Midterm + Final - Fire 1&2

Lakukan tugas rumah & ujian kamu dengan baik sekarang menggunakan Quizwiz!

"Non-plan states" refers to states that have not adopted: A. OSHA regulations. B. NFPA 1500. C. CFR Title 40. D. NIMS-ICS.

1" (25 mm) hose stored on a hose reel is __________ hose. A. booster B. attack C. forestry D. mop-up

A Level _____ chemical-protective suit is designed to protect the wearer from gases, vapors, and liquids. A. A B. B C. C D. D

A NIOSH study found that unprotected lightweight engineered I-joist floor assemblies fail after _____ minutes of fire exposure. A. 6 B. 9 C. 12 D. 15

A Roberts head is a type of: A. screwdriver. B. cylinder head. C. axe head. D. maul.

A __________ team conducts a quick evaluation of the area to identify the number of people involved. A. recon B. rescue C. survey D. search

A blanket drag is best suited for a victim who: A. is not dressed. B. may have a spinal injury. C. is large or obese. D. is a child.

A change in the state of a material is known as a __________ change. A. physical B. chemical C. property D. matter

A chemical reaction that produces heat is: A. exothermic. B. thermodynamic. C. isothermic. D. endothermic.

A comprehensive, all-hazard unifying approach that includes programs, actions, and services used by a community, which prevent or mitigate the loss of life, property, and resources associated with life safety, fire, and other disasters within a community is: A. community risk reduction. B. comprehensive risk management. C. all-hazard response planning. D. community emergency response preparation.

A figure eight on a bight is used to: A. create a secure loop at the working end. B. wrap a loop around an object. C. attach a rope to an eye or ring. D. join two ropes together.

A fire department is required to have a __________ to track personnel and assignments at an emergency scene. A. personnel accountability system B. resource status report C. unit log D. passport system

A fire fighter with specialized training for aircraft and airport-related incidents is a(n): A. aircraft rescue fire fighter. B. aviation rescue technician. C. technical rescue technician. D. aviation operations specialist.

A freestanding wall that extends above the roofline is a __________ wall. A. parapet B. pony C. curtain D. sleeper

A fully encapsulated suit is part of Level __________ protective clothing. A. A B. B C. C D. D

A gas with a vapor density of _____ will rise in air. A. 0.1 B. 1.0 C. 10 D. 100

A grounding rod is most likely to be found on which item? A. Portable generator B. Inverter C. Lighting tower D. Junction box

A ladder __________ is used to lower a rescuer into a trench or manhole. A. A-frame B. tripod C. platform D. anchor

A minimum of __________ personnel is necessary to perform work in the hot zone. A. two B. four C. six D. eight

A potential problem with application of a multipurpose dry chemical agent to a Class K fire is: A. counteraction of other agents applied to the fire. B. production of toxic gas. C. spitting and splattering of fuel. D. sudden flare-up of the fire.

A probable cause must have a level of certainty of at least _____%. A. 50 B. 60 C. 70 D. 80

A proximity suit is designed for: A. limited exposures to high temperatures. B. protection from radiological hazards. C. protection from both chemical and heat hazards. D. hazardous materials support work, such as decontamination.

A responder has come in contact with a hazardous material by handling a tool that was used to stop a leak. This is an example of: A. secondary contamination. B. contamination. C. exposure. D. infection.

A safety knot is most typically used to: A. secure the loose ends of a rope. B. prevent a rope from slipping through a pulley or eye. C. attach a belay line. D. connect two ropes together.

A silicon carbide composite circular saw blade is designed for use on: A. masonry. B. steel. C. most metals. D. a wide variety of materials.

A soft sleeve hose is used to connect a pumper to a: A. pressurized water source. B. master stream device. C. static water supply. D. FDC.

A threaded stem indicates the valve position on which sprinkler control valve? A. Outside stem and yoke B. Post indicator C. Gate D. Butterfly

A vehicle air bag will remain energized until the: A. air bag capacitor is fully discharged. B. battery is disconnected. C. ignition key is removed. D. safety switch is flipped.

A windshield is made of __________ glass. A. laminated B. dichroic C. tempered D. composite

According to FEMA, span of control of personnel is between: A. 3 and 7. B. 5 and10. C. 1 and 10. D. 2 and 5

According to NFPA standards, which item is a core competency for operations level hazardous materials responders? A. Preserve evidence B. Control leaking product C. Perform victim recovery D. Perform atmospheric monitoring

According to the Environmental Protection Agency classification system, what is the level of protection afforded a suit that fully encapsulates the wearer and includes a self-contained breathing apparatus? A. A B. B C. C D. D

After step chocks are placed under the side of the vehicle, rescuers should: A. pull the valve stems from the tires. B. remove the box crib. C. chock the wheels. D. set the parking brake.

Alkaline smoke alarm batteries should be replaced once every _____ months. A. 6 B. 12 C. 18 D. 24

All of the following are common topics of focus in public fire safety education programs except one. Choose the exception. A. Dorm living B. Fire safety for special populations C. Wildland fire prevention D. Fall prevention

All of the following are standard sprinkler head mounting positions except one. Choose the exception. A. Branch B. Pendent C. Upright D. Sidewall

An RIC has reached a downed fire fighter in a hazardous area. What is the most critical question to answer at this point? A. How quickly can the victim be moved to safety? B. What is the expected duration of the victim's air supply? C. What is the likely outcome of the victim's injuries? D. What additional resources are needed?

An action's potential positive results and its potential negative consequences are evaluated during the: A. risk-benefit analysis. B. strategic analysis. C. primary survey. D. size-up.

An agent that takes weeks to evaporate is said to be: A. persistent. B. stable. C. volatile. D. hydrogenated.

An elevated master stream device mounted at the tip of an aerial ladder is a: A. ladder pipe. B. turret. C. snorkel. D. rung gun.

An escape rope should be _______ if exposed to an IDLH environment. A. replaced B. inspected C. cleaned D. tested

An intrinsically safe electrical device is one that: A. will not ignite a flammable atmosphere. B. meets or exceeds NFPA standards. C. is safe for use around or in water. D. is electrically fully isolated.

Application of water to the base of a fire is a(n) __________ attack. A. direct B. indirect C. combination D. blitz

At a minimum, how often should ground ladders be visually inspected? A. Monthly B. Quarterly C. Annually D. Biannually

At a technical rescue incident, if you are given an order you do not fully understand, what should you do? A. Ask for clarification B. Turn down the assignment C. Perform the assignment to the best of your ability D. Modify the assignment

At an emergency scene, the safety officer reports directly to the: A. incident commander. B. operations chief. C. general staff. D. medical group supervisor.

At least one member of every interior firefighting team should be equipped with a: A. portable radio. B. personal atmospheric monitor. C. spare SCBA cylinder. D. guide rope.

Awareness level hazardous materials personnel are qualified to: A. implement protective actions. B. assist with decontamination of victims. C. conduct searches in a warm zone. D. perform reconnaissance from a warm zone.

Bromochlorodifluoromethane is a _________ agent. A. halon B. wet chemical C. Class D D. multipurpose dry chemical

Class B foam fire extinguishers are also effective on: A. Class A fires. B. Class C fires. C. Cooking oil. D. None of these is correct.

Class B foam is used for which type of fire? A. Flammable liquids B. Electronic equipment C. Combustible metals D. Organic materials

Closed-head drums have a permanently attached lid with one or more small openings. What are these small openings called? A. Bungs B. Ports C. Bobs D. Eyes

Collectively, the section chiefs are known as the: A. general staff. B. unified command. C. tactical group. D. command staff.

Combustible materials positioned to spread fire are known as: A. trailers. B. propagants. C. incendiary devices. D. accelerants.

Common symptoms of smoke inhalation include: A. headache and nausea. B. chills and muscle aches. C. fever and vision loss. D. rash and fever.

Compared to a dash lift, the dash roll offers which advantage? A. May be accomplished quicker B. Creates more room for patient removal C. Does not require relief cuts D. Does not require use of powered tools

Compared to a natural fiber rope, a synthetic fiber rope: A. has a smaller diameter than a natural fiber rope of equal strength. B. is weakened to a lesser degree by knots. C. is more susceptible to heat damage. D. is less susceptible to damage from acid or alkali exposure.

Complete this sentence: "We will not risk our lives: A. for persons or property that cannot be saved." B. because to do so we become part of the problem." C. for others who are already at risk." D. because we will use our heads instead."

Compliance with the standards of the __________ is voluntary. A. National Fire Protection Association B. Department of Transportation C. Environmental Protection Agency D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

Damage to a person's skin, resulting from exposure to sulfuric acid, is an example of a(n) __________ health effect. A. acute B. persistent C. recurring D. chronic

Do codes address homes, workplaces, both, or neither? A. Both B. Neither C. Homes only D. Workplaces only

Drums, bags, and carboys are examples of __________ containers. A. non-bulk B. bulk C. flammable-materials D. dry-bulk

During a dash displacement, the relief cut should be made: A. perpendicular to the A-post. B. at a 45-degree angle to the A-post. C. parallel to the sill. D. perpendicular to the sill.

During a two-person rescue of a downed fire fighter, where does the first fire fighter grab the victim? A. SCBA shoulder straps B. Chest C. Arms D. Legs

During annual testing, supply hose is tested at: A. 200 psi (1379 kPa). B. 300 psi (2068 kPa). C. 400 psi (2757 kPa). D. 500 psi (3447 kPa).

During use in actual firefighting conditions, the maximum realistic duration of an SCBA air supply is about _____ percent of its rated duration. A. 50 B. 60 C. 70 D. 80

During water rescue operations, a personal flotation device should be worn by anyone within ________ of the water. A. 10 ft (3 m) B. 15 ft (4.5 m) C. 20 ft (6 m) D. 25 ft (7.5 m)

Fire hose should be tested at least: A. annually. B. semiannually. C. biannually. D. quarterly.

Fire patterns on a wall are an example of __________ evidence. A. physical B. demonstrative C. observational D. direct

Fires involving combustible cooking oils and fats are Class: A. K. B. B. C. G. D. D.

Fires that occur as result of human action or inaction but without malicious intent are classified as: A. accidental. B. negligent. C. unintentional. D. natural.

For an extinguishing agent to be approved for use on energized electrical equipment, it must: A. not conduct electricity. B. leave no residue. C. be non-corrosive. D. be safe for use in a closed room.

For how long can a fire department maintain control of a fire scene? A. As long as needed to determine cause B. Until expiration of the warrant C. Until overhaul is complete D. Until the property owners formally assume responsibility for it

For personnel performing search and rescue operations, which item is especially important to maintain control of the flow path? A. Door control B. Nozzle stream selection C. Coordination with the attack team D. Use of a tag line

For the purpose of fire extinguisher placement, what is the relationship between occupancy use category and hazard classification? A. They are not necessarily related B. Occupancy determines hazard C. Hazard determines occupancy D. They are different terms for the same thing

For which occupancy is shelter-in-place most likely to be the best option? A. High-rise B. Outdoor assembly C. Indoor assembly D. Townhouse

Friction loss is __________ proportional to the length of a hose. A. directly B. variably C. inversely D. indirectly

From which end of the rope can a clove hitch accept tension without coming untied? A. Either end B. The working end only C. The running end only D. Neither end

Hard rubber hose stored on a hose reel is __________ hose. A. booster B. attack C. forestry D. mop-up

Hose on an apparatus that has not been used should be unloaded, inspected, and reloaded every: A. 30 days. B. 3 months. C. 6 months. D. year.

How are codes enforced by a fire department adopted? A. By the local governing body B. Through general election C. Through the enactment of administrative law D. By the chief fire official

How do multipurpose dry chemical agents prevent rekindling of Class A fuel? A. By forming a crust over the fuel B. By penetrating the fuel C. By attracting and holding moisture D. By interrupting the chemical chain reaction

How does a code become a regulation? A. It is adopted by state or local government B. It is approved by both houses of Congress and signed by the president C. It is enacted by an authorized regulatory agency D. Legal precedent references the standard as authoritative

How does a spill boom control a hazardous material? A. It forms a barrier to the movement of the material. B. It absorbs the material. C. It reduces agitation of liquid within the boom perimeter. D. It covers the material.

How does the fire fighter move when performing the fire fighter drag? A. Crawling on hands and knees B. Walking forward C. Walking backward D. Duck-walking

How large must the capacity of a liquid storage container be to qualify as a bulk storage container? A. More than 119 gallons B. More than 499 gallons C. 1000 gallons or more D. 2500 gallons or more

How much of the body is structural firefighting personal protective equipment (PPE) designed to cover? A. Full body coverage B. All but the neck C. All but the ears D. All but the wrists

How often should smoke alarms be tested? A. Monthly B. Quarterly C. Semi-annually D. Annually

How soon after a traumatic call should a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) be held? A. As soon as possible B. Within 24 hours C. Within 72 hours D. Within a week

Hydrogen cyanide affects: A. red blood cells. B. white blood cells. C. stem cells. D. brain cells.

Hydrogen cyanide interrupts oxygenation at the __________ level. A. cellular B. liver C. thyroid D. glandular

Ideally, when should salvage operations begin? A. Concurrently with fire attack B. After the safety officer has tested the atmosphere C. After the completion of the cause/origin investigation D. After the fire is declared under control

If a victim is twitching, what agent would you suspect he or she has been exposed to? A. Nerve B. Blister C. Biological D. Choking

In a direct attack, water should be applied until: A. all visible flame is extinguished. B. water droplets fall from the ceiling. C. the smoke level begins to drop. D. the fire darkens down.

In a technical rescue incident, what is the next step after stabilization has taken place? A. Access B. Size-up C. Security D. Ventilation

In a trench rescue operation, which step comes first? A. Shore up the collapse site B. Gain access to the victim C. Assist the victim with a pole or rope D. Provide an air supply to the victim

In double-jacket fire hose, which is the function of the outer jacket? A. It is a protective covering. B. It is the waterproof layer of the hose. C. It reduces friction loss. D. It resists kinking.

In general, what is the maximum reach for a 28-ft (8-m) ladder? A. The second-story roof B. The second-story windows with two rungs inside C. The second-story window sills only D. The third-story roof

In most cases, how many sprinkler heads will open before a fire is controlled? A. 1-2 B. 2-4 C. 3-5 D. 5-8

In most cases, when should a fire investigation be conducted? A. Immediately following the fire B. Within 24 hours C. Within 72 hours D. Within 5 working days

In ordinary construction, exterior walls are made of __________ materials. A. noncombustible or limited-combustible B. any standard load-bearing C. fire-resistive D. non-rated

In the FAILURE acronym, what does the "L" stand for? A. Lack of teamwork or experience B. Loose or sloppy procedure C. Lack of training D. Limits exceeded

In the SLICE-RS acronym, which is an action of opportunity? A. Rescue B. Cool the space from the safest location C. Size-up D. Locate the fire

In which control zone is decontamination performed? A. Warm zone B. Decontamination zone C. Support zone D. Cold zone

In which type of operation are large handlines and master streams more often used? A. Defensive B. Offensive C. Indirect D. Tactical

In which type of sprinkler system is the piping filled with pressurized air instead of water? A. Dry B. Wet C. Deluge D. Preaction

Incident planning should focus on both the real threats that exist in the department's community and: A. the real threats that exist in adjacent communities that the department might assist. B. threats that are not real today, but that may become real as technology changes. C. model threats, which exercise all the available resources in a standard set of circumstances. D. random threats; always expect the unexpected, especially with the terrorism concerns of the new millennium.

Knots that wrap around an object, such as a pike pole, are: A. hitches. B. bends. C. bights. D. loops.

Ladder rescues should be performed with at least _____ fire fighters whenever possible. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Laying supply line from the fire to a water source is a __________ lay. A. reverse B. switch C. turnaround D. remote

Level __________ PPE should be used when the hazardous material identified requires the highest level of protection for skin, eyes, and lungs. A. A B. B C. C D. D

Level __________ protective equipment is required when working with highly toxic vapors. A. A B. B C. C D. D

Levels of contaminant necessitate that you wear PPE while performing an evacuation. Which operational mode is this? A. Rescue B. Offensive C. Defensive D. Evacuation

Master streams flow a minimum of: A. 350 gpm (1325 lpm). B. 400 gpm (1514 lpm). C. 450 gpm (1703 lpm). D. 500 gpm (1893 lpm).

Matter exists in _____ states. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

Monitors and meters provide information that: A. is subject to interpretation. B. is solid and reliable. C. identifies the specific chemical concentration. D. is an exact science.

Most smooth-bore nozzles are designed to operate at which pressure? A. 50 psi (345 kPa) B. 75 psi (517 kPa) C. 100 psi (690 kPa) D. 125 psi (862 kPa)

NFPA standards are: A. guidelines. B. ordinances. C. regulations. D. codes.

NFPA standards identify optional mission-specific competencies for __________ level hazardous materials/WMD responders. A. operations B. technician C. awareness D. specialist

Natural fiber ropes are created using which type of construction? A. Twisted B. Braid-on-braid C. Kernmantle D. Plaited

Nonpressurized horizontal storage tanks are typically made of: A. steel. B. zinc. C. manganese. D. iron.

On a wet-barrel hydrant, where is the valve located? A. On each outlet B. At the base C. In the bonnet D. In the barrel

On an NFPA 704 symbol, what does a W with a slash through it (W) indicate? A. Water reactive B. Wetting agent C. Extinguish with water D. Use water for decontamination

Once you have determined that a substance is leaking from a container, what should you do? A. Isolate the material. B. Identify the material. C. Contain the spill. D. Consult the ERG.

Overextension of the fly section of an extension ladder is prevented by: A. stops. B. pawls. C. guides. D. locks.

Peeling or bubbling paint is an indicator of: A. concealed fire. B. impending building collapse. C. the fire's point of origin. D. use of accelerants.

Poles used to stabilize long extension ladders are called: A. staypoles. B. side poles. C. guy poles. D. extension poles.

Preventing the spread of fire is the primary objective of which fire attack? A. Defensive B. Offensive C. Direct D. Indirect

Prolonged exposure to __________ light can damage synthetic ropes. A. ultraviolet B. infrared C. polarized D. spectral

Radio frequencies are designated in units of: A. megahertz. B. hertz. C. gigahertz. D. terahertz.

Recent studies have identified which hazard related to the use of protective hoods? A. Transfer of carcinogens from the hood to the skin B. Reduced ability of the wearer to detect ambient thermal hazards C. Greater frequency of SCBA facepiece seal leaks D. Increased physiological heat load

Relocation of people who are threatened by a potential hazard is called: A. evacuation. B. isolation. C. decontamination. D. rescue.

Requirements for placing and mounting portable fire extinguishers are found in NFPA: A. 10. B. 170. C. 470. D. 1201.

Rescue-lift air bags must always be used in conjunction with: A. cribbing. B. step chocks. C. shoring. D. jacks.

Seventy-one percent of career fire fighters work in jurisdictions with a population of ________ or more. A. 25,000 B. 50,000 C. 75,000 D. 100,000

Signs that chemical protective clothing is undergoing the process of __________ include discoloration, charring, swelling, and shrinking. A. degradation B. corrosion C. decomposition D. deterioration

Specific information on the actions to be taken to accomplish a certain task is provided by: A. standard operating procedures. B. policies. C. rules and regulations. D. incident action plans.

Sprinkler heads are classified by their: A. release temperature. B. discharge volume. C. spray pattern. D. operating pressure.

Standard operating procedures generally require that an attack line be connected to a standpipe system outlet: A. one floor below the fire floor. B. two floors below the fire floor. C. on the fire floor. D. one floor above the fire floor.

Streams are operated from the exterior of a building at a safe distance. This is an example of which type of attack line evolution? A. Defensive attack B. Transitional attack C. Combination attack D. Blitz attack

Studies by NIST and UL have determined that the movement of fire through a structure is dependent primarily on: A. flow path. B. building arrangement. C. fuel continuity. D. fire streams.

Telecommunicators need to know the location of the emergency and __________ to initiate a dispatch? A. Nature of the situation B. Reporting party identity C. Callback number D. Severity of the situation

The HAZWOPER regulations are located in: A. OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120. B. OSHA 29 CFR 1910.134. C. NFPA 471. D. NFPA 1072.

The Halligan is classified as a _________ tool. A. prying/spreading B. striking C. cutting D. pushing/pulling

The National Incident Management System (NIMS) was developed by the: A. US Department of Homeland Security. B. National Fire Protection Association. C. National Fire Academy. D. Federal Emergency Management Agency.

The O-VEIS procedure is most applicable for which circumstance? A. Residential bedrooms accessible by a porch roof B. Long hallways with multiple side rooms C. Basements, cellars, or other below-grade rooms D. Occupancies housing non-ambulatory persons

The __________ threshold limit value sets a maximum concentration above which no exposure of any duration should be permitted. A. ceiling B. maximum exposure limit C. short-term exposure limit D. permissible exposure limit

The concept of IDLH refers to: A. an immediate threat to life or interference with the ability to escape the atmosphere. B. permissible exposure limits for a 30-minute time period. C. recommended limits of exposure over an 8-hour shift. D. recommended limits for a 10-hour exposure.

The end of the hose bed closest to the apparatus cab is the: A. front. B. bulkhead. C. partition. D. back.

The first-arriving officer at the scene of a serious incident should __________ command. A. establish B. pass C. transfer D. defer

The goal of __________ is to ensure that all members of an agency perform a given task in a uniform way. A. standard operating procedures B. the manual of operations C. tactical objectives D. policies

The highest number of fire fighter fatalities by cause of injury is? A. Overexertion, stress, medical B. Vehicle accidents C. Fatal assault D. Structural collapse

The kern of a kernmantle rope is its: A. core. B. sheath. C. strand. D. weave.

The location where an ignition source comes into contact with initial fuel is the: A. point of origin. B. heel. C. incipient point. D. ignition point.

The majority of chemical-protective clothing is: A. designed to be disposed of after a single use. B. fully encapsulated. C. designed for use on one specific material. D. reusable.

The majority of fire fighter deaths are caused by: A. stress, overexertion, and medical issues. B. response-related vehicle accidents. C. burns. D. asphyxiation/smoke inhalation.

The majority of fires are extinguished by which method? A. Cooling the fuel B. Excluding oxygen C. Suppressing vapor emission D. Inhibiting the chemical chain reaction

The measure of the rate of transfer of heat from one surface to another is: A. heat flux. B. transfer gradient. C. thermal conductivity. D. heat release rate.

The minimum level of hazardous materials training for a hazardous materials incident commander is: A. operations. B. awareness. C. specialist. D. technician.

The operations function is part of which ICS organizational element? A. General staff B. Tactical group C. Unified command D. Command staff

The percentage of blocked light in a beam detector represents the __________ rate. A. obscuration B. diffusion C. refraction D. diffraction

The pressure in a system when no water is flowing is called ________ pressure. A. static B. operating C. flow D. residual

The primary purpose of the __________ is to transfer the weight of the building and its contents to the ground. A. foundation B. floor joists C. piers D. purlin

The rapid chemical process in which the combination of a substance with oxygen produces heat and light is: A. combustion. B. catalyzation. C. vaporization. D. pyrolysis.

The risk of rekindle exists even if as little as _____ of the original fire is left smoldering. A. 1 percent B. 5 percent C. 10 percent D. 15 percent

The structural components of a Type _____ building must be made of noncombustible materials. A. II B. III C. IV D. V

To break a side window in a vehicle, where should the window be struck? A. A lower corner of the window B. An upper corner of the window C. The center of the window D. The most accessible point

Truck companies are sometimes referred to as __________ companies. A. ladder B. engine C. rapid intervention D. rescue

Turbulent smoke is an indication of impending: A. flashover. B. mushrooming. C. self-ventilation. D. stratification.

Under what circumstances is it sufficient to rely on odor to detect a chemical agent? A. Under no circumstances B. Only when the agent is known to be larger than 2 microns C. When the agent is a known, familiar substance D. When the agent is an odorized gas, such as natural gas

Vapor pressures are usually reported in references at an assumed standard temperature of 20°C. Approximately what temperature is that, in everyday terms? A. Room temperature B. Too hot to touch, but below boiling C. Right at the boiling point of water D. Just above freezing

Weakness, dizziness, and sweating are typical of heat: A. exhaustion. B. stroke. C. cramps. D. exposure.

What alternate technique for reducing vapor formation works with some hazardous materials? A. Reducing their temperature B. Mixing in bicarbonate of soda C. Gradually bringing the material to a high acidity D. Placing floating booms to subdivide the surface area

What are laminated glass windows likely to do when exposed to a fire? A. Crack but remain in place B. Shatter into small nuggets with dull edges C. Break irregularly into long, sharp-edged shards D. Melt

What are step chocks commonly used for? A. Stabilize a vehicle's suspension B. Support the sill during a dash roll-up C. Prevent a vehicle from rolling D. Create a fulcrum

What are the first two types of fire suppression operations? A. Offensive and defensive B. Interior and exterior C. Rescue and property conservation D. Direct and indirect

What can be used to determine the pH of a hazardous material? A. Litmus paper B. Organic paper C. M-8 paper D. M-9 tape

What dictates the actions taken at a hazardous materials incident? A. The chemical involved B. The level of protection C. The type of equipment D. The type of decontamination

What distinguishes Level B from Level C protection? A. Respiratory protection B. Vapor protection C. Flame resistance D. Splash protection

What do intermodal tanks look like? A. Round horizontal tanks in a boxlike steel framework B. Similar to a standard MC-306 over-the-road trailer C. Car-sized rectangular boxes D. Short, squat, round tanks, chest-high, with a lifting ring at the top

What does a neutral plane at a vent opening indicate? A. Equal pressure inside and outside the structure B. Stack effect C. Fuel-limited stage fire D. Pre-flashover conditions

What does the "A" stand for in "CAD"? A. Aided B. Automatic C. Auxiliary D. Ancillary

What does the "A" stand for in "LUNAR"? A. Assignment/Air B. Accountability C. Area D. Assistance needed

What does the "D" stand for in "CAD"? A. Dispatch B. Disaster C. Department D. Decision

What does the "I" stand for in "RIC"? A. Intervention B. Intermediate C. Immediate D. Initial

What does the "N" stand for in "ANI"? A. Number B. Network C. Normal D. Name

What does the "P" stand for in "GPS"? A. Positioning B. Proactive C. Personnel D. Preventive

What does the "R" stand for in "LUNAR"? A. Resources needed B. Rescue required C. Region (location) D. Roll call

What does the C in CBRN stand for? A. Chemical B. Communication C. Corrosive D. Contact

What does the C stand for in CBRN? A. Chemical B. Criminal C. Containment D. Command

What does the C stand for in the acronym SLICE-RS? A. Cool the space from the safest location. B. Control the flow path. C. Confine the fire. D. Consider the possibilities.

What does the E stand for in TRACEMP? A. Etiological/biological B. Explosive C. Evacuation D. Environment

What does the P stand for in TRACEMP? A. Psychogenic B. Poison C. Permeation D. Personal protective equipment

What does the letter A stand for in the EVADE acronym? A. Avoid touching anything that might conceal an explosive device B. Assist victims cautiously C. Assess the scene for likely locations of secondary devices D. Assume the presence of a secondary device at all scenes

What does the red diamond on the NFPA 704 symbol indicate? A. Flammability B. Instability C. Special hazards D. Health

What does the second "D" stand for in "TDD"? A. Deaf B. Dispatch C. Dedicated D. Device

What expels the extinguishing agent from a pump tank water extinguisher? A. Manual effort B. Pressure cartridge C. Compressed air D. Gravity

What foam application method should be used on open-top storage tank fires? A. Bounce-off method B. Rain-down method C. Roll-in method D. Subsurface injection method

What happens during a transitional attack? A. An offensive operation is performed from the exterior. B. Opposing hose lines are used in a coordinated attack. C. Fire attack is made regardless of ventilation status. D. The building of origin is considered unsavable.

What is a BLEVE? A. Flammable liquid vessel rupture and explosion due to external heating B. Explosion due to vapor ignition from a liquid spill C. Vessel rupture and explosion due to relief valve failure D. Ignition of vapor discharge from a relief valve

What is a common location for a post indicator valve? A. On an exterior wall B. Next to the water meter C. On the main system riser D. In a utility or mechanical room

What is a commonly used technique for conserving SCBA air? A. Skip breathing B. Breath counting C. Pursed-lip breathing D. Inhale by mouth, exhale by nose

What is a disadvantage of the isolation and disposal method of decontamination? A. It is costly to replace discarded equipment. B. It is more time-consuming than other decontamination methods. C. It is manpower intensive. D. There is a higher possibility of exposure during decontamination.

What is a major concern with battery-powered smoke alarms? A. Battery replacement B. False alarm C. Occupants ignoring their activation D. Occupant removal

What is a primary advantage of a supplied-air respirator? A. Reduces weight and bulk for the wearer B. Provides greater mobility C. Is less susceptible to mechanical damage D. Eliminates the need to carry an air cylinder

What is a typical symptom of heat stroke? A. Cessation of sweating B. Profuse sweating C. Cold, clammy skin D. Weak pulse

What is a typical use for an air bag? A. Lifting heavy objects B. Shoring trench walls C. Extending cribbing D. Displacing a liquid or gas

What is added to propane to give it a distinct odor? A. Ethyl mercaptan B. Methyl formate C. Terthiol D. Isoamyl acetate

What is heat stroke? A. High body temperature due to failure of the body's heat-regulating systems B. A coma brought on by fluid and electrolyte depletion C. Hypotension caused by the pooling of blood near the skin as the body tries to cool itself D. Interruption of blood supply to some parts of the brain as a result of overheating

What is laminated glass? A. A thin layer of plastic sandwiched between two layers of glass B. A sheet of tempered glass encased in a plastic film C. A single sheet of glass sandwiched between two sheets of plastic D. A layer of tempered glass bonded to a layer of acrylic

What is one of the most important aspects to consider when looking at the fire potential of a flammable liquid? A. Flammable range B. Explosive range C. Propagation rating D. Flame spread rating

What is one of the two styles of wood door frames? A. Rabbit B. Finger-joint C. Ledge D. Barn

What is the Department of Transportation's hazard class for explosives? A. Class 1 B. Class 2 C. Class 3 D. Class 4

What is the ICS term for a group of fire fighters with an assigned leader who are working without an apparatus? A. Crew B. Group C. Team D. Unit

What is the ICS term for an assembly of two or more units of the same type with an assigned leader? A. Strike team B. Unit C. Section D. Task force

What is the ICS title for the person in charge of a task force? A. Leader B. Director C. Officer D. Supervisor

What is the NFPA standard on liquid splash-protective clothing for hazardous materials emergencies? A. 1992 B. 1991 C. 1990 D. 1900

What is the Rabbit tool used for? A. Forcing open a locked door B. Making a temporary repair to a burst hose C. Opening a hydrant D. Anchoring a rope

What is the approximate flash point of diesel fuel? A. 120°F B. 240°F C. 360°F D. 485°F

What is the area within a structure where heat, smoke, and air move from areas of higher pressure to lower pressure? A. Flow path B. Thermal gradient C. Neutral plane D. Interior draft

What is the beginning penalty for a fire code violation? A. Verbal or written warning B. Closure of business until the condition is corrected C. Mandatory on-the-spot correction D. Citation

What is the best item to aid extinguishment of smoldering fires in tightly packed combustible materials? A. Class A foam B. Piercing nozzle C. Water fog D. Dry chemical

What is the best item to aid in the extinguishment of smoldering fires in tightly packed combustible materials? A. Class A foam B. Piercing nozzle C. Water fog D. Dry chemical

What is the best way to gather information about the size and location of a fire? A. Direct visual observation B. Use of thermal imaging C. Reports from occupants D. Reading the smoke

What is the correct procedure for a burst hose line? A. Use two lengths of hose to replace a single burst length. B. Leave the burst section in operation unless the water loss is affecting nozzle flow. C. Place the clamp as far from the burst section of hose as possible. D. Shut the line down at the pump panel only as last resort.

What is the correct procedure for deploying a triple-layer load preconnect? A. Place the nozzle and the top fold over the shoulder and walk away from the apparatus. B. Once the load has cleared the bed, drag the three layers to the point of attack. C. Shoulder the top two layers, with the bottom layer paying off from the bed. D. Clear the hose from the bed by pulling the loop on the lowest tier.

What is the correct procedure when a member of a fire company has to leave a structure to change an air cylinder? A. All company members exit together B. The member and his or her appointed buddy exit C. The member exits alone if he or she can do so safely D. Those members who are low on air exit together

What is the correct term for a radio system permanently mounted in a building? A. Base station B. Transmitter C. Land radio system D. Repeater system

What is the definition of a confined space? A. An enclosed area not designed for people to occupy B. A space occupied primarily by machinery or circuitry C. A space with only one entry/exit D. A space that under normal circumstances may contain a hazardous atmosphere

What is the designation for the posts closest to the front on a car? A. A-posts B. Forward posts C. Bow posts D. 1-posts

What is the first priority during any hazardous materials incident? A. Ensuring life safety B. Rescuing victims C. Stopping material release D. Minimizing exposure

What is the first priority on any hazardous materials incident? A. Safety of responders B. Rescue of victims C. Stoppage of leak D. Confinement of material

What is the first step after determining that a hazardous material is present? A. Establish control of the scene. B. Look up the substance in the ERG. C. Call CHEMTREC) D. Rescue endangered people.

What is the first step in cleaning SCBA? A. Rinse the entire unit with clean water from a hose B. Use compressed air to blow loose contamination off the unit C. Remove the cylinder from the harness D. Cover the regulator in a plastic bag

What is the first step in dike construction? A. Determine which diking material will be compatible with the spilled material. B. Dig a shallow depression. C. Determine the number and location of the pipes. D. Spread out the plastic sheeting.

What is the first step in making plans to manage an emergency incident? A. Perform size-up B. Establish personnel accountability C. Establish command D. Transmit/receive the initial report

What is the function of a J tool? A. Operate panic hardware on double-swinging doors B. Open locked car doors C. Turn the lock mechanism after the cylinder has been pulled D. Pull a lock cylinder out of a door

What is the function of lockout/tagout systems? A. Prevent unauthorized activation of machinery or electricity B. Deny entry to the public and the media C. Enforce accountability for rescuers entering the hazard zone D. Prevent theft or unauthorized use of apparatus and equipment

What is the function of stops on an extension ladder? A. Prevent overextension B. Prevent collapse in the event of halyard failure C. Prevent the ladder from slipping on the ground D. Lock the extended fly sections in place

What is the greatest risk to fire fighters performing vertical ventilation? A. Roof collapse B. Exposure to products of combustion C. Sudden increase in fire intensity D. Falling off the roof or ladder

What is the internal working pressure of a pressurized railcar? A. 100 to 500 pounds per square inch (psi) B. 500 to 1000 psi C. 1000 to 2500 psi D. 5000 to 6000 psi

What is the lower structural member of a truss called? A. Chord B. Beam C. Girder D. Cantilever

What is the minimum flow from a master stream device? A. 350 gpm (1325 lpm) B. 450 gpm (1703 lpm) C. 500 gpm (1892 lpm) D. 750 gpm (2840 lpm)

What is the minimum measurement for a ventilation-opening cut in a roof? A. 4 ft by 4 ft (1.2 m by 1.2 m) B. 5 ft by 5 ft (1.5 m by 1.5 m) C. 6 ft by 6 ft (1.8 m by 1.8 m) D. 6 ft by 8 ft (1.8 m by 2.4 m)

What is the minimum recommended pressure for water coming from a fire hydrant? A. 20 psi (138 kPa) B. 30 psi (207 kPa) C. 40 psi (276 kPa) D. 50 psi (345 kPa)

What is the most basic method for staying oriented inside a low-visibility environment? A. Staying in contact with the hose line B. Staying in contact with a partner C. Use of a guide rope D. Staying in contact with a wall

What is the most basic method of regaining orientation in a zero-visibility environment? A. Find and follow a hose line B. Listen for the sound of the apparatus motor C. Probe the walls for a window or door D. Activate the PASS

What is the most common application for a Halon system? A. Sensitive electronic equipment B. Commercial kitchens C. Metal anodizing and plating D. Processes producing flammable dust

What is the most common type of fire suppression system? A. Sprinkler B. Standpipe C. Dry chemical D. Wet chemical

What is the most commonly used extinguishing agent for Class A fires? A. Water B. Ammonium phosphate C. Dry chemical D. Potassium bicarbonate

What is the most effective way to maintain the security of an isolation perimeter? A. Posting security personnel B. Placing traffic cones, signage, and barrier tape C. Erecting barricades D. Using emergency vehicles to block access points

What is the most likely consequence if the butt of a ladder is placed too close to the side of the building? A. The tip will pull away from the wall B. The butt will kick out from the wall C. The ladder will have reduced weight capacity D. The ladder will be more prone to tipping sideways

What is the most reliable method for determining whether there is hidden fire? A. Direct inspection B. Thermal imaging C. Odor/sight of smoke D. Atmospheric monitoring

What is the primary function of the moisture barrier in structural firefighting PPE? A. Prevent liquids and vapors from reaching the skin B. Protect the body from high temperatures C. Promote evaporation of perspiration D. Prevent exposure to pathogens

What is the primary mechanism by which carbon dioxide extinguishes a fire? A. Displacing oxygen B. Inhibit the chemical reaction C. Creating a vapor barrier D. Cooling the fuel

What is the primary role of the medical monitoring station? A. To evaluate the medical status of personnel engaged in operations B. To develop the incident medical plan C. To provide treatment for exposed personnel D. To evaluate and monitor the incident for medical hazards

What is the process by which hazardous materials enter the body by permeating the skin? A. Absorption B. Ingestion C. Injection D. Inhalation

What is the purpose of the Higbee indicator? A. Make hose coupling easier and faster B. Indicate when the hose may be pulling out of the coupling C. Help disoriented fire fighters find their way out of a building D. Identify the thread standard type

What is the quickest way to force entry through a security roll-up door? A. Cut the door with a power saw B. Pry the latch bar away from the keeper C. Pry upward from the bottom of the door D. Cut the latch bar with a rotary saw

What is the recommended placement of smoke alarms in a home? A. One in each bedroom, one outside each sleeping area, and one on each level of the home B. One outside each sleeping area and one in any vertical opening such as a stairway or clerestory C. One outside the sleeping area between the sleeping area and the rest of the house D. One in the kitchen and one between an attached garage and the rest of the house

What is the rope or cable that is used to extend or hoist the fly section of an extension ladder? A. Halyard B. Hawser C. Sheet D. Leader

What is the second stage of fire development? A. Growth B. Rollover C. Fully developed D. Incipient

What is the set of shared attitudes, values, goals, and practices that characterize an institution or organization? A. Culture B. Character C. Tone D. Ethic

What is the shape of an NFPA 704 placard? A. Diamond B. Circle C. Triangle D. Square

What is the target of the hose stream in a direct attack? A. The base of the fire B. Hot overhead gases C. Exposure surfaces D. The most threatened exposure

What is the target of the hose stream in a direct attack? A. The burning surfaces B. Hot overhead gases C. Exposure surfaces D. The most threatened exposure

What is the technique of redirecting the flow of a liquid away from an area? A. Diversion B. Damming C. Diking D. Detainment

What is the term for a two-way radio that is permanently mounted in a vehicle? A. Mobile radio B. Portable radio C. Hi-band radio D. Repeater

What is the term for efforts made to protect property and belongings from damage? A. Salvage B. Overhaul C. Recovery D. Loss control

What is the term for preparing a knot by tightening it and removing twists, kinks, and slack from the rope? A. Dressing B. Squaring C. Finishing D. Following

What is the term for shipping documentation carried on railroad transportation? A. Waybill B. Air bill C. Dangerous cargo manifest D. Bill of lading

What is the term for soil removed from an excavation? A. Spoils B. Tailings C. Fines D. Waste

What is the term for the lower part of a protective hood? A. Bib B. Neck C. Drape D. Collar

What is the term for the process of maintaining continuous possession and control of evidence from the time it is discovered until it is used in court? A. Chain of custody B. Conservator of possession C. Affidavit of possession D. Evidentiary control

What is the term for the system of inlets, pipes, and outlets built into a structure to supply water to fire hoses? A. Standpipe B. Dry pipe C. Stairwell pipe D. Fire department connection

What level of hazardous materials training enables individuals on scene only to recognize a potential hazardous materials incident, isolate and deny entry to other responders and the public, evacuate persons in danger, and take defensive action? A. Awareness B. Initial responder C. Operations D. Field

What level of hazardous materials training enables personnel on scene only to recognize a potential hazardous materials emergency, protect themselves, isolate the area, and call for assistance? A. Awareness B. Operations C. Scout D. Field

What serves as the collection point for all information and resources? A. Incident command post B. Liaison officer C. Staging D. Communication center

What service does the NFPA perform with regard to hazardous materials PPE? A. Creates standards B. Performs testing and certification C. Recommends usage D. All of these are correct.

