A. Egg B. Trophozoite C. Oocyst D. Microfilaria

A

93. Which of the following parasites has the egg as the infective stage of the parasite for humans? A. Enterobius vermicularis B. Taenia solium C. Trypanosoma cruzi D. Schistosoma mansoni

A

94. Which parasite corresponds with the sandfly as its insect vector? A. Leishmania spp. B. Plasmodium spp. C. Loa loa D. Trypanosoma cruzi

A

95. The stage of Ixodes tick most likely to transmit Lyme disease is: A. Nymph B. Larva C. Adult D. Egg

A

17. Parasites which can be found in urinary sediment include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Enterobius vermicularis B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Plasmodium malariae D. Schistosoma haematobium

C

100. All of the following parasites typically survive human stomach juices except: A. Entamoeba gingivalis trophozoite B. Endolimax nana cyst C. Balantidium coli cyst D. Entamoeba histolytica cyst

A

104. Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) is classified as which of the following? A. Nematode B. Trematode C. Filaria D. Cestode

A

109. The parasite Endolimax nana trophozoite shows what type of nuclear appearance? A. Blot-like karyosome, no peripheral chromatin B. Central karyosome, even peripheral chromatin C. Large karyosome, no peripheral chromatin D. Eccentric karyosome, uneven peripheral chromatin

A

113. What is the only nematode egg that is characteristically flattened on one side? A. Enterobius vermicularis B. Paragonimus westermani C. Schistosoma japonicum D. Trichuris trichiura

A

120. The trophozoite state of the intestinal flagellate Giardia duodenalis has what characteristic? A. Two nuclei B. An undulating membrane C. Two flagella D. Lack of a sucking disc

A

123. The addition of iodine to a direct and indirect wet prep is used to detect which of the following protozoan stages? A. Cysts B. Eggs C. Larvae D. Trophozoites

A

138. Which of the following is considered the best fixative for maintaining specimen integrity during and following permanent staining of ova and parasites? A. Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) B. Formalin C. Sodium (SAF) D. Xylene

A

16. Which of the following substances, when present in a sample, may mask parasites? A. Barium B. Saline C. Phosphasoda D. Antimicrobials

A

29. Which of the following is the common name for Hymenolepis diminuta? A. Pork tapeworm B. Rat tapeworm C. Dog tapeworm D. Hydatid tapeworm

B

38. The class of protozoa with no apparent organelles for locomotion is known as: A. Mastigophora B. Sporozoa C. Ciliata D. Sarcodina

B

45. The Echinococcus granulosus life cycle requires both an intermediate host (sheep) and definitive host (dogs), as humans are an accidental intermediate. While the eggs are ingested by humans and sheep, what structures need to be ingested by the definitive host, dogs, in order to complete the life cycle of Echnicoccus? A. Eggs B. Cysts C. Proglottids D. Adult worms

B

53. Consider the following matches of parasites with their common names. Each is a correct match EXCEPT: A. Blood fluke = Schistosoma japonicum B. Pork tapeworm =Taenia saginata C. Chinese liver fluke = Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis D. New World Hookworm = Necator americanus

B

55. Which microscopic, intestinal parasite is the only ciliate that is pathogenic for humans? A. Giardia duodenalis B. Balantidium coli C. Blastocystis hominis D. Cystoisosospora belli

B

57. The first intermediate host in all of the fluke life cycles are the: A. Copepods B. Snails C. Fish D. Water plants

B

58. What is the largest protozoan known to infect humans? A. Entamoeba coli B. Balantidium coli C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Naegleria fowleri

B

6. Stool is the specimen of choice for the recovery of which of the following parasites? A. Trichinella spiralis B. Diphyllobothrium latum C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Schistosoma haematobium

B

62. Trichomonas, Giardia, and Chilomastix belong to the following parasitic group based on the type of motility: A. Amoebae B. Flagellates C. Ciliates D. Microsporidia

B

66. The infective stage for the majority of all intestinal amebae is the: A. Trophozoite B. Cyst C. Larva D. Egg

B

68. Dracunculus medinensis belongs to this category of parasites? A. Cestode B. Nematode C. Filaria D. Trematode

B

77. The term "hydatid sand" is used in reference to which of the following tapeworms? A. Taenia saginata B. Echinococcus species C. Hymenolepis diminuta D. Hymenolepis nana

