214-chapter 26
A patient is undergoing preoperative teaching before his cardiac surgery and the nurse is aware that a temporary pacemaker will be placed later that day. What is the nurse's responsibility in the care of the patient's pacemaker? A) Monitoring for pacemaker malfunction or battery failure B) Determining when it is appropriate to remove the pacemaker C) Making necessary changes to the pacemaker settings D) Selecting alternatives to future pacemaker use
A
New nurses on the telemetry unit have been paired with preceptors. One new nurse asks her preceptor to explain depolarization. What would be the best answer by the preceptor? A) "Depolarization is the mechanical contraction of the heart muscles." B) "Depolarization is the electrical stimulation of the heart muscles." C) "Depolarization is the electrical relaxation of the heart muscles." D) "Depolarization is the mechanical relaxation of the heart muscles."
B
The nurse is caring for a patient with refractory atrial fibrillation who underwent the maze procedure several months ago. The nurse reviews the result of the patient's most recent cardiac imaging, which notes the presence of scarring on the atria. How should the nurse best respond to this finding? A) Recognize that the procedure was unsuccessful. B) Recognize this as a therapeutic goal of the procedure. C) Liaise with the care team in preparation for repeating the maze procedure. D) Prepare the patient for pacemaker implantation.
B
The nurse is caring for a patient who has just had an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) placed. What is the priority area for the nurse's assessment? A) Assessing the patient's activity level B) Facilitating transthoracic echocardiography C) Vigilant monitoring of the patient's ECG D) Close monitoring of the patient's peripheral perfusion
C
A patient the nurse is caring for has a permanent pacemaker implanted with the identification code beginning with VVI. What does this indicate? A) Ventricular paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited B) Variable paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited C) Ventricular sensed, ventricular situated, implanted D) Variable sensed, variable paced, inhibited
A Feedback: The identification of VVI indicates ventricular paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited.
A patient converts from normal sinus rhythm at 80 bpm to atrial fibrillation with a ventricular response at 166 bpm. Blood pressure is 162/74 mm Hg. Respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute with normal chest expansion and clear lungs bilaterally. IV heparin and Cardizem are given. The nurse caring for the patient understands that the main goal of treatment is what? A) Decrease SA node conduction B) Control ventricular heart rate C) Improve oxygenation D) Maintain anticoagulation
B
The nurse is analyzing a rhythm strip. What component of the ECG corresponds to the resting state of the patient's heart? A) P wave B) T wave C) U wave D) QRS complex
B
A patient has undergone diagnostic testing and received a diagnosis of sinus bradycardia attributable to sinus node dysfunction. When planning this patient's care, what nursing diagnosis is most appropriate? A) Acute pain B) Risk for unilateral neglect C) Risk for activity intolerance D) Risk for fluid volume excess
C
The nurse is caring for a patient who has had a dysrhythmic event. The nurse is aware of the need to assess for signs of diminished cardiac output (CO). What change in status may signal to the nurse a decrease in cardiac output? A) Increased blood pressure B) Bounding peripheral pulses C) Changes in level of consciousness D) Skin flushing
C
The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a patient with a newly inserted permanent pacemaker. What is the priority teaching point for this patient? A) Start lifting the arm above the shoulder right away to prevent chest wall adhesion. B) Avoid cooking with a microwave oven. C) Avoid exposure to high-voltage electrical generators. D) Avoid walking through store and library antitheft devices.
C
The nurse is writing a plan of care for a patient with a cardiac dysrhythmia. What would be the most appropriate goal for the patient? A) Maintain a resting heart rate below 70 bpm. B) Maintain adequate control of chest pain. C) Maintain adequate cardiac output. D) Maintain normal cardiac structure.
C
A nurse administers prescribed adenosine (Adenocard) to a client. Which response should the nurse assess for as the expected therapeutic response? a. Decreased intraocular pressure b. Increased heart rate c. Short period of asystole d. Hypertensive crisis
C Clients usually respond to adenosine with a short period of asystole, bradycardia, hypotension, dyspnea, and chest pain.