What should a call-taker do if a call comes in about an issue the fire department does not handle? A. Transfer the call after providing the caller with contact information for the appropriate agency B. Send the call to the back of the queue and take it when there is no priority traffic C. Politely inform the caller that the fire department does not provide assistance for his or her issue D. Advise the caller to call back on the nonemergency line

What should any incoming calls without voice from the caller be checked for? A. TDD/TTY/text phone signal B. Fax or modem initiation signals C. Instant messaging signal D. An open carrier

What should be done after a self-closing door is forced? A. Chock the door in the open position B. Allow the mechanism to resume its normal operation C. Return the door to the closed position D. Cut the actuation cable

What should be done if there is a small gap between the top of a box crib and the object being raised? A. Close the gap with wooden wedges B. Carefully lower the object onto the top of the stack C. Move the stack to a location where it fits snugly D. Use an air bag to fill the gap

What should fire fighters trained to the awareness level of technical rescue know about specialized rescue tools? A. The names and purposes of the tools B. How to use them C. How to maintain them D. Nothing; this is not an awareness-level skill

What suborganization within the NFPA produces the hazardous materials/WMD standards? A. Technical Committee on Hazardous Materials Response Personnel B. Special Task Force on Hazardous Materials Substances, Responses, and Disposal C. Scientific and Technical Committee for Field Applications D. Study Group on the Integration of Applicable Hazardous Materials

What type of radiation packaging provides the least protection? A. Type A B. Type B C. Type C D. Type D

What will a liquid with a specific gravity of 0.7 do in water? A. Float on top B. Sink to the bottom C. Mix D. Dissolve

When approaching a fire with an extinguisher in hand, you should always have a(n): A. exit route. B. backup unit. C. light source. D. portable radio.

When are branches established? A. When the number of groups and divisions exceeds span of control B. When both divisions and groups must report to the same supervisor C. When the incident is not readily divided either functionally or geographically D. When both groups and divisions are established for the same incident

When atmospheric conditions at a hazardous materials incident are unknown, what is the minimum level of respiratory protection for operations level responders? A. Positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus B. Air-purifying respirator C. HEPA filter mask D. Powered air-purifying respirator

When conducting a transitional attack on an attic fire, streams should be directed through the: A. soffit vents. B. ridge vent. C. scuttle hole. D. ventilation opening.

When hoisting a ladder, a __________ line should be attached to the bottom of the ladder to help control it as it is hoisted. A. tag B. safety C. downhaul D. backstay

When is a secondary search performed? A. After the fire has been brought under control B. Immediately upon completion of the primary search C. As soon as personnel become available D. Simultaneously with the primary search

When is it acceptable to use a roof ladder as a free-hanging ladder? A. Never B. If the ladder will support the weight of only one person C. If the total supported weight will not exceed 500 lb D. If the ladder was manufactured after 1993

When lowering an unconscious victim down a ladder, what is the position of the victim? A. Upright with back toward the ladder B. Horizontal, facing the ladder C. Upright, facing the ladder D. Horizontal, facing the rescuer

When people are being sheltered-in-place, what should be done with the ventilation system? A. It should be turned off. B. It should be set to recirculate. C. It should be set to evacuate. D. It should be set to fresh air exchange.

When performing size-up, which question can most reliably be answered based on the time of day? A. Is the building occupied? B. Is the alarm a result of system malfunction? C. Was the fire intentionally set? D. Is the fire threatening exposures?

When rescuing an unconscious victim from a window, how many fire fighters enter the window to rescue the victim? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

When responding to a terrorist event, you should be particularly alert for the possibility of: A. secondary events designed to harm or hamper emergency responders. B. the use of sets and accelerants. C. the occurrence of backdrafts, BLEVEs, or other unusual events. D. signs and symptoms of critical incident stress.

When should divisions and groups be established? A. When the number of resources exceeds manageable span of control B. When the incident extends beyond the initial operational period C. When the incident is not readily divided either functionally or geographically D. When the incident straddles jurisdictional boundaries

When should emergency medical care be started for trapped victims in a technical rescue incident? A. As soon as they are safely accessible B. After they are packaged C. Upon exiting the hazard zone D. Upon arrival at the medical group

When should fire fighters begin making observations for use in a fire investigation? A. During dispatch and response B. Upon arrival C. During suppression D. During salvage/overhaul

When should possible evidence be moved? A. When necessary to protect it from damage B. Once criminal intent has been ruled out C. As soon as it has been discovered D. Before overhaul operations begin

When should you declare a mayday? A. As soon as you think you might be in trouble B. When you find a victim and need assistance with the rescue C. When you find yourself in an IDLH atmosphere D. When you have been unable to self-rescue

When shutting down electrical service to a structure, you should: A. apply a lockout device. B. remove the breakers. C. notify the utility company. D. test an outlet.

When two or more fire fighters are carrying a ladder, what should the fire fighter closer to the butt end do? A. Cover the butt spur with a gloved hand B. Carry the ladder chocks C. Extend the free arm forward D. Decide on the best placement

When used to force a door, a Halligan is used in conjunction with a: A. pick-head axe. B. striking tool. C. cutting tool. D. prying tool.

When using a standpipe connection in a stairwell, how should the hose be arranged? A. Up the stairwell toward the floor above the fire B. Back and forth on the landing C. Down the stairwell toward the floor below the fire floor D. In large coils on the landing nearest the fire floor

When using a webbing sling drag, what helps support the victim's head and neck? A. The webbing sling B. The rescuer's hands C. The rescuer's forearms D. A roll of blanket

When using the clothes drag, what supports the victim's head? A. The rescuer's arms B. A backboard or cervical collar C. The hands of the rescuer at the patient's head D. The victim's clothing

Where are the hinges placed on a casement window? A. Side B. Top C. Bottom D. Middle

Where do salvage operations usually begin? A. On the floor below the fire floor B. In high-value areas C. In the least damaged area D. As close to the seat of the fire as possible

Where does the fire investigation process usually begin? A. Exterior B. Kitchen C. The area of deepest char D. The point of origin

Where in the ERG can you find evacuation distances for small spills or fires? A. In the orange-bordered pages B. In the Material Name Index C. In the Emergency Response Index D. In the green-bordered pages

Where is the bacterium that causes plague commonly found? A. On rodents B. In rotting wood C. In decomposing animals D. In animal stool

Where is water directed during hydraulic ventilation? A. Out a window or door B. Through the roof opening C. Just over the seat of the fire D. Over the roof opening

Where should a search rope be anchored? A. Just outside the entry point B. To each rescuer C. To a hauling system D. To a second exit

Where should fire fighters proceed after thorough decontamination? A. Medical station B. Cold zone C. Staging area D. Command post

Where should plywood be placed with rescue-lift air bags? A. Between the bag and the ground B. Between stacked bags C. Between the bag and the load D. None of these is correct.

Where should the tip of a ladder be placed for rescue operations from a window? A. Immediately below the windowsill B. Into the opening about three rungs C. On either side of the window, halfway up the opening D. Just above the top of the window

Which ICS organizational level is established when the number of divisions and groups exceeds the operations section chief's span of control? A. Branch B. Division C. Group D. Unit

Which ICS section is responsible for providing needed services and supplies? A. Logistics B. Liaison C. Operations D. Safety

Which NFPA standard covers fire hose testing? A. 1962 B. 1972 C. 1982 D. 1992

Which NFPA standard is titled Emergency Services Incident Management System and Command Safety? A. 1561 B. 1672 C. 1901 D. 1918

Which action should be taken first in a dash displacement? A. Remove the front doors B. Put a relief cut in the A-post C. Wrap the steering column D. Notch the B-post

Which agency develops model fire codes? A. National Fire Protection Association B. American National Standards Institute C. International Conference of Architects D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

Which agency establishes requirements for fire department hazardous materials training? A. OSHA B. EPA C. USFA D. FSTC

Which agency licenses a fire department to operate a radio system? A. Federal Communications Commission B. The state office of emergency services C. Federal Office of Communications D. Federal Emergency Management Agency

Which agency sets the design, testing, and certification standards for SCBA equipment? A. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) B. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) D. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

Which are standard connections on an FDC? A. Two females B. Two males C. One female D. One male

Which area is the first search priority? A. The area immediately around the fire B. Exit pathways C. The higher-level floors D. The rooms most likely to be occupied

Which area is the second search priority? A. Directly above the fire B. Between the fire and the main exit C. Directly adjacent to the fire D. Directly under the fire

Which cargo tanks are certified to transport flammable and combustible liquids chemicals transported at low pressure (under 25 pounds per square inch)? A. MC-307/DOT-407 B. MC-306/DOT-406 C. MC-331/DOT-431 D. MC-312/DOT-412

Which carry requires two rescuers? A. Extremities B. Webbing sling C. Standing D. Blanket

Which class of fire extinguisher includes a number in its classification? A. A B. C C. D D. K

Which class of fire includes cloth? A. A B. B C. C D. D

Which class of fire includes combustible cooking oils and fats? A. K B. A C. B D. D

Which class of fire involves ordinary solid combustibles such as wood and paper? A. A B. B C. C D. D

Which class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a burning trash can next to a wood fire? A. A B. B C. D D. K

Which class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a fire in a frying pan? A. K B. B C. C D. D

Which class of rope is designed to stretch significantly when loaded? A. Dynamic B. Rescue C. Technical use D. Kernmantle

Which class of standpipe is intended for fire department use only? A. I B. II C. III D. IV

Which color of barrier tape is typically used to demarcate the hot zone at a technical rescue incident? A. Red B. Yellow C. White and red D. Black and yellow

Which component of structural firefighting protective clothing is critical for protecting the body from steam burns? A. Moisture barrier B. Thermal barrier C. Outer shell D. Insulation

Which construction method is particularly susceptible to extension of fire upward through walls? A. Balloon frame B. Ordinary C. Heavy timber D. Platform

Which court case ruled on the need for warrants in fire investigation? A. Michigan v. Tyler B. Scheets v. Ada Fire Department C. Fortuna Fire Protection District v. Tompkins D. Texas v. Burger

Which device mixes foam concentrate in the water stream in the proper percentage? A. Proportioner B. Mixer C. Aerator D. Aspirator

Which element is between a section and a division on the ICS organizational chart? A. Branch B. Group C. Unit D. Strike team

Which exterior item is of particular importance to check when inspecting a private residence? A. Visibility of house numbers from street B. Bushes or shrubs covering windows C. Presence of high-security locks D. Location of chimneys

Which extinguishing agent is approved for use in a Class K system? A. Wet chemical B. Aqueous film-forming foam C. Carbon dioxide D. Dry chemical

Which extinguishing method is being used when a foam blanket is placed over the surface of a burning liquid? A. Cutting off the oxygen supply B. Inhibiting the chemical chain reaction C. Diluting the fuel D. Cooling the fuel

Which factor describes how readily heat will flow through a material? A. Thermal conductivity B. Combustibility C. Volatility D. Reactivity

Which fire hazard is of particular concern with ordinary construction? A. Fire extension through void spaces B. High fire loading C. Difficulty in ventilating the structure D. Heat-related failure of steel trusses

Which firefighting attack, if successful, will result in the least amount of property damage? A. Offensive B. Transitional C. Indirect D. Defensive

Which foam application method is best for an open-top storage tank fire? A. Bounce-off B. Rain-down C. Roll-in D. Subsurface injection

Which foam application method is particularly well suited to transport vehicle accidents? A. Bounce-off method B. Rain-down method C. Roll-in method D. Subsurface injection method

Which hazard is of particular concern in a basement fire? A. Failure of the floor system above the fire B. The ineffectualness of exterior attack C. Exterior attack pushing fire through void spaces D. Introduction of fresh air into a ventilation-controlled fire

Which hazard is of particular concern when attacking a Class C fire? A. Electrical injury B. Flashover C. Permeation of PPE D. Backdraft

Which hazard is of particular concern with electric-drive vehicles? A. High-voltage components B. Fuel cell stack C. Drive battery D. Secondary battery

Which hazard is of particular concern with fires involving stacked or piled material? A. Collapse of the stack B. Rekindle C. Interference with sprinkler systems D. Toxic exposure

Which hazard should be of particular concern to fire fighters who are carrying long tools? A. Overhead wires B. Tight turns in corridors C. Self-closing doors D. Windows

Which is a common indicator of backdraft conditions? A. Smoke that appears to be pressurized B. Vigorous flame productions C. Windows broken out D. Good interior visibility

Which is a common size of hydrant outlet? A. 2½" (65 mm) B. 3" (75 mm) C. 3½" (90 mm) D. 4" (100 mm)

Which is a common synthetic fiber used for life safety ropes? A. Polyester B. Rayon C. Monoester D. Polypropylene

Which is a common use for a hose clamp? A. Allow a hydrant to be opened before the supply line is connected to the pump intake B. Control a burst section of hose line without interrupting water flow C. Allow for a quick-connect of an attack line to a pumper when the threads do not match D. Regulate pressure/volume in a single hose

Which is a common use for a wooden wedge during overhaul? A. Stopping the flow of water from a sprinkler head B. Plugging a gas leak C. Shoring unstable objects D. Pulling a meter

Which is a commonly used method of extinguishing Class B fires? A. Excluding the oxygen B. Cooling the fuel C. Interrupting the chemical chain reaction D. Dispersing the vapors

Which is a component of a BLEVE? A. A pressurized flammable liquid vessel B. A "closed box" structure C. A flammable gas leak D. Contact with an energized electrical circuit

Which is a correct statement about the flat hose load? A. It can be used with any size of hose. B. It is used primarily for attack hose loads. C. It reduces the number of sharp bends in the hose. D. It is prone to kinks and twists.

Which is a correct tool for removing a windshield? A. Axe B. Spring-loaded center punch C. Rotary saw D. Air chisel

Which is a disadvantage of positive-pressure fans? A. They can spread fire if used improperly. B. Correct placement can be time consuming. C. They impede entry and exit of personnel. D. Favorable wind conditions are required for their use.

Which is a distinguishing characteristic of unibody construction? A. Multiple thickness of metal folded together B. Crossbeams C. Interlocking structural struts D. Monocoque frame

Which is a feature of a cross-zoned smoke detection system? A. Two detectors must activate before an alarm is initiated B. A single detector activation will produce a local alarm only C. A delay of 30 to 60 seconds separates activation and notification D. Detector activation must be accompanied by water flow detection

Which is a hazardous materials operations-level skill? A. Analyze the magnitude of an incident B. Conduct atmospheric monitoring C. Perform victim rescue and recovery D. Take product control measures

Which is a key ICS characteristic? A. Every fire fighter always reports to a single supervisor B. Command is passed to the second-in unit upon its arrival C. Command is always transferred to a ranking officer D. The operations section chief is activated on every incident

Which is a key characteristic of the incident command system? A. Common terminology B. Professional financial accounting C. Decentralized command authority D. Sharing of human resources

Which is a quick attempt to locate potential victims who may be in danger? A. Primary search B. Rapid sweep C. Initial survey D. Secondary search

Which is a type of wood door frame? A. Stopped B. Dadoed C. Stiled D. Jointed

Which is a typical temperature rating for a sprinkler head in a light-hazard occupancy such as an office building? A. 165°F (74°C) B. 185°F (85°C) C. 205°F (96°C) D. 225°F (107°C)

Which is an advantage of tubular webbing over flat webbing? A. Easier to work with B. Less stretch C. Costs less D. Holds a knot better

Which is an appropriate use for Class B foam? A. Suppress vapor production from an unignited fuel spill B. Pretreating threatened structures in a wildland fire C. Improve water penetration of tightly-packed fuels D. Saponification of cooking oils and greases

Which is an example of a hose friction point? A. Doorway B. Kink C. Appliance D. Hose bed cover

Which is an indication of a solid (not veneer) brick wall? A. Every seventh course of bricks is turned sideways B. Bricks are flat-laid C. Mortar joints are tuck-pointed D. Brick are laid in a running bond pattern

Which is one of the 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives? A. Champion public education as a critical fire and life safety program B. Encourage adoption and use of a standardized personnel accountability system C. Require the appointment of a Health and Safety Officer in every department D. Implement an annual Firefighter Safety Stand Down

Which is one of the 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives? A. Utilize available technology wherever it can produce higher levels of health and safety B. Develop and promote national standards for rapid intervention team proficiency C. Aggressive legal prosecution of criminal activity contributing to firefighter casualties D. Require mandatory participation in firefighter fitness and wellness programs

Which is one of the four basic management principles used by fire departments? A. Division of labor B. Management by objective C. Common terminology D. Delegation of authority

Which is one of the four key characteristics affecting the behavior of building materials under fire conditions? A. Thermal conductivity B. Surface area/mass ratio C. Porosity D. Density

Which is one of the four parts of the maintenance formula for ropes? A. Store B. Dry C. Coil D. Feel

Which is one of the six motives of arsonists identified by the USFA? A. Extremism B. Peer-group status seeking C. Boredom D. Extortion

Which is one of the three factors in solid fuel configuration? A. Surface-to-mass ratio B. Chemical composition C. Moisture content D. Heat release rate

Which is one of the three most common loads for preconnected attack lines? A. Minuteman B. Accordion C. Horseshoe D. Skid

Which is one of the three types of wood swinging doors? A. Panel B. Tambour C. Gibb D. Stopped

Which is one of the two basic categories of information on which size-up is based? A. Probabilities B. Risk C. Projections D. Estimates

Which is the NFPA color code for a hydrant flowing less than 500 gpm (1893 lpm)? A. Red B. Orange C. Yellow D. White

Which is the correct nozzle to use with medium-expansion foam? A. Air-aspirating B. Water-aspirating C. Water-proportioning D. Adjustable fog

Which is the correct tool to tighten a hard suction hose connection? A. Rubber mallet B. Spanner C. Hose wrench D. Strap wrench

Which is the first basic step in performing a special rescue in a safe, effective, and efficient manner? A. Preparation B. Response C. Size-up D. Assessment

Which is the flash point of gasoline? A. -45ºF (-43ºC). B. -15ºF (-26ºC). C. 0ºF (-18ºC). D. 32ºF (0ºC).

Which is the minimum level of technical rescue training that qualifies fire fighters to work in the warm zone? A. Operations B. Level B C. Awareness D. Technician

Which is the minimum temperature at which a liquid produces an ignitable vapor? A. Flash point B. Lower explosive limit C. Fire point D. Ignition temperature

Which is the most important objective in processing an emergency call? A. Get the information needed to dispatch the appropriate units to the correct location B. Calm and reassure the caller C. Provide the caller with real-time, emergency instructions, such as how to perform CPR D. Determine the nature and extend of the incident being reported

Which is the most likely location of a curtain wall? A. Exterior of a high-rise B. Open stairwell C. Ceiling area of a large, open interior space D. High fire hazard industrial facility

Which is the preferred method to cut a ventilation hole in a metal roof? A. Triangular B. Peak C. Trench D. Louvered

Which is the primary consideration while conducting salvage and overhaul? A. Preserving evidence of fire cause B. Careful use of water C. Leaving the structure in the best condition possible D. Thoroughly clearing the structure of debris

Which is the primary function of a roof ladder? A. Distribute the weight of fire fighters during roof operations B. Provide lightweight, rapid access to a roof C. Reduce the number of fire fighters required for vertical ventilation D. Provide a secondary means of egress

Which is the process used in fire investigation to determine if and where electrical circuits were energized at the time of the fire? A. Arc mapping B. Live circuit analysis C. Path tracing D. Charge survey

Which is the purpose of creating a bight in an attack line during interior attack? A. Make surplus hose available if needed B. Reduce the number of friction points C. Reduce the likelihood of kinks D. Absorb the nozzle reaction

Which is the subject of the SLICE-RS mnemonic? A. Selection of strategic objectives B. The NIMS organizational structure C. Initial engine company operations D. Command priorities

Which is the term for building components consisting of individual pieces of wood glued together? A. Engineered B. Lightweight C. Modular D. Manufactured

Which is the term for the large discharge opening on a fire hydrant? A. Steamer B. Deluge C. Main D. Primary

Which is used to pressurize a stored-pressure water extinguisher? A. Air B. Argon C. Water D. Carbon dioxide

Which item greatly increases risk during vertical ventilation operations? A. Lightweight construction components B. Composite roofing materials C. Oriented strand board (OSB) roof decking D. Glue-laminated components

Which item is an optional component of the structural firefighting protective ensemble? A. Hearing protection B. Personal alert safety system C. Protective hood D. Self-contained breathing apparatus

Which item is necessary to include in a life safety rope's documentation? A. History of use B. Capacity C. Recommended storage method D. Expiration date

Which item is typically addressed by a building code? A. Construction type B. Exit way maintenance C. Occupancy limits D. Flammable liquid storage

Which item is used in negative-pressure ventilation? A. Smoke ejector B. Blower C. HVAC system D. Negative-pressure fan

Which item is used to protect a rope when it must be dragged over a sharp or abrasive surface? A. Edge protector B. Sheath C. Pulley D. Bolster

Which item of PPE is a mandatory when operating in a water rescue hazard zone? A. Helmet B. Goggles C. Water-proof flare D. Cyalume light stick

Which kind of steel has been specially treated to resist cutting by normal means? A. Case-hardened B. Alloy C. Tempered D. Ductile

Which knot is used only in conjunction with other knots? A. Half hitch B. Water C. Clove hitch D. Figure eight bend

Which knot is used to tie off a ladder halyard? A. Clove hitch B. Sheepshank C. Figure eight D. Bowline on a bight

Which ladder can be converted from a straight ladder to an A-frame configuration? A. Combination B. Folding C. Attic D. Fresno

Which level receives more advanced hazardous materials training than the technician level? A. Specialist B. Interventionist C. Technologist D. Expert

Which material is commonly used to protect steel and wood structural members from fire? A. Gypsum B. Fiberglass C. Lightweight concrete slurry D. Expanded urethane

Which metal is used in building construction primarily as a coating to protect metal parts from rust and corrosion? A. Zinc B. Copper C. Manganese D. Gypsum

Which method of communication for sharing transfer-of-command information is most effective? A. Face to face B. Radio report C. Cell phone D. Written report with diagrams

Which natural fiber is commonly used to make ropes? A. Manila B. Wool C. Horse hair D. Coir

Which of the following converts nutrients into energy-yielding molecules of adenosine triphosphate to fuel the cell's activities? A. Mitochondria B. Morbidity C. Adenosine D. Hypoxia

Which of the following is a containment tactic? A. Plugging B. Damming C. Diking D. Vapor control

Which of the following is an identifying characteristic of a cargo tank truck designed to carry liquids at atmospheric pressure? A. Oval/elliptical cross-sectional tank shape B. Circumferential rollover protection C. External ring stiffeners D. Top-mounted loading control valves

Which of the following is contagious? A. Smallpox B. Anthrax C. Bubonic plague D. Bacillus

Which of the following is not routinely regarded as a hazardous substance unless a large quantity of it is spilled into a creek or waterway? A. Milk B. Chlorine C. Nitrogen D. Oxygen

Which of the following is one of the command staff functions of the ICS? A. Safety B. Planning C. Resources D. Recovery

Which of the following is one of the general staff positions of the ICS? A. Logistics B. Information C. Strategy D. Liaison

Which of the following is one of the key benefits of using ICS? A. Common terminology B. Reciprocal aid agreements C. Decentralized command authority D. Scalar organization

Which of the following is one potential means for dispersing a chemical agent over a wide area? A. Crop-dusting aircraft B. Steam radiator C. Railway tank car D. 55-gallon drum

Which of the following is the starting point for making plans to bring an emergency situation under control? A. Size-up B. Salvage C. Forcible entry D. Ventilation

Which of the following terms means the placement of material to form a barrier that keeps a hazardous material from entering an unwanted area? A. Diking B. Scherring dam C. Retention D. Diversion

Which of the following values is the maximum concentration to which an adult can be exposed 8 hours per day, 40 hours per week? A. Time-weighted average B. Long-term exposure limit C. Working exposure limit D. Ceiling level

Which part is specifically designed to prevent the beams of a wooden ladder from separating? A. Tie rod B. Protection plate C. Rung D. Spring bar

Which part of a door lock catches and holds the door frame? A. Latching device B. Mortise C. Striker D. Shackle

Which part of a fire alarm system causes the system to indicate an alarm? A. Initiating device B. Sensor C. Annunciator D. Indicator

Which part of a rope is used for hoisting? A. Running end B. Working end C. Standing part D. Free end

Which part of the fire alarm system alerts the building occupants when the system is activated? A. Alarm notification appliance B. Alarm initiation device C. Annunciator panel D. Alarm monitoring station

Which part of the ladder is placed against the ground when the ladder is raised? A. Butt B. Dog C. Heel D. Bed

Which part of the structural firefighting PPE ensemble is designed to protect the neck and ears? A. The protective hood B. The coat collar C. The bib D. The SCBA mask

Which particle has a negative electrical charge? A. Electron B. Photon C. Proton D. Neutron

Which piece of equipment must be worn with structural firefighting PPE and SCBA? A. PASS device B. Escape harness C. Bail-out rope D. Buddy-breather

Which pipe pattern supplies water to hydrants from more than one direction? A. Grid B. Engineered C. Duplex D. Parallel

Which police powers do fire investigators have? A. It varies by jurisdiction B. None C. All but arrest powers D. Full police powers

Which position has the authority to immediately terminate any unsafe work practice? A. Safety officer B. Medical unit leader C. Division or group supervisor D. All of these are correct.

Which position is part of the command staff? A. Incident safety officer B. Finance/administration officer C. Resources officer D. Planning officer

Which precaution should you take when raising the fly section of an extension ladder? A. Do not wrap the halyard around your hands B. Set the dogs after each click C. Maintain a firm grip on the rungs D. Set your feet against the inside of the rails

Which preconnected hose load forms an S-shape in the hose bed? A. Triple layer B. Split C. Minuteman D. Skid

Which pressure measurement provides the best indicator of how much more water is available in the system? A. Residual B. Static C. Normal operating D. Flow

Which resource do utility companies have readily accessible that is often needed on technical rescue incidents? A. Heavy equipment B. Surveying equipment C. Field-portable office facilities D. Confined-space permits

Which saw is designed for cutting curves into wood? A. Coping B. Carpenter's handsaw C. Hacksaw D. Fret

Which section of the ERG contains the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances? A. Green B. Yellow C. Blue D. Orange

Which special hazard is unique to hybrid vehicles? A. High-voltage components B. Slow-drain capacitors C. Sulfuric acid D. Compressed gas cylinders

Which sprinkler system valve uses a threaded shaft to indicate the position of the valve? A. Outside stem and yoke B. Inspector's test C. Wall post indicator D. Post indicator

Which statement about a cellular phone calling 911 is correct? A. Numerous calls for the same incident may overload the communications center. B. The calls are automatically prioritized to the rear of the queue. C. Enhanced 911 system features eliminate the problem of locating the caller. D. The call is routed to a national center, resulting in considerable delay in their receipt by the local telecommunication center.

Which statement about structural steel is correct? A. Structural steel is very strong under both tension and compression. B. Temperatures commonly produced in fires exceed structural steel's melting point. C. Structural steel maintains its shape when exposed to high temperatures. D. Structural steel is susceptible to fatigue.

Which statement about telecommunication center voice recorders is correct? A. The recordings are useful for analysis of department operations. B. The recordings are not discoverable for use in litigation. C. Nondisclosure laws require destruction of recordings of routine traffic after 72 hours. D. The units record only when manually activated by the telecommunicator.

Which statement about the numerical rating of a Class K extinguisher is correct? A. There is no numerical rating for a Class K extinguisher. B. The numerical rating indicates the relative extinguishing power of the agent. C. The numerical rating indicates the relative duration of the agent. D. A numerical rating is required for commercial hood systems.

Which statement about the use of power saws is correct? A. Power saws can be hard to start. B. Power saws are easy to operate. C. Power saws are more portable than hand saws. D. Power saws increase operator fatigue.

Which statement best describes a primary search? A. A quick search for victims in immediate danger. B. A rapid initial assessment of life-threatening conditions. C. An extensive and thorough search for potential victims. D. A rapid search for victims after initial knockdown.

Which statement best describes the process of overhaul? A. Ensuring that all remaining fire is discovered and extinguished after the main fire has been knocked down. B. Actions taken to protect property from preventable smoke, fire, and water damage. C. The systematic demobilization and release of resources from the scene. D. Preservation of evidence, investigation, and determination of fire cause and origin.

Which statement best summarizes the overall effect of negative-pressure ventilation? A. It pulls smoke out. B. It displaces the contaminated atmosphere. C. It pushes smoke out. D. It dilutes the contaminated atmosphere.

Which statement best summarizes the types of incidents for which the incident command system (ICS) be should be implemented? A. All emergency incidents B. Incidents involving more than a single company C. Incidents where the incident commander's span of control is exceeded D. Incidents exceeding a single operational period

Which statement best summarizes when a dry chemical extinguisher should be serviced and recharged? A. After any discharge B. After a discharge resulting in loss of 10 percent of pressurization C. After a discharge resulting in loss of 20 percent of pressurization D. After a discharge resulting in loss of 30 percent of pressurization

Which statement is correct about sliding your hands long the underside of the beams while climbing a ladder? A. This practice provides you with three continuous points of contact. B. This practice is appropriate only when both hands are free. C. This practice is less secure than grabbing the rungs in a hand-over-hand manner. D. This practice is practical only on ladders with I-beam construction.

Which step of the extrication process consists of reducing, removing, or mitigating the hazards at the scene? A. Stabilization B. Response C. Size-up D. Disentanglement

Which term describes a power-operated ladder that is permanently mounted on a fire apparatus? A. Aerial B. Extension C. Snorkel D. Quint

Which term is defined as guiding and directing fire fighters to do what their fire department expects of them? A. Discipline B. Training C. Unity of command D. Span of control

Which term is used interchangeably with flammability range? A. Explosive limit B. Volatility index C. Oxidation range D. Pyrophoric limit

Which term refers to all of the information gathered and used by an investigator in determining the cause of a fire? A. Evidence B. Forensics C. Documentation D. Material

Which term refers to two crews operating hose lines against each other? A. Opposing handlines B. Combination attack C. Freelancing D. Uncoordinated attack

Which tool combines an adze, a pick, and a fork? A. Halligan bar B. Pick-head axe C. Ram bar D. Clemens

Which tool has two retractable blades? A. Plaster hook B. A tool C. Ceiling hook D. Shove knife

Which tool is a hand-operated winch? A. Come along B. Porto-Power C. Block-and-tackle D. Rabbit tool

Which tool is a short pike pole designed for use in tight spaces? A. Closet hook B. K tool C. Plaster hook D. Clemens hook

Which tool is best for breaching a floor? A. Rotary saw B. Air chisel C. Flat-head axe D. Reciprocating saw

Which tool is commonly used in interior search and rescue? A. Thermal imaging device B. Cribbing/shoring C. Acoustic detection device D. Multi-gas detector

Which tool is commonly used to provide a secure work platform for fire fighters working on a pitched roof? A. Roof ladder B. Halligan C. Pike pole D. Safety rope

Which tool is part of the basic set of interior firefighting tools? A. Prying tool B. Rotating tool C. Fulcrum tool D. Lever

Which tool is used to pull down a ceiling? A. Pike pole B. K tool C. Rabbit tool D. Kelly tool

Which type of alarm notification system alerts only building occupants? A. Protected premises B. Nonzoned noncoded C. Proprietary D. Central station

Which type of automatic sprinkler system flows water from all the sprinkler heads within a protected area? A. Deluge B. Preaction C. Wet D. Dry

Which type of breathing apparatus is equipped with an escape cylinder? A. Supplied-air respirator B. Powered air-purifying respirator C. Closed-circuit SCBA D. Open-circuit SCBA

Which type of breathing apparatus recycles the user's exhaled air? A. Closed circuit B. Air-purifying respirator C. Supplied air D. Powered air

Which type of company is responsible for securing a water source, deploying handlines, and putting water on the fire? A. Engine B. Initial attack C. Rescue D. Truck

Which type of company specializes in saving victims from fires, confined spaces, trenches, and high-angle situations? A. Rescue B. Truck C. Engine D. Rapid intervention

Which type of dam is used to contain materials lighter than water? A. Underflow B. Gravity C. Separation D. Split

Which type of facility monitors alarms systems located at multiple facilities? A. Central station B. Remote alarm receiving center C. Protected premises control center D. Supervising alarm center

Which type of fire extinguisher should be located in the kitchen? A. ABC B. BC C. Carbon dioxide D. Wet agent

Which type of foam proportioner relies on the Venturi effect? A. Eductor B. Injector C. Aspirator D. Inductor

Which type of heat detector must be replaced after activation? A. Fixed temperature B. Spot C. Flame D. Bimetallic

Which type of heat detector uses wire or tubing strung along the ceiling of large open areas? A. Line B. Area C. Beam D. Span

Which type of hose roll is used to store hose on a storage rack? A. Straight B. Doughnut C. Twin D. Flat

Which type of ladder should be carried by more than one fire fighter? A. Extension B. Single C. Roof D. Attic

Which type of light projects a diffuse light over a wide area? A. Flood B. Spot C. Halogen D. LED

Which type of meter or monitoring device has the quickest response time? A. Photoionization detector B. Electrochemical sensor C. Lower explosive limit sensor D. Colorimetric tube

Which type of pressure is created by the difference in height between a water source and the point of discharge? A. Elevation B. Static C. Flow D. Gravity

Which type of radiation is the most harmful to the human body? A. Gamma B. Beta C. Delta D. Omega

Which type of rescue-lift air bag is most commonly used by fire fighters? A. High-pressure B. Type II C. High-lift D. Medium-pressure

Which type of smoke detector is activated by visible products of combustion? A. Photoelectric B. Infrared C. Ultraviolet D. Ionization

Which type of sprinkler head is particularly difficult to shut off? A. Recessed B. Deluge C. Sidewall D. Pre-action

Which type of stream may be safe for use on solar panels? A. Fog B. Straight C. Solid D. None of these is correct.

