Anatomy Test 2: Chapter 5, Anatomy Test 2: Chapter 6, Anatomy Test 2: Chapter 7
Differences between a young child's skeleton and that of a small adult include which of the following? A) The child skeleton has full dentition. B) In the child's skeleton a frontal suture is present. C) There is a large mastoid process in the child skeleton. D) The external auditory meatus is larger in the child. E) All of the answers are correct.
B) In the child's skeleton a frontal suture is present
The true ribs A) consist of twelve pairs. B) are the only ribs that are unpaired. C) attach to the sternum by separate cartilaginous extensions. D) attach only to the vertebral column. E) attach directly to the body of the sternum by bone to bone contact.
C) attach to the sternum by separate cartilaginous extensions
Which of the following is most likely to have a nerve pass through it? A) fossa B) process C) foramen D) condyle E) All of the answers are correct.
C) foramen
Which of the following can be found on cervical vertebrae only? A) facets B) transverse processes C) multiple foramina D) laminae E) spinous processes
C) multiple foramina
Which of the following organ system would most likely be affected by breaking a rib? A) endocrine B) digestive C) respiratory D) excretory E) All of the answers are correct.
C) respiratory
Which of the following contains the foramen ovale? A) frontal B) temporal C) sphenoid D) ethmoid E) maxillary
C) sphenoid
During track and field practice, on of the runners trips over a hurdle and falls forward. Fortunately, they are able to break their fall with their hands. However, they stand up holding their wrist in pain. What type of fracture might they have sustained? A) compound fracture B) Colles' fracture C) greenstick fracture D) displaced fracture E) None of the answers are correct.
Colles' fracture
Which of the following is an example of a sesamoid bone? A) humerus B) carpal bone C) occipital bone D) patella E) None of the answers are correct.
D) patella
The endosteum is best described as A) a tissue that is active during the growth or repair of bone. B) the cellular lining of the marrow cavity and central canals. C) an epithelial layer that covers the trabeculae of spongy bone. D) an incomplete epithelium that sometimes leaves matrix exposed. E) All of the answers are correct.
E) All of the answers are correct
Which of the following describes a central canal A) contains an artery B) contains a vein C) runs parallel to osteons D) contains a nerve E) All of the answers are correct.
E) All of the answers are correct
Which of the following pieces of information about an individual can be discerned from the skeleton? A) age B) sex C) race D) body weight E) All of the answers are correct.
E) All of the answers are correct
Which of the following is true of the vomer bone? A) It is a part of the ethmoid bone. B) It forms a part of the bridge of the nose. C) It is located lateral to the nasal septum. D) It supports the olfactory epithelium. E) It forms part of the nasal septum.
E) It forms part of the nasal septum
Which of the following features belongs to the mandibular bone? A) supraorbital margins B) supraciliary arches C) frontal suture D) lacrimal fossa E) mental foramen
E) Mental foramen
Which of the following describes how bones are innervated? A) Bones are not innervated. B) Only the periosteum is innervated. C) The periosteum and endosteum are innervated by sensory nerves. D) Only the endosteum, marrow cavity, and epiphyses are innervated. E) The periosteum, endosteum, medullary cavity, and epiphyses are innervated by sensory nerves.
E) The periosteum, endosteum, medullary cavity, and epiphyses are innervated by sensory nerves
Which of the following vertebral curvatures is convex anteriorly? A) sacral B) thoracic C) cervical D) lumbar E) both cervical and lumbar
E) both cervical and lumbar
Which of the following bones supports some of the weight of the brain? A) frontal bones B) lacrimal bones C) zygomatic bones D) parietal bones E) ethmoid bone
E) ethmoid bone
Choose the type of rub and number of ribs that matches A) true ribs; 6 B) false ribs; 4 C) true ribs; 4 D) floating ribs; 4 E) true ribs; 10
Floating ribs; 4
Which of the following features belongs to the occipital bone? A) mental foramen B) mandibular foramen C) coronoid process D) hypoglossal canal E) mylohyoid line
Hypoglossal canal
The squamous suture is the boundary between which bones?