B

81. Which of the following human parasite spreads its infection through ingestion of raw meat or from oocysts from cat feces? A. Microsporidium B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Cryptosporidium spp. D. Enterocytozoon bieneusi

B

84. What is a human infection caused by flukes called? A. Elephantiasis B. Distomiasis C. Zoonoses D. Swimmer's itch

B

88. A 32-year-old male was seen in the emergency room with gastrointestinal discomfort. Upon questioning the patient it was learned that he first began feeling ill after spending a day at the park where he swam and played volleyball barefooted. He first noticed a lesion on his foot. Later, he developed vague respiratory symptoms. Now his largest complaint is severe abdominal pain along with occasional vomiting. This patient is most likely suffering from a parasitic infection with: A. Echinococcus granulosus B. Necator americanus C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Trichuris trichuria

B

89. What is the anatomical feature of a tapeworm that possesses both male and female reproductive structures? A. Brood capsule B. Proglottid C. Rostellum D. Scolex

B

92. The motile, feeding stage of the amoebas and flagellates is called: A. Cysts B. Trophozoites C. Eggs D. Larvae

B

32. The episodes of fever and chills experienced by patients suffering from malaria are known as: A. Parasitemias B. Inflammations C. Paroxysms D. Relapses

C

67. Which of the following parasites has the longest undulating membrane? A. Trichomonas vaginalis B. Trichomonas tenax C. Trichomonas hominis D. Dientamoeba fragilis

C

73. Trichuris trichiura belongs to which of the following helminth groups? A. Filariae B. Trematodes C. Nematodes D. Cestodes

C

128. A stool specimen was received in the laboratory for an O & P examination. The medical laboratory scientist performed a direct wet mount and found suspicious forms. A formalin ethyl acetate concentration procedure was performed and the top layer was examined with no suspicious forms observed. A slide made from the top layer was stained with Trichrome and again no suspicious forms were noted. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these discrepant results? A. The wrong layer was examined following the formalin ethyl acetate concentration procedure. B. The portion of specimen used for formalin ethyl acetate concentration did not contain suspicious forms. C. The sample was improperly mixed prior to processing. D. The ethyl acetate destroyed the suspicious forms.

A

23. Which parasite is transmitted via a mosquito bite? A. Wuchereria bancrofti B. Leishmania braziliensis C. Loa loa D. Babesia spp.

A

134. All of the following represents an organism with an appropriate form of diagnostic procedure, EXCEPT: A. Trichinella spiralis - serologic testing B. Cryptosporidium - modified acid-fast stain C. Echinococcus granulosus - routine ova and parasite examination D. Schistosoma haematobium - examination of urine sediment

C

136. In the formalin-ethyl acetate sedimentation procedure, four layers will occur. Out of the layers, where does the formalin layer occur? A. Top layer B. Bottom layer C. Between the bottom layer and the debris/fat layer D. Below the top layer and above the debris/fat layer

C

54. Coccidia parasites are often acquired by fecal-oral routes by ingesting contaminated food or water. All of the following are coccidia parasites EXCEPT? A. Sarcocystis species B. Cryptosporidium parvum C. Trypanosoma cruzi D. Isospora belli

C

117. An iodine prep is LEAST helpful in the identification of which parasitic stage? A. Larvae B. Eggs C. Cysts D. Trophozoites

D

74. In the hookworm life cycle, which of the following is considered the noninfective larval form?: A. Rhabditiform B. Filariform C. Proglottids D. Cercariae

A

105. Which type of Plasmodium infection will have severe anemia, is very common to have CNS involvement, and has a 6-17-month duration for an untreated infection? A. Plasmodium ovale B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium vivax

B

106. In the following list, which of the parasites has the MOST complex life cycle? A. Naegleria fowleri B. Schistosoma mansoni C. Hookworm D. Iodamoeba butschlii

