ABD 130 Final Review
What is a limitation of a FAST exam? a. Inability to differentiate fluids from soft-tissue masses b. The imaging equipment is expensive and difficult to find .c. Difficulty examining obese patients d. The imaging equipment lack portability
.c. Difficulty examining obese patients
The _____ is the main artery of the chest and abdomen from which all other branch vessels are derived.
Aorta
What is the first branch of the abdominal aorta?
Celiac trunk
What is the fibromuscular domed structure that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity?
Diaphragm
What are the two major cavities of the body?
Dorsal and Ventral
The largest of the body cavities is the retroperitoneal cavity. True or false
False
The right renal vein is generally longer than the left renal vein. True or false
False
The right renal vein is generally longer than the left renal vein. true or false
False
What is the fibrous tissue network located between the skin and the underlying structures?
Fascia
What is the large apron-like double layered sheet of peritoneum that extends inferiorly form the greater curvature of the stomach and transverse colon?
Greater omentum
The peritoneal cavity is divided into two compartments _____ and the lesser sac
Greater sac
What is another name for the hepatorenal space?
Morrison pouch
Sonographically, the IVC is an anechoic structure slightly to the ____ of midline.
Right
The aorta originates from the left ventricle. True or False
True
Peritoneum that envelopes the organs is referred to as the _____ peritoneum.
Visceral
What is the normal adult ranges for the resistive index (RI)? a. 0.58 to 0.64 ±0.05 b. 0.48 to 0.54 ±0.05 c. O.38 to 0.44 ±0.05 d. 0.68 to 0.74 ±0.05
a. 0.58 to 0.64 ±0.05
Which transducer is best suited for a sonographic examination of the abdominal wall? a. 12 MHz linear array b. 4 MHz curved array c. 3 MHz phased array d. 4 MHz linear array
a. 12 MHz linear array
What is the normal wall thickness when the colon is distended to a diameter of >5cm? a. 2 to 4 mm b. 6 to 8 mm c. 4 to 6 mm d. 8 to 10 mm
a. 2 to 4 mm
Approximately what percentage of the liver's blood is supplied by the hepatic artery? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 60%
a. 25%
What type of transducer is typically used for neonatal head imaging? a. 7-10 MHz sector b. 11-15 MHz curved array c. 3-6 MHz linear d. 15-20 MHz curvilinear
a. 7-10 MHz sector
Which of the following is the routine transducer selection for imaging the infant spine? a. 8-15 MHz linear b. 10-12 MHz linear c. 4-6 MHz curvilinear d. 2-4 MHz curvilinear
a. 8-15 MHz linear
What anatomic reference signifies the merging point of the pancreatic duct and common bile duct at the level of the duodenum? a. Ampulla of Vater b. Common bile duct c. Cystic duct d. Sphincter of Oddi
a. Ampulla of Vater
Which of the following has the primary function of attaching muscles to fixed points? a. Aponeurosis b. Subcutaneous tissue c. Superficial fascia d. Deep fascia
a. Aponeurosis
What structure appears as an intense linear echo lining the canal both anteriorly and posteriorly? a. Arachnoid-dural layer b. Cauda equina c. Cerebrospinal fluid d. Craniocervical junction
a. Arachnoid-dural layer
When does DDH occur most often? a. At birth b. At 8 months of age c. At 2 months of age d. At 4 months of age
a. At birth
With which congenital anomaly is the triangular cord sign associated? a. Biliary atresia b. Gallbladder agenesis c. Choledochal cyst d. Gallbladder ectopia
a. Biliary atresia
The celiac axis is ___________to the origin of the superior mesenteric artery. a. Cephalad b. Caudal c. Lateral d. Medial
a. Cephalad
Which of the following is the largest section of the brain? a. Cerebrum b. Brainstem c. Cortex d. Cerebellum
a. Cerebrum
Which of the following is the largest section of the brain? a. Cerebrum b. Cortex c. Cerebellum d. Brainstem
a. Cerebrum
Where is CSF largely produced? a. Choroid plexus b. Caudate nucleus c. Falx cerebri d. Lateral ventricles
a. Choroid plexus
What is the name of the bile duct after the union of the cystic duct and the hepatic duct? a. Common bile b. Portal c. Duodenal d. Hepatic triad
a. Common bile
What small normal tubular structure does NOT demonstrate a Doppler signal? a. Common bile duct b. Portal vein c. Right renal artery d. Hepatic vein
a. Common bile duct
What structure is located immediately medial to the jugular vein? a. Common carotid artery b. Thyroid gland c. Trachea d. Esophagus
a. Common carotid artery
What ligaments serve as thin connective tissue bands that connect the breast tissue to the skin? a. Cooper b. Freitz c. Mammary d. Lactiferous
a. Cooper
What structure sometimes makes the lateral aspect of the right liver lobe difficult or challenging to visualize? a. Costal margin b. Gallbladder c. Right kidney d. Right lung
a. Costal margin
What vessel supplies the gallbladder with blood? a. Cystic artery b. Portal vein c. Gastroduodenal artery d. Hepatic artery
a. Cystic artery
What two ducts unite to form the common bile duct before it enters the duodenum? a. Cystic duct and common hepatic duct b. Hepatic portal and cystic duct c. Hepatic duct and portal vein d. Cystic duct and hepatic triad
a. Cystic duct and common hepatic duct
What describes the sonographic echo characteristic of the scrotal wall compared to the testicles? a. Echogenic b. Isoechoic c. Hypoechoic d. Anechoic
a. Echogenic
From which embryonic layer does the breast develop? a. Ectoderm b. Endoderm c. Mesenchyme d. Mesoderm
a. Ectoderm
Which urinary anomaly is sometimes described as a cyst within a cyst? a. Ectopic ureterocele b. Bladder diverticula c. Bladder exstrophy d. Ectopic ureter
a. Ectopic ureterocele
What is the best definition for bladder exstrophy? a. Eversion through the anterior abdominal wall b. Cyst-like, thin-walled masses, inward projections c. Dilated and elongated prostatic urethra d. Thin-walled, fluid-filled masses, outward projections
a. Eversion through the anterior abdominal wall
What is one advantage of applying transducer compression during a breast sonogram? a. False acoustic shadowing beneath a benign lesion is reduced b. Evaluates critical angle shadows of Cooper ligaments c. Artifacts from internal echo movement are eliminated d. Allows better penetration with lower frequency transducers
a. False acoustic shadowing beneath a benign lesion is reduced
From inner layer to outer layer, what are the three layers of supportive tissues surrounding each kidney? a. Fibrous renal capsule, perirenal fat, renal fascia b. Fibrous renal capsule, Gerota fascia, adipose capsule c. Gerota fascia, adipose capsule, perirenal capsule d. Fibrous renal capsule, renal fascia, Gerota fascia
a. Fibrous renal capsule, perirenal fat, renal fascia
Which vessel branches off the celiac axis and supplies the liver with oxygenated blood? a. Hepatic artery b. Portal vein c. Aorta d. Hepatic vein
a. Hepatic artery
Using the Couinaud's method of liver segmentation, what provides the boundaries for each segment? a. Hepatic veins b. Ligaments and fissures c. Hepatic arteries d. Portal veins
a. Hepatic veins
Which vessels are used to delineate the right and left lobes, the right posterior and right anterior segments, and the left medial and left lateral segments? a. Hepatic veins b. Portal vein c. Hepatic ducts d. Hepatic arteries
a. Hepatic veins
Which of the following vessels contributes to the portal venous flow into the liver? a. Inferior mesenteric vein b. IVC c. Aorta d. Splenic artery
a. Inferior mesenteric vein
What term describes the normal splenic parenchyma when compared to the liver? a. Isoechoic b. Hypoechoic c. Hyperechoic d. Heterogeneous
a. Isoechoic
Which of the following is a true statement about the right crus of the diaphragm? a. It can be seen sonographically anterior to the abdominal aorta. b. It can be seen anterior to the IVC. c. It appears anterior to the caudate lobe. d. It is shorter than the left crus of the diaphragm.
a. It can be seen sonographically anterior to the abdominal aorta.
What describes the posterior pararenal space? a. It lies between the posterior renal fascia and transversalis fascia and contains fat. b. It contains organs and fat. c. It contains the pancreas and the ascending and descending colon. d. It contains the kidney, the renal vessels, the adrenal gland, perinephric fat, aorta, and inferior vena cava.
a. It lies between the posterior renal fascia and transversalis fascia and contains fat.