A nurse is caring for a patient who is exhibiting ventricular tachycardia (VT). Because the patient is pulseless, the nurse should prepare for what intervention? A) Defibrillation B) ECG monitoring C) Implantation of a cardioverter defibrillator D) Angioplasty
A
The nurse is providing care to a patient who has just undergone an electrophysiologic (EP) study. The patient states that she is nervous about "things going wrong" during the procedure. What is the nurse's best response? A) "This is basically a risk-free procedure." B) "Thousands of patients undergo EP every year." C) "Remember that this is a step that will bring you closer to enjoying good health." D) "The whole team will be monitoring you very closely for the entire procedure."
D
A patient converts from normal sinus rhythm at 80 bpm to atrial fibrillation with a ventricular response at 166 bpm. Blood pressure is 162/74 mm Hg. Respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute with normal chest expansion and clear lungs bilaterally. IV heparin and Cardizem are given. The nurse caring for the patient understands that the main goal of treatment is what? A) Decrease SA node conduction B) Control ventricular heart rate C) Improve oxygenation D) Maintain anticoagulation
A
A patient is brought to the ED and determined to be experiencing symptomatic sinus bradycardia. The nurse caring for this patient is aware the medication of choice for treatment of this dysrhythmia is the administration of atropine. What guidelines will the nurse follow when administering atropine? A) Administer atropine 0.5 mg as an IV bolus every 3 to 5 minutes to a maximum of 3.0 mg. B) Administer atropine as a continuous infusion until symptoms resolve. C) Administer atropine as a continuous infusion to a maximum of 30 mg in 24 hours. D) Administer atropine 1.0 mg sublingually.
A
The nurse is caring for a patient who has had an ECG. The nurse notes that leads I, II, and III differ from one another on the cardiac rhythm strip. How should the nurse best respond? A) Recognize that the view of the electrical current changes in relation to the lead placement. B) Recognize that the electrophysiological conduction of the heart differs with lead placement. C) Inform the technician that the ECG equipment has malfunctioned. D) Inform the physician that the patient is experiencing a new onset of dysrhythmia.
A
The nurse is caring for a patient who has just undergone catheter ablation therapy. The nurse in the step-down unit should prioritize what assessment? A) Cardiac monitoring B) Monitoring the implanted device signal C) Pain assessment D) Monitoring the patient's level of consciousness (LOC)
A
The nurse is caring for a patient who is in the recovery room following the implantation of an ICD. The patient has developed ventricular tachycardia (VT). What should the nurse assess and document? A) ECG to compare time of onset of VT and onset of device's shock B) ECG so physician can see what type of dysrhythmia the patient has C) Patient's level of consciousness (LOC) at the time of the dysrhythmia D) Patient's activity at time of dysrhythmia
A
The nurse is caring for an adult patient who has gone into ventricular fibrillation. When assisting with defibrillating the patient, what must the nurse do? A) Maintain firm contact between paddles and patient skin. B) Apply a layer of water as a conducting agent. C) Call "all clear" once before discharging the defibrillator. D) Ensure the defibrillator is in the sync mode.
A
A patient who is a candidate for an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) asks the nurse about the purpose of this device. What would be the nurse's best response? A) "To detect and treat dysrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia" B) "To detect and treat bradycardia, which is an excessively slow heart rate" C) "To detect and treat atrial fibrillation, in which your heart beats too quickly and inefficiently" D) "To shock your heart if you have a heart attack at home"
A Feedback: The ICD is a device that detects and terminates life-threatening episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. It does not treat atrial fibrillation, MI, or bradycardia.