B

115. A 40-year-old business man developed intermittent spiking fevers one week following a trip to Western Africa. The Wright-stained peripheral blood smear as illustrated in the image was observed. Based on the morphology of the erythrocytes and the heavy invasion with ring form trophozoites, the diagnosis of malaria could be made. With particular focus on the sickle-form gametocyte, which Plasmodium species is represented by this peripheral blood smear? A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium ovale

B

118. Thorn-like pseudopods are characteristic in trophozoite form of which amoeba? A. Entamoeba gingivalis B. Acanthamoeba species C. Naegleria fowleri D. Isospora belli

B

119. Which of the following life cycle stage is properly matched to it's location within the host? A. Sporozoites in erythrocytes B. Merozoites in erythorocytes C. Gametocytes in liver cells D. Trophozoite in liver cells

B

126. Amoebae stained with this substance may be readily distinguished, since it enhances nuclear and structural detail. A. Saline B. Iodine C. Polyvinyl alcohol D. Methylene blue

B

131. Which of the following steps is the first step of the ethyl acetate concentration procedure? A. Centrifuge specimen to obtain four layers B. Mix fresh stool specimen with 10% formalin and strain to obtain a sediment C. Add normal saline, centrifuge, and decant the supernatant fluid D. Resuspend the sediment with 10% formalin and add ethyl acetate

B

132. The Enterotest may be used to recover which of the following parasites? A. Balantidium coli B. Giardia duodenalis C. Cryptococcus species D. Entamoeba coli

B

132. The avoidance of laboratory diagnosis techniques that utilize water is recommended for the identification of which of these parasites? A. Cryptosporidium parvum B. Blastocystis hominis C. Toxoplasma gondii D. Balantidium coli

B

127. In hookworm cases where progressive anemia is present, what additional test procedure should be performed to determine infection in stool specimens? A. Permanently stained smear B. Modified acid-fast stain C. Concentration technique D. Wet mount preparation

C

130. Xenodiagnosis has historically been used to identify: A. Leishmania donovani B. Trichinella spiralis C. Trypanosoma cruzi D. Echinococcus granulosus

C

101. Which of the following parasites has the longest undulating membrane? A. Trichomonas vaginalis B. Trichomonas tenax C. Trichomonas hominis D. Dientamoeba fragilis

C

102. Humans serve as accidental hosts in the life cycles of which of these this parasites? A. Trichuris trichiura B. Taenia solium C. Echinococcus granulosus D. Clonorchis sinensis

C

103. All of the following parasites are appropriately matched with its respective means of locomotion, EXCEPT: A. Trichomonas sp. - flagella B. Entamoeba sp. - pseudopods C. Giardia sp. - no locomotion D. Balantidium sp. - cilia

C

112. The small mass of chromatin located in the nucleus of the amebic parasites is termed: A. Cytostome B. Peripheral chromatin C. Karyosome D. Micronucleus

C

114. Based on the following choices, which one is the best way to identify microfilariae? A. Presence or absence of peripheral chromatin; size and location of the karyosome B. Length of undulating membrane; presence or absence of cytostome C. Arrangement of nuclei; presence or absence of a sheath D. Arrangement of peripheral chromatin; appearance of karyosome

C

122. The Entero-Test or string test may be helpful in diagnosing an infection with which of the following parasitic organisms? A. Entamoeba coli B. Dientamoeba fragilis C. Giardia duodenalis D. Balantidium coli

C

124. In the performance of which of the following procedures may eggs with opercula be difficult to recover from or detect in stool specimens? A. Sedimentation B. Direct saline mount C. Zinc sulfate flotation D. Direct iodine mount

C

30. Each parasite listed below is correctly matched with its respective vector, EXCEPT: A. Iodamoeba butschlii - pig B. Trypanosoma cruzi - reduviid bug C. Plasmodium vivax - mosquito D. Loa loa - fly

A

31. All of the following parasites typically survive human stomach juices except: A. Entamoeba gingivalis trophozoite B. Endolimax nana cyst C. Balantidium coli cyst D. Entamoeba histolytica cyst

A

35. Which of the following organisms is considered to be pathogenic? A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Entamoeba coli C. Chilomastix mesnili D. Trichomonas hominis