Parietal and temporal
Why is it difficult to distinguish the skeleton of a young male from that of a young female?
The characteristic greater density of bone that developed in adult males has not appeared yet in children and secondary sexual characteristics that cause skeletal differences between males and females do not appear prior to puberty
Which event occurs first as an individual grows and ages? A) The frontal suture closes. B) The ossification centers of the occipital bone fuse. C) The styloid process fuses to the temporal bone. D) The adult dentition appears. E) The hyoid bone finishes ossifying and fusing.
The ossification centers of the occipital bone fuse
If a long bone found at an archeological dig contained functional epiphyseal plates, what inference is most accurate?
The person was prepubertal
A wedding ring is traditionally worn around which bone?
The proximal phalynx of digit 4 of the manus
The primary curvatures of the spine serves mainly to
accommodate the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera
The structure of the os coxa that can easily be felt on the front of the hip is the A) ischial spine. B) pectineal line. C) acetabulum. D) anterior superior iliac spine. E) sciatic notch.
anterior superior iliac spine
The posterior tubercle is a part of the A) atlas. B) vertebra prominens. C) anticlinal vertebra. D) axis. E) thoracic vertebra.
atlas
Bones within the temporal bone that are important to hearing are called
auditory ossicles
The divisions of the skeletal system include the
axial and appendicular
False ribs are also known as A) vertebrosternal ribs. B) vertebrochondral ribs. C) vertebral ribs. D) floating ribs. E) both vertebrochondral ribs and floating ribs.
both vertebrochondral ribs and floating ribs
Osseous tissue is classified as which of the following? A) neural tissue B) muscle tissue C) connective tissue D) epithelial tissue E) None of the answers are correct.
connective tissue
Problems with proper growth of the skull can be caused by A) expansion of the brain. B) early closure of the sagittal and coronal sutures. C) ossification of the bony processes that form the temporomandibular joint. D) retarded ossification of the fontanels. E) None of the answers are correct.
early closure of the sagittal and coronal sutures
The connective tissue covering the inner surface of a bone is the
endosteum
Every bone contains relatively large a medullary cavity.
false
Periosteum lines the marrow cavity
false
The lacrimal bones form the cheekbones and some of the lateral wall of the orbit
false
The lacuna contains osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
false
The lowest section on the vertebral column is the sacrum
false
The mandible is the upper jaw bone
false
The metaphysis is the tubular shaft of a long bone
false
The opening that permits sounds to reach the middle ear cavity is called the internal acoustic meatus.
false
The pelvic outlet tends to be larger in males than in females
false
The pubic angle tends to be greater than 100 degrees in males
false
The sphenoid bone has two condylar processes
false
The temporal bone contains the foramen magnum and forms part of the wall of the jugular foramen
false
Which of the following sutures is found in the infant but sometimes has no evident marking in the adult? A) frontal B) coronal C) squamous D) lambdoid E) sagittal
frontal
The coronal suture is the boundary between which bones?
frontal and parietal
The frontal bone of an infant is separated into two bones by the
frontal suture
The largest nerve in the body passes through the A) obturator foramen. B) greater sciatic notch. C) lesser sciatic notch. D) suprascapular notch. E) foramen magnum.
greater sciatic notch
Upper limb bones include the A) clavicle and humerus. B) clavicle, scapula, and humerus. C) humerus, ulna, and radius. D) humerus, tibia, and fibula. E) scapula and humerus.
humerus, ulna, and radius
Which of the following bones might be broken during strangulation?
hyoid bone
The pelvic girdle meets the axial skeleton where the
ilium attaches to the sacrum
The bones of the pelvis A) are bones of the axial skeleton only. B) are bones of the appendicular skeleton only. C) include both axial and appendicular elements. D) include two prominent sesamoid bones. E) All of the answers are correct.