Which type of vehicle operates using a battery-powered electric motor combined with a conventional gasoline engine? A. Hybrid B. Alternative fuel C. Electric D. Fuel cell

Which type of wood door is typically used for residential entrance doors? A. Solid-core B. Panel C. Ledge D. Hollow-core

Which walls are usually opened first during overhaul? A. The most heavily damaged walls B. The least damaged walls C. Walls with chases D. Partition walls

Which was a product of the first National Firefighter Life Safety Summit? A. The 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives B. The Firefighter Safety Stand Down C. The National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System D. The National Fallen Firefighters Foundation

Who developed the SLICE-RS mnemonic? A. International Society of Fire Service Instructors (ISFSI) B. International Association of Fire Chiefs (IAFC) C. Los Angeles Fire Department D. Emergency Management Institute (EMI)

Who first developed the RECEO tactical model? A. Lloyd Layman B. Alan Brunacini C. John Norman D. James Smith

Who is responsible for knowing the location of every member of a fire company at all times? A. The company officer B. The safety officer C. The accountability officer D. All personnel

Who should be wearing self-contained breathing apparatus? A. Anyone who is in contact with the products of combustion B. Only interior fire fighters C. Exterior fire fighters D. Only the lead fire fighter

Who usually performs fire investigation? A. An individual trained to meet the requirements of the applicable NFPA standard B. The incident commander C. The chief fire official D. Law enforcement personnel

Why is crew rehabilitation of special concern on TRIs? A. Many TRI operations are of extended duration. B. Standard engine company PPE is not well suited to TRIs. C. The physically demanding nature of TRI operations D. The high stress levels associated with TRis

Why should foam be applied so that it flows gently across a liquid? A. To avoid directly upsetting the burning surface B. To prevent disruption of the foam blanket C. To prevent entraining additional air D. Because liquid agitation will increase the temperature

Within the ICS organizational structure, the leader of a group has rank equal to that of the leader of a: A. division. B. branch. C. section. D. strike team/task force.

__________ is a simple asphyxiant. A. Nitrogen B. Carbon monoxide C. Benzene D. Hydrazine

__________ is to liquids as vapor density is to gases. A. Specific gravity B. Volatility C. Viscosity D. Molecular weight

__________ offer(s) recommendations for levels of hazardous materials PPE to be used under specific conditions. A. HAZWOPER regulations, Appendix B B. Emergency Response Guide (ERG) C. NFPA standards D. Material safety data sheets

When standing upright on a rung, how far should the rung at shoulder height be from the fire fighter? A. Half an arm's length B. About 12 in. (30 cm) C. An arm's length D. About 24 in. (61 cm)

When water is motionless, which kind of energy does it have? A. Residual B. Absolute C. Potential D. Kinetic

When working in or around vehicle traffic, when is it acceptable to omit the wearing of a high-visibility vest? A. You are working inside the involved vehicle's passenger compartment B. You are operating powered rescue equipment C. You may be exposed to fire conditions D. Never

Where are remote shut-off valves located on MC-306 cargo tanks? A. Next to the air coupling B. At the front of the tank C. Near the front of the cab D. In the valve box

Where does the victim's arm go in the one-person walking assist? A. Around the rescuer's waist B. Linked in the rescuer's arm C. Around the rescuer's neck D. Across the victim's chest

Where is a dump valve located? A. On a portable water tank B. At the lowest point in a water system C. On a mobile water supply apparatus D. At the end of a dead-end main

Where is a remote annunciator likely to be located? A. In a utility room B. An off-site monitoring facility C. Near the building entrance D. Near the sprinkler cabinet

Where is the relief cut made in a dash displacement? A. The A-post, between the upper hinge and the dash B. The junction of the A-post and the roof C. The bottom of the A-post D. The sill, as far forward as possible

Where must placards be located on highway transport vehicles, railcars, and other forms of transportation carrying hazardous materials? A. Top B. Front and back C. All four sides D. Not required

Where should additional equipment be staged on a high-rise fire? A. On the floor above the fire floor B. On the ground floor C. One or two floors below the fire D. On the fire floor

Where should streams be directed to prevent a BLEVE? A. On the relief valve B. At the tank ends C. At the area where the tank is being heated D. On the protective dome

Which ICS section is responsible for the collection, evaluation, dissemination, and use of information relevant to the incident? A. Strategy B. Staging C. Planning D. Logistics

Which NFPA standard covers the criteria for design, construction, and performance of life safety rope and related equipment? A. 1981 B. 1982 C. 1983 D. 1984

Which NFPA standard deals with open-circuit self-contained breathing apparatus? A. 1622 B. 1801 C. 1981 D. 1990

Which NFPA standard deals with protective clothing and equipment for wildland firefighting? A. 1072 B. 1214 C. 1977 D. 1982

Which NFPA standard sets minimum performance standards for aerial ladders and elevating platforms? A. 1450 B. 1724 C. 1901 D. 1932

Which NPFA standard establishes job performance requirements for fire investigators? A. 921 B. 972 C. 1033 D. 1051

Which action is correct for a fire in a building that is known to be abandoned and unoccupied? A. Operate as you would for any building with similar fire conditions B. Take a hose line inside, perform a primary survey, and extinguish the fire if conditions permit C. Stay outside and fight the fire from the exterior D. Enter the building, perform a primary search, and then get out

Which action is within the awareness level scope of responsibility? A. Prepare for emergency decontamination of civilians B. Perform passive mitigation C. Determine appropriate actions based on the ERG D. Perform defensive tactics

Which action should be taken with the clothing removed from a victim of a fire? A. Decontaminated B. Treated as medical waste C. Preserved as evidence D. Discarded

Which agent is rated for use on Class A fires? A. Potassium chloride B. Potassium bicarbonate C. Ammonium phosphate D. Sodium bicarbonate

Which attack line load is particularly useful when the line must be advanced up a stairway? A. Triple layer B. Wyed lines C. Minuteman D. Skid

Which basic management principle says that each fire fighter should answer to only one supervisor? A. Span of control B. Organizational accountability C. Unity of command D. Division of labor

Which class of fire involves energized electrical equipment? A. A B. B C. C D. D

Which class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a flame and an electrical plug and socket? A. K B. B C. C D. D

Which class of standpipe system is intended for use by both building occupants and fire fighters? A. I B. II C. III D. IV

Which component is part of a Halligan tool? A. Cutting blade B. Spring-loaded hook C. Fork D. Hydrant spanner

Which component of smoke control is characteristic of an active smoke control system? A. Draft curtains B. Automatic fire doors C. Pressurization D. Fire walls

Which condition will most likely cause smoke to stratify in a large building? A. Decay-phase fire B. Winter stack effect C. Sprinkler system activation D. Ventilation-controlled fire

Which control tactic should always be considered in transportation emergencies or incidents at fixed facilities? A. Damming B. Retention C. Remote valve shut-off D. Diffusion

Which cooling technology involves a vest designed to wick perspiration away from the body? A. Forced-air cooling B. Fluid-chilled systems C. Phase-change cooling technology D. Gel-pack vests

Which cutting tool requires the most training to use? A. Rotary saw B. Chain saw C. Cutting torch D. Reciprocating saw

Which development led to the widespread use of the mechanized pumping apparatus? A. Wagon-mounted steam engines B. Jacketed hose C. Internal combustion engines D. Private insurance companies

Which device enables fire fighters to ascertain the type and location of the activated alarm device? A. Remote station B. Audible alarm indicator C. Remote annunciator D. Pull station

Which device splits one hose stream into two hose streams? A. Siamese B. Splitter C. Wye D. Water thief

Which effect is caused by temperature differences inside and outside a building? A. Stratification B. Inversion C. Stack effect D. Mushrooming

Which effect on fire development is a result of modern construction techniques and materials? A. Tendency for multiple flow paths B. Disrupted thermal layering C. Greater frequency of ventilation-limited fires D. Prolonged growth stage

Which entity determines whether a need exists to provide mission-specific competency training for local operations level hazardous materials responders? A. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) B. State fire marshal C. Authority having jurisdiction (AHJ) D. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

Which extinguish agent has been banned for new installations? A. Carbon dioxide B. Clean agent C. Halogenated agents D. Halocarbons

Which federal agency enforces and publicizes laws and regulations governing transportation of goods? A. OSA B. OPA C. DOT D. DOHA

Which fiber is commonly used in life safety rope? A. Sisal B. Rayon C. Nylon D. Olefin

Which foam application method is best for a pool of flammable liquid on open ground? A. Bounce-off B. Rain-down C. Roll-in D. Bank-down

Which form of decontamination is the most thorough? A. Mass B. Primary C. Technical D. Secondary

Which form of decontamination typically consists of removing contaminated clothing and dousing the victim with large volumes of water? A. Technical B. Mass C. Emergency D. Formal

Which form of evidence is based on inference and not on personal observation? A. Indirect B. Testimonial C. Circumstantial D. Demonstrative

Which function should occur in the cold zone? A. Forward access point B. Safe haven C. Personnel staging D. Decontamination corridor

Which guide should be used for the cleaning and maintenance of tools and equipment? A. The applicable NFPA standard B. The fire agency's SOPs C. The manufacturer's instructions D. It varies with the type of tool

Which hazard is of particular concern during salvage? A. Unnecessary water damage B. Fire in void spaces C. Structural collapse D. Rekindle

Which hazard presents the greatest risk for a fire in a modern vehicle? A. Bursting tires B. Exploding fuel tanks C. Components containing pressurized gas D. Laminated glass

Which hazardous material is commonly found in vehicle batteries? A. Hydrochloric acid B. Hydrofluoric acid C. Sulfuric acid D. Pentaic acid

Which hose load has the hose up on its edge and placed around the perimeter of the hose bed in a U shape? A. Split B. U C. Horseshoe D. Perimeter

Which is a characteristic of a fog stream? A. It is ideal for reaching distant targets. B. It produces minimal air turbulence. C. It creates water droplets with a large surface area. D. It produces less runoff than a solid stream.

Which is a commonly used safety knot? A. Rescue B. Finishing C. Overhand D. Half hitch

Which is a commonly used structural material in a Type I building? A. Treated wood B. Engineered wood C. Protected steel D. Oriented-strand board

Which is a component of the Reilly method of air conservation? A. Counting B. Visualization C. Humming D. Stepped breathing

Which is a correct action to take at a trench cave-in rescue? A. Approach from the wide end of the trench B. Remove spoils from the trench lip C. Keep personnel back from the cave-in site D. Begin shoring and stabilizing as soon as the victim's air supply has been established

Which is a critical factor to evaluate in size-up for search and rescue? A. Reflex time B. Type of fire attack C. Victims' ability to self-evacuate D. Age of victims

Which is a detailed profile of a chemical or chemical mixture provided by the manufacturer? A. Local emergency response plan (LERP) B. Emergency Response Guide (ERG) C. Safety data sheet (SDS) D. NFPA 49 (Hazardous Chemicals Data)

Which is a disadvantage of CO2 extinguishers? A. Electrical conductivity B. Cost C. Short discharge range D. Corrosive residue

Which is a disadvantage of fire-resistive construction? A. The lack of built-in fire protection systems B. Non-fire-resistive structural members C. Difficulty in extinguishing the fire D. Susceptibility to water damage

Which is a distinguishing feature of old-style sprinkler heads? A. Only a few activation temperatures are available B. The heads are highly sensitive to pressure fluctuation C. The discharge pattern directs some water onto the ceiling D. All heads are of the pendant type

Which is a feature of the triple-layer hose load? A. Works well with multistory buildings B. Minimizes the need to drag hose C. Suitable for companies with minimal personnel D. Simple to load

Which is a function of a hose liner? A. Withstand water pressure B. Resist mechanical damage C. Reduce friction loss D. Protect against thermal damage

Which is a function of a sprinkler head? A. Detect smoke or fumes B. Auto-restore when the fire is out C. Activate the fire alarm system D. Report any trouble in the system

Which is a hallmark of safe and effective emergency operations? A. Initiative B. Sacrifice C. Teamwork D. Integrity

Which is a hand-powered hydraulic spreader tool? A. Spanner B. Kelly C. Rabbit D. Pivot

Which is a key characteristic of the incident command system? A. Scalar organization B. Mutual aid agreements C. Unity of command D. Standard operating procedures

Which is a location near the incident scene where resources are held, ready to be assigned if needed? A. Check-in area B. Incident base C. Staging area D. Camp

Which is a safety rule for climbing a ladder? A. Avoid holding onto the beams during the climb B. Avoid standing with both feet on the same rung C. Look upward only when necessary D. Carry, rather than hoist, tools whenever possible

Which is an advantage of the accordion hose load? A. It eliminates the need for Dutchman folds. B. It works well with LDH. C. It makes hose easy to carry. D. It reduces the number of sharp bends in the hose.

Which is an attribute of low-pressure rescue-lift air bags? A. Unsuitable for general rescue use B. Greater stability C. Lightweight construction D. Lower maximum lift height

Which is an awareness-level technical rescue skill? A. Install lockout/tagout/isolation devices B. Identify victim location and condition C. Recognize hazards D. Access victims to provide first aid to them

Which is an incorrect use of a pick-head axe? A. Ventilating a roof B. Prying up boards C. Striking another tool D. Puncturing a door

Which is an indicator of impending building collapse? A. Heavy timber construction B. Fire venting through windows C. Sudden increase in the intensity of the fire from the roof opening D. Masonry construction

Which is another term for gypsum board? A. Lath B. OSB C. Drywall D. Stucco

Which is correct procedure during an O-VEIS operation? A. The room search is performed by two rescuers. B. The operation begins after hose lines are deployed. C. The door of the search room is closed as soon as possible. D. It is performed by a single rescuer.

Which is correct procedure when cutting a ventilation opening in a roof? A. Several small holes distributed over the fire area are better than one large hole. B. Use preexisting openings only when there is no alternative. C. Sound the roof to locate structural supports. D. Return the saw to idle before withdrawing it from a cut.

Which is formed by making a circle in a rope? A. Bight B. Snub C. Loop D. Coil

Which is formed by making a loop in a rope and then bringing the two ends of the rope parallel to each other? A. Eye B. Cinch C. Round turn D. Bend

Which is one of the building major use classifications? A. Multifamily residential B. Educational C. Public assembly D. Industrial

Which is one of the four classifications of fire cause? A. Unknown B. Intentional C. Natural D. Arson

Which is one of the four major categories of door locks? A. Dead-bolt B. Recessed C. Cylindrical D. Tumbler

Which is one of the four primary classifications of rope based on function? A. Static B. Rigging C. Utility D. Rescue

Which is one of the primary goals of public fire safety education? A. To fulfill legal requirements B. To increase public interest and support for the fire department C. To teach people how to react appropriately if an emergency occurs D. To ensure compliance with codes and ordinances

Which is one of the three basic supply hose loads? A. Combination B. Minuteman C. Accordion D. Split

Which is one of the three primary roof designs? A. Mansard B. Gable C. Curved D. Hip

Which is one of the three primary types of mechanical saw? A. Circular B. Band C. Reciprocating D. Miter

Which is one of the two greatest hazards at a confined-space incident? A. Electrical shock B. Fall/crush injuries C. Lack of oxygen D. Engulfment

Which is the NFPA color code for a hydrant flowing 1000 to 1499 gpm (3785 to 5674 lpm)? A. Yellow B. Light blue C. Green D. Orange

Which is the biggest drawback of the two-person seat carry? A. Rescuers must maintain a stooped posture. B. It is difficult to travel long distances. C. It is difficult to move through doors. D. The carry requires access to a chair.

Which is the correct term for taking a brief break to rest, hydrate, and change the SCBA bottle? A. Rehabilitation B. Reload C. Recycling D. Breather

Which is the correct way to force a single- or double-hung window? A. Insert a prying tool near the lock and pull outward and to the side B. Pry on the center of the upper sash C. Pry upward on the center of the bottom sash D. Pry the lip of the frame outward so the outermost sash can be removed

Which is the last part of a windshield that should be cut? A. The most accessible part B. The side C. The bottom D. The top

Which is the minimum flow from a large handline? A. 150 gpm (570 lpm). B. 200 gpm (760 lpm). C. 250 gpm (950 lpm). D. 350 gpm (1325 lpm).

Which is the minimum level of rescue training required for direct involvement in rescue operations? A. Awareness B. Operations C. Technician D. Specialist

Which is the most appropriate use for a portable fire extinguisher? A. Pretreating exposures B. Diluting flammable liquids C. Situations in which the use of water is not recommended D. Overhaul

Which is the most basic level of technical rescue training? A. First responder B. Level A C. Awareness D. Basic

Which is the most common application for an engineered wood product? A. Short load-bearing members B. Applications where high fire-resistance is required C. Applications where extra-long beams are required D. Stair treads and risers

Which is the most common technique for gaining access to a vehicle after a collision? A. Roof removal B. Back or side glass removal C. Door displacement D. Windshield removal

Which is the most common type of automatic sprinkler system? A. Preaction B. Deluge C. Wet pipe D. Dry pipe

Which is the most energetic type of radiation? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Gamma D. Photon

Which is the most likely indication of use of an ignitable liquid? A. Burnt blankets and rags B. Multiple points of origin C. Charring on the underside of a door D. Door propped open

Which is the national initiative designed to unite the fire service, life safety organizations, and professionals to reduce home fire injuries, deaths, and property loss by changing how people think about fire and fire prevention? A. Learn Not To Burn B. Community Emergency Response Training C. Fire is Everyone's Fight D. Home Safe

Which is the preferred method to overhaul a trash bin fire? A. Close the lid and let the fire burn until all fuel is consumed B. Remove all contents from the bin C. Use Class A foam to saturate all the fuel D. Sort through the contents using long-handled tools

Which is the preferred type of rope for fire department life safety use? A. Dynamic B. Resilient C. Static D. Tractable

Which is the primary factor to take into account when selecting personnel to fill a position within the ICS? A. Rank B. Seniority C. Qualification D. Grade

Which is the primary indicator of the point of origin in a structure fire? A. Shape of floor char B. Depth of smoke stains C. Fire patterns D. Color of smoke

Which is the rate at which heat is transferred from one surface to another? A. Thermal gradient B. Thermal transfer C. Heat flux D. Conductive flow

Which is the term for plastics that will melt under fire conditions? A. Thermoset B. Amorphous C. Thermoplastic D. Pyrolytic

Which is used to prevent the dash from moving back after it has been displaced? A. Hydraulic ram B. Jack C. Cribbing D. Spreaders

Which item is a primary factor in determining which units to send to an incident? A. The reporting party's recommendation B. The time lapse between call receipt and dispatch C. The incident location D. The reporting party's plausibility

Which item is of particular importance for inclusion in a precident survey? A. Location and number of occupants B. Most advantageous location of command post C. Location of overhead utility wires D. History of previous incidents

Which items are best overhauled outside the structure? A. Appliances B. Books/documents C. Furniture D. Clothing/wardrobe

Which job function is part of the ICS command staff? A. Support B. Service C. Public information D. Communication

Which kind of evidence includes facts that can be observed or reported firsthand? A. Observational B. Objective C. Direct D. Testimonial

Which kind of sprinkler system uses accelerators? A. Deluge B. Most modern systems C. Dry-pipe D. Residential

Which knot is frequently used to secure the end of the rope to an anchor point? A. Overhand safety B. Becket bend C. Bowline D. Square

Which knot is used to keep the hoisting rope aligned with the handle of a tool being hoisted? A. Half sheepshank B. Directional figure eight C. Half hitch D. Overhand

Which level of protective equipment permits the use of an air-purifying respirator? A. A B. B C. C D. D

Which marking indicates a search is presently under way in a particular room? A. A circle B. An X C. A diagonal slash D. An S

Which material has the highest thermal conductivity? A. Concrete B. Wood C. Copper D. Air

Which material is a component of mortar? A. Pea gravel B. Diatomaceous earth C. Lime D. Calcium sulfate

Which material is prone to spalling under fire conditions? A. Steel B. Wood C. Concrete D. Fiberglass

Which method is usually recommended for drying ropes? A. A laundry dryer B. A hose dryer C. Air drying D. Direct sunlight

Which method of construction is required for life safety rope? A. Plaited B. Woven C. Block creel D. Solid braid

Which method of product control results in one material physically adhering to another? A. Absorption B. Dilution C. Adsorption D. Retention

Which method should be considered first when forcing an outward-swinging door? A. Driving the cylinder through the door B. Cutting the bolt with a rotary saw C. Removing the hinge pins D. Using the irons to pry it open

Which mnemonic is used to instruct people about what to do if their clothes catch on fire? A. Call, cover, cool B. Learn not to burn C. Stop, drop, and roll D. EDITH

Which national organization writes codes and standards for fire protection? A. United States Fire Administration (USFA) B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) C. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) D. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

Which nozzle type has the highest flow rate? A. Adjustable B. Handline C. Master stream D. Smooth bore

Which of the following is a confinement tactic? A. Plugging B. Patching C. Diking D. Righting an overturned container

Which of the following is a critical factor in determining the appropriate level of PPE? A. The experience of the fire fighters on hand B. The availability of protective gear C. The physical state and characteristics of the material D. The responders' experience with this material

Which of the following is a defensive action? A. Plugging B. Patching C. Diking D. Product transfer

Which of the following is a more effective method to disperse a nerve agent such as VX? A. Pour on the floor B. Leave in an open container C. Aerosolize D. Pour onto a porous surface

Which of the following is a type of radiation? A. Omega B. Delta C. Alpha D. Theta

Which of the following is one of the "shuns" of evacuation? A. Evaluation B. Information C. Habitation D. Persuasion

Which of the following is one of the key benefits of using ICS? A. Manpower sharing B. Mutual aid agreements C. Consistent organizational structure D. Standard operating procedures

Which of the following is the best definition of salvage? A. Efforts taken to contain an incident to its area of origin B. The search for and extinguishment of hidden or residual fire C. Actions taken to save property and reduce damage caused by fire D. Procedures for the preservation of evidence of fire cause

Which of the following is the best source of basic information about the chemical make-up of a substance, the potential hazards it presents, appropriate first aid, and other pertinent safe-handling data? A. Cargo manifest B. ERG C. Safety data sheet D. Shipping papers

Which of the following items will be needed to build a dam in a flowing stream that is contaminated with a hazardous liquid? A. Plastic sheeting B. Rebar C. PVC pipe D. Rip-rap

Which of the following materials is most likely to be transported in a highway tanker that is narrower than most tankers and has several reinforcing rings around the circumference? A. Petroleum products B. Nonpotable water C. Concentrated sulfuric acid D. Rebar

Which of the following standards is for Hazardous Materials/Weapons of Mass Destruction Emergency Response Personnel Professional Qualifications? A. 472 B. 1001 C. 1072 D. 1082

Which of the following statements about decontamination of disposable chemical-protective equipment is correct? A. No decontamination is needed prior to disposal. B. Only gross decontamination is required. C. Equipment should be decontaminated sufficiently so that removal is safe for the wearer. D. Decontamination should be thorough and complete.

Which of the following statements about positive-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus is correct? A. They are also known as "rebreathers." B. They filter and condition atmospheric air for breathing. C. They prevent exposure by ingestion as well as by inhalation. D. They use compressed or liquid oxygen.

Which part(s) of a ladder should not be exposed to solvents? A. All parts B. Beams C. Halyard D. Pawls

Which particle has a positive charge? A. Electron B. Photon C. Proton D. Neutron

Which phrase indicates an imminent fire-ground hazard, such as a structural collapse? A. "Hold all traffic" B. "Code 30" C. "Emergency traffic" D. "Mayday"

Which process is used in fire investigation to validate or refute claims of faulty equipment? A. Defect sequence mapping B. Fault evaluation C. Destructive analysis investigation D. Device failure reconstruction

Which process occurs when room temperature reaches the ignition point of the exposed combustibles within it? A. Mushrooming B. Backdraft C. Flashover D. Lapping

Which protective action uses water or another liquid to reduce the concentration of a hazardous material? A. Dispersion B. Adsorption C. Dilution D. Suppression

Which question is important to consider when inspecting life safety ropes? A. Has the rope ever been under load? B. How long has the rope been in storage? C. Has the rope been subject to shock loading? D. Has the rope been exposed to sunlight?

Which search procedure is unacceptably dangerous? A. Oriented B. Team C. Vent-enter-search D. Standard

Which section of the ERG would a fire fighter use when he or she knows the chemical identification number of the hazardous material? A. Green B. Yellow C. Blue D. Orange

Which section of the ERG would a fire fighter use when he or she knows the chemical name of the hazardous material? A. Green B. Yellow C. Blue D. Orange

Which should be an area of special emphasis when training with specialized rescue teams in your area? A. SOPs B. Equipment inventory C. Terminology D. Organization

Which situation is indicated when you open a door and the smoke exits through the top half of the door and clean air enters through the bottom half? A. Imminent rollover. B. An under-ventilated fire. C. The fire is on the same level as the door. D. Nonsurvivable conditions for occupants.

Which smoke detection system feature uses a delay of 30 to 60 seconds between activation and notification? A. Deferred B. Preaction C. Verification D. Cross-zoned

Which state must a fuel be in for combustion to take place? A. Solid B. Liquid C. Vapor D. Solid, liquid, or vapor

Which statement about downed electrical wires is correct? A. Turnout boots and thick rubber gloves will afford you sufficient protection. B. A downed power line may be safely pinned down under the tire of the apparatus. C. Fire fighters should operate under the assumption that all downed utility lines are energized. D. Fire fighters should use tools with wood or fiberglass handles to manipulate downed lines.

Which statement about hydraulic ventilation is correct? A. A medium-diameter line is required. B. A straight or solid stream is used. C. The ventilation crew must remain in the path of the exhausting smoke. D. It is not effective for large volumes of smoke and heat.

Which statement about outward-opening doors is correct? A. These doors are typically found on residential structures. B. These doors can be identified by their exposed stiles. C. These doors are designed to facilitate exit. D. The hinges of these doors are not accessible.

Which statement about using hose streams on a transformer fire is correct? A. You should use just enough water to cool, but not extinguish, the fire. B. Water should be applied in short bursts. C. Application of water may cause splashing and spread of toxic liquids. D. A wide-angle fog stream should be used.

Which statement is correct about simultaneous offensive and defensive operations at the same building? A. It may be a useful tactic for large industrial buildings. B. It may be necessary until the completion of the primary search. C. It is dangerous and should not be done. D. It may be necessary when circumstances prevent the use of a transitional attack.

Which statement is correct concerning the triple-layer load? A. Half the load is shouldered and the other half pays off from the ground. B. The nozzle is attached to the bottom layer. C. The entire load must be on the ground before the nozzle can be advanced. D. Each layer should be a single length of hose.

Which statement regarding the fire fighter drag is correct? A. It requires no equipment to carry out. B. It is well suited to stairways. C. It is useful for victims who are heavier than the rescuer. D. It requires cooperation on the part of the victim.

Which step in the technical rescue incident process follows removal of a victim? A. Security B. Treatment C. Transport D. Packaging

Which tactic lowers the concentration of a vapor cloud by spreading it out? A. Diffusion B. Ventilation C. Vapor dispersion D. Gas retention

Which tanker is used to transport ammonia, butane, or propane? A. MC-306 B. MC-312 C. MC-331 D. MC-338

Which technique is particularly well-suited for searching a large area such as a warehouse? A. Oriented search B. Standard search C. Team search D. Officer-led search

Which term best describes how much risk is acceptable in attempting to protect and rescue savable lives? A. None B. Minor C. Measured D. Unlimited

Which term best describes how much risk is acceptable in attempting to protect savable property? A. None B. Minor C. Limited D. Significant

Which term means the properties of energy, pressure, and water flow as related to fire suppression? A. Hydrodynamics B. Friction loss C. Hydraulics D. Fire flow

Which term means the weight of a building's contents? A. Dead load B. Gross building weight C. Live load D. Tare weight

Which term refers to the concentration of a gas or vapor in air that will burn if provided with a source of ignition? A. Flash point B. Vaporization range C. Flammable range D. Combustible limit

Which threadless coupling is commonly used on large diameter hose? A. Ramos B. Snap-tite C. Storz D. Naval

Which tool is a small hydraulic spreader operated by a hand-powered pump? A. K tool B. Power bar C. Rabbit tool D. Ram bar

Which tool is classified as a prying/spreading tool? A. Spanner B. K tool C. Kelly tool D. Axe

Which tool is designed specifically to remove a lock cylinder? A. Hux bar B. J tool C. K tool D. Pry axe

Which tool is designed to pull a lock cylinder out of a door? A. Rabbit tool B. Hux bar C. K tool D. Lock cutter

Which tool is most commonly used for debris removal? A. Hux B. Pulaski C. Shovel D. Pike pole

Which toxic gas is commonly produced by fire? A. Hydrogen sulfide B. Nitrogen sulfide C. Hydrogen cyanide D. Acrolein

Which type of alarm notification system is connected directly to a monitoring site owned and operated by the building's owner? A. Auxiliary system B. Remote station system C. Proprietary system D. Central station

Which type of attack is used when the main objective is to protect exposures? A. Indirect B. Offensive C. Defensive D. Tactical

Which type of automatic sprinkler system requires the activation of an alarm initiating device before water is released into the sprinkler piping? A. Wet B. Dry C. Preaction D. Deluge

Which type of building is the most prone to the stack effect? A. Warehouse B. Cold-storage facility C. High-rise D. Shopping mall

Which type of company specializes in incidents involving spilled or leaking hazardous chemicals? A. Engine B. Truck C. Hazardous material D. Salvage

Which type of construction is called ordinary construction? A. I B. II C. III D. IV

Which type of construction is heavy timber? A. II B. III C. IV D. V

Which type of detector is commonly installed in air ducts of large buildings? A. Rate of rise B. Flame C. Air sampling D. Gas

Which type of evidence is an empty gasoline can? A. Material B. Direct C. Physical D. Demonstrative

Which type of extinguishing system is the most effective for use on fires involving cooking oils? A. Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF) B. Dry chemical C. Wet chemical D. Halon

Which type of foam is particularly well suited for gasoline spills? A. Protein B. Fluoroprotein C. Aqueous film-forming D. Alcohol-resistant

Which type of glass is most typically used in fire doors and windows? A. Pyrex B. Laminated C. Wired D. Safety

Which type of glass is normally used in automobile windshields? A. Annealed B. Reinforced C. Laminated D. Tempered

Which type of glass is the rear window of a vehicle? A. Laminated B. Dichroic C. Tempered D. Composite

Which type of glass is used in most sliding doors? A. Annealed B. Laminated C. Tempered D. Polycarbonate

Which type of heat detectors are spaced throughout an occupancy, with each detector covering a specific floor area? A. Line B. Fast-response C. Spot D. Remote

Which type of lock fits into predrilled openings in the side of a door? A. Rim B. Key-in-knob C. Mortise D. Deadbolt

Which type of nozzle is used to fight fires in inaccessible places such as attics and basements? A. Piercing B. Water curtain C. Cellar D. Eductor

Which type of radiation is emitted as pure electromagnetic energy? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Gamma D. Neutron

Which type of smoke detector is the least prone to producing false alarms due to steam? A. Ionization B. Dual chamber C. Photoelectric D. Infrared

Which type of valve is opened or closed by rotating a handle a quarter turn? A. Gate B. Siamese C. Butterfly D. Slide

Which type of ventilation relies on doors and windows on the same level as the fire? A. Positive-pressure B. Passive C. Horizontal D. Natural

Which type of ventilation uses openings above the fire so that heat and smoke can escape the structure in an upward direction? A. Horizontal B. Mechanical C. Vertical D. Negative-pressure

Which type of wall is used to prevent the spread of fire from one side of the wall to the other? A. Curtain B. Bearing C. Fire D. Partition

Which was one of the major U.S. fires of 1871? A. Cocoanut Grove Fire B. Triangle Shirtwaist Factory Fire C. Great Chicago Fire D. Iroquois Theatre Fire

Which wrench has a closed end and is used to tighten nuts or bolts? A. Adjustable B. Spanner C. Box-end D. Pipe

Who developed the first fire hydrant? A. Ben Franklin B. John Lofton C. Frederick Graff D. Hans Hautsch

Who is responsible for coordinating the activities of several fire companies in a defined geographic area such as a district? A. Section chief B. Captain C. Battalion chief D. Assistant chief

Who is responsible for determining the strategic incident objectives? A. Command staff B. Planning officer C. Incident commander D. Operations section chief

Who is responsible for establishing rules about self-contained breathing apparatus use? A. OSHA B. Shift captain C. Authority having jurisdiction D. NFPA

Who is the responsible party for a technical rescue incident that occurs at a worksite or industrial facility? A. The IC B. The property owner C. The foreman or supervisor D. The business owner

Who serves as the command's point of contact for representatives from outside agencies? A. The planning director B. The agency representative C. The liaison officer D. The staging chief

Why do children 2 to 6 years old typically set fires? A. Need for attention B. Vandalism C. Curiosity D. Anger

You are alone in zero-visibility conditions and unable to find an exit. Which action listed below should you take first? A. Activate your personal alert safety system (PASS) B. Attempt to find a hose line or tagline C. Declare a "mayday" over your radio D. Find a wall and methodically search it for a window or door

You are working at a hazardous materials incident. In your position, there is no potential for harmful exposure to the substance. What is the minimum level of PPE for this situation? A. A B. B C. C D. D

You have responded to a hazardous materials incident involving a substance that has been positively identified. It is determined that an air-purifying respirator is effective with this substance and that the substance does not present a hazard to exposed skin. What is the minimum level of PPE for this situation? A. A B. B C. C D. D

__________ is one toxic chemical found in most smoke caused by fire. A. Sodium B. Xenon C. Cyanide D. Acetic acid

A Class C extinguisher is rated for use on: A. radioactive materials involved in flame. B. energized electrical equipment. C. combustible metals. D. cooking oil.

A Class C fire involves: A. a flammable liquid or gas. B. energized electrical equipment. C. cooking material. D. a combustible metal.

A Class K agent's effect on the fuel is known as: A. emulsification. B. saponification. C. dissolution. D. hydrolyzation.

A Level B protective ensemble consists of: A. full turnouts with self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA). B. multi-piece chemical protective clothing and SCBA. C. ordinary work uniform and an air-purifying respirator or powered air-purifying respirator. D. vapor protection with SCBA.

A __________ device is designed for use by hearing-impaired persons. A. display B. text C. digital D. video

A chisel is classified as a __________ tool. A. prying/spreading B. striking C. cutting D. pushing/pulling

A combination fire attack begins with: A. an exterior attack. B. an indirect attack. C. exposure protection. D. performing ventilation.

A combination fire attack begins with: A. an exterior attack. B. an indirect attack. C. exposure protection. D. ventilation.

A drag rescue device (DRD) is a component of the: A. SCBA harness. B. protective coat. C. protective pants. D. PASS device.

A dry hydrant provides access to a: A. municipal water system. B. static water source. C. portable water tank. D. cistern or well.

A fire cannot be considered fully extinguished until _______ is complete. A. loss control B. overhaul C. secondary search D. the suppression operation

A fire caused by a person refueling a hot lawn mower is classified as a(n) __________ fire. A. causal B. accidental C. negligent D. unintentional

A fire department communication center functions most like a(n): A. freeway interchange. B. human brain. C. Internet search engine. D. coach.

A fire fighter with specialized knowledge and training for high-angle rescue, structural collapse, trench rescue, confined-space, and similar operations is a: A. Fire Fighter II. B. technical rescuer. C. special operations technician. D. search and rescue technician.

A ladder is carried at arm's length in a(n) ___________ carry. A. quick B. suitcase C. arm D. grab

A loaded stream extinguisher is designed to: A. prevent unnecessary water damage. B. resist freezing. C. improve fuel penetration. D. create a foam blanket.

A master stream device that is permanently mounted on an engine and plumbed directly into the pump is a: A. monitor. B. deck gun. C. playpipe. D. deluge set.

A natural gas shut-off valve is usually a quarter turn-valve and is considered to be in the open position when_______? A. The valve stem is fully rotated outward against the stop B. The handle is in line with the supply pipe C. The indicator paddlewheel is turning D. The valve handle is rotated clockwise until it stops

A roll-over protection system is most likely to be found in which type of vehicle? A. Passenger van B. Convertible C. High-end passenger car D. Sports car

A short fold in a supply hose load that prevents a coupling from flipping around when the hose is being laid out is a: A. bowtie. B. Dutchman. C. reverse. D. tuck.

A shove knife is most often used on: A. double-hung windows. B. outward-swinging doors. C. sliding doors and windows. D. casement windows.

A split hose bed with the end of the hose on one side of the bed coupled to the beginning of the hose on the other side of the bed is a __________ hose load. A. skid B. combination C. split D. parallel

A straight stream is briefly discharged through a window from the building exterior. This is typical of which type of attack? A. Combination B. Transitional C. Defensive D. Blitz

A structural firefighting PPE ensemble includes which specific piece of equipment? A. Portable radio B. PASS device C. Thermal imager D. Safety harness

A temporary location that provides refuge while awaiting rescue or finding a method of self-rescue from a hazardous situation is a(n): A. in-place shelter. B. safe location. C. secure room. D. emergency refuge.

A(n) __________ garment provides full body protection from gases, vapors, and liquids. A. chemical-protective B. vapor-protective C. isolation D. atmospheric

About how much, in gallons, do intermodal tanks hold? A. 60,000 B. 6000 C. 600 D. 60

According to NFPA 72, which type of alarm is caused by improper installation of an alarm system? A. Unwanted B. Nuisance C. False D. Trouble

According to NFPA 72, which type of alarm occurs when an activation of a fire alarm is not the result of a potentially hazardous condition? A. False B. Nuisance C. Tamper D. Trouble

According to NFPA standards, the maximum floor area that can be protected by each extinguisher is specified according to: A. presence of built-in suppression systems. B. occupancy type. C. construction class. D. occupancy load.