Where is the right lobe of the prostate gland on a transverse image obtained from an endorectal scanning plane? a. Left b. Top c. Right d. Bottom
a. Left
Which of the following veins does not drain into the IVC? a. Left renal vein b. Portal vein c. Middle hepatic vein d. Right renal vein
a. Left renal vein
Which vessel courses posterior to the SMA and anterior to the aorta? a. Left renal vein b. Superior mesenteric artery c. Splenic vein d. Left gastric vein
a. Left renal vein
When the ductus venosus collapses shortly after birth, what is its new anatomic reference? a. Ligamentum venosum b. Intersegmental fissure c. Main lobar fissure d. Ligamentum teres
a. Ligamentum venosum
What structure along with the left hepatic vein separates the left hepatic lobe from the caudate lobe? a. Ligamentum venosum fissure b. Triangular ligament c. Left coronary and suspensory ligaments d. Intersegmental fissure
a. Ligamentum venosum fissure
Normally, the echogenicity of the pancreas is equal to or greater than that of which organ? a. Liver b. Spleen c. Kidney d. Diaphragm
a. Liver
The normal adrenal gland echo pattern is similar to which organ? a. Liver b. Uterus c. Pancreas d. Ovaries
a. Liver
Identifying what anatomic structure would help a sonographer locate a contracted gallbladder? a. Main lobar fissure b. Coronary ligament c. Ligamentum teres d. Right hepatic vein
a. Main lobar fissure
Identifying what anatomic structure would help a sonographer locate a contracted gallbladder? a. Main lobar fissure b. Coronary ligament c. Right hepatic vein d. Ligamentum teres
a. Main lobar fissure
Where is the body and antrum of the stomach located relative to the gallbladder and porta hepatis? a. Medial b. Anterior c. Posterior d. Superior
a. Medial
What is the anatomical name of a bright echogenic fibrofatty tissue often seen in the longitudinal plane within the testicle? a. Mediastinum testis b. Rete testis c. Normal testicular band d. Median raphe
a. Mediastinum testis
From the lowest to highest echo amplitude, what is the correct order for normal renal structures? a. Medulla, cortex, sinus b. Cortex, sinus, medulla c. Sinus, medulla, cortex d. Sinus, cortex, medulla
a. Medulla, cortex, sinus
What is the primary purpose of the FAST exam? a. Methodical search for anechoic or hypoechoic free fluid b. Provide scanning experience for emergency department personnel c. Determine the cause of trauma d. Provide a comprehensive and detailed evaluation
a. Methodical search for anechoic or hypoechoic free fluid
In what portion of the gallbladder is Hartmann pouch located? a. Neck b. Body c. Fundus d. Tail
a. Neck
What hormone is an important endocrine regulator of calcium and phosphorous concentration in extracellular fluid? a. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) b. Thyrocalcitonin (TCH) c. Thyroxin-stimulating hormone (TSH) d. Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
a. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
What is the normal sonographic appearance of the parietal peritoneum? a. Part of the internal abdominopelvic wall b. Thin, hypoechoic layer c. Distinct interface lining the abdominopelvic cavity d. Thin, hyperechoic line
a. Part of the internal abdominopelvic wall
What term is refers to the presence of fluid within the pericardium? a. Pericardial effusion b. Pneumothorax c. Visceral pleura d. Pleural effusion
a. Pericardial effusion
What term describes air located outside of the lung but within the pleural cavity? a. Pneumothorax b. Hemothorax c. Consolidation d. Empyema
a. Pneumothorax
What is the most common congenital breast anomaly? a. Polythelia b. Amazia c. Hypoplasia d. Polymastia
a. Polythelia
In which vessels does the right branch bifurcate into an anterior branch and a posterior branch? a. Portal vein b. Aorta c. Inferior vena cava d. Hepatic vein
a. Portal vein
Which vessel is formed by the junction of the splenic and superior mesenteric veins? a. Portal vein b. Hepatic artery c. Aorta d. Hepatic vein
a. Portal vein
Where is the rectum in relationship to the prostate gland? a. Posterior b. Latera lc. Anterior d. Inferior
a. Posterior
What is the largest accessory gland of the male reproductive system? a. Prostate gland b. Bartholin duct c. Seminal vesicles d. Exocrine gland
a. Prostate gland
What provides support and serves as a barrier against the spread of infection to the kidney? a. Renal capsule b. Adipose capsule c. Renal fascia d. Hilum
a. Renal capsule
What anchors the kidney to its surrounding structures and to the abdominal wall? a. Renal fascia b. Renal sinus c. Renal medulla d. Renal cortex
a. Renal fascia
What normal renal anatomic structure may be mistaken for a renal cyst in infants and young children? a. Renal pyramids b. Compound calyces c. Renal lobulations d. Columns of Bertin
a. Renal pyramids
Where is the pancreas located? a. Retroperitoneal b. Infrarenal c. Peritoneal d. Hypochondriac region
a. Retroperitoneal
On a transverse scan, the right portal vein is the landmark because it separates what liver structures? a. Right hepatic anterior and posterior segments b. Right and left lobes of the liver c. Right lobe from the porta hepatis d. Right lobe from the caudate lobe
a. Right hepatic anterior and posterior segments
What tubular structure may indent the inferior vena cava and is best visualized on a longitudinal section? a. Right renal artery b. Left renal artery c. Right renal vein d. Left renal vein
a. Right renal artery
What is the primary purpose of eFAST? a. Search for the presence of free fluid and pneumothorax b. Determine the cause of trauma c. Evaluate for DVT d. Evaluate the upper abdomen
a. Search for the presence of free fluid and pneumothorax
What is the most common location of an accessory spleen? a. Splenic hilum b. Superior to the spleen c. Superior to the head of the pancreas d. Distal to the diaphragm and medial to the left kidney
a. Splenic hilum
Which of the following statements regarding the alpha angle is FALSE? a. The alpha angle is obtained in the transverse plane. b. The alpha angle is defined as the bony roof of the acetabulum. c. When the alpha angle is greater than 60 degrees, it is considered normal. d. The alpha angle is the primary measure of hip dysplasia.
a. The alpha angle is obtained in the transverse plane.