include both axial and appendicular elements
What types of information about an individual's medical condition can the skeleton reveal? A) injuries, such as broken bones B) the presence of osteoarthritis C) multiple cases of pneumonia D) nearsightedness E) injuries, such as broken bones and the presence of osteoarthritis
injuries, such as broken bones and the presence of osteoarthritis
The patella A) is a sesamoid bone. B) is normally on the lateral aspect of the knee joint. C) is preformed in cartilage during development. D) forms part of a ball and socket joint. E) None of the answers are correct.
is a sesamoid bone
Surgery of the spinal chord most often involves cutting of the A) lamina. B) transverse process. C) superior articular facet. D) spinous process. E) body.
lamina
Compared with the pectoral girdle the pelvic girdle is A) less strongly anchored to the axial skeleton. B) more robust, adapted for weight bearing. C) composed of more separate bones. D) more flexible and freely movable. E) None of the answers are correct.
more robust, adapted for weight bearing
The first location of long bone formation begins in an area called the A) trabecula. B) spicule. C) Haversian system. D) primary ossification center. E) secondary ossification center.
primary ossification center
The head of the humerus corresponds to the A) metaphysis of the bone. B) proximal epiphysis of the bone. C) diaphysis of the bone. D) distal epiphysis of the bone. E) None of the answers are correct.
proximal epiphysis of the bone
Treating a compound fracture differs from other fractures most significantly due to
risk of infection
The pelvis includes which bone of the axial skeleton? A) os coxa B) ilium C) ischium D) sacrum E) The pelvis does not include bones of the axial skeleton.
sacrum
The lumbar and cervical curves of the vertebral column are called
secondary curves
The boundaries of the lesser (or true) pelvis include A) the superior margin of the pubic symphysis. B) structures inferior to the iliopectineal line. C) the inferior border of the pelvic outlet. D) the bladelike portions of each ilium. E) the ischial tuberosities.
structures inferior to the iliopectineal line
Extra bones that develop between the usual bones of the skull are called
sutural bones
A long bone increases in length until A) appositional growth starts. B) the body runs out of calcium. C) the epiphyseal cartilage becomes ossified. D) expansion of the secondary ossification centers ends. E) death; bones grow as long as we are alive.
the epiphyseal cartilage becomes ossified
The temporomandibular joint is A) the location of the insertion of the temporalis muscle. B) the suture between the temporal and maxillary bones. C) the site of the articulation between the cranium and mandible. D) the first suture to be completely ossified in the adult skull. E) None of the answers are correct.
the site of the articulation between the cranium and the mandible
The crural interosseous membrane extends between the
tibia and fibula
Which of the following is a solid structure? A) lacuna B) medullary cavity C) trabecula D) central canal E) canaliculus
trabecula
Spongy bone is made up of a network of bony spines called
trabeculae
Ribs 1-10 articulate with the bodies of the thoracic vertebrae and the A) spinous processes of the lumbar vertebrae. B) transverse processes of the thoracic vertebrae. C) spinous processes of the thoracic vertebrae. D) xiphoid process of the sternum. E) None of the answers are correct.
transverse processes of the thoracic vertebrae
Processes that form where tendons or ligaments attach to a bone include A) condyles and trochleae. B) fossae, sulci, and foramina. C) rami and heads. D) trochanters, tuberosities, and tubercles. E) All of the answers are correct.
trochanters, tuberositites, and tubercles
A point of contact between the axial and appendicular skeleton is the manubrium
true
A roughened projection on the posterolateral border of the os coxae is the ischial tuberosity
true
Articular cartilage covers opposing bone surfaces at joints.
true
Periosteum covers the outer surface of the bone
true
The depression in the head of the femur where a stabilizing ligament attaches is called the fovea capitis
true
The ethmoid bone contains a superior injection called the crista Galli.
true
The ethmoid bone is a light spongy bone that forms much of the inner structure of the nose and attaches to the fall cerebra.