Which action by a new registered nurse (RN) who is orienting to the progressive care unit indicates a good understanding of the treatment of cardiac dysrhythmias? a. Injects IV adenosine (Adenocard) over 2 seconds to a patient with supraventricular tachycardia b. Obtains the defibrillator and quickly brings it to the bedside of a patient whose monitor shows asystole c. Turns the synchronizer switch to the "on" position before defibrillating a patient with ventricular fibrillation d. Gives the prescribed dose of diltiazem (Cardizem) to a patient with new-onset type II second degree AV block
ANS: A Adenosine must be given over 1 to 2 seconds to be effective. The other actions indicate a need for more education about treatment of cardiac dysrhythmias. The RN should hold the diltiazem until talking to the health care provider. The treatment for asystole is immediate CPR. The synchronizer switch should be "off" when defibrillating.
A patient with dilated cardiomyopathy has new onset atrial fibrillation that has been unresponsive to drug therapy for several days. The priority teaching needed for this patient would include information about a. anticoagulant therapy. b. permanent pacemakers. c. electrical cardioversion. d. IV adenosine (Adenocard).
ANS: A Atrial fibrillation therapy that has persisted for more than 48 hours requires anticoagulant treatment for 3 weeks before attempting cardioversion. This is done to prevent embolization of clots from the atria. Cardioversion may be done after several weeks of anticoagulation therapy. Adenosine is not used to treat atrial fibrillation. Pacemakers are routinely used for patients with bradydysrhythmias. Information does not indicate that the patient has a slow heart rate.
After the nurse gives IV atropine to a patient with symptomatic type 1, second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, which finding indicates that the medication has been effective? a. Increase in the patient's heart rate b. Increase in strength of peripheral pulses c. Decrease in premature atrial contractions d. Decrease in premature ventricular contractions
ANS: A Atropine will increase the heart rate and conduction through the AV node. Because the medication increases electrical conduction, not cardiac contractility, the quality of the peripheral pulses is not used to evaluate the drug effectiveness. The patient does not have premature atrial or ventricular contractions.
A patient's cardiac monitor shows a pattern of undulations of varying contours and amplitude with no measurable ECG pattern. The patient is unconscious and pulseless. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Perform immediate defibrillation. b. Give epinephrine (Adrenalin) IV. c. Prepare for endotracheal intubation. d. Give ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device.
ANS: A The patient's rhythm and assessment indicate ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest; the initial action should be to defibrillate. If a defibrillator is not immediately available or is unsuccessful in converting the patient to a better rhythm, the other actions may be appropriate.
A nurse cares for a client who is on a cardiac monitor. The monitor displayed V Tach Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess airway, breathing, and level of consciousness. b. Administer an amiodarone bolus followed by a drip. c. Cardiovert the client with a biphasic defibrillator. d. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
ANS: A Ventricular tachycardia occurs with repetitive firing of an irritable ventricular ectopic focus, usually at a rate of 140 to 180 beats/min or more. Ventricular tachycardia is a lethal dysrhythmia. The nurse should first assess if the client is alert and breathing. Then the nurse should call a Code Blue and begin CPR. If this client is pulseless, the treatment of choice is defibrillation. Amiodarone is the antidysrhythmic of choice, but it is not the first action.
A nurse is teaching a client with premature ectopic beats. Which education should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Smoking cessation b. Stress reduction and management c. Avoiding vagal stimulation d. Adverse effects of medications e. Foods high in potassium
ANS: A, B, D A client who has premature beats or ectopic rhythms should be taught to stop smoking, manage stress, take medications as prescribed, and report adverse effects of medications. Clients with premature beats are not at risk for vasovagal attacks or potassium imbalances.
A nurse cares for a client with congestive heart failure who has a regular cardiac rhythm of 128 beats/min. For which physiologic alterations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Decrease in cardiac output b. Increase in cardiac output c. Decrease in blood pressure d. Increase in blood pressure e. Decrease in urine output f. Increase in urine output
ANS: A, D, E Elevated heart rates in a healthy client initially cause blood pressure and cardiac output to increase. However, in a client who has congestive heart failure or a client with long-term tachycardia, ventricular filling time, cardiac output, and blood pressure eventually decrease. As cardiac output and blood pressure decrease, urine output will fall.