Which structure is located in the anterior neck usually over the second and third cartilaginous rings of the trachea? a. Thyroid gland b. Longus colli muscles c. Common carotid artery d. Esophagus
a. Thyroid gland
What patient position increases the sensitivity of the FAST exam, especially in the detection of free fluid in the hepatorenal and perisplenic spaces? a. Trendelenberg b. Fowler c. Decubitus d. Supine
a. Trendelenberg
What is the glandular composition of an adrenal gland? a. Two endocrine glands b. One exocrine and one endocrine gland c. One endocrine and one nonhormonal d. Two exocrine glands
a. Two endocrine glands
What is the terminal portion of the urinary tract? a. Urethral orifice b. Oblique to the bladder wall c. Inferior to the pubic bone d. Inferior to the trigone
a. Urethral orifice
When evaluating for deep vein thrombosis, what observation suggests a clot? a. Vein will not compress b. Shortness of breath and hypotension c. Positive Valsalva response d. Presenting with undifferentiated pain
a. Vein will not compress
What anatomical structure provides a pathway for the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? a. Ventricles b. Thalamus c. Choroid plexus d. Caudate nucleus
a. Ventricles
The echogenic _____________ are seen posterior and lateral on both sides of the infant spinal canal. a. Vertebral arches b. Arachnoid-dural layers c. Nerves d. Subarachnoid space
a. Vertebral arches
Where is the location of the largest part of the choroid plexus? a. Within the lateral ventricles b. Anterior to the foramen of Monro c. Posterior into the occipital horns d. Frontal horns of the lateral ventricle
a. Within the lateral ventricles
All of the following are alternate names for the retrouterine space except for: a. anterior Cul-de-sac b. rectovaginal pouch c. pouch of Douglas d. posterior Cul-de-sac
a. anterior Cul-de-sac
_____________________ are layers of flat tendinous fibrous sheets fused with strong connective tissue that attach muscles to fixed points, functioning like a tendon, so they are quite strong. a. aponeurosis b. subcutaneous tissue c. fascia d.superficial fascia
a. aponeurosis
Which of the following would be the correct transducer choice for imaging the parietal peritoneum? a. 3 MHz linear b. 12 MHz linear c. 1 MHz linear d. 4 MHz linear
b. 12 MHz linear
As a blood reservoir, the liver has the capacity to enlarge and store how much blood? a. 1000 to 1100 mL b. 200 to 400 mL c. 1 L d. About 1 quart
b. 200 to 400 mL
It is recommended that all patients fast for at least _____________ hours prior to abdominal vascular scanning and refrain from chewing gum or smoking. a. 6 b. 4 c. 3 d. 8
b. 4
The cisterna magna communicates with which ventricle? a. 3rd b. 4th c. Lateral d. Anterior
b. 4th
The utility of sonography in imaging the spine is usually limited to infants under the age of __________? a. 5 months b. 6 months c. 3 months d. 4 months
b. 6 months
What type of transducer is typically used for neonatal head imaging? a. 11-15 MHz curved array b. 7-10 MHz sector c. 15-20 MHz curvilinear d. 3-6 MHz linear
b. 7-10 MHz sector
When does the closure of the anterior fontanelle begin? a. 3 months b. 9 months c. 4 months d. 6 months
b. 9 months
What is a choledocal cyst? a. A true cyst b. A congenital dilation of the biliary tree c. Associated with chronic cholecystitis d. Associated with polypoid masses
b. A congenital dilation of the biliary tree
Which of the following is NOT used as an acoustic window for imaging the infant spine? a. Spinal defects b. Abdominal wall c. Posterior approach d. Surgically created window
b. Abdominal wall
For the spleen, what is considered a relatively common anatomic variant? a. Wondering spleen b. Accessory spleen c. Polysplenia d. Asplenia
b. Accessory spleen
What other condition besides pneumothorax can present with absent lung sliding? a. Empyema b. Acute respiratory distress syndrome c. Consolidation d. Cardiac tamponade
b. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Which of these is the major pitfall in scanning the thoracic cavity? a. Consolidation can be confused for the liver or spleen b. Air in the lung reflects the sound beam c. Reverberation artifacts d. A solid mass can be mistaken for a loculated effusion
b. Air in the lung reflects the sound beam
Scanning from a posterior approach, in the sagittal plane, the canal will be ______________. a. Hyperechoic b. Anechoic c. Hypoechoic d. Isoechoic
b. Anechoic
What primarily comprises the anterior portion of the prostate gland? a. Transitional zone b. Anterior fibromuscular zone c. Central zone d. Peripheral zone
b. Anterior fibromuscular zone
What is the primary acoustic window to image the neonatal brain? a. Mastoind fontanelle b. Anterior fontanelle c. Posterior fontanelle d. Posterlateral fontanelle
b. Anterior fontanelle
In which of the following maneuvers does the examiner attempt to push the femoral head out of the socket? a. Murphy maneuver b. Barlow maneuver c. Ortolani maneuver d. Whitlow maneuver
b. Barlow maneuver
Which of the following statements regarding arteries and veins is false? a. Arteries have a thicker muscle layer and, therefore, maintain a constant shape. b. Both arteries and veins contain valves to keep blood moving. c. Because the walls of veins contain less muscle, they are more easily compressed. d. The walls of arteries and veins contain the same three layers
b. Both arteries and veins contain valves to keep blood moving.
What straddles the midline, is superior to the head of the pancreas, and is anterior to the inferior vena cava? a. Right anterior segment b. Caudate lobe c. Left lateral segment d. Riedel's lobe
b. Caudate lobe
What are the two zones separated by the surgical capsule? a. Central zone and fibromuscular stroma b. Central and peripheral zones c. Central and transitional zones d. Transitional zone and verumontanum
b. Central and peripheral zones
Where is CSF largely produced? a. Falx cerebri b. Choroid plexus c. Lateral ventricles d. Caudate nucleus
b. Choroid plexus
What anatomic structure appears abnormal in patients with a choledochal cyst? a. Cystic duct b. Common bile duct c. Pancreatic duct d. Gallbladder
b. Common bile duct
What is the most distal portion of the biliary tree? a. Pancreatic duct b. Common bile duct c. Gallbladder d. Common hepatic duct
b. Common bile duct
What anatomic structure is located lateral to the right of the hepatic artery? a. Portal vein b. Common hepatic duct c. Gastroduodenal artery d. Main pancreatic duct
b. Common hepatic duct
With a normally functioning gallbladder, what is stimulated by ingesting a fatty meal? a. Fill with bile b. Contraction c. Cause pain d. Excrete bilirubin
b. Contraction
What structure can present as a thick lucent band sometimes identified anterior to the spine, inferior vena cava, or aorta? a. Right portal vein b. Crus of the diaphragm c. Left renal vein d. Esophagogastric junction
b. Crus of the diaphragm
The rounded surface of the craniocervical junction may be imaged better by using which of the following transducers? a. Linear b. Curvilinear c. Vector d. Hockey stick
b. Curvilinear
What is the best definition for ectopic ureteroceles? a. Eversion through the anterior abdominal wall b. Cyst-like, thin-walled masse, projecting inward c. Thin-walled, fluid-filled masses, outward projections d. Dilated and elongated prostatic urethra
b. Cyst-like, thin-walled masse, projecting inward
What sonographic characteristics describe a posterior urethral valve? a. Eversion through anterior abdominal wall b. Dilated and elongated prostatic urethra c. Thin-walled, fluid-filled masses, outward projections d. Cyst-like, thin-walled masses, inward projections
b. Dilated and elongated prostatic urethra
What term describes a fibrous tissue network located between the skin and the underlying structures? a. Extraperitoneal fat b. Fascia c. Visceral layer d. Aponeurosis
b. Fascia
Which ligament attaches the spleen to the greater curvature of the stomach? a. Left triangular b. Gastrosplenic c. Phrenicocolic d. Lienorenal
b. Gastrosplenic
When the pancreas is scanned in a true anatomic transverse body plane, which pancreatic portion is the most inferior? a. Neck b. Head c. Body d. Tail
b. Head
What is the likely diagnosis of an anechoic or hypoechoic fluid collection localized to the costophrenic angle after blunt or penetrating chest injury superior to an intact diaphragm? a. Pleural effusion b. Hemothorax c. Empyema d. Consolidation
b. Hemothorax