true
The infraorbital foramen allows blood vessels and nerves to pass through the maxilla
true
The inner ear bones or ossicles are located within the temporal bones
true
The ischial spines are closer together in males than females
true
The mastoid process is part of the temporal bone
true
The pelvic inlet of a female is generally wider and more circular than that of a male pelvis
true
The sacral curvature tends to arc more in males then in females
true
The sacrum is actually the result of five used sacral vertebrae.
true
The sphenoid bone contains the foramen rotunda and superior orbital fissure.
true
The sternum serves as an anterior attachment site for the true and false ribs
true
The structures that support the head on the vertebral column are the occipital condyles.
true
the central canal runs parallel to the osteons
true
the coronoid process forms the inferior lip of the trochlear notch
true
Bones have a vascular supply that is A) very extensive, including many arteries and veins branching throughout the bone. B) very poor; bones are not living, so blood is not needed. C) supplied simply by one or two arteries. D) poor, therefore healing is very limited. E) None of the answers are correct.
very extensive, including many arteries and veins branching throughout the bone
In the skeletal system, compact bone is located A) where bones are most heavily stressed. B) where stresses arrive from many directions. C) in the epiphyses of the long bones. D) in direct contact with articular cartilages. E) All of the answers are correct.
where bones are most heavily stressed
The most inferior portion of the sternum is called the
xiphoid process
Characteristics that specifically identify a skeletal element as belonging to a female include A) a bone approximately 10 percent heavier than many others of the same size. B) a bone with smaller prominences and a smoother surface. C) larger cranial sinuses. D) a long, narrow triangular sacrum with a prominent sacral curvature. E) All of the answers are correct.
A bone with smaller prominences and a smoother surface
In addition to osseous tissue, a typical bone contains A) other connective tissues. B) smooth muscle tissues (in blood vessel walls). C) neural tissues. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.
All of the answers are correct
The pelvis A) is a composite structure. B) contains bones from both the axial and the appendicular skeleton. C) protects pelvic organs. D) is dramatically different in males and females. E) All of the answers are correct.
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following statements characterizes bones and bone tissue A) It can undergo remodeling during life. B) It may have both compact and spongy regions. C) It can be changed by hormonal stimuli. D) It contains openings for nutrient blood vessels. E) All of the answers are correct.
All of the answers are correct.
Which of the following structures makes up the superior portion of the nasal septum? A) perpendicular plate B) cribriform plate C) inferior nasal concha D) vomer E) None of the answers are correct.
A) Perpendicular plate
The skeletal system participates in A) maintaining blood calcium levels. B) absorbing the shock of unexpected rapid body movements. C) facilitating transmission of nerve impulses. D) cushioning abdominal organs such as the kidneys. E) All of the answers are correct.
A) maintaining blood calcium levels
Which of the following is the connection point between the axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton? A) sternum - clavicle B) vertebra - skull C) pelvis - femur D) vertebra - scapula E) vertebra - sacrum
A) sternum - clavicle
Which is a major function of the skeletal system? A) support of the body B) storage of glucose C) production of ATP D) maintenance of interstitial fluid composition E) None of the answers are correct.
A) support of the body
Which of the following openings is found within the frontal bone A) supra-orbital foramen B) foramen spinosum C) foramen lacerum D) optic canal E) foramen ovale
A) supra-orbital foramen
Bone structure is determined by which of the following? A) hormones B) mechanical stress C) muscle attachments D) diet E) All of the answers are correct.
All of the answers are correct
Compared with the male pelvis, the female pelvis has A) an enlarged pelvic outlet. B) a wider, more circular pelvic inlet. C) a broader pubic arch. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.
All of the answers are correct
What is the mechanism of marrow cavity enlargement in a long bone? A) There is no mechanism; once formed, the marrow cavity does not change in size. B) As bone matrix is added to the external surface, osteoclasts remove matrix in the center of the bone to enlarge the cavity. C) Blood vessels entering the marrow cavity enlarge it by eroding away the inner surface of the bone. D) The bone marrow cavity only increases in length, as the epiphyseal plates move apart. E) None of the answers are correct.