A patient whose heart monitor shows sinus tachycardia, rate 132, is apneic and has no palpable pulses. What is the first action that the nurse should take? a. Perform synchronized cardioversion. b. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). c. Administer atropine per agency dysrhythmia protocol. d. Provide supplemental oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
ANS: B The patient's clinical manifestations indicate pulseless electrical activity and the nurse should immediately start CPR. The other actions would not be of benefit to this patient.
The nurse notes that a patient's cardiac monitor shows that every other beat is earlier than expected, has no visible P wave, and has a QRS complex that is wide and bizarre in shape. How will the nurse document the rhythm? a. Ventricular couplets b. Ventricular bigeminy c. Ventricular R-on-T phenomenon d. Multifocal premature ventricular contractions
ANS: B Ventricular bigeminy describes a rhythm in which every other QRS complex is wide and bizarre looking. Pairs of wide QRS complexes are described as ventricular couplets. There is no indication that the premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) are multifocal or that the R-on-T phenomenon is occurring.
Which action should the nurse perform when preparing a patient with supraventricular tachycardia for cardioversion who is alert and has a blood pressure of 110/66 mm Hg? a. Turn the synchronizer switch to the "off" position. b. Give a sedative before cardioversion is implemented. c. Set the defibrillator/cardioverter energy to 360 joules. d. Provide assisted ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device.
ANS: B When a patient has a nonemergency cardioversion, sedation is used just before the procedure. The synchronizer switch is turned "on" for cardioversion. The initial level of joules for cardioversion is low (e.g., 50). Assisted ventilations are not indicated for this patient.
A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for atrial fibrillation? a. A 45-year-old who takes an aspirin daily b. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery c. A 78-year-old who had a carotid endarterectomy d. An 80-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
ANS: B Atrial fibrillation occurs commonly in clients with cardiac disease and is a common occurrence after coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The other conditions do not place these clients at higher risk for atrial fibrillation.
A nurse evaluates prescriptions for a client with chronic atrial fibrillation. Which medication should the nurse expect to find on this client's medication administration record to prevent a common complication of this condition? a. Sotalol (Betapace) b. Warfarin (Coumadin) c. Atropine (Sal-Tropine) d. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
ANS: B Atrial fibrillation puts clients at risk for developing emboli. Clients at risk for emboli are treated with anticoagulants, such as heparin, enoxaparin, or warfarin. Sotalol, atropine, and lidocaine are not appropriate for this complication.
A nurse assesses a client with atrial fibrillation. Which manifestation should alert the nurse to the possibility of a serious complication from this condition? a. Sinus tachycardia b. Speech alterations c. Fatigue d. Dyspnea with activity
ANS: B Clients with atrial fibrillation are at risk for embolic stroke. Evidence of embolic events includes changes in mentation, speech, sensory function, and motor function. Clients with atrial fibrillation often have a rapid ventricular response as a result. Fatigue is a nonspecific complaint. Clients with atrial fibrillation often have dyspnea as a result of the decreased cardiac output caused by the rhythm disturbance.
The nurse is caring for a client on the medical-surgical unit who suddenly becomes unresponsive and has no pulse. The cardiac monitor shows V-fib: After calling for assistance and a defibrillator, which action should the nurse take next? a. Perform a pericardial thump. b. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). c. Start an 18-gauge intravenous line. d. Ask the client's family about code status.
ANS: B The client's rhythm is ventricular fibrillation. This is a lethal rhythm that is best treated with immediate defibrillation. While the nurse is waiting for the defibrillator to arrive, the nurse should start CPR. A pericardial thump is not a treatment for ventricular fibrillation. If the client does not already have an IV, other members of the team can insert one after defibrillation. The client's code status should already be known by the nurse prior to this event.
A patient who is on the progressive care unit develops atrial flutter, rate 150, with associated dyspnea and chest pain. Which action that is included in the hospital dysrhythmia protocol should the nurse do first? a. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). b. Notify the health care provider of the change in rhythm. c. Give supplemental O2 at 2 to 3 L/min via nasal cannula. d. Assess the patient's vital signs including oxygen saturation.