Which vessel lies posterior to the bile duct and anterior to the portal vein? a. Hepatic vein b. Hepatic artery c. Gastroduodenal artery d. Celiac axis
b. Hepatic artery
Which vessel supplies the liver with oxygen-rich blood? a. Aorta b. Hepatic artery c. Inferior vena cava d. Portal vein
b. Hepatic artery
Which vasculature is both interlobar and intersegmental? a. Hepatic arteries b. Hepatic veins c. Portal veins d. Bile ducts
b. Hepatic veins
Where would free fluid be most visible if the patient is in a Trendelenburg position? a. Space of Retzius b. Hepatorenal and perisplenic spaces c. Rectouterine pouch d. Vesicouterine pouch
b. Hepatorenal and perisplenic spaces
Which transducers should be selected to scan smaller pediatric patients? a. Convex or phased array b. Higher frequency c. Fewer crystals per probe d. Longer focused
b. Higher frequency
What is the normal sonographic appearance of splenic parenchyma? a. Echogenic b. Homogeneous c. Heterogeneous d. Anechoic
b. Homogeneous
What vessel does the right suprarenal vein drain into? a. Aorta b. IVC c. Right renal vein d. Splenic vein
b. IVC
What is the origin of arterial blood supply to the penis? a. Cavernous artery b. Iliac artery c. Testicular artery d. Cremasteric artery
b. Iliac artery
The right testicular vein drains into what vessel? a. Internal iliac vein b. Inferior vena cava c. Right renal vein d. Pampiniform plexus
b. Inferior vena cava
Which of the following is an anatomic area where vessels enter and exit the abdominal cavity and is a potential site for hernias? a. Linea alba b. Inguinal canal c. Umbilicus d. Rectus sheath
b. Inguinal canal
Contracture of the bladder neck will cause what secondary condition? a. Dilated and elongated prostatic urethra b. Large capacity bladder c. Cyst-like, thin-walled masses, inward projections d. Thin-walled, fluid- filled masses, outward projections
b. Large capacity bladder
Where is the spleen located? a. Medial to the splenic artery b. Lateral to the left kidney c. Anterior to the stomach d. Inferior to the inferior mesenteric artery
b. Lateral to the left kidney
What is the most common imaging modality used to evaluate the breast and remains the only widely used screening tool proven effective at reducing breast mortality? a. Magnetic resonance b. Mammography c. Sonography d. Thermography
b. Mammography
The caudate nucleus is the most __________ of the four basal ganglia? a. Inferior b. Medial c. Posterior d. Superior
b. Medial
What do the thyroid gland hormones regulate? a. Serve as beta and calcium channel blockers b. Metabolism of proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and vitamins c. Synthesize and develop protein d. Regulate insulin production
b. Metabolism of proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and vitamins
On a supine longitudinal section, what organ should be visualized posterior to the left hepatic lobe and anterior to the splenic artery and vein? a. Spleen b. Pancreas c. Caudate lobe d. Left kidney
b. Pancreas
Which organ is located anterior to the left adrenal gland? a. Diaphragm b. Pancreas c. Retroperitoneum d. Kidney
b. Pancreas
The common bile duct opens in the duodenum near what other structure? a. Gallbladder b. Pancreatic duct c. Hepatic duct d. Duodenal suspensory muscle (ligament of Treitz)
b. Pancreatic duct
What is the name of the congenital anomaly that occurs if the urachus fails to become obliterated, fibrotic, or sealed off? a. Bladder tracts b. Patent urachus c. Dysplasia d. Urachal cyst
b. Patent urachus
What is the most common location of an ectopic kidney? a. Psoas major muscle b. Pelvis c. Left upper quadrant d. Descending duodenum
b. Pelvis
What term describes the rare occurrence of a complete accessory breast? a. Hypertrophy b. Polymastia c. Athelia d. Polythelia
b. Polymastia
Where is the uncinate process located relative to the head of the pancreas? a. Anterior b. Posterior c. Superior d. Proximal
b. Posterior
Which choice describes the location of the esophagogastric junction? a. Posterior to the left lobe and posterior to the aorta b. Posterior to the left lobe and anterior to the aorta c. The esophagogastric junction cannot be sonographically visualized d. Posterior to the left lobe and medial to the aorta
b. Posterior to the left lobe and anterior to the aorta
What term is used for an excessive fatty infiltration of the renal pelvis? a. Extrarenal pelvis b. Renal sinus lipomatosis c. Hypertrophied column of Bertin d. Nephrocalcinosis
b. Renal sinus lipomatosis
Where are the kidneys located? a. Peritoneal b. Retroperitoneal c. intraperitoneal d. Interperitoneal
b. Retroperitoneal
Where are the adrenal glands located? a. Lesser sac b. Retroperitoneum c. Greater sac d. Intraperitoneal
b. Retroperitoneum
What patient position is best for scanning the normal adult spleen? a. Prone b. Right lateral decubitus c. Erect d. Supine
b. Right lateral decubitus
Which vascular structure is posterior to the IVC? a. Left renal artery b. Right renal artery c. Right renal vein d. Left renal vein
b. Right renal artery
What structure forms a collection of less echogenic linear strands that move freely with changes in patient positioning and with crying? a. Arachnoid-dural layer b. Roots of the cauda equina c. Spinal cord d. Cerebrospinal fluid
b. Roots of the cauda equina
What portion of the duodenum curves and courses inferiorly to the right of the pancreatic head? a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth
b. Second
Which of the following potential spaces is located between the anterior wall of the urinary bladder and the pubic symphysis? a. Uterovesicle space b. Space of Retzius c. Rectouterine space d. Vesicorectal space
b. Space of Retzius
What can be identified coursing between the left adrenal gland and the more anterior pancreas? a. Left axis artery b. Splenic artery and vein c. Celiac artery d. Aorta and IVC
b. Splenic artery and vein
What is one of the most important vascular landmarks for visualizing the pancreas? a. Superior mesenteric artery b. Splenic vein c. Portal vein d. Splenic artery
b. Splenic vein
A hip that demonstrates posterior, superior, and lateral displacement of the femoral head during flexion imaging is what? a. Dislocated b. Subluxed c. Normal d. Inflamed
b. Subluxed
Which of the following spaces is commonly referred to as Morrison pouch? a. The left anterior subphrenic space b. The hepatorenal space c. The right subphrenic space d. The left posterior suprahepatic space
b. The hepatorenal space
When is the spleen considered enlarged? a. There is left upper quadrant pain. b. The length exceeds 13 cm. c. It appears ventral to the left kidney. d. A right-sided bulging diaphragm is demonstrated.
b. The length exceeds 13 cm.
How are hepatic veins distinguished from the portal venous system? a. They can be seen arising from the portal triad. b. They can be seen draining into the inferior vena cava. c. They have high amplitude echoes surrounding them. d. They are identical in appearance to the arteriole system.
b. They can be seen draining into the inferior vena cava.
Which structure is located immediately posterior to the isthmus? a. Common carotid artery b. Trachea c. Esophagus d. Longus colli muscle
b. Trachea
When the patient is in the standard anatomic position, what is the course of the portal vein? a. Vertical b. Transverse c. Coronal d. Longitudinal
b. Transverse
Which dense fibrous sheath encapsulates and provides structure and support to the testicles and corpora of the penis? a. Corpora cavernosa b. Tunica albuginea c. Corpus spongiosum d. Yolk sac
b. Tunica albuginea
In a longitudinal section, what portion of the pancreas is located between the IVC and the superior mesenteric vein? a. Body b. Uncinate process c. Head d. Tail
b. Uncinate process
What direction does CSF flow? a. Upward towards the spinal subarachnoid space b. Upwards and around the brain to the vertex c. Down towards the brainstem d. Away from the superior sinuses
b. Upwards and around the brain to the vertex
Which of the following potential spaces is located between the posterior urinary bladder and the anterior uterus? a. Vesicorectal space b. Uterovesicle space c. Rectouterine space d. Space of Retzius
b. Uterovesicle space
Where is the location of the largest part of the choroid plexus? a. Posterior into the occipital horns b. Within the lateral ventricles c. Anterior to the foramen of Monro d. Frontal horns of the lateral ventricle
b. Within the lateral ventricles
Sonographically, the diaphragm appears as a thin, curvilinear, ______________________ band on children and adults. a. hypoechoic b. hyperechoic c. anechoic d. isoechoic