As bone matrix is added to the external surface, osteoclasts remove matrix in the center of the bone to enlarge the cavity
Organic components of the matrix of bone include A) calcium phosphate. B) collagen fibers. C) calcium carbonate. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.
B) collagen fibers
Which of the following describes the occipital bone? A) covers the parietal lobes of the brain B) contains the foramen magnum C) bears mandibular fossa D) is paired in the adult E) makes up the forehead
B) contains the foramen magnum
The bony structure of the orbit is composed of which of the following? A) maxilla, zygomatic, lacrimal, and palatine only B) ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, lacrimal, maxilla, zygomatic, and palatine C) zygomatic, nasal, frontal, and sphenoid only D) zygomatic, nasal, frontal, sphenoid, palatine, lacrimal, and temporal E) None of the answers are correct.
B) ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, lacrimal, maxilla, zygomatic, and palatine
The pubic symphysis in females A) is wider and more solidly attached than in males. B) is more subject to stretching under hormonal influence than that in males. C) joins pubic bones that meet at the same angle as they do in males. D) is asymmetrical. E) None of the answers are correct.
B) is more subject to stretching under hormonal influence than this in males
Which of the following bones contain the infraorbital foramen A) zygomatic B) maxilla C) frontal D) ethmoid E) sphenoid
B) maxilla
Which of the following structures can most easily be felt on the dorsum? A) transverse process B) spinous process C) body D) intervertebral disc E) pedicle
B) spinous process
Which of the following is produced within red bone marrow? A) blood cells B) adipose tissue C) calcium D) protein E) All of the answers are correct.
Blood cells
Which of the following vertebral column levels has the thickest intervertebral disc? A) between C1 and C2 B) between C7 and T1 C) between T12 and L1 D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.
C
Which of the following is true of the foramen magnum? A) It allows passage of the carotid arteries into the head. B) It is located between the parietal and occipital bones. C) It is located in the inferior surface of the occipital bone. D) It is the second largest foramen in the cranium. E) None of the answers are correct.
C) It is located in the inferior surface of the occipital bone
Which of the following bones makes up most of the medial wall of the orbit? A) frontal bone B) sphenoid bone C) ethmoid bone D) zygomatic bone E) maxilla
C) ethmoid
Preforating canals (canals of Volkmann) A) are arranged parallel to the surface of the bone. B) are always associated with osteons in spongy bone. C) transmit blood vessels to osteons deep inside the bone. D) occur in growing juvenile bone, but are obliterated in adult bone. E) All of the answers are correct.
C) transmit blood vessels to osteons deep inside the bone
Which of the following organs is protected by the rib cage? A) lungs B) heart C) thymus D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.
D) All of the answers are correct.
Which of the following occurs during endochondral ossification? A) Osteoblasts differentiate within a mesenchymal or fibrous connective tissue. B) Osteoblasts secrete the organic component of the matrix. C) Blood vessels enter the spaces between bone spicules to supply the growing tissues. D) The bone grows in length. E) None of the answers are correct.
D) The bone grows in length
The large "soft spot" on top of an infants head A) occurs where the parietal and frontal bones have not yet grown together. B) is one of several fontanels in an infant skull. C) is covered in fibrous connective tissue. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.
D) all of the answers are correct
Which of the following bones are in contact with the distal radius? A) metacarpals B) humerus C) scapula D) carpals E) All of the answers are correct.
D) carpals
Which bone is not part of the skull? A) ethmoid B) sphenoid C) palatine D) hyoid E) zygomatic
D) hyoid
Features of the maxillae include A) sinuses. B) alveolar processes. C) orbital surfaces. D) inferior orbital foramina. E) All of the answers are correct.
E) All of the above are correct
Bones of the skull that articulate with the zygomatic bone include the A) temporal bone. B) frontal bone. C) maxillary bone. D) sphenoid. E) All of the answers are correct.
E) All of the answers are correct
During endochondral bone formation, A) the matrix of the cartilage model becomes calcified. B) cells of the perichondrium differentiate into osteoblasts. C) capillaries and osteoblasts migrate into the heart of the cartilage. D) osteoclasts erode the center of the new bone to form a marrow cavity. E) All of the answers are correct.