ANS: C Because this patient has dyspnea and chest pain in association with the new rhythm, the nurse's initial actions should be to address the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) by starting with oxygen administration. The other actions also are important and should be implemented rapidly.
A patient who is complaining of a "racing" heart and feeling "anxious" comes to the emergency department. The nurse places the patient on a heart monitor and obtains the following electrocardiographic (ECG) tracing. Showing sinus Tachy Which action should the nurse take next? a. Prepare to perform electrical cardioversion. b. Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver. c. Obtain the patient's vital signs including oxygen saturation. d. Prepare to give a b-blocker medication to slow the heart rate.
ANS: C The patient has sinus tachycardia, which may have multiple etiologies such as pain, dehydration, anxiety, and myocardial ischemia. Further assessment is needed before determining the treatment. Vagal stimulation or b-blockade may be used after further assessment of the patient. Electrical cardioversion is used for some tachydysrhythmias, but would not be used for sinus tachycardia.
A telemetry nurse assesses a client with third-degree heart block who has wide QRS complexes and a heart rate of 35 beats/min on the cardiac monitor. Which assessment should the nurse complete next? a. Pulmonary auscultation b. Pulse strength and amplitude c. Level of consciousness d. Mobility and gait stability
ANS: C A heart rate of 40 beats/min or less with widened QRS complexes could have hemodynamic consequences. The client is at risk for inadequate cerebral perfusion. The nurse should assess for level of consciousness, light-headedness, confusion, syncope, and seizure activity. Although the other assessments should be completed, the client's level of consciousness is the priority.
A nurse performs an admission assessment on a 75-year-old client with multiple chronic diseases. The client's blood pressure is 135/75 mm Hg and oxygen saturation is 94% on 2 liters per nasal cannula. The nurse assesses the client's rhythm on the cardiac monitor and observes bradycardia: Which action should the nurse take first? a. Begin external temporary pacing. b. Assess peripheral pulse strength. c. Ask the client what medications he or she takes. d. Administer 1 mg of atropine.
ANS: C This client is stable and therefore does not require any intervention except to determine the cause of the bradycardia. Bradycardia is often caused by medications. Clients who have multiple chronic diseases are often on multiple medications that can interact with each other. The nurse should assess the client's current medications first.
When analyzing the rhythm of a patient's electrocardiogram (ECG), the nurse will need to investigate further upon finding a(n) a. isoelectric ST segment. b. P-R interval of 0.18 second. c. Q-T interval of 0.38 second. d. QRS interval of 0.14 second.
ANS: D Because the normal QRS interval is 0.04 to 0.10 seconds, the patient's QRS interval of 0.14 seconds indicates that the conduction through the ventricular conduction system is prolonged. The P-R interval and Q-T interval are within normal range, and ST segment should be isoelectric (flat).
A patient has a normal cardiac rhythm and a heart rate of 72 beats/minute. The nurse determines that the P-R interval is 0.24 seconds. The most appropriate intervention by the nurse would be to a. notify the health care provider immediately. b. give atropine per agency dysrhythmia protocol. c. prepare the patient for temporary pacemaker insertion. d. document the finding and continue to monitor the patient.
ANS: D First-degree atrioventricular (AV) block is asymptomatic and requires ongoing monitoring because it may progress to more serious forms of heart block. The rate is normal, so there is no indication that atropine is needed. Immediate notification of the health care provider about an asymptomatic rhythm is not necessary.
Which laboratory result for a patient with multifocal premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Blood glucose 243 mg/dL b. Serum chloride 92 mEq/L c. Serum sodium 134 mEq/L d. Serum potassium 2.9 mEq/L
ANS: D Hypokalemia increases the risk for ventricular dysrhythmias such as PVCs, ventricular tachycardia, and ventricular fibrillation. The health care provider will need to prescribe a potassium infusion to correct this abnormality. Although the other laboratory values also are abnormal, they are not likely to be the etiology of the patient's PVCs and do not require immediate correction.