b. hyperechoic
All of the following are reasons that sonography is the modality of choice for the abdominal wall, except for: a. availability b. invasive c. inexpensive d. speed
b. invasive
What is the upper normal limit for the anteriorposterior (AP) diameter measurement of the pancreatic duct in the adult patient? a. 1.5 mm b. 0.5 mm c. 3.0 mm d. 1.0 mm
c. 3.0 mm
How many lobes make up the cerebral cortex? a. 2 b. 6 c. 4 d. 3
c. 4
The cisterna magna communicates with which ventricle? a. Lateral b. Anterior c. 4th d. 3rd
c. 4th
Which transducers should the sonographer use to obtain the widest field of view and the best resolution to detect small lesions? a. 5 to 7.5 MHz, linear array b. 7.5 to 15 MHz, sector array c. 7.5 to 15 MHz, linear array d. 5 to 7.5 MHz, sector array
c. 7.5 to 15 MHz, linear array
What describes a phrygian cap? a. Kinked haustral folds b. Residual gallbladder volume c. A kinked or folded back fundus d. A billed cap refraction artifact
c. A kinked or folded back fundus
What protects the kidney from trauma and holds it in place in the abdominal cavity? a. Renal capsule b. Renal fascia c. Adipose capsule d. Hilum
c. Adipose capsule
What hormone regulates electrolyte concentration? a. Follicular stimulating b. Thyroxine c. Aldosterone d. Cortisone
c. Aldosterone
What laboratory test may be used to diagnose bone disease as well as liver disease? a. Platelet count b. Hematocrit c. Alkaline phosphatase d. Aspartate aminotransferase
c. Alkaline phosphatase
What acoustic window is most commonly used to visualize the cardiac structures? a. Parasternal b. Apical c. All of the above d. Subxiphoid
c. All of the above
What enzyme digests carbohydrates? a. Lipase b. Somatostatin c. Amylase d. Insulin
c. Amylase
Where is the body and antrum of the stomach located relative to the pancreas? a. Superior b. Lateral c. Anterior d. Medial
c. Anterior
What is the primary acoustic window to image the neonatal brain? a. Mastoind fontanelle b. Posterior fontanelle c. Anterior fontanelle d. Posterlateral fontanelle
c. Anterior fontanelle
Which retroperitoneal compartment contains the pancreas, the ascending colon, and the descending colon? a. Perirenal space b. Posterior pararenal space c. Anterior pararenal space d. Perinephric space
c. Anterior pararenal space
On a longitudinal image, which major vessel courses posterior to the left lobe and is to the left of the midline? a. Hepatic vein b. Hepatic artery c. Aorta d. Portal vein
c. Aorta
What term describes layers of flat fibrous sheets composed of strong connective tissue? a. Cartilage fibers b. Deep membranous layer c. Aponeurosis d. Fascia
c. Aponeurosis
Where is the retroperitoneum located? a. Between the rectus sheath and the quadratus lumborum b. Between the parietal peritoneum and the latissimus dorsi c. Between the parietal peritoneum and anterior transversalis fascia d. Between the parietal peritoneum and the psoas major muscle
c. Between the parietal peritoneum and anterior transversalis fascia
In addition to a central portal vein branch and hepatic artery, what other structure is contained in each of the eight segments described by Couinaud? a. Ligament and fissure b. Hepatic shunt device c. Bile duct d. Hepatic reservoir
c. Bile duct
What forms part of the floor of the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle? a. Corpus callosum b. Lateral and posterior sinuses c. Caudate nucleus d. Cavum septum pellucidum
c. Caudate nucleus
What is the source of blood to the splenic artery? a. Hepatic artery b. Abdominal aorta c. Celiac axis d. Superior mesenteric
c. Celiac axis
What are the two most common methods used to evaluate for DDH? a. Clinical assessment and MRI b. Sonography and laparoscopic evaluation c. Clinical assessment and sonography d. Sonography and x-ray
c. Clinical assessment and sonography
The porta hepatic (portal triad) contains the portal vein, hepatic artery, and what other structure? a. Gastrohepatic ligament b. Liver lobule c. Common hepatic duct d. Hepatic vein
c. Common hepatic duct
What is the primary imaging modality for evaluating the retroperitoneum? a. Sonography b. Arteriography c. Computed tomography (CT) d. Lymphangiography
c. Computed tomography (CT)
What term describes a common renal variation in which a local bulge is seen at the mid-pole region of the kidney? a. Junctional parenchymal defect b. Hypertrophied columns of defect c. Dromedary hump d. Extra renal pelvis
c. Dromedary hump
What is a reasonable explanation for a fluid-filled mass sonographically located posterior to the gallbladder? a. Cystic duct b. Hepatic flexure c. Duodenum d. Transverse colon
c. Duodenum
What is the most common congenital anomaly of the urinary tract? a. Renal agenesis b. Horseshoe kidney c. Duplicated collecting system d. Ectopic kidney
c. Duplicated collecting system
What is the globus major? a. Testes b. Seminal vesicle c. Epididymal head d. Epididymal tail
c. Epididymal head
What would be an indication to perform a sonography examination of the thyroid gland? a. Demonstrate a benign versus a malignant neoplasm b. Document the thyroid as a primary metastatic site c. Evaluate for nodules d. Determine thyroid function
c. Evaluate for nodules
What term describes the pancreatic enzymes such as amylase? a. Metabolic b. Endocrine c. Exocrine d. Storage
c. Exocrine
What is the name of the capsule that contains the adrenal glands? a. Glisson capsule b. Visceral peritoneum c. Gerota fascia d. Epithelial tissue
c. Gerota fascia
What anatomy refers to the covering of the liver? a. Falciform ligament b. Gerota fascia c. Glisson capsule d. Morrison pouch
c. Glisson capsule
What event is required for urine formation to occur? a. BUN glomerular filtration and tubular secretion only b. Glomerular filtration and tubular reabsorption only c. Glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion d. Tubular reabsorption and secretion only
c. Glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion
Locating the inferior vena cava, superior mesenteric artery, and gastroduodenal artery helps identify what portion of the pancreas? a. Tail b. Uncinate process c. Head d. Body
c. Head
Which vessels converge to form the three large trunks that drain into the inferior vena cava? a. Hepatic arteries b. Portal veins c. Hepatic veins d. Aorta
c. Hepatic veins
What is the advantage of an endoluminal transducer? a. Peristalsis can be documented on still images. b. Lower frequencies can be used. c. Higher frequencies can be used. d. Patients find the examinations more comfortable.
c. Higher frequencies can be used.
What anomaly refers to renal fusion that usually occurs at the lower pole? a. Duplication b. Hypoplasia c. Horseshoe kidney d. Pelvic ectopic
c. Horseshoe kidney
What condition is likely to mimic a duplicated urinary system? a. Dromedary hump b. Renal sinus lipomatosis c. Hypertrophied column of Bertin d. Extrarenal pelvis
c. Hypertrophied column of Bertin
What is the longest section of the small bowel? a. Jejunum b. Appendix c. Ileum d. Duodenum
c. Ileum
What vessels are used to identify the head of the pancreas? a. Inferior vena cava, aorta, right renal vein, gastroduodenal artery b. Aorta, portal/splenic, left renal vein, superior mesenteric artery c. Inferior vena cava, superior mesenteric vein, gastroduodenal artery d. Inferior vena cava, aorta, superior mesenteric artery
c. Inferior vena cava, superior mesenteric vein, gastroduodenal artery
Which intrarenal arteries course alongside the renal pyramids? a. Pyramid b. Arcuate veins c. Interlobar d. Arcuate arteries
c. Interlobar
What statement describes the perirenal or perinephric space? a. These are two distinct spaces with a midline division creating a right side and a left side. b. It contains the pancreas and the ascending and descending colon. c. It contains the kidney, the renal vessels, the adrenal gland, perinephric fat, aorta, and inferior vena cava d. It lies between renal fascia and transversalis fascia and contains fat.
c. It contains the kidney, the renal vessels, the adrenal gland, perinephric fat, aorta, and inferior vena cava
What statement describes the anterior pararenal space? a. It is bordered anteriorly by the anterior renal fascia. b. It contains the kidney, the renal vessels, the adrenal gland, perinephric fat, aorta, and inferior vena cava. c. It contains the pancreas and the ascending and descending colon. d. It lies between renal fascia and transversalis fascia and contains fat.
c. It contains the pancreas and the ascending and descending colon.