A

42. Which of these parasites are hermaphroditic in their adult phase? A. Clonorchis sinensis B. Schistosoma haematobium C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Trichuris trichiura

A

56. Multiple ring forms in one red blood cell are most frequently seen in which Plasmodium species infections? A. P. falciparum B. P. vivax C. P. malariae D. P. ovale

A

63. All of the following life stages of schistosome worms are appropriately matched with the host they are found in, EXCEPT: A. Cercaria - cow B. Sporocysts - snail C. Adult worm - human D. Egg - human

A

72. Which of the following parasites resembles Entamoeba histolytica, but lacks ingested red blood cells in the trophozoite form? A. Entamoeba hartmanni B. Entamoeba coli C. Entamoeba gingivalis D. Endolimax nana

A

15. Which of the following is the rigid, nonmotile diagnostic stage of the amebae which is generally found in the formed stool? A. Oocyst B. Cyst C. Trophozoite D. Sporozoite

B

8. At an outpatient clinic, a patient comes in with an order for stool ova and parasites (O & P). How should this specimen be collected and transported for best test results? A. The specimen should be collected in a sterile container and transported to the laboratory by the end of the shift. B. A small sample of the specimen should be applied to the two small windows of the Guaiac smear test card and sent to the laboratory immediately. C. The specimen should be immediately placed in recipients containing polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) or formalin and transported to the laboratory. D. A rectal swab sent immediately to the laboratory will produce the most reliable test results.

C

2. In hookworm cases where progressive anemia is present, what additional test procedure should be performed to determine infection in stool specimens? A. Permanently stained smear B. Modified acid-fast stain C. Concentration technique D. Wet mount preparation

C

27. Which organism is considered free-living amoebae? A. Entamoeba coli B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Naegleria fowleri D. Endolimax nana

C

3. All of the organisms are listed with a common site of recovery for that parasite, EXCEPT: A. Giardia lamblia - duodenal contents B. Trichuris trichuria - stool C. Plasmodium falciperum - ocular secretions D. Paragonimus westermanni - sputum

C

36. In the life cycle of the intestinal trematodes, Fasciolopsis/Fasciola and Heterophyes, which of the following is known to infect snails? A. Coracidium B. Onchosphere C. Miracidium D. Rhabditiform

C

37. Adult forms of the following worms are all hermaphroditic, EXCEPT: A. Hymenolepis B. Taenia C. Schistosoma D. Clonorchis

C

4. The specimen of choice for the recovery of Entamoeba hartmanni is: A. CSF B. Genital discharge C. Stool D. Urine

C

39. Which malarial parasite is most likely present in a patient with a stained blood smear that reveals giant platelets, many reticulocytes containing Schuffner's dots, large ring forms, and schizonts with 12-24 merozoites? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium malariae C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium vivax

D

40. Human infection of the Schistosomes occurs following penetration of what morphologic form into the skin? A. Eggs B. Miracidia C. Rediae D. Cercariae

D

41. Which of the following amoebae has a flagellate form as part of its life cycle? A. Trichomonas tenax B. Pneumocystis jirovecii C. Acanthamoeba spp. D. Naegleria fowleri

D

43. Which organism is considered nonpathogenic? A. Dientamoeba fragilis B. Balantidium coli C. Blastocystis hominis D. Chilomastix mesnii

D

9. The ideal stool sample for parasitic examination is one that is freshly collected and submitted to the laboratory at: A. Refrigerator temperature (2° C) B. Incubation temperature (37° C) C. A temperature of -70° C D. Room temperature (approximately 22° C)

D

34. What term is defined as the presence of arthropods in or upon a human host: A. Infection B. Disease C. Symbiosis D. Infestation

D

91. Ingestion of viable larvae in improperly cooked pork could lead to human infestations with which organism? A. Taenia saginata B. Trichinella spiralis C. Hymenolepis diminuta D. Strongyloides stercoralis

B

26. The common name of which parasite is the sheep liver fluke? A. Fasciolopsis buski B. Fasciola hepatica C. Clonorchis sinensis D. Paragonimus westermani

B

20. Which malaria pathogen is associated with massive hemolysis, blackwater fever, and blockage of capillaries? A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium malariae