The nurse obtains a rhythm strip on a patient who has had a myocardial infarction and makes the following analysis: no visible P waves, P-R interval not measurable, ventricular rate 162, R-R interval regular, and QRS complex wide and distorted, QRS duration 0.18 second. The nurse interprets the patient's cardiac rhythm as a. atrial flutter. b. sinus tachycardia. c. ventricular fibrillation. d. ventricular tachycardia.
ANS: D The absence of P waves, wide QRS, rate >150 beats/minute, and the regularity of the rhythm indicate ventricular tachycardia. Atrial flutter is usually regular, has a narrow QRS configuration, and has flutter waves present representing atrial activity. Sinus tachycardia has P waves. Ventricular fibrillation is irregular and does not have a consistent QRS duration.
A patient who was admitted with a myocardial infarction experiences a 45-second episode of ventricular tachycardia, then converts to sinus rhythm with a heart rate of 98 beats/minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next? a. Immediately notify the health care provider. b. Document the rhythm and continue to monitor the patient. c. Perform synchronized cardioversion per agency dysrhythmia protocol. d. Prepare to give IV amiodarone (Cordarone) per agency dysrhythmia protocol.
ANS: D The burst of sustained ventricular tachycardia indicates that the patient has significant ventricular irritability, and antidysrhythmic medication administration is needed to prevent further episodes. The nurse should notify the health care provider after the medication is started. Defibrillation is not indicated given that the patient is currently in a sinus rhythm. Documentation and continued monitoring are not adequate responses to this situation.
The nurse has received change-of-shift report about the following patients on the progressive care unit. Which patient should the nurse see first? a. A patient who is in a sinus rhythm, rate 98, after having electrical cardioversion 2 hours ago b. A patient with new onset atrial fibrillation, rate 88, who has a first dose of warfarin (Coumadin) due c. A patient with second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, type 1, rate 60, who is dizzy when ambulating d. A patient whose implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) fired two times today who has a dose of amiodarone (Cordarone) due
ANS: D The frequent firing of the ICD indicates that the patient's ventricles are very irritable, and the priority is to assess the patient and administer the amiodarone. The other patients may be seen after the amiodarone is administered.
A patient's cardiac monitor shows sinus rhythm, rate 64. The P-R interval is 0.18 seconds at 1:00 AM, 0.22 seconds at 2:30 PM, and 0.28 seconds at 4:00 PM. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Place the transcutaneous pacemaker pads on the patient. b. Administer atropine sulfate 1 mg IV per agency dysrhythmia protocol. c. Document the patient's rhythm and assess the patient's response to the rhythm. d. Call the health care provider before giving the next dose of metoprolol (Lopressor).
ANS: D The patient has progressive first-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, and the b-blocker should be held until discussing the medication with the health care provider. Documentation and assessment are appropriate but not fully adequate responses. The patient with first-degree AV block usually is asymptomatic, and a pacemaker is not indicated. Atropine is sometimes used for symptomatic bradycardia, but there is no indication that this patient is symptomatic.
A nurse assesses a client's electrocardiograph tracing and observes that not all QRS complexes are preceded by a P wave. How should the nurse interpret this observation? a. The client has hyperkalemia causing irregular QRS complexes. b. Ventricular tachycardia is overriding the normal atrial rhythm. c. The client's chest leads are not making sufficient contact with the skin. d. Ventricular and atrial depolarizations are initiated from different sites.
ANS: D Normal rhythm shows one P wave preceding each QRS complex, indicating that all depolarization is initiated at the sinoatrial node. QRS complexes without a P wave indicate a different source of initiation of depolarization. This finding on an electrocardiograph tracing is not an indication of hyperkalemia, ventricular tachycardia, or disconnection of leads.
A patient is scheduled for catheter ablation therapy. When describing this procedure to the patient's family, the nurse should address what aspect of the treatment? A) Resetting of the heart's contractility B) Destruction of specific cardiac cells C) Correction of structural cardiac abnormalities D) Clearance of partially occluded coronary arteries
B
During a CPR class, a participant asks about the difference between cardioversion and defibrillation. What would be the instructor's best response? A) "Cardioversion is done on a beating heart; defibrillation is not." B) "The difference is the timing of the delivery of the electric current." C) "Defibrillation is synchronized with the electrical activity of the heart, but cardioversion is not." D) "Cardioversion is always attempted before defibrillation because it has fewer risks."