What separates the left lobe from the caudate lobe? a. Falciform ligament b. Coronary ligament c. Ligamentum venosum d. Ligamentum teres
c. Ligamentum venosum
What is the basic functional unit of the liver? a. Liver lobe b. Hepatic cell c. Liver lobule d. Hepatic duct
c. Liver lobule
When the patient is in the standard anatomic position, what is the course of the common bile duct? a. Vertical b. Transverse c. Longitudinal d. Coronal
c. Longitudinal
What structure is located posterior to the bilateral lobes of the thyroid gland? a. Esophagus b. Isthmus c. Longus colli muscle d. Trachea
c. Longus colli muscle
What of the following removes imperfect red blood cells? a. Kupffer cells b. Metabolistic c. Macrophages d. Anabolistic
c. Macrophages
What is the sonographic appearance of the normal thyroid gland? a. Echogenic with high amplitude level echoes b. Hyperechoic with high-level echoes c. Medium-level echo amplitude similar to the testes d. Hypoechoic with scattered hyperechoic regions
c. Medium-level echo amplitude similar to the testes
Which lymphatic nodes are located in the retroperitoneum? a. Parapancreatic b. Gastrohepatic c. Mesenteric d. Perisplenic
c. Mesenteric
What is the echo pattern of the cortex in a newborn? a. Hypoechoic to the renal sinus b. Isoechoic to the liver and spleen c. More echoic than the liver and spleen d. Poorly defined
c. More echoic than the liver and spleen
What is the echo pattern of the cortex in a newborn? a. Hypoechoic to the renal sinus b. Poorly defined c. More echoic than the liver and spleen d. Isoechoic to the liver and spleen
c. More echoic than the liver and spleen
What is the functional unit of the kidney? a. Hilum b. Urethra c. Nephron d. Ureter
c. Nephron
The common bile duct opens in the duodenum near what other structure? a. Duodenal suspensory muscle (ligament of Treitz) b. Gallbladder c. Pancreatic duct d. Hepatic duct
c. Pancreatic duct
Which structure does the common bile duct join prior to terminating at the major duodenal papilla? a. Left hepatic duct b. Cystic duct c. Pancreatic duct d. Pyloric duct
c. Pancreatic duct
What is the name of the congenital anomaly that occurs if the urachus fails to become obliterated, fibrotic, or sealed off? a. Bladder tracts b. Urachal cyst c. Patent urachus d. Dysplasia
c. Patent urachus
What anatomy can be seen as a moderate hyperechoic area posterior to the retromammary fat? a. Lactiferous ducts b. Intercostal cartilages c. Pectoralis major muscle d. Subfascial lobules
c. Pectoralis major muscle
Which two prostate zones can be differentiated by a thin, hyperechoic band separating the two zones? a. Central and periurethral b. Periurethral and peripheral c. Peripheral and central d. Transition and central
c. Peripheral and central
What anatomy constitutes about 70% of the prostate's glandular tissue? a. Anterior fibromuscular stroma b. Central zone c. Peripheral zone d. Transitional zone
c. Peripheral zone
Using one of the eFAST methods, what is indicated if there is an absence of the "seashore" or "marching ants" sign? a. Hemothorax b. Pericardial effusion c. Pneumothorax d. Pleural effusion
c. Pneumothorax
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing DDH? a. High birth weight b. Babies born in the breech position c. Polyhydramnios d. Positive family history
c. Polyhydramnios
Which vessels are usually identified first by the fibrous connective tissue that surrounds them and provides a bright echogenic pattern? a. Aorta b. Hepatic artery c. Portal veins d. Hepatic vein
c. Portal veins
What divides the scrotal pouch into two main compartments? a. Tunica vaginalis b. Tunica dartos c. Raphe d. Spermatic cord
c. Raphe
What forms the lowest part of the peritoneal cavity in the male pelvis? a. Transversalis fascia b. Preperitoneal space c. Rectovesical pouch d. Rectopubic space
c. Rectovesical pouch
What normal renal anatomic structure may be mistaken for a renal cyst in infants and young children? a. Columns of Bertin b. Compound calyces c. Renal pyramids d. Renal lobulations
c. Renal pyramids
Which scanning approach is best for evaluating the IVC of a neonate? a. Posterior-anterior approach b. Left coronal approach c. Right coronal approach d. Anterior-posterior approach
c. Right coronal approach
What should the sonographer take care to differentiate the right adrenal gland from what more medial, hypoechoic/anechoic tubular structure?a. Duodenum b. Aorta c. Right crus of the diaphragm d. Right kidney
c. Right crus of the diaphragm
Which scanning plane should the sonographer initially select to best visualize the lower liver segment? a. Left anterior oblique b. Oblique subcostal c. Right posterior oblique d. Lateral
c. Right posterior oblique
How can the sonographer obtain better near-field images of the abdominal wall? a. Select a lower frequency transducer b. Use transducer pressure c. Scan with a standoff device d. Increase the near-field gain
c. Scan with a standoff device
Where does spermatogenesis occur? a. Epididymis b. Efferent ducts c. Seminiferous tubules d. Spermatic cord
c. Seminiferous tubules
What is the advantage of having the specialized "hockey stick" scanning probes? a. Larger field of view b. Deeper penetration c. Smaller footprint d. Excessive pressure
c. Smaller footprint
What modality is a useful first-line imaging tool when evaluating the spinal canal and cord in infants? a. CT b. MRI c. Sonography d. X-ray
c. Sonography
What is formed from the circular muscle fibers that surround the duodenal orifice of the common bile duct? a. Ampulla of Vater b. Angel of Treitz c. Sphincter of Oddi d. Porta hepatis
c. Sphincter of Oddi
What two normal organs are comparable to the normal adult renal cortex echogenicity? a. Spleen and pancreas b. Liver and pancreas c. Spleen and liver d. Liver and adrenal
c. Spleen and liver
What anatomy is located on the anterior border of the spleen? a. Left kidney b. Splenic cords c. Stomach d. Splenorenal ligament
c. Stomach
What is the first subcutaneous tissue layer that gives the body wall its rounded appearance? a. Fibrous seam (linea alba) b. Deep membranous layer (Scarpa fascia) c. Superficial fatty layer (Camper fascia) d. Oblique abdominus
c. Superficial fatty layer (Camper fascia)
What portion of the duodenum curves to the left, extends inferior to the pancreas, and passes between the superior mesenteric artery anteriorly and the aorta posteriorly? a. SECOND b. FIRST c. THIRD d. FOURTH
c. THIRD
What is a common sonographic appearance of the antrum and body of the stomach? a. Solid b. Bullet-like c. Target-like d. Cyst
c. Target-like
What is the functional unit of the breast? a. Lobe b. Fibroglandular tissue c. Terminal ductal lobular unit d. Parenchyma
c. Terminal ductal lobular unit
What anatomy is included in the spermatic cord? a. Epididymis b. Ductus deferens c. Testicular artery and vein d. Ejaculatory duct
c. Testicular artery and vein
The lesser sac contains which of the following organs? a. Stomach b. Pancreas c. The lesser sac does not contain any organs d. Liver
c. The lesser sac does not contain any organs
What describes the normal echogenicity of the renal cortex? a. The normal kidney is never isoechoic with the liver. b. The kidney is normally hyperechoic in comparison with the spleen and liver. c. The normal kidney echogenicity is isoechoic to hypoechoic compared with the liver and spleen. d. The kidney echogenicity is always hypoechoic compared to the spleen and liver.
c. The normal kidney echogenicity is isoechoic to hypoechoic compared with the liver and spleen.