E) All of the answers are correct
Which of the following is the attachment site for the deltoid muscle? A) bicipital groove B) lesser tubercle C) greater tubercle D) pectoral tubercle E) deltoid tuberosity
E) deltoid tuberosity
Which of the following bones bear teeth? A) maxillae B) mandible C) palatine bones D) lacrimal bones E) maxillae and mandible
E) maxillae and mandible
Which feature of the female pelvis is adapted to allow the pelvic outlet a larger size? A) greater separation of the ischial spines B) wider pelvic inlet C) broader greater pelvis D) lateral ilia E) None of the answers are correct.
Greater separation of the ischial spines
How does an epiphysis contribute to the growth and function of a long bone? A) It permits more additional bone to be formed than would occur without it. B) It allows growth at the metaphysis while retaining the shape of the articular surface. C) It allows the bone to replace the cartilage at the metaphysis more rapidly. D) It permits bones of different densities to occur in close proximity. E) None of the answers are correct.
It allows growth at the metaphysis while retaining the shape of the articular surface
What is the role of the fibula in articulations of the leg? A) It participates in the hinge action at the knee joint. B) It allows rotation at the ankle joint. C) It participates in rotational action at the knee joint. D) It articulates both proximally and distally with the tibia. E) It is completely useless and should be removed.
It articulates both proximally and distally with the tibia
Which of the following is (are) true of the growth of the skeleton? A) It begins to ossify at six weeks of gestational age. B) All bone formation ceases immediately after the end of adolescence. C) Calcification of bones does not occur until an infant begins to learn to walk. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.
It begins to ossify at six weeks
Which of the following is true of the bony matrix of the skeleton as people age? A) Its composition remains constant throughout life. B) Its mineral content diminishes as a normal part of aging. C) It gains calcium carbonate while losing calcium phosphate. D) The proportion of collagen fibers in the matrix increases with age. E) None of the answers are correct.
Its mineral content diminishes as a normal part of aging
Which of the following lists includes only facial bones? A) frontals, nasals, parietals, and occipital B) maxillae, palatines, mandible, zygomatics, lacrimals C) sphenoid, ethmoid, maxillae, and mandible D) inferior conchae, vomer, ethmoid, nasal, lacrimals, and sphenoid E) None of the answers are correct.
Maxillae, palatines, mandible, zygomatic, lacrimals
How do hormones regulate the pattern of bone growth? A) They don't; hormones are not involved in bone growth processes. B) They change the rates of osteoblast and osteoclast activity. C) They control the rate of movement of the epiphyseal line. D) They regulate the deposition of calcium and phosphate salts in the bone matrix. E) None of the answers are correct.
They change the rates of osteoblast and osteoclast activity
What is the fate of the chondrocytes that are present where bone is forming?
They die and are replaced by bone cells
Layers of bone that go all the way around a bone are referred to as A) concentric lamellae. B) interstitial lamellae. C) circumferential lamellae. D) radial lamellae. E) longitudinal lamellae.
circumferential lamellae
The depression on the distal end of the anterior humerus is the A) olecranon fossa. B) coronoid fossa. C) intercondylar fossa. D) intertubercular groove. E) None of the answers are correct.
coronoid fossa
The periosteum A) covers the outside of bones. B) covers articular cartilage. C) can form chondrocytes to assist in enlarging cartilages associated with the bones. D) lines the medullary cavity. E) is vital in blood cell formation.
covers the outside of bones
The parietal, temporal, frontal, and occipital bones are part of the
cranium
Most bones in the appendicular skeleton develop from A) fibrous connective tissue. B) hyaline cartilage. C) the process of intramembranous ossification. D) the process of endochondral ossification. E) hyaline cartilage models and the process of endochondral ossification.