B
The ED nurse is caring for a patient who has gone into cardiac arrest. During external defibrillation, what action should the nurse perform? A) Place gel pads over the apex and posterior chest for better conduction. B) Ensure no one is touching the patient at the time shock is delivered. C) Continue to ventilate the patient via endotracheal tube during the procedure. D) Allow at least 3 minutes between shocks.
B
The nurse caring for a patient whose sudden onset of sinus bradycardia is not responding adequately to atropine. What might be the treatment of choice for this patient? A) Implanted pacemaker B) Trancutaneous pacemaker C) ICD D) Asynchronous defibrillator
B
The staff educator is teaching a CPR class. Which of the following aspects of defibrillation should the educator stress to the class? A) Apply the paddles directly to the patient's skin. B) Use a conducting medium between the paddles and the skin. C) Always use a petroleum-based gel between the paddles and the skin. D) Any available liquid can be used between the paddles and the skin.
B
A patient has returned to the cardiac care unit after having a permanent pacemaker implantation. For which potential complication should the nurse most closely assess this patient? A) Chest pain B) Bleeding at the implantation site C) Malignant hyperthermia D) Bradycardia
B Feedback: Bleeding, hematomas, local infections, perforation of the myocardium, and tachycardia are complications of pacemaker implantations. The nurse should monitor for chest pain and bradycardia, but bleeding is a more common immediate complication. Malignant hyperthermia is unlikely because it is a response to anesthesia administration.
A nurse assists with the cardioversion of a client experiencing acute atrial fibrillation. Which action should the nurse take prior to the initiation of cardioversion? a. Administer intravenous adenosine. b. Turn off oxygen therapy. c. Ensure a tongue blade is available. d. Position the client on the left side.
B For safety during cardioversion, the nurse should turn off any oxygen therapy to prevent fire. The other interventions are not appropriate for a cardioversion. The client should be placed in a supine position.
A patient is admitted to the cardiac care unit for an electrophysiology (EP) study. What goal should guide the planning and execution of the patient's care? A) Ablate the area causing the dysrhythmia. B) Freeze hypersensitive cells. C) Diagnose the dysrhythmia. D) Determine the nursing plan of care.
C
During a patient's care conference, the team is discussing whether the patient is a candidate for cardiac conduction surgery. What would be the most important criterion for a patient to have this surgery? A) Angina pectoris not responsive to other treatments B) Decreased activity tolerance related to decreased cardiac output C) Atrial and ventricular tachycardias not responsive to other treatments D) Ventricular fibrillation not responsive to other treatments
C
The nursing educator is presenting a case study of an adult patient who has abnormal ventricular depolarization. This pathologic change would be most evident in what component of the ECG? A) P wave B) T wave C) QRS complex D) U wave
C
An adult patient with third-degree AV block is admitted to the cardiac care unit and placed on continuous cardiac monitoring. What rhythm characteristic will the ECG most likely show? A) PP interval and RR interval are irregular. B) PP interval is equal to RR interval. C) Fewer QRS complexes than P waves D) PR interval is constant.
C Feedback: In third-degree AV block, no atrial impulse is conducted through the AV node into the ventricles. As a result, there are impulses stimulating the atria and impulses stimulating the ventricles. Therefore, there are more P waves than QRS complexes due to the difference in the natural pacemaker (nodes) rates of the heart.
Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient who is scheduled for a radiofrequency catheter ablation for treatment of atrial flutter? a. The procedure will prevent or minimize the risk for sudden cardiac death. b. The procedure will use cold therapy to stop the formation of the flutter waves. c. The procedure will use electrical energy to destroy areas of the conduction system. d. The procedure will stimulate the growth of new conduction pathways between the atria.