B

21. All of the following are primary routes of transmission for intestinal amoebae, EXCEPT? A. The ingestion of cysts in contaminated food B. The bite of an insect C. The ingestion of cysts in contaminated drink D. Hand-to-mouth contamination

B

22. The trophozoite is the only morphologic form in the life cycle of: A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Pentatrichomonas hominis C. Chilomastix mesnili D. Retortamonas intestinalis

B

28. What is the recommended treatment if the patient is passing both cysts and trophozoites with an Entamoeba histolytica infection? A. Either a luminal amebicide or a tissue amebicide B. Tissue amebicide followed by a luminal amebicide C. Luminal amebicide D. Tissue amebicide

B

79. Consider the following characteristics of hookworm infection. Each is correct EXCEPT: A. Filariform larvae penetrate human skin into the blood. B. Larvae are carried in the blood to the bronchial tree where they mature in the lungs. C. Larvae are swallowed and travel to the small intestine where they mature. D. Gastrointestinal symptoms may include diarrhea, nausea and hemorrhage.

B

47. Enterobius vermicularis infection is acquired by: A. Skin penetration of larvae B. Insect bite C. Ingestion or inhalation of egg D. Ingestion of infected fish

C

5. Which of the following is the correct order when performing a permanent stained smear of a stool specimen? A. 100% ethanol; 70% ethanol/D'Antoni's iodine; 70% ethanol; Trichrome stain; 90% ethanol; Xylene B. 90% ethanol; 70% ethanol/D'Antoni's iodine; 70% ethanol; Trichrome stain; 100% ethanol; Xylene C. 70% ethanol/D'Antoni's iodine; 70% ethanol; Trichrome stain; 90% ethanol;100% ethanol; Xylene D. 70% ethanol/D'Antoni's iodine; 100% ethanol; 90% ethanol; Trichrome stain; 70% ethanol; Xylene

C

50. A specimen suspected of containing which organism may be cultured by placing it on an agar plate with an overlay growth of Escherichia coli? A. Entamoeba coli B. Schistosoma japonicum C. Acanthamoeba species D. Taenia species

C

51. This organism is found endemically on the New England seacoast. When seen in peripheral blood smears, it resembles a parasite of the genus Plasmodium. When an organism resembling malarial parasites is found in the peripheral blood, it is most probably: A. Leishmania donovani B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Babesia D. Loa loa

C

60. Adult Ascaris lumbricoides worms reside in the: A. Lungs B. Liver C. Small intestines D. Large intestines

C

61. Which of the following parasites has a life cycle that most closely resembles that of Plasmodium species? A. Dracunculus medinensis B. Blastocystis hominis C. Babesia microti D. Toxoplasma gondii

C

65. Not all strains of Entamoeba histolytica appear to be pathogenic, and recent molecular studies indicated that there was a non-pathogenic variant of Entamoeba histolytica. What is this non-pathogenic variant? A. Entamoeba hartmanni B. Entamoeba moshkovkii C. Entamoeba dispar D. Entamoeba coli

C

69. All of the following parasites are correctly matched with its respective primary symptom, EXCEPT: A. Enterobius vermicularis - perianal itching B. Plasmodium falciparum - fever and chills C. Trichomonas vaginalis - diarrhea D. Endolimax nana - usually no symptoms

C

75. Parasitized animals that may serve as a source of infection for humans are called: A. Definitive hosts B. Accidental hosts C. Reservoir hosts D. Intermediate hosts

C

83. Adult cestodes utilize which body part to attach to the human intestine? A. Strobila B. Tegument C. Proglottids D. Suckers

D

85. Which of the following organisms is considered a Helminth? A. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense B. Leishmania braziliensis C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Schistosoma mansoni

D

90. Which of the following groups correctly matches the parasite with its infective stage? A. Entamoeba hartmanni : sporozoite B. Plasmodium malariae : oocyst C. Cryptosporidium species: cyst D. Dientamoeba fragilis : trophozoite

D

97. Which of the following would be considered the definitive host of a parasite? A. Humans B. Insect vector C. First host infected by the parasite D. Host in which parasites reproduce sexually

D