How many cylindrical columns of spongy tissue comprise the penis? a. Two b. Four c. Three d. Five
c. Three
What is the most widely used scanning technique to scan the urinary bladder? a. Contrast-enhanced ultrasound b. Color Doppler c. Transabdominal approach d. Power Doppler
c. Transabdominal approach
What is the fibrous connective tissue covering the testicles and dividing them into lobules? a. Tunica vaginalis b. Tunica fibrosa c. Tunica albuginea d. Tunica testiculum
c. Tunica albuginea
What pancreatic tissue is located behind the superior mesenteric vein? a. Body b. Tail c. Uncinate process d. Anomalous ectopic pancreatic tissue
c. Uncinate process
What direction does CSF flow? a. Away from the superior sinuses b. Upward towards the spinal subarachnoid space c. Upwards and around the brain to the vertex d. Down towards the brainstem
c. Upwards and around the brain to the vertex
What structures transport urine from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder? a. Calices b. Calculi c. Ureters d. Urethra
c. Ureters
What term is used when the POCUS of a first trimester pregnancy has finding which are consistent with the potential to result in a liveborn baby? a. Pregnancy of unknown location b. Nonviable pregnancy c. Viable pregnancy d. Intrauterine pregnancy
c. Viable pregnancy
Sonographically, the lumen of the aorta and other vascular structures appear ________________. a. isoechoic b. hyperechoic c. anechoic d. hypoechoic
c. anechoic
The thickness of a standoff used as an acoustic standoff between the transducer and the breast should not exceed how many centimeters? a. 0.5 cm b. 1.5 cm c. 2 cm d. 1 cm
d. 1 cm
What is the normal gallbladder wall thickness measured parallel to the sound beam adjacent to the liver? a. 10 to 12 mm b. 7 to 9 mm c. 4 to 6 mm d. 1 to 3 mm
d. 1 to 3 mm
What is the approximate normal thickness of the scrotal wall? a. 1 mm b. 8 to 12 mm c. Varies with age of the male d. 2 to 8 mm
d. 2 to 8 mm
What is the upper limit of normal for the gallbladder wall measurement? a. 5 mm b. 2 mm c. 4 mm d. 3 mm
d. 3 mm
What is the measurement range for the normal bladder wall thickness that accounts for variability caused by bladder distention? a. 4 to 7 mm b. 1 to 4 mm c. 5 to 8 mm d. 3 to 6 mm
d. 3 to 6 mm
How many lobes make up the cerebral cortex? a. 2 b. 6 c. 3 d. 4
d. 4
It is recommended that all patients fast for at least _____________ hours prior to abdominal vascular scanning and refrain from chewing gum or smoking. a. 3 b. 6 c. 8 d. 4
d. 4
Approximately what percentage of the liver's blood is supplied by the portal system? a. 60% b. 50% c. 25% d. 75%
d. 75%
When does the closure of the anterior fontanelle begin? a. 4 months b. 3 months c. 6 months d. 9 months
d. 9 months
What characteristic principally applies to breast sonography imaging in addition to providing an adjunct to mammography for palpable and nonpalpable indeterminate masses? a. Ability to image dense or fatty breasts equally well b. Ability to detect benign versus malignant solid lesions c. Ability to detect microcalcifications, an early sign of cancer d. Ability to detect cystic versus solid lesions
d. Ability to detect cystic versus solid lesions
What is an explanation if the sonographer is having difficulty visualizing the anterior and inferior portions of the spleen because of shadowing artifacts? a. Calculi in the left kidney b. Air in the duodenum c. Calcified aortic wall d. Air in the left colic flexure
d. Air in the left colic flexure
Which sex hormone is secreted by the adrenal gland cortex? a. Hydrocortisone b. Androgen c. Epinephrine d. Aldosterone
d. Aldosterone
What renal structure's normal sonographic appearance is described as discrete, high-level, comma-like, specular echoes arching over the tops of the pyramids? a. Renal parenchyma b. Renal cortex c. Corticomedullary junction d. Arcuate vessels
d. Arcuate vessels
Where does most lymph drainage from the breast occur? a. Subcutaneous tissue b. Thoracic duct c. Acini cells d. Axillary lymph nodes
d. Axillary lymph nodes
Where is the prostate gland located? a. In the retropubic space b. Anterior to the bladder c. Anterior to the urethra d. Between the bladder and the pelvic floor
d. Between the bladder and the pelvic floor
With which congenital anomaly is the triangular cord sign associated? a. Gallbladder agenesis b. Gallbladder ectopia c. Choledochal cyst d. Biliary atresia
d. Biliary atresia
What is the anatomic location of the breast? a. Lateral to the margin of the axilla b. Bordered inferiorly by the fifth and sixth costal cartilages c. Medial to the sternum d. Bordered superiorly by the second and third ribs
d. Bordered superiorly by the second and third ribs
What forms part of the floor of the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle? a. Lateral and posterior sinuses b. Cavum septum pellucidum c. Corpus callosum d. Caudate nucleus
d. Caudate nucleus
What refers to normal vein walls touching with compression? a. Deep vein thrombosis b. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage c. Mechanical venous compression d. Coaptation
d. Coaptation
What structures does the pancreatic duct join prior to terminating at the major duodenal papilla? a. Common hepatic duct b. Pylorus c. Cystic duct d. Common bile duct
d. Common bile duct
What is the preferred imaging modality used to image the adrenal glands? a. Nuclear medicine b. Venography c. Arteriography d. Computed tomography
d. Computed tomography
What is one of the gallbladder's physiologic functions regarding bile? a. Manufacture b. Produce c. Metabolize d. Concentrate
d. Concentrate
What structure can present as a thick lucent band sometimes identified anterior to the spine, inferior vena cava, or aorta? a. Esophagogastric junction b. Left renal vein c. Right portal vein d. Crus of the diaphragm
d. Crus of the diaphragm
What is the best definition for ectopic ureteroceles? a. Eversion through the anterior abdominal wall b. Thin-walled, fluid-filled masses, outward projections c. Dilated and elongated prostatic urethra d. Cyst-like, thin-walled masse, projecting inward
d. Cyst-like, thin-walled masse, projecting inward
What is a choledochal cyst? a. Bile duct calculi b. Inspissated bile c. Necrotic tumor of the gallbladder d. Dilated extrahepatic duct
d. Dilated extrahepatic duct
What is the name of the accessory pancreatic duct? a. Duct of Wirsung b. Ampulla of Vater c. Acini duct d. Duct of Santorini
d. Duct of Santorini
What is the conduit for lipase and amylase secretions? a. Arterial system b. Accessory ducts c. Islets of Langerhans d. Duct of Wirsung
d. Duct of Wirsung
Which statement regarding the diaphragm is FALSE? a. The central portion of the diaphragm descends during inspiration and ascends during expiration. b. The diaphragmatic apertures allow the esophagus, blood vessels, and nerves to pass between the chest and abdomen. c. The right dome of the diaphragm is slightly higher than the left. d. Due to the diaphragmatic contraction, the IVC dilates during inspiration.
d. Due to the diaphragmatic contraction, the IVC dilates during inspiration.
Sonographically, how is the renal anomaly of a duplex collecting system usually identified? a. Hydronephrosis b. Sinus area is enlarged c. Lymphadenopathy d. Duplicated central renal sinus
d. Duplicated central renal sinus
What formula is used to calculate bladder volume? a. Triangular prism b. Circular cylinder c. Spherical d. Ellipsoid
d. Ellipsoid
What pancreatic function occurs in the islets of Langerhans? a. Exocrine b. Sympathetic c. Autolysis d. Endocrine
d. Endocrine
What term best describes the pancreatic hormone insulin? a. Epithelium b. Reticuloendothelial c. Exocrine d. Endocrine
d. Endocrine
What type of gland secretes its products into blood or cellular tissue? a. Exocrine b. Heterocrine c. Ducted d. Endocrine
d. Endocrine
What anatomy is included within the scrotum? a. Bulbourethral gland b. Cremasteric arteries c. Seminal vesicles d. Epididymis
d. Epididymis
What is the best use of color Doppler for evaluating ureteral jets? a. Speed and evaluation of ureteral jets b. Reflux c. Forward flow with bladder diverticulum d. Evaluate for ureteral obstruction
d. Evaluate for ureteral obstruction
What type of gland secretes its products into ducts? a. Endocrine b. Ducted c. Heterocrine d. Exocrine
d. Exocrine
What is the extent of the retroperitoneum? a. From the costal margins to the symphysis pubis b. From the diaphragm to the symphysis pubis c. From the costal margin to the pelvic brim inferiorly d. From the diaphragm superiorly to the pelvic brim inferiorly
d. From the diaphragm superiorly to the pelvic brim inferiorly
What term describes embryonic production of blood cells? a. Hemoptysis b. Hemolysis c. Hemostatic d. Hemopoieses
d. Hemopoieses
What anatomic structure is located lateral and to the left of the common bile duct? a. Cystic artery b. Main pancreatic duct c. Gastroduodenal artery d. Hepatic artery
d. Hepatic artery
Which vessels converge to form the three large trunks that drain into the inferior vena cava? a. Portal veins b. Aorta c. Hepatic arteries d. Hepatic veins
d. Hepatic veins
Which transducers should be selected to scan smaller pediatric patients? a. Longer focused b. Convex or phased array c. Fewer crystals per probe d. Higher frequency
d. Higher frequency
In the sagittal plane, the cord is a __________, tubular structure. a. Isoechoic b. Hyperechoic c. Anechoic d. Hypoechoic
d. Hypoechoic
The functional or true right and left intrahepatic lobar divisions are between what structures? a. Left sagittal fossa and porta hepatis b. Gallbladder fossa and porta hepatis c. Porta hepatis and the inferior vena cava d. Inferior cava and gallbladder fossa
d. Inferior cava and gallbladder fossa
On a longitudinal image, what major vessel is located to the right of the midline with the cephalic portion curving ventrally? a. Hepatic artery b. Portal vein c. Hepatic vein d. Inferior vena cava
d. Inferior vena cava
What is the location of the urethral orifice? a. Anterior, midline, upper corner b. Posterior, midline c. Anterior, midline, lower corner d. Inferior, midline
d. Inferior, midline
Which statement best describes the location of the choroid plexus with the ventricles? a. It extends anterior to the foramen of Monro. b. It tapers as it courses posteriorly. c. It extends posteriorly into the occipital horns. d. It tapers as it courses anteriorly and ends at the caudothalmic groove
d. It tapers as it courses anteriorly and ends at the caudothalmic groove
Which statement best describes the location of the choroid plexus with the ventricles? a. It tapers as it courses posteriorly. b. It extends posteriorly into the occipital horns. c. It extends anterior to the foramen of Monro. d. It tapers as it courses anteriorly and ends at the caudothalmic groove.
d. It tapers as it courses anteriorly and ends at the caudothalmic groove.