C Radiofrequency catheter ablation therapy uses electrical energy to "burn" or ablate areas of the conduction system as definitive treatment of atrial flutter (i.e., restore normal sinus rhythm) and tachydysrhythmias. All other statements regarding the procedure are incorrect.
A cardiac care nurse is aware of factors that result in positive chronotropy. These factors would affect a patient's cardiac function in what way? A) Exacerbating an existing dysrhythmia B) Initiating a new dysrhythmia C) Resolving ventricular tachycardia D) Increasing the heart rate
D
A group of nurses are participating in orientation to a telemetry unit. What should the staff educator tell this class about ST segments? A) They are the part of an ECG that reflects systole. B) They are the part of an ECG used to calculate ventricular rate and rhythm. C) They are the part of an ECG that reflects the time from ventricular depolarization through repolarization. D) They are the part of an ECG that represents early ventricular repolarization.
D
A nurse is providing health education to a patient scheduled for cryoablation therapy. The nurse should describe what aspect of this treatment? A) Peeling away the area of endocardium responsible for the dysrhythmia B) Using electrical shocks directly to the endocarduim to eliminate the source of dysrhythmia C) Using high-frequency sound waves to eliminate the source of dysrhythmia D) Using a cooled probe to eliminate the source of dysrhythmia
D
A patient calls his cardiologist's office and talks to the nurse. He is concerned because he feels he is being defibrillated too often. The nurse tells the patient to come to the office to be evaluated because the nurse knows that the most frequent complication of ICD therapy is what? A) Infection B) Failure to capture C) Premature battery depletion D) Oversensing of dysrhythmias
D
An ECG has been ordered for a newly admitted patient. What should the nurse do prior to electrode placement? A) Clean the skin with providone-iodine solution. B) Ensure that the area for electrode placement is dry. C) Apply tincture of benzoin to the electrode sites and wait for it to become "tacky." D) Gently abrade the skin by rubbing the electrode sites with dry gauze or cloth.
D
Following cardiac resuscitation, a patient has been placed in a state of mild hypothermia before being transferred to the cardiac intensive care unit. The nurse's assessment reveals that the patient is experiencing neuromuscular paralysis. How should the nurse best respond? A) Administer hypertonic IV solution. B) Administer a bolus of warned normal saline. C) Reassess the patient in 15 minutes. D) Document this as an expected assessment finding.
D
The nurse is assessing a patient who had a pacemaker implanted 4 weeks ago. During the patient's most recent follow-up appointment, the nurse identifies data that suggest the patient may be socially isolated and depressed. What nursing diagnosis is suggested by these data? A) Decisional conflict related to pacemaker implantation B) Deficient knowledge related to pacemaker implantation C) Spiritual distress related to pacemaker implantation D) Ineffective coping related to pacemaker implantation
D
The nurse is caring for a patient on telemetry. The patient's ECG shows a shortened PR interval, slurring of the initial QRS deflection, and prolonged QRS duration. What does this ECG show? A) Sinus bradycardia B) Myocardial infarction C) Lupus-like syndrome D) Wolf-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome
D
When planning the care of a patient with an implanted pacemaker, what assessment should the nurse prioritize? A) Core body temperature B) Heart rate and rhythm C) Blood pressure D) Oxygen saturation level
B
A patient develops sinus bradycardia at a rate of 32 beats/minute, has a blood pressure (BP) of 80/42 mm Hg, and is complaining of feeling faint. Which actions should the nurse take next? a. Recheck the heart rhythm and BP in 5 minutes. b. Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver. c. Give the scheduled dose of diltiazem (Cardizem). d. Apply the transcutaneous pacemaker (TCP) pads.
NS: D The patient is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia, and treatment with TCP is appropriate. Continued monitoring of the rhythm and BP is an inadequate response. Calcium channel blockers will further decrease the heart rate, and the diltiazem should be held. The Valsalva maneuver will further decrease the rate.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has had a biventricular pacemaker implanted. When planning the patient's care, the nurse should recognize what goal of this intervention? A) Resynchronization B) Defibrillation C) Angioplasty D) Ablation
A