According to the HAZWOPER regulation, Level __________ is the minimum level of protection to be worn when operating in an unknown environment. A. A B. B C. C D. D

According to the NFPA, what is the minimum distance between the center of a fire hydrant outlet and the finished grade of the ground around the hydrant? A. 12" (30 cm) B. 18" (45 cm) C. 24" (60 cm) D. 30" (75 cm)

Adding foam concentrate to a fire apparatus tank is called __________ mixing. A. pre- B. batch C. tank D. bulk

After company officers carry out a PAR, what do they do next? A. Check the air status of all personnel within the company B. Report the results to the incident commander C. Send the passport to the command post D. Resume operations

After investigators have left a fire scene, what is required for them to reenter the site? A. Any legitimate need for the visit B. A warrant C. Accompaniment by a law enforcement official D. Authorization of the chief fire official

An endothermic reaction is one that: A. requires a catalyst. B. absorbs heat. C. occurs in the absence of oxygen. D. releases energy.

An object in motion possesses which kind of energy as a result of that motion? A. Entropic B. Kinetic C. Potential D. Inertial

Another term for head pressure is __________ pressure. A. static B. elevation C. flow D. residual

Approximately how much does water weigh? A. 7.5 lb per gallon (3.4 kg) B. 8.3 lb per gallon (4 kg) C. 10.5 lb per gallon (4.8 kg) D. 12.2 lb per gallon (5.5 kg)

Are intermodal tanks pressurized or nonpressurized? A. They are neither pressurized nor nonpressurized. B. They can be either pressurized or nonpressurized. C. Pressurized only D. Nonpressurized only

As more companies are deployed at an incident, why must the incident management structure expand? A. To establish personnel accountability B. To maintain span of control C. To maintain unity of command D. To establish the modular organization

At an emergency scene, which action must occur before self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) is removed? A. A personnel accountability report has been performed B. Atmospheric monitoring by a qualified individual C. All remaining fire has been extinguished D. Salvage efforts are complete

Before raising an extension ladder, you should check to make sure the: A. foot is heeled. B. area is clear of overhead obstructions. C. halyard is secure. D. dogs are locked.

Body-over-frame construction is most likely to be found in which vehicle? A. Electric-drive B. Pickup truck C. Sedan D. Sports car

Carbon monoxide is described as having: A. the odor of freshly mown grass. B. no odor and no taste. C. the odor of almonds. D. a fruity odor and taste.

Chemicals pass into and through a material on a molecular level by: A. absorption. B. permeation. C. diffusion. D. infiltration.

Class A foams are formulated to be mixed with water in ratios from __________%. A. 0.2 to 0.5 B. 0.1 to 1.0 C. 1 to 3 D. 3 to 6

Class D agents work primarily by: A. penetrating the fuel. B. forming a crust over the fuel. C. suppressing vapor production. D. inhibiting the chemical chain reaction.

Closing the_____ valve is a method of shutting down the flow of water in a sprinkler system. A. alarm B. post indicator C. main water service D. main check

Common sensors in a multigas meter are: A. oxygen, carbon monoxide, and gasoline sensors. B. oxygen, hydrogen sulfide, and lower explosive limit sensors. C. oxygen, hydrogen cyanide, and carbon monoxide sensors. D. oxygen and lower explosive limit and carbon monoxide sensors.

Compared to fog nozzle streams, smooth-bore nozzle streams: A. are more effective for hydraulic ventilation. B. absorb less heat. C. are harder to handle. D. have a lower discharge volume.

Compared to wet foam, dry foam provides: A. faster knockdown. B. longer-lasting foam. C. shorter drain time. D. superior penetration.

Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on Class C fires because they: A. are chemically inert. B. do not conduct electricity. C. are noncorrosive. D. leave no residue.

During annual testing, attack hose is tested at what pressure? A. 200 psi (1379 kPa) B. 300 psi (2068 kPa) C. 400 psi (2757 kPa) D. 500 psi (3447 kPa)

During hazardous materials incidents, OSHA does not permit the incident commander and the __________ positions to be filled by the same person. A. operations section chief B. safety officer C. planning section chief D. hazardous materials branch director

During salvage operations, rolls of polyethylene film are particularly useful for protecting: A. high-piled stock. B. long surfaces. C. office equipment. D. cabinets/bookshelves.

Each U.S. state has the right to adopt and supersede safety and health regulations put forth by federal OSHA. The states that choose that option are: A. OSHA-exempt states. B. state-plan states. C. sub 6 states. D. compliant states.

Enhanced protective glass (EPG) is: A. polycarbonate. B. laminated. C. tempered. D. composite.

Fire fighters should be able to don and activate an SCBA within _____ seconds. A. 45 B. 60 C. 75 D. 90

Fire fighters should drink _____ of water for every 5 to 10 minutes of physical exertion. A. 2 to 4 oz (60 to 120 mL) B. 8 to 10 oz (0.2 to 0.3 L) C. 12 to 15 oz (0.35 to 0.45 L) D. 16 to 20 oz (0.5 to 0.6 L)

Fire hydrants should be inspected at least once every _____ months. A. 6 B. 12 C. 18 D. 24

Fire-retardant wood is treated with: A. aluminum oxide. B. mineral salts. C. calcium sulfate. D. urea.

Flammable liquid fires are Class: A. A. B. B. C. C. D. D.

For an area to qualify for the classification of "light hazard," most of the combustibles present must be: A. extinguishable by a portable fire extinguisher. B. arranged so that a fire is unlikely to spread. C. no more than moderately combustible. D. Class A only.

For forcible entry, who usually determines the point of entry? A. Chief officer B. Company officer C. Fire fighter D. Incident commander

For the purpose of extinguisher selection and placement, light hazard environments may contain a limited amount of combustibles of which class? A. K B. B C. C D. D

For the purpose of extinguisher selection and placement, what is an example of a light hazard environment? A. Self-storage building B. Classroom C. Parking garage D. Restaurant kitchen

For which application is dynamic rope especially well suited? A. Rescue B. Mountain climbing C. Hoisting D. Static loads

For which type of incident is a supplied-air respirator most likely to be used? A. Interior attack structure fire B. Industrial or some hazardous materials situations C. Trench rescue D. Aviation incident

For which type of occupancy is the 7, 9, 8 ventilation cut best suited? A. Single family residential B. Large commercial C. Multifamily residential D. Strip mall/taxpayer

For which type of search pattern do fire fighters turn right upon entering a room and then turn left at each corner around the room? A. Oriented B. Right-handed C. Clockwise D. Standard

From a doorway, a crew directs a hose stream at the ceiling of a burning room. This is a(n) __________ attack. A. direct B. indirect C. combination D. flanking

From the exterior, a crew directs a hose stream through the window of a burning room. This is a(n) __________ attack. A. direct B. indirect C. combination D. flanking

Generally speaking, a 1½" (38-mm) attack hose can flow: A. 50 to 100 gpm (189 to 379 lpm). B. 60 to 125 gpm (227 to 473 lpm). C. 75 to 150 gpm (284 to 566 lpm). D. 120 to 180 gpm (454 to 681 lpm).

Gypsum board that is exposed to fire for a prolonged time will: A. spall. B. fail. C. delaminate. D. warp.

Heat transfer in the form of invisible electromagnetic waves is called: A. conduction. B. radiation. C. convection. D. emission.

Hot, dry, red skin is most typical of heat: A. exhaustion. B. stroke. C. cramps. D. rash.

How are most windshields affixed in place? A. Spring retention clips B. Glue C. Mastic D. A rubber loop gasket

How are tasks assigned on the fire ground? A. Individuals are assigned tasks individually B. Tasks are assigned to and performed by individual companies C. Resources are pooled and deployed according to task D. Individuals are assigned tasks singly by the company officer

How are traffic hazards best managed? A. Road closure B. By law enforcement personnel C. Strategic placement of apparatus D. Use of cones and flares

How can an ionization smoke detector be identified? A. Low-profile, pancake shape B. Label stating that it contains radioactive material C. Lack of air vents D. Label stating that it contains carcinogenic material

How can recirculation be eliminated during smoke ejection? A. Pull the fan back from the opening a few inches. B. Completely block the opening around the fan. C. Increase the number or size of exhaust openings. D. Raise the fan in the opening.

How can you check the compatibility of a particular chemical-protective suit with a specific material? A. Check the suit's NFPA PPE classification label. B. Check the compatibility chart supplied by the manufacturer. C. Refer to the material compatibility table in the ERG. D. Check the suit's EPA PPE classification label.

How did the original vent-enter-search method differ from conventional search and rescue? A. Ventilation is performed before entry is made. B. It was often performed before any hose lines were deployed. C. The fire fighter is attached to a guide rope. D. All windows and doors are propped open during the search.

How does exposure to liquefied petroleum gas affect the body? A. There is no effect; the gas is inert and nontoxic B. The gas displaces breathing air C. The gas is a neurological toxin D. The gas causes pulmonary edema

How infectious is smallpox? A. It is not at all infectious. B. It is highly infectious. C. It can be infectious, but only in warm, moist environments. D. It can be infectious, but only to people with compromised immune systems.

How is an inspection of a private residence usually initiated? A. A complaint from a neighbor B. A request from the occupant C. A response to that residence D. Issuance of a new insurance policy

How is the concentration of a gas typically expressed? A. Parts per million (PPM) B. As a percentage C. pH D. Units of weight per unit of volume

How many building major use classifications are there? A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five

How many people are needed to use a battering ram? A. Two B. Two to four C. Four to six D. Six

How much risk to fire fighters is acceptable in attempting to save valuable property? A. None B. Limited C. Significant D. Unlimited

How prone are heat detectors to false alarms as compared to smoke detectors? A. More B. Less C. Equally D. It depends on the application.

How should an unconscious child be carried down a ladder? A. The rescuer's arms under the victim's arms, the victim's crotch on the rescuer's knee B. The victim cradled across the rescuer's arms C. The victim placed over the rescuer's shoulder, one arm holding the knees against the rescuer's chest D. The victim supported at the crotch and chest by the rescuer's arms

How should fire fighters approach a vehicle fire? A. 90-degree angle from the side B. 45-degree angle from the side C. Directly from the front D. Directly from the rear

Hypoxia is defined as: A. losing the ability to smell some types of odors. B. losing the capability of transporting oxygen in the blood. C. losing the capability of inhaling oxygen. D. gaining oxygen in the blood.

ICS was developed in response to: A. the September 11, 2001, attack on the World Trade Center. B. a series of fires in California in the 1970s. C. Hurricane Katrina. D. Hurricane Andrew.

Ideally, when should overhaul operations begin? A. As soon as resources are available B. After fire investigators have examined the scene C. Anytime after extinguishment D. Concurrently with salvage

Ideally, when should overhaul operations begin? A. Upon extinguishment of the fire B. After the fire investigator has examined the scene C. After criminal activity has been ruled out D. As soon as it is safe to do so

Ideally, which should be used to extinguish a chimney fire? A. CO2 B. Dry chemical C. Class A foam D. Water

If heated to a temperature of 1000ºF (540ºC), how far can a 100-foot (30-meter) steel beam elongate? A. 6 inches (15 mm) B. 9 inches (23 mm) C. 12 inches (30 mm) D. 15 inches (38 mm)

If it is necessary to isolate a hazardous materials incident, it will also be necessary to: A. take protective actions. B. deny entry. C. contain the material. D. evacuate.

If one member of a company needs rehabilitation, who goes to the rehabilitation area? A. All members who need it B. The entire company C. The member and his or her assigned buddy D. That member only

In 2016, approximately __________ fire fighters were killed in the line of duty in the United States. A. 50 B. 70 C. 100 D. 125

In a preaction system, one function of the main valve is to act as a: A. drain. B. dam. C. pressure regulator. D. tamper switch.

In general, a hazardous material in a __________ state will usually require the largest hot zone. A. liquid B. gas C. solid D. particulate

In general, chemical-protective garments should be tested at __________ intervals. A. 6-month B. 12-month C. 18-month D. 24-month

In general, mobile water supply apparatus (tankers) carry __________ of water. A. 1000 or fewer gal (3785 L or fewer) B. 1000 to 3500 gal (3785 to 13,249 L) C. 2000 to 5000 gal (7570 to 18,927 L) D. 3000 to 6000 gal (11,356 to 22,712 L)

In general, which type of incident requires the most time, planning, and forethought? A. Structure fire B. Hazardous materials incident with rescue C. Structure fire with rescue D. Hazardous materials incident with no life hazard

In hazardous materials preincident planning, once the agency has identified the threats in its jurisdiction, the agency should: A. take no further action. B. determine how it will respond. C. run full-scale drill exercises. D. run tabletop drill exercises.

In modern residential construction, fresh air enters the attic space through which vent? A. Ridge/peak B. Soffit C. Gable D. Roof

In the ICS, the __________ is the point of contact for representatives from outside agencies. A. public information officer B. liaison officer C. staging area manager D. incident commander

In the context of fire fighter survival, what is a safe location? A. Any safe haven or building used for sheltering in place B. A location that is less hazardous than the alternatives C. A temporary staging area immediately adjacent to the hazard zone D. Any location outside the threatened area

In the face of smoke inhalation, which of the following is an acceptable antidote to administer if you suspect hydrogen cyanide poisoning? A. Sodium hydroxide B. Amyl nitrite C. Methylene blue D. Hydroxocobalamin

In which construction type are there direct vertical channels in the exterior walls? A. Lightweight truss B. Balloon frame C. Heavy timber D. Unreinforced masonry

In which process is a material used to soak up and hold a liquid hazardous material like a sponge holds water? A. Adduction B. Absorption C. Abduction D. Osmosis

In which types of incidents should an accountability system be established? A. Those requiring entry into IDLH atmosphere B. All incidents C. Incidents with victims D. Incidents involving more than a single company

Initial size-up of an emergency incident is conducted by the: A. telecommunicator. B. first-arriving unit. C. reporting party. D. first-arriving chief officer.

Ladders consisting of a single section are _________ ladders. A. ground B. straight C. roof D. fly

Low-expansion foam has an expansion ratio of less than _____:1. A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40

Master stream devices are most commonly used for which operation? A. Offensive B. Defensive C. Transitional D. Blitz

Master stream devices are most commonly used for which operation? A. Offensive B. Defensive C. Combination D. Blitz

Materials are listed in the green section of the ERG because of their: A. flammability or explosion hazard. B. toxicity. C. reactivity. D. instability.

Most fires are caused by: A. uncontrollable or unpredictable events. B. avoidable actions or situations. C. unknown mechanisms. D. natural events.

Most master stream devices flow: A. 500 to 1200 gpm (1892 to 4542 lpm). B. 350 to 1500 gpm (1325 to 5678 lpm). C. 500 to 2000 gpm (1892 to 7570 lpm). D. 350 to 2500 gpm (1325 to 9463 lpm).

NFPA standards are ____________ codes and standards: A. administrative law. B. consensus-based. C. prescriptive. D. authoritative.

Normal temperature and pressure (NTP) for vapor pressures assume a standard ambient temperature of: A. 0°C. B. 20°C. C. 70°C. D. 100°C.

On a technical rescue incident, the first-arriving __________ establishes command. A. operations-level rescuer B. company officer C. responder with technical rescue training D. chief officer

On a three-fire-fighter ladder carry, how should the fire fighters align themselves? A. Two at the butt, one at the tip B. All three on the same side of the ladder C. Two on one side, one on the other D. Two at the tip, one at the butt

Operations are conducted from inside of the fire building in which type of operation? A. Rescue B. Offensive C. Defensive D. Tactical

Operations are conducted from inside the fire building in which type of attack? A. Rescue B. Offensive C. Defensive D. Tactical

Organizing an incident by breaking down the overall strategy into a series of smaller tasks is an example of: A. discipline. B. division of labor. C. unity of command. D. span of control.

Pipeline warning signs include a warning symbol, the pipeline owner's name, and a(n): A. United Nations identification number. B. emergency contact number. C. ERG guide number. D. hazard statement.

Portable pumps can deliver a maximum of: A. 250 gpm (946 lpm). B. 500 gpm (1893 lpm). C. 750 gpm (2839 lpm). D. 1000 gpm (3785 lpm).

Pressure readings on an SCBA cylinder gauge and remote pressure gauge should not differ by more than _____ %. A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25

Situational awareness is best summed up by which phrase? A. Knowing your objective and your tactics B. Seeing the big picture and avoiding tunnel vision C. Filtering out distractions and maintaining your focus D. Putting safety first

Smoke contains _____ highly toxic products of combustion or physical states of matter. A. two B. three C. four D. five

Smoke produced by some solid materials when they are first heated is typically which color? A. Mustard yellow B. White C. Brown D. Gray

Standard firefighting turnouts provide some protection against which forms of radiation? A. Alpha only B. Both alpha and beta C. Gamma only D. Neither alpha nor gamma

Telecommunicators should use _________ listening. A. critical B. active C. interrogatory D. interpretive

The DOT defines a hazardous material as one that poses an unreasonable risk when: A. it is being transported. B. it is not properly contained or stored. C. it is used in a reasonable, controlled manner. D. it is exposed to common environmental conditions.

The ERG refers to the __________ as the area downwind of the spill or leak where steps must be taken to protect the public. A. evacuation area B. protective action distance C. initial isolation zone D. exclusion zone

The ICS title of director is applied to the supervisor of a: A. section. B. branch. C. division. D. company.

The NFPA standard requires that a communications center be equipped with: A. a HEPA-grade air filtration system. B. backup systems for all the critical equipment. C. a reception area with a staffed watch desk. D. a private water supply.

The __________ is responsible for monitoring activities to ensure the safety of personnel. A. operations section chief B. safety officer C. medical officer D. compensation/claims unit leader

The __________ serves as the liaison between local and state levels of authority. A. local emergency planning committee B. state emergency response commission C. federal coordination and reporting hotline D. regional hazardous materials team

The alteration of the molecular nature of a material is known as a __________ change. A. physical B. chemical C. property D. matter

The area that is accessed in the warm zone is the: A. support. B. decontamination corridor. C. exclusion. D. isolation perimeter.

The first portable light should be set up: A. on the "A" side of the structure. B. at the entry point into the structure. C. on the "C" side of the structure. D. as close as possible to the seat of the fire.

The following is a list of actions that might be taken on a hazardous materials incident. Which action is appropriate for operations level responders, but not for awareness level responders? A. Avoid contact with the material. B. Take steps to contain the release. C. Eliminate ignition sources. D. Use the Emergency Response Guide to identify the material.

The function of which item is to connect individual lengths of hose together? A. Appliance B. Coupling C. Higbee D. Rocker

The hazardous materials branch director reports to the: A. incident commander. B. operations section chief. C. logistics section chief. D. resource unit leader.

The hydrostatic test interval for a dry chemical extinguisher with a stainless-steel shell is every _____ years. A. 3 B. 5 C. 10 D. 12

The majority of fire fighter injuries are: A. soft-tissue injuries. B. overexertion or strain. C. burns. D. inhalation injuries.

The military hazardous materials/WMD marking system is based on __________ hazards. A. detonation and exposure B. detonation and fire C. exposure and fire D. explosion and detonation

The minimum slope of a high-angle rescue operation is _____ degrees. A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 75

The most likely cause of leaking between two joined couplings is a damaged or missing: A. compression gasket. B. swivel gasket. C. shank gasket. D. expansion ring.

The neutral plane is most directly associated with: A. heat flux. B. thermal layering. C. flow path. D. fuel continuity.

The outer shell of structural firefighting protective clothing is constructed of a flame-resistant materials such as Nomex, Kevlar or _________? A. Durex B. PBI C. Treated cotton duck D. Thermax

The pipes that deliver water from the treatment facility for distribution are: A. secondaries. B. mains. C. distributors. D. trunks.

The planning section is part of which ICS element? A. Command staff B. General staff C. Logistics section D. Sit-stat group

The primary function of a fire helmet's __________ is intended to provide thermal protection. A. outer shell B. inner liner C. vapor barrier D. suspension system

The production and use of Halon extinguishing agents is limited because they are: A. mutagenic. B. harmful to the earth's ozone layer. C. a chemical asphyxiant. D. carcinogenic.

The quantity of water that is being moved through a pipe or hose is termed the: A. pressure. B. flow. C. throughput. D. stream.

The top and bottom rails of a trussed beam are joined by: A. tie rods. B. truss blocks. C. A-plates. D. I-beams.

The two-fire-fighter stiff-arm method is used to: A. advance a charged line. B. uncouple hose. C. reload LDH into a hose bed. D. make hard suction hose connections.

The use of a fan to blow clean air into a structure and force fire gases out is known as__________ ventilation. A. mechanical B. positive-pressure C. horizontal D. ejection

The use of plain language in radio communication is recommended by the NFPA and _____________________: A. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA). B. National Incident Management System (NIMS). C. The US Fire Administration (USFA). D. Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

The volume of space in which the movement of cooler air enters through an inlet vent and the space where hot gases and smoke exit through an exhaust outlet is the: A. ventilation track. B. flow path. C. thermal gradient. D. convective flow.

To force an inward-opening door, which part of the Halligan bar is inserted between the door and the jamb? A. Fork B. Adze C. Blade D. Pick

Tool failure and possibly injury could result from attempting to cut __________ with ordinary cutting tools. A. masonry B. case-hardened steel C. proof coil D. braided wire

Turnout coats and trousers have a protective system that consists of _____ layers. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Under actual firefighting conditions, an SCBA cylinder rated for 45 minutes can be realistically expected to last approximately _____ minutes. A. 10-15 B. 20-25 C. 30-35 D. 35-40

Under what circumstances are alpha particles the most harmful to the human body? A. When the skin is wet B. When they are ingested or inhaled C. When the victim has no shielding other than clothing D. When the emanating source is wet

Unified command is used to address which situation? A. All command and general staff positions have been activated B. The incident involves more than one jurisdiction or agency C. The duration of the incident will span several operational periods D. There is a lack of consensus among command staff

What are actions that stop a hazardous material from leaking or escaping its container? A. Confinement B. Containment C. Control D. Mitigation

What are gusset plates? A. Long strips of metal that are sandwiched by wood beam members B. Connecting plates made of a thin sheet of steel C. The vertical members of a truss assembly D. Structural sheathing designed to resist shear forces

What are the vertical support members that hold up the roof on a vehicle? A. Spars B. Posts C. Frames D. Columns

What characteristic of a gas is quantified as its vapor density? A. Its tendency to dissipate in open air B. Its weight relative to air C. How much moisture it contains D. How thickly it boils

What chemical-protective clothing is a single-piece garment that totally encloses the wearer? A. Splash suit B. Encapsulating suit C. Proximity suit D. Chemical-protective suit

What do company officers do when the incident commander requests a personnel accountability report (PAR)? A. Report with the company to the staging area B. Physically verify that all assigned members are present C. Report with the company to rehab D. Collect the passports from company members

What does a rating of 40 on a Class B extinguisher mean? A. BTU absorption comparable to 40 gallons (150 L) of water B. Sufficient extinguishing power for 40 ft² (4.7 m²) of burning fuel C. Sufficient extinguishing power for 40 gallons (150 L) of burning fuel D. Discharge duration of at least 40 seconds

What does activation of a water-motor gong indicate? A. A fault within the system B. Water flowing in the system C. Tampering of the system D. Low system water pressure

What does an automatic location identification (ALI) system rely on to be effective? A. A direct line B. An accurate and current database C. A minimum 30-second call duration D. The caller's name

What does fast-moving smoke indicate? A. Poorly ventilated ventilation-controlled fire B. Very hot fire C. High synthetic fuel content D. Incomplete combustion

What does it mean when a fire extinguisher has a pictograph with a red slash through it? A. Use on that class of fire would be ineffective B. Use on that class of fire could be unsafe C. The fire extinguisher has not been tested for use on that class of fire D. The fire extinguisher is rated for use on that class of fire

What does smoke puffing in and out of a structure indicate? A. Impending structural collapse B. Backdraft conditions C. Growth-stage fire D. Imminent flashover

What does the "I" stand for in the FAILURE acronym? A. Improper technique attempted B. Inadequate rescue skills C. IC not in control D. Integrity not maintained

What does the "R" stand for in "PAR"? A. Roster B. Report C. Resource D. Rescue

What does the "R" stand for in the LUNAR acronym? A. Rescue needed B. Resources C. Repeat transmission D. Responding

What does the "S" stand for in "RECEO-VS"? A. Span of control B. Salvage C. Size-up D. Search

What does the "buddy system" refer to? A. The passport personnel accountability system B. A team of at least two members who maintain constant contact C. The tradition of "No one left behind" D. Two-in, two-out

What does the Golden Rule mean when applied to the fire service? A. Working as a team is essential to success B. Treat everyone else as if they were a member of your family C. Stay humble and teachable, and be willing to teach others D. Honor the job by working hard and doing your best

What does the R stand for in ERG? A. Radiological B. Response C. Region D. Rules

What does the term "mayday" mean? A. Everyone withdraw from the hazard area B. A fire fighter is in trouble and needs assistance C. Hold all radio traffic D. Deploy the rapid intervention crew (RIC)

What does the term "packaging" mean in the context of technical rescue? A. The tendency for one incident to cause others B. Preparing the victim for removal as a unit C. Assigning related tasks to a single company D. Preparing the scene for the safe removal of victims

What does the yellow diamond on the NFPA 704 symbol indicate? A. Flammability B. Instability C. Special hazards D. Health

What happens if a CAD system detects that an invalid address is being entered? A. It sends a full first alarm assignment to each possible location B. It prompts the telecommunicator to ask the caller for additional information C. It offers a best estimate of the correct location D. It sends a single unit to the nearest valid location

What happens if a windshield is struck with a spring-loaded center punch? A. The windshield shatters into small pieces B. A small chip or crack will appear C. The windshield will fracture but remain intact D. The windshield breaks into large, sharp pieces

What happens to the personnel accountability passports at the scene of an incident? A. They are carried by the company officer B. They are left with a designee at the command post or hazardous area entry point C. They are left in the cab of the apparatus to be collected by a designee D. They are distributed to the company members

What information does the ERG provide to awareness level hazardous materials personnel when responding to an incident? A. Detailed information on material properties B. Initial actions to take at a hazardous materials incident C. Mitigation and recovery procedures D. Decontamination and environmental remediation procedures

What is Level D protection? A. Chemical splash-protective clothing B. Standard work clothing C. Any type of clothing worn with respiratory protection D. Vapor-protective clothing

What is Type V construction? A. Fire resistive B. Wood frame C. Ordinary D. Lightweight

What is a common salvage operation? A. Utility control B. Covering ventilation openings C. Pulling ceilings D. Determining the cause and origin of the fire

What is a concern when a gaseous suppression system is activated? A. Electrically conductive residue B. Oxygen-deficient atmosphere C. Corrosive residue D. Cold-related injury

What is a fire fighter's initial objective during a confined-space incident? A. Stabilize the situation B. Secure the scene C. Make contact with the victim D. Call for needed resources

What is a ladder I-beam usually made of? A. Alloy B. Fiberglass C. Truss blocks D. Wood

What is a limitation of backpack water vacuums? A. Lift is limited to approximately 3 ft B. They cannot be worn with SCBA C. They must be used in a well-ventilated area D. They cannot be used with dirty water

What is a limitation of forced-air cooling systems used with fully encapsulating PPE? A. Limited operational time B. Limited mobility C. Significant added weight D. Reduced air time

What is a method commonly used to attach individual fire fighters' personnel accountability tags to the board on the apparatus? A. Torx-head screw B. Velcro™ C. Clear vinyl pockets D. Spring clips

What is a strike team? A. A group of resources that travels to the incident, to be deployed individually upon arrival B. Two or more single resources of the same type with an assigned supervisor C. A team of resources that remains intact throughout its involvement in the incident D. Any combination of resources temporarily assembled for a specific purpose

What is an approved treatment to prevent rusting of unpainted metal tool surfaces? A. Paint B. A light film of oil C. A nonflammable rust inhibitor D. Cosmoline

What is another term for fire point? A. Ignition point B. Flame point C. Flash point D. Autoignition temperature

What is correct ladder placement when breaking a window for ventilation? A. Centered on the window, tip just below the sill B. On the upwind side of the window, tip level with the top of the window C. Centered on the window, tip on the wall just above the window D. On the most accessible side of the window, tip level with the sill

What is hard suction hose most commonly used for? A. Transferring water from a pressurized source to a pump B. Drafting from a static water source C. Relay pumping D. Filling a portable tank

What is one of the basic hand tools that an interior search and rescue team should carry? A. Power saw B. Prying tool C. Reciprocating saw D. Rotating tool

What is the Department of Transportation's hazard class for toxic substances? A. 8 B. 6 C. 4 D. 1

What is the ICS organizational title for a member of the general staff? A. Director B. Chief C. Manager D. Officer

What is the ICS term for a geographically defined area of operations? A. Group B. Division C. Sector D. Branch

What is the ICS term for companies or crews working on the same task or function? A. Division B. Group C. Unit D. Branch

What is the ICS title for the person in charge of a branch? A. Chief B. Director C. Manager D. Supervisor

What is the NFPA standard on vapor-protective ensembles for hazardous materials emergencies? A. 1992 B. 1991 C. 1990 D. 1900

What is the U-shaped part of a padlock that locks into the padlock body? A. Latch B. Shackle C. Tongue D. Bow

What is the acronym for the OSHA federal document containing hazardous materials response competencies? A. HAZEL B. HAZWOPER C. HADDOCK D. HAPPIER

What is the acronym for the detailed profile of a single chemical or mixture that is provided by the manufacturer and/or supplier of a chemical and is collected by the LEPC in a jurisdiction? A. INSECT B. SDS C. UNLOCK D. ANDS

What is the approximate floor-to-windowsill height of a residential structure? A. 2.5 feet (0.75 m) B. 3 feet (1 m) C. 3.5 feet (1.25 m) D. 4 feet (1.5 m)

What is the best source of information for identifying building layout, stairways, and exits? A. 360° survey B. Preincident plan C. Occupant description D. Initial entry crews

What is the best way to extinguish a Class C fire? A. Withdraw to a safe distance and let the fire burn itself out B. Shut off the power and treat it as a Class A or B fire C. Use a Class C extinguisher D. Shut off the fuel flow at a valve

What is the correct method to stop the flow of gas into a structure supplied by an outside LPG storage cylinder? A. Rotate the quarter-turn valve at the meter. B. Close the valve on the cylinder. C. Disconnect the cylinder. D. Delegate the task to the gas service company.

What is the correct procedure when performing extrication in a vehicle with an undeployed air bag? A. Place a rigid barrier between the victim and the air bag B. Stay away from the front of the air bag C. Cut the orange wires in the rocker panel D. Remove the steering wheel

What is the designation for the posts located between the front and rear doors on a four-door vehicle? A. The 2-posts B. The B-posts C. The mid-posts D. The short posts

What is the expansion ratio of cryogenic helium? A. 1500:1 B. 750:1 C. 300:1 D. 19:1

What is the first step in a dilution operation? A. Determine material compatibility. B. Assess the viability of the proposed operation. C. Ensure adequate water supply. D. Build containment for the diluted product.

What is the intention of an indirect fire attack? A. Extinguish all visible flame B. Cool hot gases in the fire compartment C. Contain the fire to the room of origin D. Fill the fire compartment with steam

What is the lowest temperature at which a fuel-air mixture will ignite in the presence of air and continue to burn? A. Fire point B. Ignition temperature C. Flash point D. Specific heat

What is the main purpose of the secondary search? A. Locate occupants not in immediate danger B. Locate any victims not found by the primary search C. Double-check the primary search area D. Find evidence of cause and origin

What is the maximum design pressure, in pounds per square inch, for a large, fixed-site, compressed-gas cylinder? A. Up to 2000 B. 5000 or more C. Between 10,000 and 15,000 D. Up to and over 15,000

What is the minimum number of fire fighters needed to advance and maneuver a 2½" (65-mm) handline inside a building? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

What is the minimum number of fire fighters required to make up a firefighting team? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

What is the minimum size hose line for a vehicle fire? A. 1" (25 mm) B. 1½" (38 mm) C. 1¾" (45 mm) D. 2½" (65 mm)

What is the most common method of transporting hazardous materials? A. Rail B. Road C. Air D. Sea

What is the most common problem associated with wearing chemical-protective clothing? A. Claustrophobia B. Heat-related stressors C. Strains and sprains D. Abrasions

What is the most important reason for team integrity in firefighting operations? A. Chain of command B. Safety of personnel C. Span of control D. Tactical effectiveness

What is the most severe hazard associated with propane products? A. Asphyxiation B. BLEVE C. Cryogenic injury D. Fuel leak

What is the open space between the ceiling of the top floor and the underside of the roof of a building? A. Roof chase B. Cockloft C. Eave D. Mansard

What is the primary function of the purge/bypass valve on an SCBA regulator? A. Switch between pressure and pressure-demand modes B. Provide an emergency air supply in the event of a malfunction C. De-fog the face piece interior D. Bleed off residual pressure after the cylinder valve has been closed

What is the process by which chemicals enter the body through the gastrointestinal tract? A. Absorption B. Ingestion C. Injection D. Inhalation

What is the process of heating a solid fuel so that it liberates gaseous fuel vapors? A. Vaporization B. Pyrolysis C. Oxidation D. Electrolysis

What is the purpose of a control zone? A. To mark the transition from the cold zone into the warm zone B. To prevent access by unauthorized personnel into the emergency scene C. To mark the transition from the warm zone into the hot zone D. To prevent spread of material from inside the perimeter to outside the perimeter

What is the purpose of a secondary device? A. Initiate detonation of the primary device B. Kill and injure emergency personnel C. Act as backup in case of failure of the primary device D. Create misdirection or a diversion

What is the purpose of an outside stem and yoke valve? A. Control the water supply to the individual system branches B. Control the water supply to the sprinkler system C. Prevent backflow from the system to the water supply D. Drain the sprinkler system

What is the realistic minimum usable residual pressure from a water distribution system for firefighting operations? A. 0 psi (0 kPa) B. 20 psi (138 kPa) C. 30 psi (207 kPa) D. 40 psi (276 kPa)

What is the relationship between resistance and heat as electricity flows through a wire? A. There is no relationship between the two. B. As resistance increases, heat increases. C. As resistance decreases, heat increases. D. As resistance increases, heat decreases.

What is the second step in the five-step process of emergency incident dispatch? A. Classification/prioritization B. Location validation C. Confirmation D. Caller interrogation

What is the target of the hose stream in an indirect attack? A. The base of the fire B. The ceiling of the fire room C. As close to the fire as possible D. The most threatened exposure

What is the temperature at which a liquid fuel gives off sufficient vapor such that when an ignition source is present the vapors will ignite? A. Flammable range B. Flash point C. Fire point D. Ignition temperature

What is the term for a manual fire alarm station that requires two separate steps to activate the alarm? A. Two-stage activation switch B. Double-action pull station C. Duplex alarm station D. Tamper-resistant alarm box

What is the term for a person having a radioactive material on his or her clothing? A. Exposure B. Contamination C. Absorption D. Contact

What is the term for a voluntary home fire inspection requested by a homeowner? A. Voluntary safety inspection B. Home fire safety survey C. Home inspection program D. Residential hazard survey

What is the term for a water-soluble flammable liquid? A. Hypergolic fuel B. Polar solvent C. Solute D. Miscible liquid

What is the term for an ignition source that has enough heat energy to ignite the fuel and remains in contact with it long enough to cause ignition? A. Proximate B. Competent C. Causative D. Effectual

What is the term for an open space within a wall where wires and pipes run? A. Soffit B. Chase C. Bay D. Channel

What is the term for attempting to keep the hazardous materials on the site or within the immediate area of the release? A. Adsorption B. Confinement C. Remediation D. Containment

What is the term for communications center dispatchers? A. Public safety answering technicians B. Telecommunicators C. 911 receptionists D. Signals technicians

What is the term for operations undertaken to find and extinguish any remaining pockets of fire? A. Cold-trailing B. Overhaul C. Breaching D. Secondary search

What is the term for shipping documentation carried on marine vessels? A. Waybill B. Manifest C. Consist D. Bill of lading

What is the term for temperature in a room reaching the point where all exposed surfaces in room ignite? A. Autoignition B. Flashover C. Backdraft D. Rollover

What is the term for the amount of solute dissolved in a given amount of solution? A. Dispersion B. Concentration C. Diffusion D. pH

What is the term for the area that immediately surrounds the hazard? A. Entry zone B. Hot zone C. Warm zone D. Rescue area

What is the term for the evaluation of an action's potential positive results and its potential negative consequences? A. Size-up B. Risk-benefit analysis C. Primary survey D. Strategic analysis

What is the term for the physical destruction or decomposition of a clothing material due to chemical exposure, general use, or ambient conditions? A. Disintegration B. Degradation C. Deterioration D. Impregnation

What is the term for the pressure exerted by the vapor of a liquid until the vapor and the liquid are in equilibrium? A. Vapor density B. Vapor pressure C. Head pressure D. Head density

What is the term for the process of reducing the effects of fatigue during an emergency operation? A. Recuperation B. Rehabilitation C. Restoration D. Recovery

What is the term for the substance that puts out the fire? A. Propellant B. Extinguishing agent C. Dry charge D. Live load

What is the term for the transparent part of a window? A. Glass B. Glazing C. Lens D. Light

What is the term for the weather-resistant surface of a roof? A. Decking B. Covering C. Skin D. Tar paper

What is the vapor density of air? A. 0.0 B. 1.0 C. 14.7 D. 29.9

What is used as a measurement of the corrosive strength of a substance? A. Corrosivity index B. pH C. Sed rate D. Partial pressure

What kind of agent is anthrax? A. Blood agent B. Infectious disease C. Chemical asphyxiant D. Neurotransmitter

What level of chemical-protective clothing would a fire fighter wear if he or she needed a high level of respiratory protection, but less skin protection? A. A B. B C. C D. D

What medical intervention was developed as an antidote to nerve agent exposure? A. Pam-2 B. DuoDote C. P-tab D. Physostigmine

What part of the body does bubonic plague attack? A. Liver and kidneys B. Lymph nodes C. Immune system D. Brain

What should be used to clean dirty fire hose? A. A dilute bleach solution B. Mild detergent C. TSP (trisodium phosphate) D. Class A foam

What should company officers do if they believe there is a change in the balance of risk to benefit during an incident? A. Change their tactics accordingly B. Report their observations to the incident commander C. Continue with their assignments D. Withdraw without delay

What term refers to when a person's internal body temperature falls below 95°F? A. Hypoglycemia B. Hypothermia C. Hyperactivity D. Hypertempura

What type of changes can chemicals undergo when subjected to outside influences, such as heat, cold, and pressure? A. Thermoplastic B. Physical C. Thermodynamic D. Spatial

What type of dam should be constructed for a material that has a specific gravity greater than 1? A. Scherring B. Overflow C. Separation D. Gravity

What would be a typical pressure reading, in pounds per square inch, on a standard oxygen cylinder used in the medical field? A. 20,000 B. 2000 C. 200 D. 20

When approaching a burning flammable liquid vessel to operate the valve, which combination of hose streams should be used? A. One 1¾" (38 mm) B. Two 1¾" (45 mm) C. One 2½" (65 mm) D. Two 2½" (65 mm)

When approaching a potential confined space incident, what should you assume? A. The victim can be rescued B. An IDLH atmosphere is present C. There is an engulfment hazard D. There will be subsequent litigation

When are company officers and safety officers involved in risk-benefit analysis? A. When assigned this task by the incident commander B. On an ongoing basis C. At each completion benchmark D. At the beginning and end of each operational period

When assisting a conscious victim down a ladder, how can the rescuer maintain control of the victim's descent? A. Tie the victim to a rope looped over a rung. B. Squeeze the victim against the ladder. C. Tie the victim to the rescuer. D. Stand on the same rung as the victim.