What special types of lymph nodes are located along the small bowel and mesentery? a. Parietal nodes b. Visceral nodes c. Chyle cistern nodes d. Lacteal
d. Lacteal
Which is the best patient position to use because it consistently demonstrates the normal right adrenal gland, even on heavier patients? a. Right lateral decubitus b. Supine c. Prone d. Left lateral decubitus
d. Left lateral decubitus
What vessel does the left suprarenal vein drain into? a. IVC b. Aorta c. Splenic vein d. Left renal vein
d. Left renal vein
What structure courses the length of the anterior abdominal wall? a. Umbilical ring b. Transversus abdominus c. Posterior rectus sheath d. Linea alba
d. Linea alba
Where is the most common site for ectopic thyroid tissue? a. Sublingual b. Prelaryngeal c. Substernal d. Lingual area
d. Lingual area
What is a sign of cardiac tamponade? a. Bowing of the interventricular septum into the right ventricle b. Symmetrical ventricular contraction c. Collapse of all chambers during systole d. Loss of respiratory variation in the inferior vena cava
d. Loss of respiratory variation in the inferior vena cava
What separates the intrahepatic right lobe from the left lobe? a. Left hepatic vein b. Ligamentum teres c. Caudate lobe d. Main lobar fissure
d. Main lobar fissure
What is the primary function of the urinary system? a. Regulate blood pH b. Remove all waste products from the body c. Regulate metabolism d. Maintain homeostasis by controlling the composition and volume of blood
d. Maintain homeostasis by controlling the composition and volume of blood
What occurs when the ureter is narrowed at its distal insertion into the bladder? a. Urethral hypoplasia b. Posterior urethral valve c. Eagle-Barrett syndrome d. Megaureter
d. Megaureter
Where are the seminal vesicles situated in relation to the prostate gland? a. Posterior and lateral b. Obliquely and cranially c. Anterior and lateral d. Obliquely and caudally
d. Obliquely and caudally
What is the normal echo amplitude relationship between the pancreas, kidney parenchyma (not cortex), and liver parenchyma starting with the most hyperechoic and progressing to the least hyperechoic? a. Kidney, liver, pancreas b. Pancreas, kidney, liver c. Kidney, pancreas, liver d. Pancreas, liver, kidney
d. Pancreas, liver, kidney
What anomalous condition occurs if the allantoic canal remains open, resulting in a communication channel between the bladder and the umbilicus? a. Exstrophy b. Distal ureteral obstruction c. Posterior urethral valve d. Patent or persistent urachus
d. Patent or persistent urachus
What patient population will benefit most from a FAST exam? a. Non-symptomatic patients b. Outpatients c. Obese patients d. Patients with traumatic injuries
d. Patients with traumatic injuries
What is the normal anatomical location of the spleen? a. Retroperitoneum b. Subcostal region c. Antecaval region d. Peritoneal cavity
d. Peritoneal cavity
Where are the testes located in the fetus? a. Scrotum b. Tunica vaginalis c. Tunica albuginea d. Peritoneal cavity
d. Peritoneal cavity
Which variant presents with a kinked or folded back fundus? a. Septated striation b. Ectopic gallbladder c. Hourglass formation d. Phrygian cap
d. Phrygian cap
What is indicated when an M-mode evaluation documents a "barcode sign" or "stratosphere sign"? a. Pleural effusion b. Hemothorax c. Pericardial effusion d. Pneumothorax
d. Pneumothorax
What do the superior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein join together to form? a. Celiac axis b. Inferior vena cava c. Main hepatic vein d. Portal vein
d. Portal vein
Which blood vessel supplies the liver with blood that is rich in nutrients? a. Hepatic artery b. Inferior vena cava c. Aorta d. Portal vein
d. Portal vein
Which of the following is not another name for the rectouterine space? a. Rectovaginal pouch b. Posterior cul-de-sac c. Pouch of Douglas d. Prevesicle space
d. Prevesicle space
What anatomy is associated with the word costal? a. Gallbladder b. Biliary system c. Liver d. Ribs
d. Ribs
Which scanning approach is best for evaluating the IVC of a neonate? a. Posterior-anterior approach b. Anterior-posterior approach c. Left coronal approach d. Right coronal approach
d. Right coronal approach
Which vessel lies posterior to the IVC? ra. Right renal vein b. Left renal vein c. Left renal artery d. Right renal artery
d. Right renal artery
When a pericardial effusion is present, what must be demonstrated to make the diagnosis of pericardial tamponade? a. Left ventricular protrusion b. Pleural effusion c. Hemothorax d. Right ventricular collapse
d. Right ventricular collapse
Where is the tunica dartos located? a. Spermatic cord b. Urinary bladder c. Epididymis d. Scrotum
d. Scrotum
What medical term describes an anatomic variation in which the liver and gallbladder are found on the left side of the abdomen and the spleen is found on the right side? a. Linear rotation b. Curved inversus c. Portal triad d. Situs inversus
d. Situs inversus
What vessel courses to the patient's right and is located posterior to the pancreas? a. Inferior mesenteric vein b. Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery c. Superior mesenteric artery d. Splenic vein
d. Splenic vein
What portion of the GI tract has walls that are thicker and can nearly always be visualized sonographically in the normal patient using a transabdominal scanning approach? a. Rectum b. Left colic (splenic) flexure c. Esophagus d. Stomach
d. Stomach
To visualize the normal or abnormal anatomical areas of the subdiaphragmatic, subhepatic, and hepatorenal spaces, the sonographer would select what anatomic scanning location? a. Longitudinal b. Decubitus c. Transverse d. Subcostal
d. Subcostal
Which of the following statements regarding the transverse scan plane is FALSE? a. Stress maneuvers are performed in the transverse plane. b. If the hip is dislocated, the normal U configuration will not be identified. c. The transverse scan plane may be obtained in a neutral or flexed position. d. The alpha and beta angles are taken in this plane.
d. The alpha and beta angles are taken in this plane.
What is the sonographic appearance of the diaphragm? a. Thick, concave, hypoechoic band b. Thin, curvilinear, hypoechoic band c. Thick, curvilinear, hypoechoic band d. Thin, curvilinear, hyperechoic band
d. Thin, curvilinear, hyperechoic band
Some nephrologists use the cortical thickness over renal length measurements in order to: a. To divide by renal length to evaluate wellness b. To secure accurate dimension size c. To compare to parenchymal thickness d. To determine the severity of renal failure
d. To determine the severity of renal failure
A 3-year old patient presents with a low-grade fever and refusal to bear weight on her left hip. She recently had an upper respiratory infection. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? a. DDH b. Septic arthritis c. Hip dislocation d. Transient synovitis
d. Transient synovitis
What is the mucous membrane lining the bladder which allows for expansion? a. Intimal epithelium b. Squamous epithelium c. Urogenital epithelium d. Transitional epithelium
d. Transitional epithelium
What anatomical structure provides a pathway for the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? a. Thalamus b. Choroid plexus c. Caudate nucleus d. Ventricles
d. Ventricles
At what level does the ejaculatory ducts merge with the prostatic urethra? a. Cowper glands b. Vas deferens c. Seminal vesicles d. Verumontanum
d. Verumontanum
The posterior abdominal wall is composed of all of the following, except: a. fascia b. lumbar vertebra c. diaphragm d. lymphatic vessels e. oblique muscles
e. oblique muscles
The diaphragm divides the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity. True or false
false
List the four quadrants of the abdominopelvic cavity.
right upper quadrant, left upper quadrant, right lower quadrant, left lower quadrant
Some muscular components, like the psoas minor and pyramidalis muscles, are partially or completely absent in significant portion of the population. true or false
true
Sonography of the abdominal wall is an efficient and effective way of evaluating the integrity, structure, and function of the abdominal wall and diaphragm. true or false
true
The aorta originates from the left ventricle. true or false
true
The diaphragm should be closely evaluated for asymmetric motion on real-time scanning. True or false
true
Typically, blood vessels are composed of three distinct layers: tunica intima, tunica media, and
tunica advenitia