hyaline cartilage models and the process of endochondral ossification
The largest bone of the pelvic girdle is the
ilium
Most of the posterior surface of the scapula is formed by the
infraspinous fossa
The space between the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus is calls the A) surgical neck. B) coronoid fossa. C) intertubercular sulcus. D) anatomic neck. E) intercondylar fossa.
intertubulular sulcus
Ossification of flat bones is called
intramembranous
Examination of what features of the skeleton can provide information about the health of an individual? A) density of the bonesB) appearance of healed fracturesC) the number of carpal elementsD) density of the bones and appearance of healed fracturesE) the number of tarsal elements
density of bones and appearance of healed fractures
How does the number of skeletal elements in the body change with age?
it decreases
Which of the following is a classification of bone A) long B) round C) square D) triangular E) indefinite
long
Pregnancy can cause which of the following abnormal curvatures of the back A) lordosis B) scoliosis C) kyphosis D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.
lordosis
The small depression on temporal bone that the mandibular condyle fits into is called the a) mandibular foramen.b) mandibular fossa.c) temporal fossa.d) temporal foramen.e) none of the above.
mandibular fossa
The largest of the paranasal sinuses is (are) located within which of the following bones? A) frontal bone B) sphenoid C) ethmoid D) maxillae E) nasal bone
maxilla
Which bone makes up most of the floor of the orbit?
maxilla
Someone who is referred to as having a "large chin" likely has a very prominent
mental protuberance
The palms of the hand are made up of A) metacarpal bones. B) metatarsal bones. C) carpal bones. D) tarsal bones. E) All of the answers are correct.
metacarpal bones
The epiphyseal cartilage connects to the diaphysis by a narrow zone called the
metaphysis
The degenerative effects of osteoporosis are most likely to affect
older women
Which of the following is a structure of the ulna? A) olecranon B) supraspinous fossa C) spine D) superior angle E) glenoid cavity
olecranon
The point of the elbow is formed by the ___________ of the ulna. A) supraglenoid tubercle B) infraglenoid tubercle C) radial tuberosity D) olecranon process E) infraspinous fossa
olecranon process
In osseous tissue, which of the following is able to break down bone?
osteoclasts
Mature bone cells that monitor the matrix are A) osteocytes. B) chondrocytes. C) osteoblasts. D) osteoclasts. E) osteoplasts.
osteocytes
Which type of cell divides readily after a bone is damaged? A) osteocyte B) osteoprogenitor cell C) red marrow cell D) osteoclast E) osteoblast
osteoprogenitor cell
Which of the following works with calcitrol to maintain bone homeostasis? A) growth hormone B) parathyroid hormone C) calcitonin D) calcitriol E) thyroid hormone
parathyroid hormone
Compared with that of females, the male coccyx... A) contains more fused vertebrae. B) points more anteriorly. C) fuses at an earlier age. D) is relatively larger and longer. E) None of the answers are correct.
points more anteriorly
The major function of the body of the vertabra is
protection of the spinal chord
The fibula A) forms an important part of the knee joint. B) articulates with the femur. C) helps to bear the weight of the body. D) provides lateral stability to the ankle. E) is the medial bone of the leg.
provides lateral stability to the ankle
A muscle that flexes the elbow is attached to the A) ulnar notch. B) radial notch. C) styloid process. D) radial tuberosity. E) None of the answers are correct.
radial tuberosity
The structure that houses the pituitary gland is called the
sella turcica
The vertebral arches surround and protect the
spinal chord
A fracture of a bone that is the result of a twisting bone is called a A) Pott's fracture. B) comminuted fracture. C) greenstick fracture. D) spiral fracture. E) compression fracture.
spiral fracture
The two types of osseous tissue are
spongy and compact bone
The only point of articulation between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is at the
sternal end of the clavicle
The corners of the scapula include the
superior angle, inferior angle, and lateral angle
The point of attachment for muscles that extend and rotate the head is
the mastoid process
Age of a skeleton can be determined from A) the number of teeth present. B) the number of ribs present. C) the degree of ossification of cranial sutures. D) the presence of heterotopic bones. E) the number of teeth present and the degree of ossification of cranial sutures.