When charging a supply line at a hydrant, the fire fighter should: A. place the hose clamp before opening the hydrant. B. avoid standing between the hose line and the hydrant. C. check that the hydrant strap is secure. D. fully open the stem and then back it off one full turn.

When doffing the Level C chemical-protective clothing ensemble, what is the last piece of equipment removed? A. Suit B. Respirator C. Gloves D. Boots

When foam is applied to a hazardous materials spill, what happens to the volume of the spill? A. It decreases. B. It increases. C. It remains the same. D. It depends on the substance involved.

When forcible entry is used, what should fire fighters do before leaving the scene? A. Make the occupant aware of the unsecured openings B. Take steps to secure the building C. Bring the matter to the attention of law enforcement personnel D. Photograph and document the damage

When is it permissible for fire fighters to wear partial PPE during salvage operations? A. After the fire is declared under control B. In areas remote from the hazard area C. After the fire has been extinguished D. Never

When lifting a ladder from the ground into the carrying position during the three-fire-fighter flat-shoulder carry, all three fire fighters should: A. step toward the butt. B. pivot during the lift. C. move their hands from the beam to the rung. D. move to the same side.

When lowering an unconscious child down a ladder, where should the rescuer's hands be? A. On the same rung B. On the beams C. On different rungs D. One on a rung, the other on a beam

When operating at an MVA, when is it permissible not to wear a high-visibility vest? A. When working inside the passenger compartment B. While fighting fire C. While operating extrication tools D. It is never permissible not to wear the vest at an MVA.

When raising a ladder, it should be kept a minimum of _____ from power lines. A. 5 ft (1.5 m) B. 10 ft (3 m) C. 15 ft (4.5 m) D. 20 ft (6 m)

When rescuing an unconscious child or small adult from a window, how many rescuers enter the window to assist the victim? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

When responding to domestic disputes or other scenes involving violence, fire fighters should: A. attempt to mediate the dispute. B. wait for law enforcement to declare the scene safe. C. call for a critical incident stress debriefing team. D. remove the involved individuals to separate rooms.

When should the fire fighter at the hydrant charge the supply line? A. As soon as it is connected to the hydrant B. Upon receiving a signal from the driver/operator C. After the supply line is connected to the pump intake D. After placing the hose clamp

When should the pre-entrance medical monitoring be completed? A. Within the past year B. Just prior to donning PPE C. When first reporting for duty D. Immediately upon arrival

When the letters LD or LC are followed by a number, what does that number indicate? A. The average short-term exposure limit B. The percentage of test subjects that will die when exposed to a specified amount C. The lethal amount for all subjects of a specific test group D. The average permissible exposure limit

When there is extra hose at the entry of a building, how should that hose be arranged? A. Large, loose coils B. A serpentine pattern C. A straight line D. Similar to an accordion fold

When under great pressure, most people's behavior will revert to: A. instinct. B. habit. C. common sense. D. previous experience.

Where are dry-barrel hydrants typically located? A. Static water supplies B. Cold climates C. Dedicated fire protection water systems D. Areas subject to frequent vandalism

Where are shut-off valves located on MC-331 cargo tanks? A. In the vent housing B. At both ends of the tank C. Near the front of the cab D. In the valve box

Where is a main sprinkler system valve usually installed? A. Outside the building, coming up out of the ground on a post B. On the main riser, above the water supply control valve C. Near the FDC D. On the main riser, below the water supply control valve

Where is the base of a hydraulic ram placed when performing a dash roll? A. Base of the A-post B. Base of the B-post C. Between the B-post hinges D. In the notch on the doorsill

Where is the main valve located in a dry-barrel hydrant? A. In the riser B. Below the frost line C. In the bonnet D. At the discharge

Where is the power supply control for an escalator usually located? A. At the top and bottom of the handrail B. Under the top landing or step plate C. In the escalator mechanical room D. Under a sidewall access plate

Where on a pumper is the trash line most commonly found? A. Transverse bed B. Front bumper C. Sideboard D. The hose reel

Where should a fire fighter stand when breaking windows? A. Windward side of the window with the hands below the break B. Windward side of the window with the hands above the break C. Leeward side of the window with the hands below the break D. Leeward side of the window with the hands above the break

Where should the command post be located? A. On either front corner of the building B. In a nearby, protected location C. At the forward observation limit D. Adjacent to the incident perimeter

Where should the posts be cut when removing the roof of a vehicle? A. Between the hinges B. As low as possible C. At the junction with the roof D. At the level of the window sill

Where was the first fire insurance company formed in America? A. Chicago, Illinois B. Charleston, South Carolina C. New York, New York D. Boston, Massachusetts

Which ICS section is responsible for providing needed services, facilities, supplies, and other forms of support? A. Planning B. Logistics C. Resources D. Facilities

Which ICS section is responsible for taking direct action to control the incident? A. Division B. Operations C. Tactics D. Command

Which ICS section is responsible for the accounting and financial aspects of an incident? A. Cost unit B. Finance/administration C. Planning D. Logistics

Which ICS section is responsible for the financial and accounting aspect of an incident? A. Legal/Accounting B. Finance/Administration C. Planning D. Logistics

Which ICS section tracks the status of incident resources? A. Logistics B. Planning C. Staging D. Documentation

Which NFPA standard addresses competencies for hazardous materials/WMD responders? A. 1500 B. 1072 C. 1902 D. 1421

Which NFPA standard contains a complete list of qualifications for telecommunicators? A. 1051 B. 1061 C. 1071 D. 1081

Which OSHA standard mandates the use of backup teams at incidents where operations are conducted in an IDLH atmosphere? A. 1500.120 B. 1910.134 C. 2000.471 D. 2610.472

Which action is particularly dangerous when dealing with a ventilation-limited fire? A. Vertical ventilation B. Creating exterior openings C. Transitional attack D. Limiting the clean air supply

Which action is potentially hazardous while raising an extension ladder? A. Hoisting the halyard with the hands in the "thumbs up" position B. Placing a foot under a fly section C. Anchoring the ladder with a foot against a rail D. Tying off the halyard on a bed-section rung

Which action should be avoided when performing horizontal natural ventilation? A. Simultaneous use of multiple openings B. Opening upwind windows first C. Use on a windy day D. Initiating a fire attack prior to ventilation

Which agency develops model building codes? A. Insurance Services Office B. International Code Council C. Underwriters Laboratory D. U.S. Fire Administration

Which appliance is used to connect hose couplings with dissimilar threads? A. Fitting B. Adaptor C. Siamese D. Hose jacket

Which are developed to provide definitive guidelines for present and future actions? A. Regulations B. Policies C. Standard operating procedures D. Tactical objectives

Which attack line load is particularly useful when there is a long distance between the engine and the fire? A. Triple layer B. Wyed lines C. Minuteman D. Skid

Which carry works best for children and small adults? A. Chair B. Cradle-in-arms C. Extremities D. Incline

Which circular saw blade is susceptible to damage from gasoline vapors? A. All blades B. Masonry C. Wood D. Polycarbonate

Which class of fire includes flammable and combustible liquids? A. A B. B C. C D. D

Which class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a flame and gasoline can? A. A B. B C. C D. D

Which class of standpipe system is unsuitable for use by fire fighters? A. I B. II C. III D. None of these is correct.

Which construction assembly is the most susceptible to total failure resulting from the failure of a small section? A. Cantilever B. Truss C. Bearing wall D. Roof panel

Which construction feature presents the greatest collapse hazard? A. Steel structural elements B. Modern lightweight construction C. Balloon construction D. Masonry bearing walls

Which construction technique builds one floor at a time with a firestop between each floor? A. Flitch plate B. Platform-frame C. Balloon D. Ordinary

Which coupling goes on the inside of a straight hose roll? A. Female B. Male C. Either D. Both couplings are attached

Which cultural characteristic means taking action even though you have doubts or fears about the consequences? A. Integrity B. Moral courage C. Honor D. Steadfastness

Which device activates the building fire alarm when water is flowing in a sprinkler system? A. Check valve B. Water flow alarm device C. Activator switch D. Alarm valve

Which device is installed on the system side of a dry-pipe valve to quickly remove the air from the dry-pipe system when a sprinkler head activates? A. Accelerator B. Exhauster C. Air drain D. Preaction valve

Which entity creates consensus-based standards? A. Environmental Protection Agency B. National Fire Protection Association C. Congress D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

Which extinguishing agent is suitable for use on a Class C fire? A. Carbon tetrachloride B. Carbon dioxide C. Dry powder D. Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF)

Which factor commonly limits the use of helicopters for victim transport? A. The effect of rotor wash on ground conditions B. Weather conditions C. Medical conditions that are exacerbated by flight D. Expense

Which factor weighs in favor of an offensive attack? A. Hazardous materials are present B. Bystanders report the building is occupied C. Dark, turbulent smoke D. Known lightweight construction

Which federal agency makes individual agents available to assist local jurisdictions with fire investigations? A. FBI B. ATF C. DOJ D. DHS

Which fire alarm system requires fire fighters to search the entire building to locate the activated initiation device? A. Master-coded B. Noncoded C. Zoned noncoded D. Zoned coded

Which fire extinguishing agent is best for use on sensitive electronic equipment? A. Loaded stream B. Carbon dioxide C. Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF) D. Ammonium phosphate

Which fire was the precursor for today's NFPA 101 Life Safety Code and helped bring about changes like sprinkler systems where more than 25 people work above ground level? A. Ohio State Penitentiary B. Triangle Shirtwaist Factory Fire C. Beverly Hills Supper Club D. Iroquois Theatre

Which fire-extinguishing agent listed here is best suited for use in areas housing computers or electronic equipment? A. Urea-potassium bicarbonate B. Carbon dioxide C. High-expansion foam D. Monoammonium phosphate

Which form of heat transfer travels in all directions? A. Convection B. Thermal radiation C. Conduction D. Direct contact

Which function should occur in the warm zone? A. Command post B. Decontamination corridor C. Triage area D. Staging area

Which hazard is of particular concern with the use of gasoline-powered portable pumps? A. Heat buildup B. Carbon monoxide C. Noise D. Electrical shock

Which hose appliance combines two hose lines into one? A. Wye B. Siamese C. Reducer D. Manifold

Which hose diameter is used as both supply line and attack handline? A. 1¾" (44 mm) B. 2½" (65 mm) C. 2¾" (70 mm) D. 3" (76 mm)

Which hydrant valve makes it possible to immediately charge a supply hose using hydrant pressure, while allowing a second engine to connect to the valve and use its pump to increase pressure? A. Gated manifold B. Four-way C. Clappered wye D. Gleason

Which is a common cause of deterioration in natural fiber ropes? A. Storage in a low-humidity environment B. Mildew C. Storage in a rope bag D. Infrequent use

Which is a common cause of secondary collapse at a trench rescue incident? A. Shifting of debris B. Personnel at the edge of the trench C. Wall shear D. Terracing

Which is a commonly used evacuation signal? A. Radio broadcast of a sustained, 5-second alert tone B. A sequence of 3 blasts on an apparatus air horn C. Radio broadcast of a rapid sequence of 5 short alert tones D. On-off operation of apparatus siren, sustained for 10 seconds

Which is a component of the fire triangle? A. Catalyst B. Heat C. Chemical chain reaction D. Ignition source

Which is a correct statement about tool staging at a TRI? A. The tool staging area should be co-located with the vehicle staging area. B. Needed tools may be identified during the size-up process. C. The staged tool inventory should be identical to that used during a fire. D. Each group or division should have its own tool staging area.

Which is a defining characteristic of utility rope? A. It is de-rated or expired rescue rope. B. It must not be used to support the weight of a person. C. It features natural fiber construction. D. It has a minimum breaking strength of 300 lb (135 kg).

Which is a distinguishing feature of the oriented search method? A. All searchers are tied into a search rope. B. The officer remains outside the room being searched. C. Room access is through an exterior opening. D. Contact with a wall is maintained at all times.

Which is a form of secondary loss? A. Injury sustained after extinguishment B. Water damage C. Electrical overload D. Burnt combustibles

Which is a key characteristic of the incident command system? A. Delegation of authority B. Span of control C. Preprogrammed response D. Management by objective

Which is a key characteristic of the incident command system? A. Resource conservation B. Incident action plans C. Preincident planning D. Reciprocal aid agreements

Which is a requirement of a competent ignition source? A. Design and intent B. Heat source and fuel in contact long enough to reach ignition temperature C. An act or omission D. A mechanical or chemical process capable of producing combustion

Which is a sign that a structure is susceptible to collapse? A. Discolored drywall at floor level B. Doors stuck in shifted frames C. Delaminated plywood D. Inverted fire patterns

Which is a standard component of a CMU? A. Gypsum overlay B. Steel reinforcing rods C. Thermal expansion joints D. I-bars

Which is a two-dimensional fire? A. Ground cover fire B. Ignited flammable liquid spill on open ground C. Roof fire D. Fire contained within a void space

Which is an advantage of a forward lay? A. Greater tactical flexibility B. Places the attack engine and its equipment close to the fire C. Greater supply volumes D. Can be performed solely by the driver/operator without assistance

Which is an advantage of a straight stream over a fog stream? A. Greater heat absorption B. Longer reach C. Increased surface area of the stream D. Less nozzle reaction

Which is an advantage of an automatic-adjusting fog nozzle? A. The nozzle reaction remains constant despite variations in pump pressure. B. The rate of flow adjusts to maintain the rated nozzle pressure. C. The flow from the nozzle remains constant despite variations in pressure. D. The flow rate remains constant regardless of the discharge pattern.

Which is an approved material for structural firefighting boots? A. Extos® B. Leather C. Polymeric synthetic D. Gore-Tex®

Which is an attribute of a "wet" Class A foam? A. A high degree of insulation B. Improved fuel penetrating properties C. Thick, stable foam D. Reduced vapor suppression

Which is one of the 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives? A. Promote the establishment of an annual Fire Fighter Safety Stand Down B. Utilize technology wherever it can produce higher levels of safety and health C. Develop and promote national standards for rapid intervention team operations D. Ensure a mandatory rest period following full consumption of a single SCBA cylinder

Which is one of the four factors that determine friction loss? A. Ambient temperature B. Hose diameter C. Atmospheric pressure D. Water source

Which is one of the four key characteristics affecting the behavior of building materials under fire conditions? A. Composition B. Combustibility C. Load D. Stability

Which is one of the functional categories of forcible entry tools? A. Lever B. Striking C. Nondestructive D. Piercing

Which is one of the three types of attack line hose evolutions? A. Rapid attack B. Transitional C. Master stream D. Containment

Which is the NFPA color code for a hydrant flowing 500 to 999 gpm (1893 to 3781 lpm)? A. Red B. Orange C. Green D. Light blue

Which is the NFPA standard on operations and training for technical search and rescue incidents? A. 1561 B. 1670 C. 1906 D. 1981

Which is the fastest way for a mobile water supply apparatus to offload water into a portable tank? A. Connect to the drafting pumper B. Use the dump valve C. Use a jet siphon D. Use large-diameter hose

Which is the first priority for a victim who is in a hazardous area and in need of medical treatment? A. Package the patient for removal. B. Remove the patient from the hazard. C. Complete the primary survey. D. Begin medical treatment.

Which is the fourth step in NFPA's scientific method for determining cause and origin? A. Event sequencing B. Analyze the data C. Determine the origin D. Develop hypotheses

Which is the function of lugs found on couplings? A. Align the threads during coupling B. Aid in coupling and uncoupling hose C. Help the coupling slide over obstructions D. Strengthen the coupling

Which is the goal of salvage operations at a residential fire? A. Finding and extinguishing hidden fire B. Protection of personal property C. Determination of cause D. Removal of salvageable contents from the structure

Which is the last step in rolling a straight hose roll? A. Connect the couplings together. B. Use your foot to align protruding hose. C. Create a fold to protect the outer coupling. D. Tie the slip knot.

Which is the main objective of a home fire safety survey? A. To promote positive interaction between fire service personnel and the public B. Prevent fires and reduce injuries and deaths C. To ensure compliance with codes and ordinances D. To gather information about local residential fire hazards

Which is the most challenging problem presented by a fire in a healthcare facility? A. Exposure of the oxygen system B. Protecting nonambulatory patients C. Accounting for occupants D. Evacuation of ambulatory patients

Which is the most common cause of fires in bedrooms? A. Overloaded electrical circuits B. Improper use of smoking materials C. Heating appliances D. Open flame

Which is the most common method of demarcating the control zones for an emergency incident site? A. Traffic cones B. Barrier tape C. Ropes D. Traffic barricades

Which is the most common type of fixed lock in use today? A. Mortise B. Cylindrical C. Rim D. Spring bolt

Which is the most common type of residential fire safety alarm system? A. Carbon monoxide alarm B. Single-station smoke alarm C. Rate-of-rise heat detector D. Remote-station smoke alarm

Which is the objective of the first phase of a transitional fire attack? A. Extinguish all visible flame. B. Reduce interior temperatures. C. Contain the fire to the room of origin. D. Make interior fire attack unnecessary.

Which is the preferred location to ventilate a basement? A. The largest existing opening B. Exterior doors and windows C. The interior stairwell D. Any preexisting opening

Which is the signal to the incident commander that the secondary search has been completed? A. "Nothing found" B. "Secondary search is clear" C. "Search complete" D. "Fire under control"

Which is the term for an arsonist who sets three or more fires at separate locations with no cooling-off period between fires? A. Compulsive B. Spree C. Binge D. Serial

Which is the term for areas adjacent to a burning building? A. Zones B. Exposures C. Sectors D. Divisions

Which is the term for the chemical change that occurs to wood when it is heated? A. Catagenesis B. Pyrolysis C. Reduction D. Oxidization

Which is the term for the middle-size water main in a municipal water distribution system? A. Intermediate main B. Secondary feeder C. Distributor D. Trunk line

Which is used to carry a self-locking twin-doughnut hose roll? A. Webbing B. A loop of hose C. Hose strap D. Rope

Which item is a point of emphasis in awareness-level training for technical rescue incidents? A. Ongoing scene assessment B. Recognition of hazards C. Basic rescue skills D. Warm zone operations

Which item is commonly used to stabilize a vehicle's suspension system? A. Wheel chocks B. Step chocks C. Air bags D. Rescue struts

Which item is required to be noted on the hose record? A. Test duration B. Test date C. Test pressure D. Date of last use

Which job function is part of the ICS command staff? A. Operations B. Liaison C. Resource D. Agency representative

Which kind of evidence is used to validate a theory or show how something could have occurred? A. Exclusionary B. Demonstrative C. Inferential D. Deductive

Which knot component is part of a clove hitch? A. Round turn B. Loop C. Follow-though D. Bight

Which knot decreases the load-bearing capacity of rope the most? A. Figure eight on a bight B. Bowline C. Figure eight follow-through D. They all decrease load capacity about equally

Which knot is used to prevent the end of a rope from slipping through the primary knot? A. Bowline B. Safety C. Half hitch D. Clove hitch

Which ladder is usually carried up another ladder before being put into place? A. Chimney B. Roof C. Attic D. Fresno

Which legal rule permits emergency responders to enter a private building without first obtaining consent? A. Imminent peril B. Exigent circumstances C. Respondeat superior D. Doctrine of necessity

Which level of personal protective equipment should fire fighters wear during overhaul? A. Coveralls and gloves B. Full PPE with SCBA C. Turnout gear without SCBA D. Regular uniform clothing

Which mechanical device is needed to accomplish negative-pressure ventilation? A. Chainsaw B. Fan C. Fog stream D. Draft curtain

Which method is best suited for removing an unconscious victim from a dangerous location? A. Carry B. Drag C. Assist D. Lift

Which method of evacuation for victims above ground should be avoided whenever possible? A. Aerial device B. Ground ladder C. Fire escape D. Interior stairway

Which motion best accomplishes the removal of the pin and tamper seal from a portable fire extinguisher? A. A strong pull directly outward B. Twisting motion C. Side-to-side motion D. Push, then pull

Which of the following is a commonly used resource to determine the size of a vapor cloud? A. Scientific functions-capable calculator B. Specialized computer software C. Preincident plan D. GPS triangulation

Which of the following items is an absorbent commonly used in hazardous materials operations? A. Mortar B. Soil C. Baking soda D. Stone tailings

Which of the following statements about air-purifying respirators is correct? A. They are supplied by a low-pressure hose connected to a remote air supply. B. A filter must be selected based on the specific contaminant. C. They use a closed-circuit system. D. The catalytic type may be used in low oxygen.

Which of the following statements about fluoroprotein foam is correct? A. It has poor vapor-suppressing performance. B. It is effective on Class B fires. C. It is effective as a Class A wetting agent. D. It is not available in a polar solvent-resistant formula.

Which of the following statements best describes how hazardous materials regulations are created? A. They are created in each fire department separately by that department. B. They are issued by government bodies such as OSHA. C. They are formed by participation from industry manufacturers. D. They are laws passed by several states' legislatures.

Which of the following statements best describes the correct perspective to take at a hazardous materials/WMD incident? A. Take aggressive action to minimize the threat. B. Slow down and think before you act. C. Contain and confine but provide for safety first. D. Risk a lot to save a lot.

Which of the following terms refers to assessing what is happening at the scene and then using that information to devise a plan of action? A. Hazard assessment B. Size-up C. Evaluation D. Command

Which part of the body should be used for a heavy lift? A. The core B. The legs C. The abdomen D. The shoulder girdle

Which part of the fire alarm system manages and monitors the proper operation of the system? A. Central monitoring panel B. Fire alarm control unit C. Remote annunciator panel D. Alarm status indicator board

Which part of the ladder is raised or extended from the bed section? A. Tip B. Fly C. Extension D. Guide

Which phase of a hazardous materials incident begins when the imminent danger to people, property, and the environment is controlled and clean-up begins? A. Remediation B. Recovery C. Mitigation D. Definitive

Which principle requires each person to have only one direct supervisor? A. Management by objectives B. Unity of command C. Span of control D. Chain of command

Which process is the first step in making plans to bring a situation under control? A. Establishing command B. Size-up C. Preincident planning D. Drafting an IAP

Which rank is directly above a lieutenant in the fire service? A. Division/group supervisor B. Captain C. Division chief D. Battalion chief

Which resource gives information on the necessary initial distances of evacuation for hazardous materials incidents? A. USFA Table 1.6 B. ERG C. Wilt evacuation distances wheel D. Both NFPA 1001 and NFPA 1003

Which search method is primarily useful for residential fires? A. Team B. Standard C. Oriented D. Secondary

Which sprinkler head mechanism uses a liquid-filled glass capsule to hold the cap in place? A. Fusible device B. Frangible bulb C. Liquid capsule D. Chemical pellet

Which statement about an offensive exterior attack is correct? A. It pushes the fire into uninvolved portions of the structure. B. Its effects are short-lived. C. Its effect on the fire is minimal. D. It should not be initiated prior to establishing water supply.

Which statement about flame detectors is correct? A. Flame detectors are usually found in institutional and healthcare occupancies. B. Infrared or ultraviolet light sources may trigger a false alarm. C. Flame detectors are generally less expensive than other types of detectors. D. Flame detectors' principle of operation is the detection of ions.

Which statement about opening a ceiling is correct? A. Work while facing the exit door. B. The hook should be pointed away from you. C. Start in the least damaged area. D. Pull the hook toward you.

Which statement about positive-pressure ventilation is correct? A. It uses a smoke ejector to draw smoke out of a building. B. It should be used only if attack crews have access to all fire. C. It is not affected by wind conditions. D. It requires the use of a built-in HVAC system.

Which statement about radiation is correct? A. Exposure to nonionizing radiation is very rare. B. Nonionizing radiation causes chemical changes at the atomic level. C. Ionizing radiation adds electrons to unstable atoms. D. Ionizing radiation is more dangerous than nonionizing radiation.

Which statement about the operation of HVAC equipment during fire ventilation operations is correct? A. HVAC systems are designed to automatically shut down when smoke is detected. B. Some HVAC systems can be used for clearing smoke. C. It is important to maintain power to the HVAC system at all times. D. HVAC systems should be shut down as soon as possible.

Which statement about ventilating a basement fire is correct? A. Vertical ventilation is the preferred method. B. Ventilation may be difficult due to the limited number of outside openings. C. In most cases, hydraulic ventilation performed from the top of the stairs is effective. D. Fire attack should not be delayed while awaiting ventilation.

Which statement is correct regarding Class D extinguishing agents? A. Application methods are similar regardless of the agent and fuel involved. B. The specific agent must be matched to the specific fuel. C. Most agents are effective on several Class D fuels. D. Some agents are also rated for other classes of fire.

Which statement most accurately describes a transitional attack? A. Operations performed while transitioning from defensive to offensive attack. B. A brief offensive exterior attack followed by interior attack C. Changes to operations made possible by deployment of later-arriving resources. D. The simultaneous use of both offensive and defensive strategies.

Which statement most accurately describes a transitional attack? A. Operations performed while transitioning from defensive to offensive attack. B. An offensive attack initiated from the exterior of the structure. C. Changes to operations made possible by deployment of later-arriving resources. D. The simultaneous use of both offensive and defensive strategies.

Which step should be performed before beginning search and rescue? A. Go directly to the most severely threatened area of the structure. B. Perform a risk/benefit analysis. C. Deploy a hose line or tagline. D. Perform a primary survey.

Which step should be performed first at a vehicle accident? A. Cut the battery cables B. Ensure stability of the vehicle C. Deflate the tires D. Access the victim

Which structural component is composed of relatively small and lightweight components arranged in a series of triangles? A. Purlin B. Truss C. Lintel D. Strut

Which task should be performed first when conducting a fire investigation? A. Establish the facts B. Identify the point of origin C. Interview witnesses D. Sift through debris

Which term is a measure of whether a material will burn? A. Conductivity B. Combustibility C. Pyrolytic index D. Specific heat

Which term means that a fire company arrives together, works together, and leaves together? A. Unity of command B. Team integrity C. Span of control D. Personnel accountability

Which term means the spread of fire from one floor to another via exterior windows? A. Laddering B. Vertical fire extension C. Stack effect D. Crowning

Which term means the viability and survivability of potential fire victims under the current conditions in the structure? A. Size-up B. Survivability profiling C. Risk management D. Triage

Which term means the weight of a building without contents? A. Net weight B. Dead load C. Live load D. Curb weight

Which term refers to how a building is used? A. Classification B. Occupancy C. Group D. Type

Which tool can be used to unscrew a lock cylinder? A. Strap wrench B. Vise grips C. Channel locks D. Chain whip

Which tool is classified as a rotating tool? A. Pike pole B. Screwdriver C. Halligan D. Pry bar

Which tool is inserted between a wood door frame and the door on an outward-swinging door to force the latch back and open the door? A. J tool B. Shove knife C. Slim Jim D. Hack saw blade

Which tool is one of "the irons"? A. Pick-head axe B. Halligan C. K tool D. Chisel

Which tool is specifically designed to open double doors equipped with panic bars? A. Slim Jim B. J tool C. Bar fly D. Key tool

Which tool should always accompany interior firefighting teams? A. Chainsaw B. Hand light C. K tool D. Adze

Which type of alarm notification system sends an alarm signal directly to the fire department? A. Local alarm B. Public emergency alarm C. Proprietary D. Protected premises

Which type of breathing apparatus offers protection only for specific, known hazards? A. Closed circuit B. Air-purifying respirator C. Supplied air D. Open circuit

Which type of code is commonly adopted by communities? A. Traffic B. Building C. Business D. Recreation

Which type of detector is typically found in aircraft hangars? A. Fixed temperature B. Flame C. Beam application D. Line

Which type of fire alarm annunciation system identifies the zone in which the alarm was initiated at the FACU only? A. Noncoded B. Older zoned C. Nonzoned D. Coded

Which type of foam contains a surface-active agent that produces a fast-spreading film? A. High expansion B. Fluoroprotein C. Aqueous film-forming D. Class A

Which type of foam is made from animal by-products? A. Class A B. Protein C. Aqueous film-forming D. Organic

Which type of heat detector is activated by an increase in temperature in surrounding air that exceeds a set amount over a given period of time? A. Closed-chamber heat detector B. Rate-of-rise heat detector C. UV sensor D. Fusible link device

Which type of life safety rope, as defined by the NFPA, is predominantly used by the fire service? A. Technical use B. General use C. Extreme duty D. Severe duty

Which type of roof opening extends all the way across the roof from one exterior wall to the other? A. Band B. Trench C. Transverse D. Crosscut

Which type of smoke detector is activated by invisible products of combustion? A. Bimetallic B. Ionization C. Photoelectric D. Photocell

Which type of tool is used to apply an impact force directly on another tool or object? A. Impact B. Striking C. Swinging D. Lever

Which type of ventilation operation is used solely as a defensive tactic? A. Louver B. Trench C. Peak D. Coffin

Which wood-frame construction system uses studs that run continuously from the basement to the roof? A. Western B. Balloon frame C. Conventional D. Platform

Who has the legal responsibility to determine the cause of fires in most jurisdictions? A. Police chief B. Fire chief C. District attorney D. Designated fire investigator

Who has the ultimate authority and responsibility to approve the level of PPE required for a given activity? A. Hazardous materials branch officer B. Incident commander C. Operations officer D. Safety officer

Who is qualified to use high temperature-protective clothing? A. Any fire fighter B. Fire fighters who are specifically trained in its use C. Any responder trained and qualified to work in a fully encapsulated suit D. Hazardous materials specialists and technicians only

Who is responsible for securing the scene at an industrial facility? A. Fire chief B. Facility supervisor C. Company officer D. Facility security

Who should conduct interviews with potential witnesses to a fire? A. Fire chief B. Fire investigator C. The first officer on the scene D. Incident commander

Why is the age of a building relevant during size-up? A. Required fire flow increases with age. B. Construction methods change over time. C. Reliability of suppression systems is suspect in older buildings. D. Older buildings are more difficult to ventilate.

You have responded to a hazardous materials incident involving a substance that has been positively identified. It is determined that this substance is harmful by inhalation but not by skin contact. What is the minimum level of PPE for this situation? A. A B. B C. C D. D

You have used sandbags to create a barrier to prevent a hazardous liquid from entering a storm drain. Which product control tactic is this? A. Damming B. Diversion C. Diking D. Retention

________ identify(ies) the hazard as a liquid, solid, or gas. A. Matter properties B. State of matter C. Physical matter D. Chemical matter

__________ are issued and enforced by governmental bodies such as the EPA. A. Standards B. Regulations C. Policies D. Guidelines

__________ includes a range of activities intended to prevent the outbreak of fires or to limit fire consequences. A. Loss control B. Fire prevention C. Code enforcement D. Public education

__________ is the most important element of PPE for hazardous materials responders. A. Vapor protection B. Respiratory protection C. Splash protection D. Thermal protection

__________ refers to the process in which unstable atoms of an element decay to a different state and emit excess energy in the form of particles or waves. A. Electromagnetism B. Radioactivity C. Covalence D. Molecular decomposition

__________ refers to when a responder protects people from a hazardous materials incident by keeping them in a safe atmosphere without evacuating them. A. Zone exclusion B. Shelter-in-place C. Straddling the warm zone D. Modular local protection

_______________ substances ignite and burn fast. A. Liquid B. Synthetic C. Natural D. None of these is correct.

A 50' (15 m) section of charged 2½" (65-mm) hose weighs approximately: A. 100 lb (45 kg). B. 125 lb (57 kg). C. 140 lb (64 kg). D. 200 lb (91 kg).

A Class B foam extinguisher is effective on all of the following fuels except one. Choose the exception. A. Gasoline B. Diesel fuel C. Cooking oil D. Paint thinner

A Class _____ harness is a full-body harness for use by rescuers. A. I B. II C. III D. IV

A __________ is bulk storage vessel, described as a portable plastic tank surrounded by a stainless steel web, that can hold a few hundred gallons. A. cistern B. vault C. tote D. magazine

A burning liquid that is pouring over the edge of a container is known as a ________ fire. A. flowing B. continuous C. three-dimensional D. cascading

A duck-billed lock breaker is used to: A. displace a lock cylinder. B. force casement and double-hung windows. C. open a padlock. D. displace automotive door locks.

A fire fighter is directing a foam stream over an aboveground open-top storage tank, letting the foam gently fall onto the surface of the liquid in the tank. Which foam application method does this describe? A. Bounce-off method B. Roll-in method C. Rain-down method D. Aerial method

A fire fighter locates Petri dishes, microscopes, and incubators during a hazardous materials response. These items may be a sign that __________ are being used. A. chemical agents B. methamphetamines C. biological agents D. radiological agents

A fire fighter who is trained and certified in chemical identification, leak control, and decontamination is a: A. Fire Fighter II. B. spill management technician. C. hazardous materials technician. D. materials technical specialist.

A fire fighter will most typically report directly to a person of which rank? A. Battalion chief B. Section chief C. Lieutenant D. Unit leader

A four-way valve is used with which specific operation? A. Multiple attack lines B. Drafting C. Water supply D. Standpipe operations

A hose line is advanced to a building to attack a fire in a(n) __________ attack. A. blitz B. transitional C. offensive D. defensive

A personnel accountability report is commonly performed in which situation? A. As each resource checks in to the command post B. Upon entry of a company into the hazardous area C. Upon occurrence of an unplanned event D. Upon activation of a low-air alarm

A portable fire extinguisher is bested suited for which situation? A. Car fire B. Room and contents fire C. Fire in a wastebasket D. Vegetation fire

A rope carried by a fire fighter only for self-rescue from an extreme situation is called a(n) __________ rope. A. self-rescue B. bail-out C. escape D. personal emergency

A rope is attached to a ladder for hoisting using a(n): A. clove hitch. B. bowline. C. figure eight on a bight. D. overhand safety.

A rope with minimal stretch under load is: A. dynamic. B. fixed. C. static. D. pliant.

A security camera recording showing a person starting a fire is an example of __________ evidence. A. documentary B. physical C. direct D. demonstrative

A short-handled hammer with a round head is called a: A. sledge. B. maul. C. mallet. D. trip.

A specialized tool for tightening or loosening hose couplings is the __________ wrench. A. strap B. hose C. spanner D. ring

A victim of a motor vehicle accident involving hazardous materials is transported by ambulance to a hospital. This action will result in __________ of ambulance personnel and the medical care facility. A. exposure B. contamination C. secondary contamination D. infection

Absorption is a difficult technique for operations level responders at a hazardous materials incident because: A. it is a precise, technically advanced procedure. B. it must be performed by personnel in Level A PPE. C. it requires being in close proximity to the hazardous material. D. the absorbents are difficult to handle.

According to tests by conducted by UL, in order for ventilation to improve interior conditions, what must occur? A. The vent must be created as soon as possible. B. The vent must be in the same compartment as the fire. C. Ventilation must be coordinated with the application of water as close to the fire as possible. D. Ventilation must not significantly alter the flow path.

After the initial training requirements, what is the OSHA requirement for refresher training? A. There is no requirement for refresher training. B. Once every two years C. Annually D. Annually if no responses occurred during the year

All fire extinguishers are classified according to: A. the net weight of their contents. B. their relative extinguishing power. C. the classes of fire on which they are safe and effective. D. the type of extinguishing agent used.

All forms of ventilation that use fans or other powered equipment are classified as __________ ventilation. A. assisted B. hydraulic C. mechanical D. positive-pressure

All of the following are unusual items or conditions except one. Choose the exception. A. Fire alarms disabled B. Fires in multiple locations C. House and contents well-kept and in good condition D. Build access impeded by obstacles

All portable fire extinguishers use which means for expelling their contents? A. Volume B. Vacuum C. Pressure D. Gravity

An abandoned building is fully involved in fire. Which type of operation is appropriate? A. Direct B. Transitional C. Defensive D. Offensive

An exposure on the left side of the fire building would be designated as exposure: A. D. B. left. C. B. D. 2.

An oxygen-deficient atmosphere contains less than _____ percent oxygen. A. 17.5 B. 18 C. 19.5 D. 21

Another term for a portable ladder is a __________ ladder. A. straight B. single C. ground D. Bangor

Application of a fire stream to solar panels should be done from a distance of no less than: A. 10 ft (3 m). B. 15 ft (4. 5m). C. 20 ft (6 m). D. 25 ft (7.2 m).

Application of water streams into a structure from the outside will have which effect? A. Pushing the fire into uninvolved parts of the structure B. Redirecting the flow path C. Reduced temperatures in many parts of the structure D. Lowering of the smoke layer

As a general guideline, a pumper should supply a sprinkler system at: A. 100 psi (689 kPa). B. 125 psi (861 kPa). C. 150 psi (1034 kPa). D. 175 psi (1206 kPa).

As applied to private residences, which room category includes formal living rooms, family rooms, and entertainment rooms? A. Formal rooms B. Anterooms C. Living rooms D. Parlors

At a structure fire, a continuous water supply is unavailable. Which type of operation is appropriate? A. Direct B. Transitional C. Defensive D. Offensive

At a vehicle accident, what is the point of placing apparatus at an angle to the crash site? A. To present the widest visual profile to oncoming traffic B. To deflect vehicle traffic away from the crash site C. So the apparatus will be pushed off to the side if struck from behind by an oncoming vehicle D. To resist movement of the barrier in the event of a collision

At what pH is a substance neither acidic nor basic? A. 0 B. 1 C. 7 D. 15

Before beginning any forcible entry, which simple rule should fire fighters keep in mind? A. Doors are replaceable; lives are not. B. Without a hose, the fire grows. C. Try before you pry. D. Get low before you go.

Bulk storage containers can be: A. pressurized. B. nonpressurized. C. either pressurized or nonpressurized. D. neither pressurized nor nonpressurized.

Class _____ extinguishing agents should be used on energized electrical equipment fires. A. A B. B C. C D. D

Close-range application of water to burning surfaces is the immediate objective of which type of operation? A. Combination B. Defensive C. Offensive D. Transitional

Corrosives can be broken down into: A. polars and nonpolars. B. chlorine-based and hydrogen-based corrosives. C. acids and bases. D. liquids and solids.

Defensive firefighting operations are conducted from which location? A. Interior B. Roof C. Exterior D. Threatened exposure

Defensive firefighting operations are typically conducted from which location? A. Interior B. Roof C. Exterior D. Exposure

Detection and monitoring should begin: A. upon arrival on the scene. B. inside the room of fire origin. C. outside the building in a clean area. D. inside the building of fire origin.

Documented statements given by fire fighters and bystanders are __________ evidence. A. circumstantial B. indirect C. testimonial D. observational

Doubling the speed of a vehicle will increase the force exerted by that vehicle by a factor of: A. 2. B. 3. C. 4. D. 5.

During a fire, where is a child likely to hide? A. In his or her parent's bed B. In the kitchen C. In a closet D. In an exit pathway

During an O-VEIS operation, where is the officer located? A. In constant physical contact with the first searcher B. At the anchor point C. Just outside the window D. The doorway

During salvage, what should be done with any pictures on the walls? A. They should be left in place and covered with plastic sheeting B. They should be left in place and turned toward the wall C. They should be removed and placed with the furniture D. They should be placed face-down under a bed

Equipment is staged in the __________ zone. A. support B. warm C. cold D. yellow

Fire fighters getting close enough to apply extinguishing agent directly on the fire is the objective of which type of operation? A. Combination B. Defensive C. Offensive D. Transitional

Fire fighters responding to a dispatch in emergency vehicles are exempt from: A. most civil and criminal liability. B. standards of reasonable care that apply to nonemergency vehicles. C. only those exemptions specified by statute. D. traffic laws dealing with traffic speed limits and parking.

Flashover is a rapid transition into the ___________ stage of fire development. A. growth B. decay C. fully developed D. incipient

Following suspected exposure to hydrogen cyanide, at what location should a cyanide antidote kit be administered? A. Wherever the exposure occurred B. In a prehospital setting only C. In a hospital or clinic setting D. On the fire apparatus

For a ladder contacting the wall 20 ft (6 m) above the ground, the base should be _____ from the wall. A. 3 ft (1 m) B. 4 ft (1.2 m) C. 5 ft (1.5 m) D. 6 ft (1.8 m)

For air transportation, where would a fire fighter locate the air bill? A. Wheel well B. Cargo area C. Cockpit D. Entrance door

For natural ventilation, which window should be opened first? A. The highest window B. Windows opening directly into the fire room C. The downwind window D. The upwind window

For which preconnected hose load does the fire fighter shoulder part of the load, with the hose deploying off the top of that load as the fire fighter advances? A. Triple layer B. Skid C. Minuteman D. Forestry

For which situation is the three-fire fighter flat shoulder ladder carry best suited? A. There are overhead obstructions B. The ladder must be maneuvered around sharp corners C. The ladder must be carried over short obstacles D. The ladder will be raised in a narrow space

For whom should fire fighters consider that they work? A. Their supervisors B. Their team C. The tax-paying citizens D. Themselves

Friction is a form of __________ energy. A. radiant B. molecular C. mechanical D. kinetic

Generally speaking, a 1" (25-cm) booster hose can flow: A. 15 to 30 gpm (57 to 114 lpm). B. 20 to 40 gpm (76 to 151 lpm). C. 40 to 50 gpm (151 to 189 lpm). D. 50 to 75 gpm (189 to 284 lpm).

Health and safety programs for fire fighters are the subject of NFPA: A. 1001. B. 1021. C. 1500. D. 1901.

High temperature-protective equipment is designed to provide how much protection from hazardous materials? A. Complete B. Full liquid splash-protection C. None D. Full vapor/gas/mist protection

Horizontal evacuation is used primarily in which type of occupancy? A. Assembly B. High rise C. Healthcare D. Multifamily residential

Hose that is at least 3½" (88 mm) in diameter is considered __________ diameter. A. small B. medium C. large D. master

How are fire codes related to building codes? A. They are not related. B. They are somewhat related. C. They are closely related. D. It varies with the adopting agency.

How are jalousie windows normally opened and closed? A. Sliding the sash within the frame B. Using a remote-operated electric motor C. Turning a small hand-crank D. Pulling the chain attached to the drum

How can a thermal imaging camera be useful at a hazardous materials spill? A. To detect the direction of travel of a plume B. To predict the direction of travel of vapor or smoke C. To indicate the level of material remaining in a container D. To assist in material identification

How can you determine that a dry-barrel hydrant is still draining? A. Place a hand on the stem nut and feel for vibration B. Look for a continuing trickle from the discharge outlet C. Place a hand over an outlet and feel for suction D. Listen carefully for a hissing sound

How close must a fire engine get to a static water source to be able to draft directly from it through hard suction hose? A. A distance equal to the total length of the available hard suction hose minus 10 ft B. 10 ft (3 m) C. 20 ft (6 m) D. 30 ft (9 m)

How does a bimetallic strip work as a heat detector switch? A. The strip creates a magnetic field when heated, activating a switch B. Electrical resistance through the strip increases when the strip is exposed to heat C. The strip bends unevenly in response to heat, closing a contact D. The strip melts at a certain temperature, interrupting a circuit

How does a doughnut hose roll differ from a straight hose roll? A. Both couplings are in the middle. B. The two couplings are connected. C. Both couplings are on the outside. D. The female coupling is on the outside.

How is flammable range related to the relative danger of a substance? A. The higher the bottom number, the more dangerous the substance is. B. The narrower the range, the more dangerous the substance is. C. The wider the range, the more dangerous the substance is. D. There is no relationship between these quantities.

How is foam proportioned in most portable extinguishers? A. Batch mixing B. Injection C. Premixing D. Aspiration

How is the length of bolt cutter handles related to the amount of cutting force that can be applied? A. The cutting force remains constant regardless of the handle's length B. The shorter the handle, the greater the cutting force C. The longer the handle, the greater the cutting force D. The cutting force varies with the jaw length

How many gallons per minute can a tanker shuttle operation deliver without interruption? A. Zero B. A few hundred C. Several hundred D. A few thousand

How many points of contact should a fire fighter maintain with the ladder when dismounting a ladder onto a roof? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

How many ways are there to use the low-pressure hose on the rapid intervention pack to supply air to a downed fire fighter? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

How would a fuel/air mixture in which there is not enough fuel be described? A. Too rich B. Starved C. Too lean D. Preignited

How would a fuel/air mixture in which there is too much fuel be described? A. Too lean B. Condensed C. Too rich D. Saturated

If a fire fighter becomes disoriented, how can the hose line be used to assist in egress? A. Move in the direction of the shank without lugs B. Place one hand on the swivel and one hand on the shank; move in the direction of the swivel C. Place both hands on a coupling; travel in the direction of the hand holding the male coupling D. The male coupling is on the end of the hose nearest the apparatus

If a private residence has a single fire extinguisher, where should it be located? A. Garage B. Near the bedrooms C. Kitchen D. Laundry area

If a volume of cryogenic helium is allowed to warm and vaporize entirely in its container, what kind of pressure (in pounds per square inch) could it generate? A. 800 B. 2500 C. 14,500 D. 125,000

If an investigation does not produce the criteria for probable cause, the fire should be classified as: A. suspicious. B. unknown origin. C. undetermined. D. inconclusive.

If individual sprinkler heads cannot be shut off, what should be done to stop the flow of water? A. Close the water service valve at the water meter B. Open the fire department connection outside C. Close the main sprinkler control valve D. Open the system drain valve

If one team member must exit a hazard area for any reason, what should the rest of the team do? A. Continue working on their assignment B. Assign a buddy to accompany the member out of the hazard area C. Exit as the entire team together D. Defer to the team leader, who should decide based on the circumstances

If solid fuels are regularly burned, it is recommended that the chimney or flue pipe be professionally inspected every _____ months. A. 3 B. 6 C. 12 D. 24

If there is no officer on the first-arriving unit, who assumes initial command? A. The first officer to arrive B. The driver/operator C. A fire fighter D. Whomever the nearest responding chief officer designates over the radio

In addition to extinguishing flammable liquid fires, what are Class B foams used for on hazardous materials incidents? A. To break down the surface tension of fuels B. As an emulsifier for heavy hydrocarbon fuels C. To suppress vapor production of unignited fuels D. As a decontamination agent

In areas of the western US where aircraft are used to fight wildland fires, which term is used for automotive water supply apparatus? A. Water truck B. Tanker C. Tender D. Tank truck

In general, in emergency operations, the practical span of control within the ICS is no more than _____ to one. A. three B. four C. five D. seven

In general, the maximum discharge range of a CO2 extinguisher is: A. 33 ft (10 m). B. 16 ft (5 m). C. 8 ft (2.5 m). D. 5 ft (1.5 m).

In general, what volume does a 2½" (65-mm) handline flow? A. 175 gpm (662 lpm) B. 200 gpm (757 lpm) C. 250 gpm (946 lpm) D. 300 gpm (1135 lpm)

In general, when should a sprinkler system be shut down? A. Prior to beginning salvage operations B. When overhaul is complete C. When the fire is completely extinguished D. When the fire is under control

In most cases, what is the best way to quickly stop the flow from a single sprinkler head? A. Close the branch line valve B. Replace the bulb or link C. Insert a sprinkler wedge D. Install a replacement head

In solid materials, energy moves directly from one molecule to another in which form of heat transfer? A. Induction B. Reduction C. Conduction D. Convection

In the ICS structure, who is responsible for all aspects of managing an incident? A. The executive officer B. The planning chief C. The incident commander D. The operations section chief

In the two-part marking system for indicating which rooms have been searched, which symbol means a search is complete? A. A circle with a diagonal slash B. A diagonal slash C. An X D. The letters SC

In the yellow- and blue-bordered sections of the ERG, how are materials that are included in the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Distances identified? A. They are in bold print. B. They are italicized. C. They are highlighted. D. They are underlined.

In vehicle extrication, what is one of the four functions performed to gain access and disentangle a victim? A. Cut, tear, or rip B. Swing, slide, or fold C. Bend, distort, or displace D. Push, pull, or spread

In which decade did efforts begin to establish a standardized incident command system? A. 1940s B. 1950s C. 1970s D. 1990s

In which method of foam application is a bank of foam formed on the ground in front of the flammable liquid pool and pushed over the pool by the continued application of foam? A. Bounce-off method B. Rain-down method C. Roll-in method D. Subsurface injection method

In which situation is it acceptable for a sprinkler system main control valve not to be locked into the open position? A. The valve is of the indicating type B. The valve is located in a locked room C. A supervisory switch is installed D. The building has an alarm system

Medical requirements for fire fighters are specified in which NFPA standard? A. 904 B. 1002 C. 1582 D. 1962

Medium-expansion foam creates a maximum expansion ratio of _____ to 1. A. 50 B. 100 C. 200 D. 300

Monkeys exposed to cyanide lost consciousness at __________ parts per million (ppm). A. 30 B. 100 C. 200 D. 1240

NFPA standards require that a pumper be equipped with at least _____ ladder(s). A. one B. two C. three D. four

OSHA regulations are: A. standards. B. ordinances. C. law. D. codes.

Operating a PIV handle is similar to operating a: A. nozzle bale. B. pump panel pull-valve. C. hydrant wrench. D. ball valve.

PPE exposed to hazardous conditions should undergo an initial reduction of contaminants __________. A. after apparatus and equipment have been restored to operational readiness B. after response personnel have thoroughly showered and changed clothing C. at the scene before returning to the station D. immediately upon returning to the station

Packing radioactive material around an explosive device creates what is known as a ________ bomb. A. rad B. truck C. dirty D. neutron

Passive smoke control systems rely primarily on: A. existing building HVAC systems. B. natural air movement. C. built-in construction barriers. D. pressure differentials.

Positive-pressure ventilation is the least suitable approach for which situation? A. Fire attack is in progress B. Structure with large interior spaces C. Fire in structural void spaces D. High-rise fire

Pressure in a water distribution system during average consumption is __________ pressure. A. residual B. mean C. normal operating D. static

Ropes should be cleaned with: A. a mild bleach solution. B. castile soap. C. mild detergent. D. water only.

Signs and symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning are: A. shallow breathing and slow heart rate. B. rapid heart rate and rapid breathing. C. headache, nausea, and disorientation. D. flushed skin, backache, and a tingling sensation in extremities.

The NFPA has produced three standards on various aspects of hazardous materials and emergency responses to them. Which of the following is one of these standards? A. 1901 B. 1002 C. 473 D. 10

The NFPA recommends that a pumper carry a minimum of _____ of supply hose. A. 400 ft (121 m) B. 600 ft (182 m) C. 800 ft (242 m) D. 1000 ft (304 m)

The concept of adsorption is most similar to: A. burial. B. a sponge. C. Velcro. D. diffusion.

The earliest known fire department was in: A. The Ottoman Empire. B. Greece. C. Ancient Rome. D. Germany.

The flow or quantity of water moving is usually measured in: A. joules. B. cubic feet per minute (cubic meters per minute). C. gallons per minute (liters per minute). D. pounds per square inch (kilopascals).

The function of a RIC/UAC is to provide air for: A. buddy-breathing during a low-air emergency. B. routine refilling of air cylinders. C. emergency refilling of a low air cylinder. D. extending air supply during prolonged operations in IDLH atmosphere.

The highest number of fire fighter injuries occur during which one of the activities listed below? A. Responding to or returning from an alarm B. Non-fire emergencies C. Fireground operations D. Training

The individual fibers of a natural fiber ropes are twisted together to form a: A. twill. B. plait. C. strand. D. creel.

The individual responsible for the management of all incident operations is the: A. operations chief. B. company officer. C. incident commander. D. commanding officer.

The level of protection that structural firefighting protective clothing provides first responders at a hazardous materials incident is best described as: A. excellent. B. good. C. limited. D. nonexistent.

The lighting and power equipment used at an emergency scene generally operates at: A. 110-volt DC. B. 220-volt DC. C. 110-volt AC. D. 220-volt AC.

The majority of calls to dispatch centers come via: A. landline phone. B. the internet. C. cellular phone. D. text message.

The maximum slope of a low-angle rescue operation is _____ degrees. A. 15 B. 30 C. 45 D. 60

The minimum breaking strength of general use life safety rope is approximately: A. 5000 lbf (20 kN). B. 7000 lbf (30 kN). C. 9000 lbf (40 kN). D. 11000 lbf (50 kN).

The most common method of vapor suppression is the application of: A. plastic or other impermeable sheet material. B. sawdust or other particulate absorbent. C. firefighting foam. D. an inert, heavier-than-air gas.

The multilayered or quilted layer of structural firefighting protective clothing is the: A. vapor barrier. B. liner. C. thermal barrier. D. absorbent liner.

The pipes that deliver water to users and hydrants on individual streets are: A. service lines. B. secondaries. C. distributors. D. cross mains.

The scientific method recommended by the NFPA for determining cause and origin consists of _____ steps. A. three B. five C. seven D. eight

The sudden introduction of air into an oxygen-depleted, superheated space may result in: A. improved visibility. B. ghosting. C. backdraft. D. black fire.

The traditional symbol for a Class D fire extinguisher is a(n): A. orange circle. B. blue square. C. yellow star. D. green triangle.

The two-fire fighter shoulder carry can be used with extension ladders up to _____ long. A. 24 ft (7.5 m) B. 30 ft (9 m) C. 35 ft (11 m) D. 40 ft (12 m)

The use of master streams on a building should be prohibited when: A. a blitz attack is under way. B. the building is severely damaged. C. crews are working inside the building. D. there is no threat to exposures.

The weight of carbon dioxide is about ___________ times the weight of air. A. 0.5 B. 1.0 C. 1.5 D. 2.0

There are _____ basic steps in performing special rescues in a safe, effective, and efficient manner. A. five B. seven C. ten D. thirteen

There are _____ major steps in processing a report of an emergency incident. A. three B. four C. five D. six

Tracking every company working at an incident from the time they arrive until the time they are released is the function of the __________ system. A. resource tracking B. roll call C. personnel accountability D. check-in

Type II construction is: A. fire resistive. B. lightweight. C. noncombustible. D. ordinary.

Type III construction is usually limited to a maximum height of _____ stories. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Typical span of control is __________ subordinates to one supervisor. A. three B. four C. five D. six

Under which condition might command be transferred from a high-ranking officer to an officer with lower rank? A. After the third benchmark B. If the incident is escalating C. During the later stages of the incident D. There are no conditions when this is appropriate

Upon arrival at a fire, how can on-call volunteer fire fighters establish team integrity? A. Operate to best tactical advantage B. Establish a staging area C. Assemble into companies D. Establish a personnel accountability system

Use of a spring-loaded center punch to break tempered automobile glass results in: A. irregular pieces of glass of varying sizes and shapes. B. a sheet of spidered glass. C. many small, uniform-sized pieces of glass. D. large, sharp-edged shards of glass.

Vehicles are staged in which control zone? A. Hot B. Warm C. Cold D. Support

What are TDD and TTY? A. Location finders in enhanced 911 systems B. Routers that direct wireless calls to the appropriate dispatch center C. Communication devices for hearing-impaired persons D. Voice-activated applications for smart phones that place a 911 call

What are the two main structural components that run the entire length of a ladder? A. Flies B. Rungs C. Beams D. Truss blocks

What device can significantly add carbon monoxide to a postfire building? A. Electric smoke ejector B. Roof ventilation saw C. Gas-powered positive pressure ventilation fan D. Battery-operated fan

What divides the engine compartment of a car from the passenger compartment? A. "A" wall B. Dashboard C. Bulkhead D. Partition

What do large, above-ground, horizontal storage tanks typically hold? A. Nonflammable liquids B. Silica or aluminum grains C. Flammable or combustible liquefied gas D. Liquid foodstuffs, such as milk or juice

What do older heat detectors lack that makes it difficult to track down the cause of an alarm? A. Audible alarms B. Wide-spaced combs C. Indicator light D. Reset switch

What do the beams of a ladder directly support? A. Fly B. Halyard C. Rungs D. Roof hooks

What does an electrochemical sensor use to detect a substance? A. Accelerator B. Enzyme C. Reagent D. Catalyst

What does depth of char most reliably indicate? A. Presence of ignitable liquids B. Type of heat source C. Intensity and duration of exposure to fire D. Rate of spread

What does steel do when heat? A. Contract B. Harden C. Elongate D. Spall

What does the "A" stand for in "IAP"? A. Annual B. Advisor C. Action D. Acting

What does the "S" stand for in "SOP"? A. Specific B. Special C. Standard D. Sequential

What does the A stand for in TRACEMP? A. Assessment B. Asphyxiating C. Airborne D. Atmospheric

What does the S stand for in SERC? A. Special B. System C. State D. Start

What does the acronym CBRN refer to? A. Strategic priorities at a hazardous materials incident B. Signs and symptoms of chemical exposure C. Types of terrorist attacks D. Pre-entry checklist items

What does the letter D stand for in the EVADE acronym? A. Deny entry B. Do not become part of the problem C. Designate and enforce scene control zones D. Dike, dam, dilute, and divert

What does the white diamond on the NFPA 704 symbol indicate? A. Flammability B. Instability C. Special hazards D. Health

What foam application method should be used on a pooled liquid fire on the ground producing an intense thermal column? A. Bounce-off method B. Rain-down method C. Roll-in method D. Subsurface injection method

What happens when moisture trapped in concrete is heated and expands, causing parts of the concrete to break away? A. Cavitation B. Scaling C. Spalling D. Granulation

What is a bar joist? A. Any engineered component with steel load-bearing members B. A truss with steel parallel members and wood diagonals C. An open-web steel truss D. A steel I-beam used to support a floor or roof

What is a common location for a sprinkler system OS&Y valve? A. On the service side of the water meter B. In an underground service box C. In a mechanical room D. Outside next to the post indicator valve

What is a common sign of damage to a kernmantle rope? A. Discoloration B. Loose or twisted sheath C. Flat spots or lumps D. Fuzziness of the mantle

What is a requirement for structural firefighting boots? A. Rubber upper B. Zipper closure C. Slip-resistant sole D. Pull-on design

What is a secondary search? A. A quick search for victims performed during the initial attack B. A search for victims conducted outside the immediate fire area C. A systematic search for victims after the fire is brought under control D. Any search not conducted by the initial attack crew

What is another term for a sheet bend? A. Lark's foot B. Round turn C. Becket bend D. Water knot

What is distinctive about IMO type 5 containers? A. They are open to the air. B. They are vacuum containers. C. They are high-pressure vessels. D. They are designed for prolonged immersion in saltwater.

What is indicated by a fire that flares up when water is applied to it? A. Use of trailers B. An incendiary device C. Presence of an ignitable liquid D. Structural alterations

What is one type of intermodal tank designation? A. TXD-IM-3 B. U-Z751 C. IM-101 D. Type 7

What is the Department of Transportation's hazard class for flammable liquids? A. Class 1 B. Class 2 C. Class 3 D. Class 4

What is the ICS term for an assembly of two or more single resources, of different types, assembled to accomplish a specific task? A. Strike team B. Group C. Task force D. Division

What is the ICS term for companies/crews working within the same geographical area? A. Branch B. Group C. Division D. Unit

What is the K tool used for? A. Prying B. Breaking the shackle of a padlock C. Removing a lock cylinder D. Removing laminated glass

What is the NFPA Standard for Competence of Responders to Hazardous Materials/Weapons of Mass Destruction Incidents? A. 470 B. 471 C. 472 D. 473

What is the approximate floor-to-floor height of a commercial structure? A. 8-9 ft (2.5-2.75 m) B. 9-10 ft (2.75-3 m) C. 10-12 ft (3-3.65 m) D. 12-14 ft (3.65-4.25 m)

What is the area that surrounds the incident site and whose size is proportional to the hazards that exist? A. Control zone B. Operational perimeter C. Rescue area D. Red zone

What is the best way to extinguish a smoldering mattress? A. Place it flat on the floor and soak it B. Apply Class A foam to the smoldering area C. Take it outside and soak it D. Open the mattress and thoroughly wet the smoldering area

What is the boiling point of water? A. 112°F B. 112°C C. 212°F D. 212°C

What is the designation for the posts located behind the rear doors of a passenger vehicle? A. The rear posts B. The 3-posts C. The C-posts D. The long posts

What is the first defense against danger for fire fighters when responding to a hazardous materials incident? A. Proper selection of PPE B. Maintaining crew integrity C. Recognition and awareness of the situation D. Preparatory lessons learned in the classroom

What is the first step you should take when responding to an elevator incident? A. Summon the building engineer or elevator mechanic B. Determine the exact location of the car C. Cut power to the malfunctioning elevator D. Drift the car to the nearest floor

What is the function of a Dewar container? A. To keep contents hot B. To minimize sloshing of contents C. To keep contents cold D. To hold contents in negative pressure

What is the function of a personnel accountability system? A. Establish and maintain team integrity B. Organize resources into divisions, groups, and crews C. Track the location and assignments of all personnel at the incident D. Prevent freelancing and deviation from SOPs

What is the function of an automatic vehicle locator system? A. Determine the location of mobile phone callers B. Prioritize resources based upon location C. Track apparatus location via GPS D. Display fire department vehicle location on an electronic map

What is the function of the ANI feature of an enhanced 911 system? A. Provide the caller's identity B. Lock the caller's phone open C. Show the caller's phone number D. Show the caller's location

What is the function of the PTT button on a two-way radio? A. Adjust the sensitivity of signal reception B. Enable duplex transmission C. Cause the radio to transmit D. Transmit a distress signal

What is the function of the rapid intervention crew/company? A. Provide a ready reserve of resources in the event of a change in conditions B. Reduce losses by expediting the initial fire attack C. Be ready and immediately available for the rescue of fire fighters D. Provide personnel specializing in the rescue of building occupants

What is the highest level of chemical protective clothing that permits the use of an air-purifying respirator? A. A B. B C. C D. D

What is the lowest temperature at which a liquid produces enough vapor to sustain a continuous fire? A. Vaporization temperature B. Flash point C. Fire point D. Ignition temperature

What is the maximum personnel load for a fire-service ladder? A. One fire fighter plus one victim B. Two fire fighters C. Two fire fighters plus one victim D. Three fire fighters

What is the minimum acceptable level of protective equipment when conducting forcible entry during fire suppression operations? A. Helmet and eye protection B. Gloves and eye protection C. Full structural firefighting PPE D. Helmet, coat, and gloves

What is the minimum size of hose line for fire protection at a vehicle accident? A. Booster B. 1" (25 mm) C. 1½" (38 mm) D. 1¾" (45 mm)

What is the most common term for hand-held two-way radios carried by individual fire fighters? A. Mobile radios B. Walkie-talkies C. Portable radios D. Pocket radios

What is the most commonly used color of barrier tape for marking the warm zone? A. Red B. Green C. Orange D. Yellow

What is the most important component of fire fighter survival? A. Maintaining team integrity B. Preincident planning C. Consistently applying safe operating procedures D. Establishment of RICs

What is the primary extinguishing mechanism of halogenated agents? A. Suppressing vapor production B. Forming a crust over the fuel C. Disrupting the molecular chain reaction D. Displacing oxygen

What is the process by which a hazardous chemical flows through closures, seams, or pinholes in a material? A. Leakage B. Seepage C. Penetration D. Intrusion

What is the proper climbing angle for a ladder? A. 60º B. 65º C. 75º D. 85º

What is the purpose of a personal alert safety system (PASS)? A. Sound an alarm when certain gases are detected B. Warn fire fighters when their air supply is low C. Sound an alarm if a fire fighter is motionless for a set period of time D. Sound an alarm if ambient temperatures exceed a specified level

What is the purpose of a personnel accountability system? A. Ensure completion of tasks delegated to fire fighters B. Prevent freelancing C. Track personnel and assignments on the emergency scene D. Brief newly arriving crews on the situation status

What is the purpose of the rings around an MC-312 corrosives tanker? A. Cooling B. Heating C. Structural stability D. Vapor collection

What is the relationship between habits developed in training and performance on the fire ground? A. In the stress of emergency operations, habits are overridden by instincts B. Habits formed in training necessarily become abbreviated and rushed on the fire ground C. Habits developed in training will continue on the fire ground D. Fire-ground performance is not significantly altered through habituation

What is the specific gravity of water? A. 10 B. 7 C. 1 D. 0

What is the temperature at which sustained combustion will occur? A. Flammable range B. Flash point C. Fire point D. Ignition temperature

What is the term for a radio signal that alerts personnel to pull back to a safe location? A. Withdrawal order B. Mayday C. Evacuation signal D. Emergency traffic

What is the term for a radio that transmits and receives on two different frequencies? A. Analog B. Multiplex C. Duplex D. Binary

What is the term for a small opening that allows better tool access in forcible entry? A. Toe hold B. Anchor point C. Purchase point D. Bite

What is the term for an urgent message, used by telecommunicator, which takes priority over all other communications? A. Mayday B. Code 30 C. Emergency traffic D. Priority message

What is the term for any material that poses an unreasonable risk to human health, safety, or the environment? A. Hazardous good B. Dangerous material C. Hazardous material D. Dangerous commodity

What is the term for gaseous substances that have been chilled until they liquefy? A. Antigens B. Thermogens C. Cryogens D. Barogens

What is the term for short lengths of sturdy timber used to vertically stabilize a vehicle? A. Shoring B. Chocks C. Cribbing D. Wedges

What is the term for the process by which chemicals are brought into the body through an open cut? A. Absorption B. Ingestion C. Injection D. Inhalation

What is the term for the process of reducing and preventing the spread of hazardous materials by persons and equipment? A. Dispersion B. Suppression C. Decontamination D. Submersion

What is the term for the spontaneous ignition of hot gases at the upper level of a room? A. Ghosting B. Flashover C. Rollover D. Mushrooming

What is the title for the individual in charge of a company? A. Resource director B. Squad leader C. Company officer D. Sector manager

What is the usual response when a caller disconnects before full information can be gathered and the dispatcher cannot reconnect by calling the caller back? A. Log the incident and wait for the caller to call back B. Send a full complement of responders, including police, EMS, and fire C. Dispatch a police unit to check on the caller D. Send a single engine to assess the situation

What is used to stabilize the sides of an excavation? A. Bracing B. Sheeting C. Shoring D. Cribbing

What it the maximum diameter of a small handline? A. 1½" (38 mm) B. 1¾" (45 mm) C. 2" (50 mm) D. 2½" (65 mm)

What kind of container holds from 5 to 15 gallons of corrosive liquid? A. Bung B. Dewar flask C. Carboy D. Tote bag

What makes a water thief different from a wye is the addition of: A. a second inlet. B. ball valves. C. a 2½" (65-mm) outlet. D. clapper valves.

What mnemonic helps fire fighters remember the seven symptoms of nerve agent exposure? A. WAFFLES B. PANOPRY C. SLUDGEM D. CALLUPP

What must be done before beginning ventilation? A. The main body of the fire must be knocked down. B. The primary search must be complete. C. An attack crew must be ready to advance the hose line. D. The rapid intervention crew must be assigned and ready.

What must be done prior to making forcible entry into a fire building? A. Ventilation must be established B. Utilities must be controlled C. The fire attack team must be ready D. An "all clear" must be declared

What must occur before the ram or high-lift jack can be removed in a dash displacement? A. The victim must be removed from the vehicle B. The roof must be removed C. The sill must be cribbed to hold it in position D. The seat must be displaced rearward

What percentage of residential fires are caused by cooking? A. 22 B. 35 C. 47 D. 60

What quantity is the weight of a liquid as compared to an equal volume of water? A. Vapor density B. Atmospheric pressure C. Specific gravity D. Buoyancy

What should be done with the excess halyard once an extension ladder is placed and extended? A. Use it to form an anchor point B. Let it hang between the ladder and the building C. Wrap it around rungs of the ladder D. Use it to tie off the bed section

What should occur if there is a fault in the fire alarm system? A. The system should shut down B. The system should automatically reset C. The trouble signal is activated D. The alarm system should activate

What term describes the volume increase that occurs when a liquid material changes to a gas? A. Off-gassing B. Liquefaction C. Expansion ratio D. Vapor pressure

What term refers to the ability of a material to cause damage on contact to skin, eyes, or other body parts? A. Organicity B. Volatility C. Corrosivity D. Reactivity

What type of container holds cryogens? A. Carboy B. Pressure stick C. Dewar container D. Vacuum tube

What will gasoline or diesel fuel do when water is applied? A. Mix B. Sink to the bottom C. Float to the top D. Separate

What would be the ICS designation for each floor in a high-rise building? A. Sector B. Section C. Division D. Group

When a ladder is carried by one fire fighter, where is the top beam? A. Above the head B. Under the arm C. On the shoulder D. In the hands

When a ladder is used to gain access to a roof, a minimum of _____ rungs should show above the roofline. A. one B. three C. five D. seven

When applying foam to a pool of burning fuel, it is important to avoid: A. directing the foam onto any surface other than the liquid. B. using standard fog or smooth-bore nozzles to apply the foam. C. agitating the surface of the liquid. D. using alcohol-resistant formulations.

When doing a dash displacement, which tool is used to push the dash forward? A. Lifting strut B. Rescue-lift air bag C. Hydraulic ram D. Come along

When donning SCBA, fire fighters should check that the cylinder has a minimum of _____ percent of its rated maximum pressure. A. 75 B. 80 C. 90 D. 100

When fighting a horizontal flammable-gas cylinder fire, you should operate from: A. a 45-degree angle to the side. B. either end. C. the side. D. the most accessible location.

When is the use of utility rope appropriate? A. When the total load is less than 750 lb (340 kg) B. For static loads only C. When the rope will not be supporting people D. In situations where the rope will likely be damaged

When lives can be saved, how much risk is justified in trying to save them? A. Minimal B. Moderate C. High D. Unlimited

When making louver cuts, what is used as a fulcrum to make the louvered openings? A. Ridge pole B. Decking C. Roof support D. Purlin

When performing a mission-specific competency, operations level hazardous materials responders must: A. be secured to a mechanical means of retrieval. B. work in pairs. C. work under the direct supervision of technician level personnel. D. wear Level A protective clothing.

When placed at the correct angle for climbing, the ratio of the ladder's vertical reach to distance of the butt from the structure is _____ to one. A. two B. three C. four D. five

When referring to hose, what does the "L" stand for in "LDH"? A. Limited B. Low C. Large D. Light

When removing the victim from the vehicle, who usually directs the move? A. The company officer B. The most qualified medical provider C. The person stabilizing the victim's cervical spine D. The person at the foot of the backboard

When should fire fighters handle a potentially explosive device? A. When doing so will eliminate a threat to life B. Only when the building cannot be evacuated easily C. At no time D. Only when the timer is visible and the bomb squad clearly will not arrive in time

When should size-up begin? A. While the company is in transit to the call B. When the victim is located C. During the initial dispatch D. Once the facts are known

A Bangor ladder: A. is a single-section ladder at least 20 ft long. B. has a single beam. C. is also known as a Pompier ladder. D. is equipped with staypoles.

A Class A fire extinguisher with a numerical rating of 2 contains _____ of water. A. 1.0 gal (3.8 L) B. 1.5 gal (5.7 L) C. 2.0 gal (7.6 L) D. 2.5 gal (9.5 L)

A Class C agent must: A. be safe for use in an enclosed area. B. resist freezing. C. be compatible with foam. D. not conduct electricity.

A Pitot gauge is used to calculate: A. pump discharge pressure. B. net pump pressure. C. static pressure. D. volume of flowing water.

A computer model showing fire spread through a building is an example of __________ evidence. A. documentary B. physical C. direct D. demonstrative

A fire department has posted the following message in a prominent location: "The Smith City Fire Department is Committed to Professional Excellence Through a Tradition of Protecting Lives, Property, and the Environment by Providing the Highest Quality of Service in Prevention, Fire Protection, Emergency Medical Services, and Community Preparedness." This is an example of a __________ statement. A. charter B. department purpose C. vision D. mission

A fire department pumper can supplement a sprinkler system water supply through the: A. Class I standpipe. B. APV. C. OS&Y. D. FDC.

A foam blanket disrupts which component of the fire tetrahedron? A. Oxygen B. Fuel C. Heat D. All of these are correct.

A jet siphon is used for which application? A. Expediting discharge from a mobile water supply apparatus B. Exhausting air from hard suction C. Priming a dry pump D. Transferring water between portable tanks

A ladder belt or a leg lock should be used when: A. moving an unconscious victim down a ladder. B. tying in either the fly or the butt. C. carrying equipment up or down the ladder. D. reaching or working from a ladder.

A long section of protective material used to protect flooring or carpet is a: A. floor roll. B. salvage mat. C. carpet cover. D. floor runner.

A person develops asbestosis after repeated exposures to asbestos over 20 years. This is an example of a(n) __________ health effect. A. acute B. sensitized C. prolonged D. chronic

A portable monitor is an example of: A. large handlines. B. aerial streams. C. deluge sets. D. master stream devices.

A pot left unattended on a stove that catches fire is an example of which classification of fire cause? A. Negligence B. Misfeasance C. Omission D. Accidental

A soft sleeve hose is used to connect a pumper to a: A. standpipe/FDC. B. master stream device. C. static water supply. D. hydrant.

A standard approach to risk-benefit analysis should be incorporated into an agency's: A. mission statement. B. personnel accountability report. C. incident action plan. D. standard operating procedures.

A thick glass carboy protected by a wooden or foam crate will typically contain: A. flammable liquids. B. pesticides. C. strong bases. D. strong acids.