the number of teeth present and the degree of ossification of cranial sutures
Which type of vertebra has a transverse costal facet?
thoracic
The primary curves of the vertebral column are the
thoracic and sacral
The function of an osteoprogenitor cell in osseous tissue is
to produce new osteoblasts
A Pott fracture occurs at the ankle and affects both bones of the lower leg.
true
A comminuted fracture shatters the area into a multitude of bony fragments.
true
A compression fracture occurs particularly in the vertebrae subjected to extreme stress, such as when landing on the gluteal region after a fall.
true
CPR involves forcefully depressing the sternum
true
The perforating canals run perpendicular to the osteons
true
Closure of the fontanels is typically complete around the age of
two years
The radial structures in contact with the ulna include the A) ulnar notch. B) head. C) radial tuberosity. D) antebrachial joint. E) ulnar notch and head.
ulnar notch and head
Compression fracture is most likely to occur in which of the following bones A) mandible B) ethmoid C) vertebra D) rib E) parietal bone
vertebra
The part of the vertebra that transfers weight along the long axis of the vertebral column is (are) the
vertebral body
Which of the following is required to produce calcitrol in the kidneys? A) calcium B) vitamin A C) vitamin C D) vitamin D E) sodium
vitamin D
The facial bone that is midsagittal structure is the
vomer
Jason fractured his pisiform bone in an accident. What part of his body is injured?
wrist
The temporal processes are part of what bone?
zygomatic
Which of the following types of fractures produces new and abnormal bone arrangements? A) transverse fracture B) compression fracture C) spiral fracture D) comminuted fracture E) displaced fracture
displaced fractures
A great example of a pneumatized bone is the A) parietal bone. B) mandible. C) femur. D) vertebra. E) ethmoid bone.
ethmoid bone
The best way to delay skeletal aging is to
exercise
A depression on the posterior side of the humerus is the coronoid fossa
false
A displaced fracture retains the normal alignment of the bone elements or fragments.
false
A small anterior projection on the superior surface of the scapula is the coronoid process.
false
A transverse fracture is produced by twisting stresses and spreads along the length of the bone.
false
The central canals connect the lacunae to one another
false
The diaphysis is the region at each end of a long bone.
false
The first cervical vertebra is the axis.
false
The scapula is an example of what type of bone
flat
The distal end of the fibula A) articulates with the distal end of the ulna. B) contains a ridge called the linea aspera. C) has an entepicondylar foramen. D) forms the lateral malleolus. E) supports most of the weight of the body.
forms the lateral malleolus
A depression or concavity on the surface of a bone is called a
fossa
The period of time when bone remodeling is most likely is A) after injury. B) during aging. C) during youth. D) during embryologic development. E) never.
after injury
Bone remodeling occurs in A) spongy bone. B) compact bone. C) all bone types equally at all times. D) all bone types based on need. E) None of the answers are correct.
all bone types based on need
What event causes the cervical curve to begin development?
an infant begins to lift his or her head
A bone cell that produces new bone matrix is
an osteoblast
The pectoral girdle, upper limb bones, pelvic girdle, and lower limb bones make up the
appendicular skeleton
The capitulum is a part of the A) scapula. B) ulna. C) humerus. D) radius. E) clavicle.
humerus
Endochondral ossification begins with A) hyaline cartilage. B) elastic cartilage. C) fibrocartilage. D) articular cartilage. E) None of the answers are correct.
hyaline cartilage
In the ankle the largest tarsal bone is the
calcaneus
The deposit of calcium salts within a tissue is
calcification
Increased levels of calcium in the blood in a pregnant woman would stimulate the secretion of A) calcitonin. B) calcitriol. C) parathyroid hormone. D) thyroid hormone. E) growth hormone.
calcitonin
Injury to what region of the vertebral column is usually most threatening?
cervical
Which of the following is best for viewing bones? A) MRI B) X-rays C) CAT D) ultrasound E) PET
X-Rays
A break in a bone is called
a fracture