A two-lane intersection has _____ potential crash points. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

A vehicle fueled by compressed gas is fully involved in fire. What should be used to fight the fire? A. Carbon dioxide B. 1¾" (45-mm) hose stream C. 2½" (65-mm) hose stream D. Unmanned master stream

According to NFPA standards, which item is a mission-specific competency for operations level hazardous materials responders? A. Scene survey and analysis B. Collection of data from reference sources C. Prediction of the likely behavior of a hazardous material D. Response to illicit laboratory incidents

According to NIOSH, initial rescuers account for approximately _____% of all confined space deaths. A. 25 B. 40 C. 50 D. 60

According to recent UL and NIST fire research, which is a likely outcome of improperly performed ventilation at a ventilation-controlled fire? A. Reduced visibility B. Vent-point ignition C. Stratification of smoke D. Rapid fire growth

According to the NFPA, a smoke alarm should be replaced after _____ years from the date of manufacture A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 10

Adult fire victims are often found in which location? A. Under a bed B. In a closet C. In a bathtub D. Near a door

All other things being equal, which device is the most suitable for rescue operations? A. Ground ladder B. Extension ladder C. Aerial ladder D. Aerial platform

An aboveground storage tank has leaked flammable liquid into the surrounding diked containment area. A foam stream is directed against the side of the tank. Foam is running down the side of the tank and covering the spilled fuel in the containment area. Which foam application method does this describe? A. Subsurface injection method B. Rain-down method C. Roll-in method D. Bounce-off method

An engine lays hose from a water source to the fire scene in a __________ lay. A. single B. standard C. basic D. forward

An offensive attack initiated by a quick, exterior, indirect attack into the fire compartment followed by an interior direct fire attack for final suppression is a(n) __________ attack. A. combination B. exterior C. indirect D. transitional

Approximately _____ percent of fire fighters in the United States are volunteers. A. 34 B. 46 C. 55 D. 70

Approximately how many agents are on an ATF team that would respond to assist in fire investigation on large-scale incidents? A. Three B. Five C. Eight D. Fifteen

Approximately what percentage of the population of the United States has access to a 911 system? A. 60 B. 70 C. 80 D. 95

Aqueous film-forming foam works primarily by: A. displacing oxygen with an inert gas. B. inhibiting the chemical chain reaction. C. cooling the fuel. D. forming a blanket to suppress vapors.

Are intermodal tanks shipping or storage vehicles? A. They are neither shipping nor storage vehicles. B. Shipping C. Storage D. They can be either shipping or storage vehicles.

As an incident progresses, what is an additional factor to be evaluated in the ongoing size-up? A. Establishment of an overall goal for the incident B. Actions that can be safely accomplished C. Additional resources needed D. The effectiveness of the initial plan

At a hazardous materials incident, a hazardous materials safety officer, a decontamination team, and a hot zone entry team would report directly to the: A. safety officer. B. planning section chief. C. technical unit leader. D. hazardous materials branch director.

At hazardous materials incidents, an assistant safety officer may be appointed within the hazardous materials group or branch. For whose safety is this second safety officer responsible? A. The response team B. The civilians at risk C. Everyone present D. The hazardous materials branch/group

Attic fires should generally be treated as: A. growth-phase. B. incipient. C. fuel-controlled. D. ventilation-limited.

Before climbing a ladder, fire fighters should make sure it is: A. chocked. B. blocked. C. unoccupied. D. secured.

Breaching of which type of wall is most likely to result in structural collapse? A. Partition B. Exterior C. Sleeper D. Bearing

Closed-head drums usually have bungs of what size? A. 12 inches B. 8 inches C. 6 inches D. 2 inches

Combustible wood materials may be used throughout Type _____ construction. A. II B. III C. IV D. V

Combustion begins when a fuel is heated to its: A. flash point. B. lower flammable limit. C. fire point. D. ignition temperature.

Current NFPA standards require an SCBA EOSTI to sound when cylinder pressure drops to _____ percent of capacity. A. 20 B. 25 C. 30 D. 35

Depositing a company's personnel accountability roster with the entry officer or command post indicates that the company: A. is available for assignment. B. has arrived on scene. C. has been released from the scene. D. is inside the hazard area.

Diversion of material can be accomplished by utilizing which of the following barriers? A. PVC pipe B. Fire hose C. Water D. Curbs

During an indirect attack, you should flow water until the: A. atmosphere in the room clears. B. ceiling becomes plainly visible. C. smoke level drops to the floor. D. room begins to darken.

During extrication for a driver in a frontal MVA, which action should be considered a last resort? A. Use vehicle power to move an electrically adjustable seat back on its tracks B. Manually slide the seat back on its track C. Roll up the dash D. Displace the seat with a powered hydraulic tool

Early responders should establish a plan for decontamination at: A. incidents involving gases or vapors. B. incidents that will likely involve direct contact with the material. C. incidents involving offensive operations. D. all incidents.

Exposure of a metal ladder to a minimum temperature of approximately __________ will cause a heat sensor label to change color. A. 150°F (65°C) B. 212°F (100°C) C. 250°F (120°C) D. 300°F (150°C)

Exposure protection during a defensive operation takes __________ priority. A. zero B. low C. medium D. high

Fire alarm systems in most high-rise buildings are programmed to alert the occupants located: A. on the alarm floor only. B. on the alarm floor and floor immediately above the alarm floor. C. throughout the entire building. D. on the alarm floor and floors immediately below and above the alarm floor.

Fire fighters may need to hold on to the ________ while filling a self-expanding portable tank. A. frame B. hose C. rope D. collar

Fire fighters should spend a minimum of _____ minutes per day in physical fitness training. A. 15 B. 30 C. 45 D. 60

Flammable liquids with low boiling points are dangerous because: A. a relatively low temperature can start the liquid boiling. B. once one of these substances begins to boil, it is very difficult to make it stop. C. a low boiling point translates into a tendency for early explosion in a fire. D. they may produce large volumes of flammable vapor at relatively low temperatures.

Following receipt of an alarm, a common practice is for fire fighters to don personal protective equipment (PPE) ________________? A. Upon dismounting the apparatus at the scene B. While on the apparatus, in route to the call C. After the first-arriving unit gives its report on conditions D. Prior to mounting the apparatus

For an extinguishing agent to be rated for a particular class of fire, it must: A. be effective in portable volumes. B. be noncorrosive. C. be nontoxic. D. prevent rekindling.

For extrication purposes, which is one of the three main components of a vehicle? A. Electrical system B. Body C. Drivetrain D. Passenger compartment

For the purpose of extinguisher selection and placement, a woodworking shop is a(n) __________ hazard environment. A. light B. moderate C. ordinary D. extra

For which situation will structural firefighting protective clothing provide you with adequate protection? A. When you will be exposed to splashes of the material B. When you will have to handle the material C. When there are high atmospheric concentrations of the material D. None of these is correct.

From the following list, which item is removed last during the decontamination process? A. Protective suit B. Boots C. Gloves D. Personal clothing

Generally speaking, a 1¾" (44-mm) attack hose can flow: A. 60 to 125 gpm (227 to 473 lpm). B. 75 to 150 gpm (284 to 566 lpm). C. 100 to 160 gpm (379 to 606 lpm). D. 120 to 180 gpm (454 to 681 lpm).

Hazardous materials response agencies should focus incident-planning activities on __________ hazards in the jurisdiction. A. residential B. potential C. vulnerable D. target

Heat rising within a structure is primarily caused by which form of heat transfer? A. Circulation B. Radiation C. Conduction D. Convection

Heat traveling from one end of a steel beam to the other end is an example of: A. convection. B. radiation. C. oxidation. D. conduction.

How are standards for hazardous materials developed? A. They are created separately by each fire department. B. They are formed by participation from industry manufacturers. C. They are laws passed by several states' legislatures. D. They are issued by nongovernmental agencies such as NFPA.

How do the pupils present in victims of nerve agent exposure? A. Widely dilated B. Normal C. Unequal D. Pinpoint

How does a closed-circuit SCBA operate? A. Fresh air is supplied by one tank, and exhaled air is stored in another tank. B. Exhaled carbon dioxide reacts with a catalyst to produce oxygen. C. Exhaled breath is released to the atmosphere. D. All inhaled and exhaled gas stays within the system.

How does exposure to natural gas affect the body? A. There is no effect; natural gas is inert and nontoxic B. Natural gas causes swelling of the airways C. Natural gas interferes with cellular metabolism D. Natural gas acts as an asphyxiant

How does the rabbit tool work? A. It cuts the latch or bolt B. It displaces the lock cylinder C. It shears the hinges D. It spreads the door from the frame

How does the vapor pressure of a liquid relate to its rate of evaporation? A. There is no relationship between these two quantities. B. Vapor pressure and rate of evaporation are synonymous. C. The greater the vapor pressure, the slower a liquid will evaporate. D. The greater the vapor pressure, the faster a liquid will evaporate.

How is a sprinkler wedge used to stop flow from an activated sprinkler? A. Insert the wedge into the orifice and drive it into place with a striking tool B. Tap a wedge into place between the orifice and the deflector C. Tap two wedges into place above and below the deflector D. Push two wedges together from opposite sides between the orifice and the deflector

How is the lid on an open-head drum fastened? A. Hooks are welded to the sides and grip it. B. The lid flange is crimped over the drum lip. C. The lid is twisted onto a thread encircling the body. D. A ring and tightening hardware are applied.

How is the tamper alarm on a pull-station connected to the fire alarm system? A. Through shared wiring B. Via remote monitoring station C. By radio D. There is no such connection

How large must the internal capacity of a solids storage container be to qualify as a bulk storage container? A. More than 351 pounds B. More than 405 pounds C. More than 599 pounds D. More than 882 pounds

How many anthrax spores are needed to cause an anthrax infection? A. 1 to 10 B. 100 to 1000 C. 2000 to 4000 D. 8000 to 10,000

How many gallons can be stored in pressurized horizontal tanks? A. 10 or less B. 10 to 100 C. 100 to 1000 D. More than 1000

How much damage is caused by forcing the locks on double-hung windows? A. None B. Minor C. Moderate D. Extensive

How much water is needed to effectively dilute a hazardous material? A. A volume equal to twice that of the material to be diluted B. A volume equal to three times that of the material to be diluted C. A volume equal to four times that of the material to be diluted D. It varies, depending on the material to be diluted.

How often must SCBA face pieces be fit-tested? A. Monthly B. Every 3 months C. Every 6 months D. Every 12 months

How often should periodic ladder service testing be performed? A. Monthly B. Quarterly C. Semi-annually D. Annually

How should fire fighters space themselves when advancing an uncharged line up a ladder? A. 10 ft (3 m) apart B. 15 ft (5 m) apart C. Only the fire fighter with the nozzle should be on the ladder D. One fire fighter on each ladder section

If overhaul operations may disturb possible evidence, what should fire fighters do before continuing with their work? A. Have a law enforcement officer evaluate the situation B. Take photos or make sketches of the evidence in an undisturbed state C. Tag and bag the evidence D. Wait for investigators to examine it

If smallpox was eradicated from the world in 1980, why is it a threat today? A. It was premature to declare eradication in 1980. B. It has a spore form that can lie dormant for a decade or more. C. It was not eradicated; rather everyone was either immune or vaccinated. D. Some countries kept samples of it alive.

If the air bag did not deploy during a vehicle accident, what must be done prior to disentangling a victim? A. Place a short back board between the victim and the steering wheel B. Puncture the air bag C. Cut the steering column D. Disconnect the battery

If the load contains more than one hazard class, what type of placard might be used during transport? A. Warning B. Caution C. Other regulated material D. Dangerous

If there is no life-safety hazard, which type of fire attack should be used in a building under construction that has no doors or windows? A. Blitz B. Transitional C. Offensive D. Defensive

If, during a training exercise, you observe an unsafe practice, what should you do? A. Stay focused on your own assignment B. Alert the members in closest proximity to the hazard C. Take immediate action to reduce the hazard D. Bring it to the attention of the instructor or designated safety officer

In a building fire, you observe warped steel structural members. What is the first and safest action to take? A. No specific action is required B. Direct a hose stream on the members C. Inform the incident commander of your observations D. Immediately clear the area

In a preaction sprinkler system, what must happen before water will flow? A. The alarm condition must persist for a set time B. The dry-pipe valve must close C. System water pressure must drop D. An alarm initiating device must be activated

In a typical fire department rank structure, an assistant chief reports directly to the: A. battalion chief. B. section chief. C. command staff. D. chief of the department.

In a well-designed water distribution system, which type of pattern do the water mains follow? A. Branched B. Parallel C. Loop D. Grid

In an electric-drive vehicle, high-voltage cables are typically colored: A. red-and-white candy stripe. B. red. C. purple. D. orange.

In general, what is the primary responsibility of fire fighters in fire investigation? A. Collection of evidence B. Obtaining preliminary testimony C. Determination of cause D. Preservation of evidence

In the ERG, the Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances are found on pages that have __________ borders. A. red B. yellow C. blue D. green

In the fire service, the bugle has become a symbol of: A. fraternity. B. courage. C. service. D. authority.

In the sequence of evacuation, when is the safe area selected and arranged? A. Concurrently with the issuing of the evacuation order B. Within 30 minutes of giving the evacuation order C. Not until everyone is first out of the danger area D. Before the evacuation order is given

In which case does a larger vertical ventilation opening improve interior conditions better than a smaller opening? A. In all cases B. For any fire within an intact compartment C. For any ventilation-limited fire D. When combined with coordinated water application

In which case should a downed fire fighter's face piece be replaced with the emergency face piece from the rapid intervention pack? A. The victim is not breathing B. The victim is running low on air C. The victim's UAC is damaged or inaccessible D. The victim's face piece is damaged

In which hazardous materials situation will structural firefighting protective clothing provide you with adequate protection? A. You will be exposed to splashes of the material. B. You will have to handle the material. C. There are high atmospheric concentrations of the material. D. None of these is correct.

In which process is a new compound created from the combination of oxygen and another substance? A. Catagenesis B. Pyrolysis C. Combustion D. Oxidation

In which situation is shelter-in-place the best option? A. The majority of the exposed population is outdoors. B. The population will be exposed to a slow-spreading toxic plume. C. A toxic release is probable but has not yet occurred. D. The exposed population consists of patients in a healthcare facility.

In which step of the technical rescue incident process are victims freed from entrapment? A. Extrication B. Recovery C. Release D. Disentanglement

Level _____ PPE should be used only when the atmosphere contains no known hazard and when there is no potential for splashes, immersion, or inhalation of hazardous levels of chemicals. A. A B. B C. C D. D

MC-306 refers to: A. the tag on gas pumps that states, "This device must start on zero." B. the grounding harness woven into gasoline-dispensing device hoses. C. the test that all gasoline products undergo to determine their octane value. D. the familiar oval-shaped highway gasoline tanker.

Many new smoke alarms contain an extended-life _____-year battery. A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10

Movement of hot fluid is an example of which method of heat transfer? A. Circulation B. Radiation C. Conduction D. Convection

On an NFPA 704 symbol, what number indicates the greatest hazard? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

On which principle does a thermal imaging camera operate? A. Ultraviolet light detection B. Diffraction spectroscopy C. Digital image enhancement D. Temperature differentials

Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAH) are compounds that concern responders. PAHs are found in: A. smoke generated from structure fires. B. grilled food. C. tobacco smoke. D. All of these are correct.

Portable ladders approved for fire service use can support up to: A. 300 lb (135 kg). B. 450 lb (205 kg). C. 600 lb (270 kg). D. 750 lb (340 kg).

Prevention of nuisance alarms due to pressure variations in a sprinkler system water supply is the function of the: A. surge chamber. B. wet-pipe valve. C. pressure compensator. D. alarm valve.

REL stands for: A. real exposure limit. B. relative energy level. C. recommended experience level. D. relative exposure limit.

Recirculation is associated with which form of ventilation? A. Positive-pressure B. Vertical C. Horizontal D. Negative-pressure

Removal and inspection of the layers of debris from a fire will most likely result in determination of the: A. source of heat. B. approximate time of ignition. C. duration of burn. D. sequence of items burned.

Residential fire sprinklers combined with smoke alarms reduce the risk of death from fire by approximately _____ percent. A. 50 B. 60 C. 70 D. 80

Rotating tools are used to assemble parts that are connected by which means? A. Welds B. Nails C. Rivets D. Threaded fasteners

SCBA cylinders of aluminum, steel, and carbon-fiber must be hydrostatically tested every _____ years. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Self-contained breathing apparatus should be worn at a fire scene until: A. the fire is extinguished. B. the smoke has dissipated. C. all excess heat is gone. D. fire monitoring has been completed.

Smoke exposure can be: A. acute. B. chronic. C. cumulative. D. All of these are correct.

Smoke exposure causes __________ health effects. A. chronic B. acute C. no D. acute and chronic

Softened, numb, peeling skin as a result of wearing wet socks for a long period of time could result in: A. trench foot. B. frost nip. C. chilblains. D. hypothermia.

Standards for fire hose testing are found in NFPA: A. 1145. B. 1710. C. 1720. D. 1962.

Tempered glass is about __________ as strong as regular glass. A. half B. equally C. twice D. four times

The "P" in the acronym PASS, used in reference to fire extinguisher operation, stands for: A. point. B. pick. C. pause. D. pull.

The Americans with Disabilities Act requires that communications centers be able to receive calls by which medium? A. Personal digital assistant (PDA) B. Walk-in C. Radio transmission D. TTY/TDD

The Hux bar is a type of__________ tool. A. striking B. cutting C. lifting D. prying

The K tool is used in combination with: A. vise-grips. B. a pick-head axe. C. a strap wrench. D. a pry bar.

The LC50 applies to materials in the __________ state. A. solid B. suspended C. liquid D. gaseous

The NFPA recommends color-coding hydrants to indicate: A. the most recent flow test. B. available pressure. C. the water source. D. available flow.

The OSHA HAZWOPER regulation mandates that operations level hazardous materials/WMD responders must be trained to respond in a(n) __________ fashion. A. offensive B. indirect C. passive D. defensive

The U.S. Department of Transportation's definition of hazardous materials specifies three entities against which a hazardous material poses an unreasonable risk. Which of the following is one of these entities? A. Newly arriving emergency personnel B. Drivers and handlers of the material C. Receivers and shippers D. The environment

The __________ is the time period between infection and when a person first begins to show symptoms. A. latent period B. dormancy period C. metastatic period D. incubation period

The _______________ creates a structure through which a department manages its routine and emergency operations? A. Incident command system B. Division of labor C. Scalar structure D. Chain of command

The bar of a pry bar acts as a ________ to multiply the amount of force that can be applied. A. fulcrum B. ratchet C. pivot D. lever

The board to which fire fighter personnel accountability tags are attached is sometimes referred to as: A. the hall pass. B. the roll. C. the roster. D. a passport.

The combination of working smoke alarms and a residential sprinkler system reduces the chance of a death from a home fire by _____ percent. A. 56 B. 66 C. 75 D. 82

The command staff reports directly to the: A. operations section chief. B. chief fire official. C. command staff director. D. incident commander.

The essential reason that team efforts are imperative in the fire service is because of the: A. need to accomplish several tasks simultaneously. B. tendency for task-related tunnel vision. C. need to maintain manageable span of control. D. intense physical labor involved in firefighting operations.

The first priority for search teams is those areas: A. where victims are most likely to be found. B. with the highest number of occupants. C. where trapped occupants have the best chance for survival. D. where live victims may be immediately around the fire.

The flow of heated gases from the point of origin is usually: A. equal in all directions. B. mushroom shaped. C. predominantly lateral. D. up and out.

The function of a standpipe system is to provide: A. an auxiliary water supply for the fire department. B. a connection from an engine to a static water source. C. a connection for pumper support of a sprinkler system. D. a water supply for interior attack lines.

The generally accepted objective is approximately _____ seconds from the time a call reaches the communication until units are dispatched. A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 90

The goal of the __________ concept is to encourage communication and input from all crew members to assess the situation and to develop the safest and most effective method to complete the assignment. A. functional supervision B. horizontal command C. group decision-making D. crew resource management

The individuals on the command staff report directly to the: A. staging manager. B. operations section chief. C. planning director. D. incident commander.

The low surface tension of Class A foam affects its extinguishing properties by: A. raising the vaporization temperature of water. B. suppressing vapor production. C. diluting the fuel. D. enabling water to penetrate the fuel more deeply.

The lowest temperature at which a liquid or solid produces enough flammable vapor to burn briefly is its: A. fire point. B. ignition temperature. C. flammable range. D. flash point.

The majority of civilian fire injuries occur in which type of occupancy? A. Retail/office B. Industrial/manufacturing C. Educational/institutional D. Residential

The modular organization of the ICS gives it the ability to: A. expand the span of control along with the incident. B. create new organizational elements that preserve existing local command structures. C. incorporate personnel from several different agencies. D. expand to the extent needed to manage the incident.

The movement of heated gases in a fire is an example of which form of heat transfer? A. Circulation B. Radiation C. Conduction D. Convection

The number of people that one person can supervise effectively is known as: A. unit integrity. B. division of labor. C. unity of command. D. span of control.

The number of people whom one person can supervise effectively is known as: A. functional supervision. B. division of labor. C. chain of command. D. span of control.

The official probable cause is the __________ with the highest level of certainty. A. possibility B. probability C. theory D. hypothesis

The one-person walking assist is best suited for victims who are: A. awake and responsive. B. unable to walk. C. require support to walk. D. capable of walking.

The output range for portable lights is generally __________ watts. A. 250 to 500 B. 500 to 750 C. 500 to 1000 D. 300 to 1500

The pressure remaining in a water distribution system when water is flowing is the ________ pressure. A. static B. operating C. flow D. residual

The primary objective of the __________ phase of a hazardous materials incident is to return the property or site of the incident to its original condition. A. restoration B. mitigation C. salvage D. recovery

The purpose of a(n) __________ is to respond immediately if a crew working inside the hazardous area needs rescue. A. interior attack team B. buddy system C. rescue group D. rapid intervention crew

The purpose of the hooks of a roof ladder is to: A. provide safe attachment points for fire fighters working on the ladder. B. grip the eave of the roof to keep the ladder from slipping. C. prevent the butt of the ladder from slipping or shifting. D. secure the tip of the ladder to the peak of a pitched roof.

The rate of combustion of wood is most directly related to which factor? A. Age B. Use of adhesives C. Volatility D. Surface area

The realistic duration of an SCBA air supply is __________ than the rated duration. A. about the same B. somewhat longer C. somewhat shorter D. much shorter

The required frequency of code enforcement inspections is usually determined by: A. the adopting agency. B. the authority having jurisdiction. C. the chief fire official. D. the fire code.

The safety officer position is part of which ICS organizational element? A. Medical unit B. Operations section C. Safety branch D. Command staff

The term for a rope that is suddenly put under unusual tension is __________ loading. A. impact B. drop C. tensile D. shock

The two-person chair carry is particularly useful: A. for victims with possible spinal injury. B. in heavy smoke conditions. C. for obese victims. D. in narrow corridors.

The use of Level __________ protective clothing should be used only in situations where there is no atmospheric hazard. A. A B. B C. C D. D

The use of a hand tool should be followed by: A. testing. B. sharpening. C. weighing. D. documentation.

Time marking is specifically intended to be an aid to: A. crews working in IDLH atmosphere. B. the safety officer. C. group/division supervisors. D. the incident commander.

To batch mix 3% foam into a 500-gallon (1894 L) booster tank, you would need to add _____ of foam concentrate to the tank. A. 3 gal (11 L) B. 5 gal (19 L) C. 9 gal (34 L) D. 15 gal (56 L)

To be effective, liquid nerve agents must be in __________ form. A. dried B. liquid C. solid D. aerosol

To qualify as a light hazard for the purpose of extinguisher selection and placement, the majority of materials in the area must: A. be fire resistive. B. be Class A or C combustibles. C. have a flash point exceeding 150°F. D. be low combustibility.

Traditionally, most fog nozzles were designed to operate at which nozzle pressure? A. 50 psi (200 kPa) B. 75 psi (515 kPa) C. 80 psi (550 kPa) D. 100 psi (690 kPa)

Type II construction is referred to as: A. ordinary. B. fire resistive. C. fire retardant. D. noncombustible.

Under which circumstances does the first-arriving officer assume command? A. Upon arrival of a second officer B. When multiple units will be needed to manage the incident C. When necessary to maintain span of control D. On every incident

Under which circumstances is it considered safe for one fire fighter to safely handle a large handline? A. When using a 50 psi (350 kPa) nozzle B. When using the handline for exposure protection C. There are no circumstances under which this is considered a safe practice. D. When the handline is stationary and well anchored

Vapor dispersion with fans or fog streams should only be attempted after: A. an opposing dispersing stream is ready. B. a containment basin is dug. C. the ground has been treated with lime. D. the hazardous material is accurately identified.

Vehicle air bags may remain energized for as long as _____ minutes after the vehicle battery has been disconnected. A. 0 B. 5 C. 10 D. It varies with the manufacturer

Weighing the potential danger to fire fighters against the potential for saving a life is goal of the: A. primary survey. B. life-safety analysis. C. triage. D. risk/benefit analysis.

What are butt spurs on a ladder? A. Mechanical locks that hold the fly section in place B. Devices to secure the ladder to a roof ridge C. Damage to the metal of the butt plate D. Spikes on the base that keep it from slipping

What determines when is a fire investigator dispatched to a fire? A. State law B. Federal law C. NFPA 921 D. Local policy

What do Dewar containers hold? A. Bulk amounts of distilled spirits B. Substances that cannot come into contact with foodstuffs C. Anything that is transported by passenger jet D. Cryogenic liquids

What do tube trailers carry? A. Lengths of pipe B. Lengths of rod C. Cable D. Compressed gas

What does it mean if a substance's vapor density is 2.3? A. It will float in air. B. It has a relatively high boiling point. C. It has an extraordinarily high boiling point. D. It will sink in air.

What does the "A" stand for in "PSAP"? A. Alerting B. Activating C. Auxiliary D. Answering

What does the "A" stand for in the LUNAR acronym? A. Assess B. Acknowledge C. Actions D. Air

What does the "C" stand for in "RECEO-VS"? A. Conduction B. Command C. Convection D. Confinement

What does the "R" stand for in "RIC"? A. Responder B. Response C. Rescue D. Rapid

What does the C stand for in the acronym SLICE-RS? A. Coordinated fire attack B. Control the flow path C. Confine the fire D. Cool the space from the safest location

What does the E stand for in the acronym SLICE-RS? A. Establish command. B. Evaluate the facts. C. Evaluate extension. D. Extinguish the fire.

What does the EVADE acronym address? A. Decontamination B. Nerve agent poisoning C. Scene assessment D. Secondary devices

What does the I in O-VEIS stand for? A. Interior B. Imager C. Initial D. Isolate

What does the abbreviation TLV stand for? A. Type limit variable B. Total limit viability C. Time length variable D. Threshold limit value

What does the blue diamond on the NFPA 704 symbol indicate? A. Flammability B. Instability C. Special hazards D. Health hazard

What does the letter C stand for in 4H MEDIC ANNA? A. Contain B. Cervical C. Casualties D. Carbon monoxide

What does the term isolation mean as it applies to hazardous materials response? A. Taking steps to control the direction of a material and subsequent exposure contact B. Using appropriate personal protective equipment to prevent direct contact with the material C. Preventing spread of a material beyond a specified zone or perimeter D. Establishing a perimeter around the incident and controlling access

What does the term isolation mean, as it applies to hazardous materials response strategy? A. Taking steps to control the direction of a material release and minimize downwind exposures B. Using appropriate PPE to prevent direct contact with the material C. Preventing the spread of a material beyond a specified zone or perimeter D. Keeping responders and the public a safe distance away from the hazard

What free service can be used to connect fire fighters with chemical manufacturers, chemists, and other specialists during a chemical incident? A. NRC B. NRTC C. AMERITEC D. CHEMTREC

What is a characteristic of bowstring trusses? A. Lack of a cockloft or attic space B. Commonly used in lightweight residential construction C. Commonly used in fire-resistive construction D. Prone to sudden collapse in fire conditions

What is a common fire service use for a spring-loaded center punch? A. Gaining purchase on a metal surface B. Performing through-the-lock forcible entry C. Deflating tires D. Breaking tempered glass

What is a critical factor to consider when evaluating the potential for collapse of a burning structure? A. Size of the collapse zone B. Reflex time C. Weather conditions D. How long it has been burning

What is an advantage of portable fire extinguishers over hose lines? A. Greater heat absorption B. Controllable rates of flow C. Longer duration D. Faster deployment

What is an effect of a hose stream that consists of droplets with a large surface area? A. The stream carries over a longer distance. B. The stream resists breakup from the wind. C. Water in this pattern penetrates fuels better. D. Heat absorption is enhanced.

What is an identifying characteristic of a cargo tank truck designed to carry liquefied gases such as liquefied petroleum gas? A. External structural rings B. Top-mount valve controls C. Insulated tank shell D. Rounded tank ends

What is another term for gypsum board? A. Chalkboard B. Paneling C. Cement board D. Sheetrock

What is formed by reversing the direction of a rope to form a "U" bend with two parallel ends? A. Loop B. Bend C. Round turn D. Bight

What is high-expansion foam usually used for? A. Unignited fuel spills B. Exposure protection C. Transportation accidents D. Flooding of large enclosed areas

What is one drawback of vapor-protective clothing? A. It must be used with a supplied-air respirator. B. It does not protect against liquid splashes. C. It cannot be used in atmospheres that are immediately dangerous to life and health. D. It retains the wearer's body heat.

What is plasterboard commonly used for? A. Shear wall B. Roof fascia and soffits C. Roof sheathing D. Interior walls and ceilings

What is secondary contamination? A. Contamination with a Class II substance or radioactivity B. Contamination with small amounts that do not cause harm C. Contact with another benign substance D. A contaminated person or object contaminating someone else, such as a rescuer

What is the ICS term for a functionally defined area of operations? A. Branch B. Sector C. Division D. Group

What is the ICS term for the headquarter location of an incident? A. The staging area B. The planning sector C. The forward observation point D. The incident command post

What is the approximate maximum capacity, in gallons, of a rail tank car? A. 10,000 B. 15,000 C. 20,000 D. 40,000

What is the correct method to stop the flow of gas delivered via an underground utility network into a structure? A. Delegate the task to the utility company. B. Close the valve on the cylinder. C. Pinch the pipe closed using grounded pipe clamps. D. Turn off the valve at the meter.

What is the decrease in pressure that occurs as water moves through a hose? A. Dynamic loss B. Residual pressure C. Water hammer D. Friction loss

What is the difference between dry powder and dry chemical extinguishing agents? A. There is no difference. These are two different terms for the same thing. B. A dry powder is compatible with foam; a dry chemical is not. C. A dry powder is harmful to the environment; a dry chemical is not. D. Each is rated for a different class of fire.

What is the final stage of the extrication process? A. Victim treatment B. Vehicle transport C. Victim removal D. Securing the scene

What is the function of an EOSTI? A. Emit an audible alarm when the wearer becomes motionless B. Broadcast a mayday signal C. Emit an audible alarm in the presence of certain gases D. Warn an SCBA wearer of low cylinder pressure

What is the likely result of a ladder striking an overhead obstruction while it is being raised? A. Damage to the ladder that is not readily apparent B. Sudden collapse of the fly section C. A broken or weakened halyard D. Loss of control of the ladder

What is the maximum capacity of typical portable water tanks? A. 1500 gal (5678 L) B. 2000 gal (7570 L) C. 3500 gal (13,249 L) D. 5000 gal (18,927 L)

What is the maximum length of a straight or roof ladder that can be carried safely by one fire fighter? A. 12 ft (3.65 m) B. 14 ft (4.25 m) C. 16 ft (4.8 m) D. 18 ft (5.5 m)

What is the maximum service life of lithium smoke alarm batteries? A. 12 months B. 18 months C. 5 years D. 10 years

What is the minimum distance to park from downed power lines? A. 50 ft (15 m) B. 100 ft (30 m) C. A distance equal to half the span between utility poles D. A distance equal to the span between utility poles

What is the most common error when making a mayday call? A. Making inadequate efforts at self-rescue before making the call B. Issuing the call prematurely C. Failing to activate the PASS after making the call D. Waiting too long before making the call

What is the most common source of carbon monoxide? A. Hydrocarbon vapors B. Decomposition of organic materials C. Open drains and sewers D. Smoke production

What is the most common use for a hydraulic spreader? A. Lifting heavy objects B. Vehicle stabilization C. Shoring D. Vehicle extrication

What is the most commonly used color of barrier tape for marking the cold zone? A. Red B. Green C. Orange D. Yellow

What is the name of the standardized audio pattern that must be produced by a modern audible fire alarm? A. ASA high-low B. ANSI-R9 C. Standard chime 4 D. Temporal-3

What is the percentage of oxygen normally found in air? A. 15.5 B. 18 C. 19.5 D. 21

What is the phenomenon in which smoke hangs low to the ground on a calm, cool, damp day? A. Ground effect B. Pooling C. Downdrafting D. Smoke inversion

What is the preferred method to ventilate a large building? A. Existing vertical shafts B. Multiple roof openings C. Trench cut D. Individual ventilation of interior compartments

What is the primary advantage of a preaction sprinkler system? A. Automatic system shutdown after extinguishment B. No need to replace sprinkler heads after a discharge C. Water is at the sprinkler head prior to fire detection D. Prevention of accidental water discharges

What is the primary goal of investigating each fire fighter accident, injury, or near-miss? A. Identify patterns and trends B. Assess civil liability exposure C. Determine whether misfeasance occurred D. Determine how such an incident can be avoided in the future

What is the process by which toxic substances are brought into the body through the respiratory system? A. Absorption B. Ingestion C. Injection D. Inhalation

What is the small area of vapor space above the liquid in tanks? A. Neutral air B. Pressure relief space C. Expansion space D. Headspace

What is the smallest unit of matter? A. A molecule B. A particle C. An element D. An atom

What is the standard atmospheric pressure at sea level? A. 1 pound per square inch (psi) B. 7.7 psi C. 12.8 psi D. 14.7 psi

What is the subject of the acronym TRACEMP? A. Methods of terrorist attack B. Symptoms of radiation sickness C. Symptoms of chemical agent poisoning D. Potential types of harm at a hazardous materials incident

What is the temperature at which a flammable liquid will ignite without the need for an external ignition source? A. Fire point B. Flash point C. Self-sustaining temperature D. Ignition temperature

What is the term for a catastrophic failure of a pressurized cylinder of liquid? A. BEDEL B. PLUME C. CLOPE D. BLEVE

What is the term for a phone line that connects two predetermined points? A. Dedicated circuit B. Private line C. Local circuit D. Direct line

What is the term for a roll call taken by a supervisor at an emergency incident? A. Resource status report B. Status and location check C. Personnel safety check D. Personnel accountability report

What is the term for acting without a superior's orders or outside of department SOPs? A. Independent action B. Initiative C. Decentralized authority D. Freelancing

What is the term for an engineered catch basin around a 5000-gallon liquid container that is designed to contain the product if the container fails? A. Auxiliary diking B. Moller wall C. Confinement barrier D. Secondary containment

What is the term for depriving oxygen to the body at the cellular level? A. Mitochondria B. Morbidity C. Adenosine D. Hypoxia

What is the term for keeping a ladder from slipping by applying one's weight to the underside of it? A. Securing B. Tying-in C. Anchoring D. Heeling

What is the term for materials used to start a fire? A. Trailer B. Accelerant C. Igniter D. Incendiary device

What is the term for shipping documentation carried on road and highway transportation vehicles? A. Waybill B. Consist C. Dangerous cargo manifest D. Bill of lading

What is the term for the ability of a substance to dissolve in water? A. Water formulation B. Water corrosivity C. Chemical solubility D. Water solubility

What is the term for the movement of heat and smoke from an area of higher pressure to lower pressure? A. Convective track B. Structure pressure gradient C. Exhaust flow D. Flow path

What is the term for the movement of heat and smoke in a structure from an area of higher pressure near the fire to an area of lower pressure? A. Chimney effect B. Thermal pressure gradient C. Exhaust flow D. Flow path

What is the term for the process by which people, animals, the environment, and equipment are subjected to contact with a hazardous material? A. Contamination B. Risk C. Hazard D. Exposure

What is the vapor density of air? A. 14.7 B. 3.1 C. 1.7 D. 1

What is the very top of a ladder called? A. Fly B. Top plate C. Caw D. Tip

What law requires businesses that handle chemicals to report type, quantity, and storage methods to the local fire department? A. INSTEP B. HAMSTER C. ASTHMA D. EPCRA

What level of chemical protection should be used only when there is no atmospheric hazard? A. A B. B C. C D. D

What residue does a CO2 fire extinguisher leave when discharged? A. Carbon B. Iron oxide C. Mineral salt D. None

What should be done to avoid water hammer? A. Always maintain a minimum residual pressure of 20 psi B. Never connect a hard suction hose to a pressurized water supply C. Purge air from the line before opening a valve or nozzle D. Open and close all valves slowly

What should be done when a small tear is found in a salvage cover? A. Return the cover to the manufacturer for repair B. Repair the tear with a vulcanizing-type patch C. Remove the cover from service D. Apply duct tape over the tear

What term does the ERG use for the distance from a spill or leak that all persons should be evacuated in all directions? A. Exclusion zone B. Protective area C. Contaminated area D. Initial isolation zone

What term means areas in the terrain or places in a structure where materials might be contained or confined? A. Declivity B. Anchor points C. Topographic basin D. Natural control points

What the third step in the five-step process of receiving and dispatching an emergency call? A. Caller instruction B. Unit notification C. Unit selection D. Classification and prioritization

When considering the placement of smoke alarms, which location should be avoided? A. Ceiling B. On a wall C. In sleeping rooms D. Near heating or air conditioning ducts

When does the response to a hazardous materials incident begin? A. Not until everyone is assembled onsite and the planning and evaluation process has been completed B. Not until the first person trained in hazardous materials arrives on the scene C. When the first call is received by the communications center or other agency of notification D. With learning about the regulations, agencies involved, and potential hazards in the jurisdiction

When faced with signs of impending flashover, which action should be taken first? A. Vent vertically B. Perform direct attack C. Vent horizontally D. Initiate transitional attack

When inspecting a private residence, what is the most important thing to provide the occupant? A. On-the-spot correction of unsafe conditions B. Free replacement of old smoke alarms and fire extinguishers C. Referrals to reputable contractors and products D. Recommendations on making the home safer

When is a combination attack indicated? A. The structure is badly weakened B. Exposures are immediately threatened C. The fire is growth-phase D. Flashover conditions are developing

When is an indirect attack indicated? A. The fire has vented prior to arrival of fire crews B. When exposures are immediately threatened C. With an incipient fire D. When flashover is likely

When is application of high-expansion foam most appropriate? A. When vapor suppression of polar solvents is required B. When foam with high water content is required C. When using as a wetting agent D. When flooding a large area with foam

When is command terminated? A. When the IC declares "All clear" B. When the incident is declared under control C. When the IC releases the command and general staff D. When the last company leaves the scene

When is freelancing acceptable during emergency operations? A. Prior to the establishment of an incident command structure B. In response to sudden changes in circumstances or conditions C. Whenever such action will result in a favorable outcome D. Never

When is it acceptable to drive a fire apparatus over a downed power line? A. In an emergency situation where there is no alternative approach B. If the wire is motionless and silent C. Only if it can be done in such a way that no two tires touch the downed line simultaneously D. This is never an acceptable practice.

When moving inside the building to continue the fire investigation, where should the investigator begin? A. The highest location in the structure with damage B. The lowest location in the structure with damage C. The area with the heaviest damage D. The area with the least damage

When operating near the suspected area of origin, fire fighters should be especially careful to: A. take note of the depth of char. B. locate the point of origin. C. collect any potential evidence. D. disturb the area as little as possible.

When providing air to a downed fire fighter from a rapid intervention pack, when should the high pressure hose be disconnected? A. When the victim's air cylinder is full B. Once the victim's low-air alarm deactivates C. Once the victim is breathing off the rescue cylinder D. After pressure in the two cylinders has equalized

When referring to a breathing apparatus, what does the S stand for in SARs? A. Self B. Supplemental C. Simple D. Supplied

When rescuing a conscious person from a window using a ladder, where is the second fire fighter positioned? A. On the bottom rung of the ladder B. About six rungs down from the top C. On a rung level with the opening D. A couple rungs below the ladder tip

When rescuing a downed fire fighter, what is the first step once the fire fighter is reached? A. Check the downed fire fighter's air supply B. Attach the downed fire fighter to the RIC-universal air connection C. Package the downed fire fighter for removal D. Assess the downed fire fighter's condition

When should a fire building be turned over to the owner? A. Whenever the owner requests it B. Once the scene is reasonably safe C. Upon completion of overhaul D. After the investigation is complete

When should fire fighters begin to think about which tools they might need for a given call? A. At the beginning of the shift B. After size-up C. Upon arrival at the scene D. During the response

When should metering and monitoring be performed? A. At the very beginning of the response B. When the fire is initially attacked C. When overhaul activities begin D. Throughout the incident

When should the building be used to anchor the butt during a ladder raise? A. For any single-fire-fighter ladder raise B. When laddering a building without eaves C. When sending a roof ladder aloft D. When a single fire fighter raises an extension ladder

Where on a high-rise standpipe system is a flow restriction device located? A. On all outlets B. At the FDC C. At the base of the riser D. Outlets on the lower floors

Where should rescuers begin their cuts on a windshield? A. Bottom, center B. Lower corner C. Upper corner D. Top, center

Where should the hydraulic spreader tips be placed when separating a door from a vehicle on the hinge side? A. Above the bottom hinge B. Below the top hinge C. Below the bottom hinge D. Above the top hinge

Which ICS section is responsible for developing the IAP? A. Command B. Operations C. Tactical D. Planning

Which LED signal indicates a half-full air cylinder? A. Steady red B. Steady yellow C. One green, one red D. Yellow blinking

Which NFPA standard addresses competencies for emergency medical personnel working a hazardous materials/WMD incident? A. 470 B. 471 C. 1072 D. 473

Which NFPA standard deals with personal alert safety systems? A. 1440 B. 1460 C. 1785 D. 1982

Which NFPA standard deals with protective ensembles for structural and proximity firefighting? A. 1472 B. 1500 C. 1981 D. 1971

Which NFPA standard deals with use, maintenance, and service testing of in-service fire department ground ladders? A. 1401 B. 1560 C. 1875 D. 1932

Which action should be taken if a vehicle has an undeployed air bag following an MVA? A. Flip the safety switch in the glove compartment B. Electrically ground the vehicle C. Disconnect the sensor unit D. Disconnect the battery

Which action should be taken if rapidly deteriorating smoke, fire, or heat conditions become evident during interior operations? A. Cool the overhead with a straight/solid stream B. Expedite vertical ventilation operations C. Switch to transitional attack D. Withdraw from the structure

Which action should fire fighters perform first before forcing a door? A. Gap the door B. Check for the presence of a dead-bolt C. Sound the surrounding wall D. Look for a window in or adjacent to the door

Which are the two levels of NFPA fire fighter certification? A. Interior and exterior B. Basic and Advanced C. Junior and Senior D. I and II

Which attack is typically performed from a hallway or doorway? A. Blitz B. Transitional C. Offensive interior D. Combination

Which attack line often uses hoses of various diameters? A. Triple layer B. Split C. Minuteman D. Wyed lines

Which cancer-causing material might electrical transformers contain? A. Polyphenyl chlorinates B. Biphenyl chlorinates C. Polychlorinated vinyls D. Polychlorinated biphenyls

Which characteristic is an advantage of unified command? A. Delegates decision making to a single incident commander B. Maintains and reinforces the span of control C. Eliminates the need for unity of command D. Reduced conflict and duplication of effort

Which class of fire includes combustible metals? A. K B. A C. B D. D

Which committees gather and disseminate information about hazardous materials to the public? A. IOSCO regional committees B. USFA annual planning committees C. Industry self-monitoring committees D. Local emergency planning committees

Which compound is added to a water extinguisher to improve penetration of fuel? A. Alkali metal salt B. Alcohol C. Bicarbonate D. A wetting agent

Which construction component is composed of smaller pieces joined to form a triangular configuration? A. Chord B. Precast panel C. Glue-lam beam D. Truss

Which construction feature is most commonly found in Type V buildings? A. Pre-stressed concrete B. Treated lumber C. Bar joists D. Platform-frame construction

Which control zone contains the command post? A. Command B. Warm C. Support D. Cold

Which control zone immediately surrounds the contaminated area? A. Red B. Target C. Restricted D. Hot

Which description best summarizes the "modular organization" of the ICS? A. The ability to expand the span of control along with the incident B. Clearly defined and limited areas of responsibility and authority C. Seamless incorporation of personnel from several different agencies D. An organizational structure that activates only those elements that are needed

Which device interrupts the current when there is a problem with an electrical ground? A. ECB B. EGR C. GCI D. GFI

Which emergency drag is particularly useful for fast removal of a victim from a dangerous area? A. Clothes B. Blanket C. Extremities D. Webbing sling

Which federal agency regulates and governs issues related to hazardous materials in the environment? A. OSHA B. DOA C. DOE D. EPA

Which fiber is commonly used in water rescue rope? A. Polyester B. Spectra C. Olefin D. Polypropylene

Which fire safety program teaches people how to get out of their homes safely in the event of a fire? A. Family escape plan B. Learn not to burn C. Out and safe at home base D. Exit Drills In The Home

Which fire-extinguishing agent would be the best choice for use on delicate electronic equipment? A. Ordinary dry chemical B. Multipurpose dry chemical C. Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF) D. Carbon dioxide

Which foam application method is the least effective when burning fuel is producing a strong thermal column? A. Bounce-off method B. Roll-in method C. Subsurface injection method D. Rain-down method

Which form of energy causes spontaneous heating of a pile of linseed oil-soaked rags? A. Organic B. Hypergolic C. Exothermic D. Chemical

Which form of ventilation is best for potential backdraft conditions? A. Positive-pressure B. Horizontal C. Negative-pressure D. Vertical

Which geometric figure is used to represent the four elements required for a self-sustaining fire? A. Pyramid B. Square C. Polygon D. Tetrahedron

Which hazard category includes automotive service or repair facilities? A. Severe B. Moderate C. Ordinary D. Extra

Which hose lay is performed by two engine companies when hose must be laid in two different directions to establish a water supply? A. Reverse B. Combination C. Relay D. Split

Which hose line is stored on an engine connected to a discharge and equipped with a nozzle for immediate deployment? A. Skid load B. Ready load C. Bundle D. Preconnect

Which hose load has the hose up on its edge and laid side-to-side in the hose bed? A. Edge B. Fan-fold C. Combination D. Accordion

Which is a benefit of Class A foam? A. Does not conduct electricity B. Forms a vapor barrier on fuel spills C. Compatible with many other foam types D. Reduces the surface tension of water

Which is a common adsorbent material? A. Nitric acid B. Sawdust C. Peat moss D. Activated carbon

Which is a common dry chemical extinguishing agent? A. Calcium bicarbonate B. Carbon tetrachloride C. Potassium hydrate D. Potassium chloride

Which is a common type of handsaw? A. Band B. Chop C. Lanier D. Coping

Which is a common use of a crowbar in overhaul operations? A. Removal of roofing material B. Opening walls and ceilings C. Separation of debris D. Removal of window and door casings

Which is a commonly used mnemonic for reporting a mayday? A. TROUBL B. UNIT-A C. AREA D. LUNAR

Which is a correct principle of residential fire safety? A. Keep bedroom doors open during the night so that smoke alarms can be heard B. If awakened by a smoke detector, children should remain in their bedrooms, close their doors, and await help C. All exit paths should go directly to the exterior; do not exit through the interior of the house D. Discuss primary and secondary exit routes from every room with the occupant

Which is a correct rescue-lift air bag safety principle? A. Bags must rest on the ground during inflation. B. When bags are stacked, inflate the top bag first. C. Separate stacked bags with a section of plywood. D. Do not use an air bag for stabilization.

Which is a feature of transverse beds? A. Can be used for both attack and supply lines B. Easy hose loading C. Suitable for a combination hose load D. Hose can be pulled from either side of the pumper

Which is a hazardous materials awareness-level skill? A. Decontaminate equipment B. Take passive control measures C. Remove victims D. Secure the affected area

Which is a primary factor when determining hazard classification for extinguisher selection and placement? A. Permissible occupancy load B. Construction type C. Presence of a sprinkler system D. Amount of combustibles present

Which is a typical location for an early-suppression fast-response head? A. Hospital B. Office complex C. Restaurant D. Warehouse

Which is a valid principle for disentangling a victim from a wrecked automobile? A. There are no circumstances that justify taking shortcuts in patient stabilization B. Stabilize the patient before stabilizing the vehicle C. Treatment before transport D. Remove the vehicle from around the victim, not the victim through the wreckage

Which is an ICS single resource? A. Unit B. Company officer C. Strike team D. Engine company

Which is an acceptable location for PPE that has undergone decontamination? A. Vehicle cab B. Living area C. Sleeping area D. None of these is correct.

Which is an acceptable storage area for gasoline and other flammable liquids at a residence? A. Basement B. Garage C. Utility room D. Outbuilding

Which is an advantage of a smooth-bore nozzle? A. Greater heat absorption per gallon discharged B. Operation at a higher nozzle pressure C. Greater disruption of thermal layering D. Longer stream reach

Which is an advantage of compressed air foam? A. More rapid cooling B. Reduced post-extinguishment smoke production C. Faster knockdown D. Adheres to most surfaces

Which is an advantage of the horseshoe hose load? A. It is particularly well adapted for use in split hose beds. B. It minimizes wear on the hose. C. The length of hose between bends is consistent. D. It reduces the number of sharp bends in the hose.

Which is an advantage offered by the K tool? A. No other tools are required to operate it B. Can be used to breach masonry C. Is useful for both forcible entry and ventilation D. Produces minimal damage

Which is an appropriate use for a 1" (25-mm) booster line? A. Exposure protection B. Car fire C. Appliance fire D. Dumpster fire

Which is another term for a deck gun? A. Deluge set B. Monitor C. Playpipe D. Turret pipe

Which is another term for liquefied petroleum gas? A. Butane B. Natural gas C. Methane D. Propane

Which is another term for the firewall of a vehicle? A. Dashboard B. Partition C. Firestop D. Bulkhead

Which is indicated by slow-moving smoke? A. Ordinary combustibles B. Ventilation-controlled fire C. Fuel-controlled fire D. Cooler smoke

Which is indicated by the color of a sprinkler head frame? A. Operating pressure B. Flow rating C. Bulb or slug type D. Temperature rating

Which is one of the 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives? A. Promote mandatory participation in fire fighter fitness and wellness programs B. Empower safety officers to stop unsafe practices C. Fight fire aggressively but plan for safety first D. Ensure that fire fighters have access to counseling and psychological support services

Which is one of the 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives? A. Require continuing education for officers B. Establish mandatory rehab periods C. Mandate sprinkler installation in all new residential construction D. Develop and implement medical and physical fitness standards

Which is one of the five guidelines that fire fighters should keep in mind when assisting rescue team members? A. Get the big picture B. Question the plan C. Act decisively D. Follow orders

Which is one of the three basic components required for fire? A. An ignition source B. A catalyst C. Carbon D. Oxygen

Which is one of the three methods by which team members working in a hazardous area should maintain contact with one another at all times? A. Radio B. Rope C. O-A-T-H D. Visual

Which is one of the two goals of public fire safety education? A. To inform the general public about the cause, occurrence, and number of fires in the United States B. To identify and correct unsafe conditions C. To raise public awareness of the operations of the fire service and allied agencies D. To teach people how to prevent the loss of life, injuries, and property damage from occurring

Which is one of the two types of fire detection technologies used in smoke detectors? A. Thermoelectric B. Infrared C. Refraction D. Ionization

Which is part of the definition of arson? A. Misfeasance B. Injury or loss of life C. Artificial means D. Criminal intent

Which is part of the primary purpose of fire investigation? A. To identify the party responsible for the fire B. To eliminate the possibility of criminal intent C. To establish motive and opportunity D. To determine the sequence of events

Which is term for a combined, offensive, exterior, and interior operation? A. Indirect B. Defensive C. Hit-and-run D. Blitz

Which is the NFPA color code for a hydrant flowing 1500 gpm (5678 lpm) or more? A. White B. Orange C. Green D. Light blue

Which is the best description of a hose jacket device? A. Soft rubber sheet B. Stiff canvas patch C. Wound plastic coil D. Split metal cylinder

Which is the best example of secondary contamination? A. Exposure to alpha radiation from broken transport packaging B. Contact occurring during operations by emergency personnel to resolve the incident C. Contact with material outside of its containment vessel or packaging D. Contact with runoff from firefighting operations on an ignited material

Which is the best method to extinguish a fire caused by an LPG regulator or pipe failure? A. Withdraw and let the fuel exhaust itself. B. Turn off the valve at the meter. C. Pinch the pipe closed using grounded pipe clamps. D. Close the main discharge valve on the cylinder.

Which is the best option for extinguishing hot spots during overhaul? A. 2.5 gallon water or Class A fire extinguisher B. Medium-diameter hose line C. Garden hose D. Small-diameter hose line

Which is the best way to confirm everyone has safely evacuated a building? A. Question occupants B. Conduct a head count C. Conduct a personnel accountability report D. Conduct a thorough search

Which is the best way to shut off electrical service to a building? A. Pull the electrical meter from its socket B. Have a power company employee do it C. Cut the service drop D. Use the main circuit breakers

Which is the correct procedure when conducting a left-hand room search? A. The crew turns left at each corner. B. The crew turns right at the entry point. C. The left hand sweeps the middle of the room. D. The left hand or shoulder maintains contact with the wall.

Which is the most efficient and widely used tool for opening a jammed vehicle door? A. The irons B. Come along C. Rabbet tool D. Hydraulic spreader

Which is the most frequently used supply line evolution by a first-arriving engine? A. Reverse B. Combination C. Split D. Forward

Which is the preferred type for rope for life safety? A. Braided B. Twisted C. Plaited D. Kernmantle

Which is the preferred water source for a sprinkler system? A. A private fire protection supply system B. A dedicated static supply C. An elevated storage tank D. A municipal water system

Which is the term for a rope used on an extension ladder to raise a fly section? A. Uphaul B. Bunt C. Fly line D. Halyard

Which is the term for the part of a rope used to form a knot? A. Running end B. Standing part C. Bight D. Working end

Which item about a building's electrical system is of particular importance to note on a preincident survey? A. Location of high-value equipment B. History of electricity-related incidents C. Age and condition of the system D. Location of shut-offs

Which item is commonly used as a basis for making assignments when organizing teams for a large building search? A. Known areas of safe refuge B. Alarm panel indicators C. Wind direction D. Stairway locations

Which item is commonly used to improvise a water chute? A. Hard suction hose B. Water vacuum C. Attic ladder D. Pike poles

Which item is installed on propane cylinders to allow excess pressure to escape? A. Frangible plug B. Blowout disk C. Purge valve D. Relief valve

Which item is necessary in order for the peak ventilation cut to be used? A. Access to both sides of the peak B. Existing roof openings C. Wood shake/shingle covering D. Plywood sheeting

Which item is typically addressed by a fire code? A. Allowable heights and areas B. Permitted building materials C. Distances between firewalls D. Provision of safe egress for occupants

Which item is used to attach a smaller hose to a larger one? A. Adaptor B. Fitting C. Gate D. Reducer

Which knot is typically used to tie together two ropes of unequal size? A. Bowline B. Half hitch C. Square D. Becket bend

Which knot is used to join webbing ends together? A. Square B. Sheet bend C. Figure-eight follow-through D. Water

Which knot would typically be used to attach a rope to a tree or pole? A. Square knot B. Bowline on a bight C. Figure eight on a bight D. Clove hitch

Which ladder is carried with the tip forward? A. Straight B. Extension C. Attic D. Roof

Which level of PPE is normally worn as a work uniform in industrial settings? A. A B. B C. C D. D

Which method is used to test a Level A suit? A. A reagent solution B. Ultrasonic scanning C. Ultraviolet light D. Pressurization with air

Which method should rescuers use to detect the presence of a dangerous atmosphere? A. NFPA/DOT labels and placards B. Environmental indicators C. Sensory indicators D. Atmospheric monitoring

Which occurs when the introduction of oxygen into an oxygen-starved mixture of superheated gases results in explosive ignition? A. Mushrooming B. Rollover C. Flashover D. Backdraft

Which of the following containment methods utilizes PVC pipes to control the material? A. Retention B. Dispersion C. Diking D. Damming

Which of the following is a common technique used for gross decontamination? A. Simple removal of clothing B. Stepping close to a powerful heat source for a few seconds C. Evaporation D. A shower system

Which of the following is a concern with using dilution at a hazardous materials spill? A. Once water is added, the identity of the hazardous material may be masked. B. Chemical treatments may not be effective on diluted solution of the product. C. Once water is added, it cannot be removed. D. The diluted product may overwhelm containment measures.

Which of the following is a recommended treatment for heat exhaustion? A. No intervention is necessary. B. Perform rapid cooling by any means available. C. Give drinks high in glucose. D. Remove the patient from the heat source.

Which of the following is a significant drawback to using the senses to detect the presence of hazardous materials? A. They are unreliable. B. They become insensitive with prolonged exposure. C. Sensory inputs are easily confused. D. Their use involves potential exposure to the hazard.

Which of the following is an identifying characteristic of pressurized horizontal tanks? A. Red stenciling B. Wheels at one end C. Access hatches down the side D. Rounded ends

Which of the following is one of the initial actions responders should take at a hazardous materials incident? A. Initiate B. Investigate C. Indicate D. Isolate

Which of the following is the best example of secondary contamination? A. Exposure to alpha radiation from broken transport packaging B. Contact occurring during operations by emergency personnel to resolve the incident C. Contact with material outside of its containment vessel or packaging D. Contact with tools and equipment used to control a leak

Which of the following is the primary safety consideration in a building collapse? A. Cause of the collapse B. Number of victims C. Type of collapse D. Building stability

Which of the following issues requires particular attention when considering an attempt to disperse flammable vapors? A. Turbulence created by the dispersal may increase vapor production. B. Personnel may be directly exposed to the material. C. Water fog will react to many flammable liquids. D. Dispersal may cause the vapors to ignite.

Which of the following methods offers a firefighter the safest way to reduce the possibility of inhalation exposures? A. Test the atmosphere and determine if the it is safe to remove SCBA. B. Use a multi-gas meter to determine if SCBA can be removed. C. Don't remove SCBA until 'all clear' is given. D. Don't remove SCBA at all.

Which of the following pH values would indicate a strong acid? A. 9.5 B. 7.0 C. 4.3 D. 1.7

Which of the following statements about chemical-protective clothing is correct? A. It must be discarded if contaminated. B. It must provide thermal protection. C. It should be disposed of after a single use. D. The clothing must be compatible with the chemical to which it will be exposed.

Which of the following statements about regular protein foam is correct? A. It is effective on polar solvents. B. It has a longer shelf life than synthetic foam. C. It is not effective on Class B fires. D. It has good expansion properties.

Which one of these devices connects a caller directly to a telecommunicator? A. Local alarm B. Fire alarm box C. Central alarm station D. Call box

Which organization developed the first standard incident command system? A. NFPA B. FEMA C. USFA D. FIRESCOPE

Which part of a fire extinguisher contains the extinguishing agent? A. Cartridge B. Horn C. Chamber D. Cylinder

Which part of a ladder transfers the weight of the person climbing it to the beams? A. Tie rod B. Truss block C. Spur D. Rung

Which particle does not have an electrical charge? A. Electron B. Photon C. Proton D. Neutron

Which party can provide technical expertise on a fire investigation? A. Mortgage lender B. FEMA C. USFA D. Insurance company

Which pattern of char on a wall suggests that the fire spread upward from the base? A. H B. O C. Inverted V D. V

Which phase of a fire-ground operation involves the observation and evaluation of factors used to determine the strategy and tactics to be employed? A. Evaluation B. Investigation C. Initial assessment D. Size-up

Which phrase best summarizes the smallest operations for which an ICS should be established? A. Incidents involving multiple agencies B. Incidents involving multiple units C. Operations in IDLH atmospheres D. Everyday operations

Which phrase is used to report that the primary search has been completed? A. "Area search complete" B. "Search negative" C. "Nothing found" D. "Primary search is all clear"

Which piece of equipment is required to perform an emergency drag from a vehicle? A. Short backboard B. Cervical collar C. Long backboard D. None of these is correct.

Which position has the authority to directly and immediately stop or correct any activity on the fireground that he or she judges to be unsafe? A. Any team member B. Company officer C. Division/group supervisors D. Designated safety officer

Which position serves as a point of contact between the ICS and the news media? A. Media unit leader B. Liaison officer C. Company officer D. Public information officer

Which position serves as a point of contact between the incident commander and the news media? A. Liaison officer B. Planning section chief C. Agency representative D. Public information officer

Which position specializes in reviewing plans for fire detection and suppression systems for functionality and code compliance? A. Fire systems specialist B. Fire prevention officer C. Fire safety educator D. Fire protection engineer

Which pressure must be measured to calculate the quantity of water flowing through a hydrant discharge? A. Head B. Operating C. Flow D. Residual

Which problem can be caused by using doorways as ventilation openings? A. The large opening can admit too much air. B. This technique tends to produce churning. C. It is more difficult to control the ventilation process. D. It compromises personnel entry and exit.

Which radio system monitors frequency loads and reassigns transmissions to unused frequencies? A. Digital input/digital output (DIDO) B. Interoperability C. Multiplex D. Trunked

Which radio terminology is used to report a fire fighter is in trouble and requires immediate assistance? A. "Emergency traffic" B. "Fire fighter requesting assistance" C. "Signal 102" D. "Mayday"

Which responder level is trained to enter heavily contaminated areas for the purpose of stopping a hazardous materials release? A. Operations B. Advanced C. Awareness D. Technician

Which rope construction type consists of a braided outer sheath surrounding a load-bearing core? A. Braid-on-strand B. Laid C. Braid-on-braid D. Kernmantle

Which section of 29 CFR 1910.120 covers emergency response? A. h B. m C. p D. q

Which situation is indicated if you open a door and the smoke rises and the opening clears out? A. The fire is ventilation controlled. B. The fire is in the decay stage. C. The fire is extinguished. D. The fire is above the level of the door.

Which situation is indicated when you open a door and the smoke thins, but the smoke still fills the door? A. The fire has reached thermal equilibrium. B. The fire has ventilated through another opening. C. There is a slow-moving, low-intensity fire. D. The fire is below the level of the door.

Which stage of fire results from decreasing oxygen and/or fuel supply? A. Isothermic B. Equilibrium C. Incipient D. Decay

Which statement about an RIC is correct? A. It is not permitted to perform any non-RIC tasks. B. It is required only on hazardous materials and confined-space rescue incidents. C. A backup hose line crew operating inside the hazard zone may function as the RIC. D. It is an extension of the two-in/two-out rule.

Which statement about chemical-protective clothing is correct? A. It must be discarded if contaminated. B. It must provide thermal protection. C. It should be disposed of after a single use. D. It may be either encapsulating or nonencapsulating.

Which statement about drum construction is correct? A. Regulations pertaining to drum construction vary by state. B. The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health establishes specifications for drum construction. C. By international treaty, all drums everywhere are made of the same materials and in the same way. D. Construction is determined by the type of material it will contain.

Which statement about dry chemical agents is correct? A. Dry chemical agents are noncorrosive. B. Dry chemical agents are compatible with all types of foam. C. All dry chemical agents have a multipurpose rating. D. Dry chemical agents are not subject to freezing.

Which statement about gaining access through a windshield is correct? A. The windshield is easily shattered with a spring-loaded punch. B. The windshield is the entry point of choice for access to front-seat passengers. C. Windshield removal is a quick and easy operation. D. Removing a windshield is more difficult than a side or rear window.

Which statement about hazard recognition is correct? A. Hazards tend to be the same regardless of the nature of the incident. B. The most obvious hazards tend to pose the least danger. C. Hazards decrease as the duration of the incident increases. D. Not all hazardous conditions are evident through observation.

Which statement about hydraulic ventilation is correct? A. Two hose lines are required. B. It is most effective with a smooth-bore nozzle. C. It is relatively ineffective. D. A fog stream is required.

Which statement about inspecting a private residence is correct? A. It may be required pursuant to the adoption of specific codes B. It may be mandatory if a fire or life-safety hazard is in plain sight C. It is required by some homeowner's insurance policies D. It is voluntary and requires the occupant's permission

Which statement about masonry materials is correct? A. Masonry materials are susceptible to pyrolysis. B. Masonry materials have high thermal conductivity. C. Masonry materials expand significantly when heated. D. Masonry materials are fire resistive.

Which statement about natural fiber ropes is correct? A. Natural fiber ropes are no longer approved for fire service use. B. Natural fiber ropes absorb less water than synthetic ropes. C. Some natural fiber ropes are approved for life-safety use. D. Natural fiber ropes deteriorate even if stored properly.

Which statement about operating an attack line from a ground ladder is correct? A. This is a risky operation that should be avoided whenever possible. B. The ladder should be tied off to the building. C. Two parallel ladders are required for this operation. D. The hose must be secured to the ladder.

Which statement about painting hand tools is correct? A. Rust-inhibiting paint should be applied to the nonworking surfaces of metal tools. B. Paint will extend the life of wood handles. C. Paint will evolve flammable vapors in a fire environment. D. The use of paint on tools can hide defects or damage.

Which statement about the care and use of PPE is correct? A. Damp turnout coats provide an extra degree of thermal protection. B. In hot weather, resist the temptation to remove your turnout coat when at the rehabilitation station. C. Special cleaning solutions are available for home laundering of protective clothing. D. Accumulated dirt or contamination increases the potential for failure of protective clothing.

Which statement about the use of a protective hood is correct? A. It is optional if a helmet equipped with fire-resistive neck/ear flaps is worn. B. Any method used for donning the hood is acceptable as long as the SCBA face piece seal is tested and intact. C. First don the hood and then apply the SCBA face piece straps over it, making sure the hood is clear of the seal. D. Don the SCBA face piece first and then pull the hood up over it.

Which statement about the use of a thermal imager during overhaul operations is correct? A. A thermal imager is particularly useful for scanning through heavy insulating materials. B. Some ambient light is required for the unit to produce a useful image. C. Imagers used for search and rescue should not be used for overhaul. D. The imager depicts the temperature differential between an object and its surroundings.

Which statement best describes the concept of unified command? A. Each subordinate is accountable to only one supervisor. B. All members of the command staff agree to the same set of objectives, tactics, and strategy for the incident. C. The chain of command is clearly defined and strictly adhered to. D. Representatives from different agencies share command authority.

Which statement best summarizes the type of incident for which ICS is applicable? A. Incidents involving unified command B. Incidents crossing jurisdiction borders C. Incidents exceeding more than one operational period D. Any type or size of incident

Which statement is correct about glass blocks in a wall? A. Glass blocks are extremely difficult to breach. B. Glass blocks quickly fail under fire conditions. C. The wall will contain structural steel. D. They are not used in load-bearing walls.

Which step in the door displacement process comes first? A. Use the spreaders to pinch the door skin B. Use the point of a Halligan tool to displace the lock cylinder C. Shear the latch pin with hydraulic shears D. Use a pry bar to create a purchase point for the spreaders

Which style of leadership does the fire department use? A. Top centralized B. Distributed C. Decentralized D. Paramilitary

Which supply line load is capable of laying both single and dual supply lines? A. Twin B. Detroit C. Horseshoe D. Combination

Which tactical activity requires technician level training? A. Basic hazard and risk assessment B. Planning a response to a leak C. Performing decontamination D. Plugging or patching

Which tanker is used to transport cryogenic materials? A. MC-306 B. MC-312 C. MC-331 D. MC-338

Which term describes representatives from several different agencies working together to manage a multijurisdictional incident in a coordinated manner? A. Group command B. Area command C. Operational control D. Unified command

Which term describes the top or bottom component of a trussed beam? A. Dog B. Block C. Rung D. Rail

Which term means the amount of energy in water? A. Flow B. Watts C. Volume D. Pressure

Which term means the process of carefully looking for evidence in the debris following a fire? A. Debris examination B. Cold sifting C. Evidence collection D. Digging out

Which term refers to the weight of a gas compared to air? A. Specific density B. Specific gravity C. Vapor gravity D. Vapor density

Which test is required to measure the ability of an extinguisher cylinder to withstand steady internal pressure? A. Static B. Pneumatic C. Fatigue D. Hydrostatic

Which tool is best suited for breaking tempered glass? A. Glass saw B. Axe blade C. Maul D. Spring-loaded center punch

Which tool is designed for both cutting and prying? A. Bam-bam B. Ram bar C. Halligan D. Pry axe

Which tool is one of "the irons"? A. Mallet B. Pry bar C. Wooden wedge D. Flat-head axe

Which tool is part of the "irons"? A. Mallet B. Pick head axe C. Pry-bar D. Flat-head axe

Which tool is particularly useful for both forcible entry and ventilation? A. Kelly B. Roofman's hook C. Halligan D. Hux

Which tool is used to protect a hose line that is being hoisted over a sharp edge? A. Hose ramp B. Edge protector C. Hose pulley D. Hose roller

Which tool will be needed to shut off a main sprinkler control valve without the necessary key? A. Vise-grips B. A pipe wrench C. A pry bar D. Bolt cutters

Which type of adaptor is used to connect two female couplings to each other? A. Wye B. Double female C. Siamese D. Double male

Which type of alarm notification system sends a signal to a third-party, off-site monitoring facility? A. Protected premises B. Remote station C. Proprietary D. Central station

Which type of automatic sprinkler system cannot be used in areas where the pipes may be subject to freezing? A. Preaction B. Deluge C. Dry D. Wet

Which type of automatic sprinkler system is usually installed in residential settings? A. Preaction B. Zoned C. Dry D. Wet

Which type of circular saw blade is specially designed to cut through hard surfaces or wood? A. Diamond B. Aluminum oxide composite C. Silicon oxide composite D. Carbide-tipped

Which type of cutting blade can be damaged by petroleum vapors? A. Carbide tip B. Wood C. Plastic D. Metal

Which type of fire alarm annunciation system identifies the zone in which the alarm was initiated audible or visual signals? A. Individual B. Master C. Addressable D. Coded

Which type of fire suppression operation is the only acceptable option in a high-risk situation? A. Transitional B. Direct C. Combination D. Defensive

Which type of foam is effective on polar solvents? A. Class A B. Fluoroprotein C. Aqueous film-forming D. Alcohol-resistant

Which type of foam is produced by pumping large volumes of air through a small screen coated with a foam solution? A. Protein foam B. Fluoroprotein foam C. Aqueous film-forming foam D. High-expansion foam

Which type of glass is normally used in automobile side and rear windows? A. Annealed B. Polycarbonate C. Laminated D. Tempered

Which type of lock is surface-mounted on the interior of the door frame? A. Mortise B. Cam C. Cylindrical D. Rim

Which type of railcar design should a fire fighter be able to identify? A. Carboy B. Ballast regulator C. Mixed cargo D. Special use

Which type of raise is typically used when the ladder is raised perpendicular to the target surface? A. Beam B. Overhead C. Throw D. Flat

Which type of respirator system has a continuous supply of air from outside the hazard zone? A. Open-circuit breathing apparatus B. Powered air-purifying respirator C. Closed-circuit breathing apparatus D. Supplied-air respirator

Which type of rope consists of individual strands twisted together? A. Braided B. Laid C. Twine D. Twisted

Which type of saw is most commonly used in vehicle extrication? A. Rotary B. Chain C. Circular D. Reciprocating

Which type of smoke detector is more prone to false alarms from cooking fumes? A. Photoelectric B. Beam application C. Refraction D. Ionization

Which type of smoke detector is used to protect large open areas, such as a church or an auditorium? A. UV B. Spot C. Line D. Beam

Which type of sprinkler head has no cap or release mechanism? A. Atlas B. Early-suppression fast-response C. Foam D. Deluge

Which type of sprinkler head uses a metal alloy that melts at a specific temperature? A. Frangible bulb B. Bimetallic C. Filament D. Fusible link

Which type of stream is most likely to disrupt thermal balance? A. Solid B. Straight C. Broken D. Fog

Which type of tool is a pick-head axe? A. Prying B. Combination C. Striking D. Cutting

Which type of truss has a curved upper member and a straight lower member? A. Lightweight B. Engineered C. Open web D. Bowstring

Which type of truss is becoming less common in modern construction? A. Parallel chord B. Steel bar C. Pitched cord D. Bowstring

Which type of valve is typically used on engine discharges? A. Butterfly B. Gate C. Clapper D. Ball

Which type of ventilation opening is used to stop fire spread in a long, narrow building? A. Peak B. Louvered C. Triangular D. Trench

Which type of window is made of overlapping sections of tempered glass in a metal frame? A. Projected B. Casement C. Jointed D. Jalousie

Which type of wrench is used to tighten and loosen couplings? A. Hydrant B. Lug C. Hose D. Spanner

Which vehicle fuel or propulsion system presents the potential for BLEVE? A. Gasoline B. Hybrid/electric C. Diesel D. Compressed gas

Who has the responsibility to account for all companies involved in an emergency incident? A. Company officer B. Safety officer C. Resource officer D. Incident commander

Who is responsible for determining that removal of SCBA is permissible after a fire has been extinguished? A. Each individual is responsible for this decision. B. The liaison officer C. The medical branch officer D. The safety officer

Why is it necessary to limit the lowest stream angle of a portable monitor? A. To ensure the safety of crews and equipment operating nearby B. To minimize flooding around the monitor C. To reduce stress on the supply lines D. To prevent instability of the monitor

Why is the use of ICS critically important in the management of a TRI? A. The need for perimeter and control zone security B. Durations typically exceeding a single operational period C. High-hazard operations D. Complexity and size

Why should fire fighters understand the basic principles of fire investigation? A. They may have to detain or question suspects or witnesses B. They may be called to serve as cause investigators C. An understanding of fire cause aids in fire suppression D. It will help them to observe and preserve evidence

Why should ground ladders that are unused be cleaned periodically? A. To prevent oxidation B. To prevent halyard deterioration C. To keep step and grab surfaces tacky D. To remove accumulated road grime

You are alone in zero-visibility conditions and unable to find an exit. Which action listed below should you take last? A. Declare a "mayday" over your radio B. Give a LUNAR report C. Activate your personal alert safety system (PASS) D. Attempt self-rescue

You have dug a shallow pit to collect and hold a hazardous liquid. Which control tactic is this? A. Containment B. Detainment C. Diking D. Retention

________ describes an amount of vapor mixed with a volume of air. A. Vaporization B. Vapor density C. Fuel/air mixture D. Flammable range

__________ is a primary influence on the development of cold-related injuries. A. Humidity B. Dew point C. Precipitation D. Wind speed

__________ was created as a method and standard practice for a local community to understand and be aware of the chemical hazards in the community. A. OSHA B. EPA C. NFPA D. SARA

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