Oregon Real Estate Quiz

Which of the following statements best describes what an owner receives when he purchases a condominium? a Title in airspace and common interest in the common areas. b. Title in an apartment and a joint tenancy interest in the common areas. c. Tenancy in common in the building and tenancy in severalty in the common areas. d. Tenancy in common in the building and common interest in all other areas.

a Title in airspace and common interest in the common areas.

Which of the following business organizations can hold title to real property? 1. General Partnership 2. Limited Partnership 3. Sub Chapter S Corporation 4. Limited Liability Company a. 1, 2, 3, and 4 b. 1, 2, and 3 only c. 2 and 4 only d. 2 and 3 only

a. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Condominiums may be 1. Residential property 2. Resort property 3. Commercial property a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1 and 3 only c. 1 only d. 1 and 2 only

a. 1, 2, and 3

John borrowed money from Eastern Bank and gave the bank a trust deed. Which of the following describes the result of John's transaction with the bank? A. Voluntary encumbrance B. Involuntary encumbrance C. Secured debt D. Unsecured debt a. A and C only b. A and D only c. B and C only d. Neither A, B, C, nor D

a. A and C only

Which one of the following is NOT a means of creating an easement? a. By assignment b. By implication c. By prescription d. By grant

a. By assignment

Which one of the following statements about a tenancy in common is true? a. Each tenant may sell his or her interest without the consent of the other tenants. b. Each party must have acquired his or her interest at the same time and under the same deed. c. Each tenant's interest must be equal. d. The tenants may have unequal rights of possession.

a. Each tenant may sell his or her interest without the consent of the other tenants.

Which of the following statements does NOT apply to condominium ownership? a. Liens against individual units or individual unit owners are liens against the other owners interest in the common elements. b. Individuals are responsible only for mortgage indebtedness and taxes involving their unit and a proportionate share of the property held in common. c. Individual take title to their units and an interest in commonly held property. d. Each owner receives a tax bill which covers the value of his unit.

a. Liens against individual units or individual unit owners are liens against the other owners interest in the common elements.

The Oregon Subdivision Control act is administered by the: a. Real Estate Commissioner. b. Governor's ombudsmen. c. Attorney General d. State Land Use Board.

a. Real Estate Commissioner.

The maximum estate that a person can hold in land is called: a. a fee simple estate. b. estate in severalty. c. an estate for years. d. a life estate.

a. a fee simple estate.

An item that "belongs to" and passes with the title of real property is: a. a reservation. b. an emblement. c. an appurtenance. d. personal property.

a. a reservation.

The SW Gas Company is given the non-revocable use of land across the common property of a subdivision. The SW Gas Company has: a. an easement in gross. b. a license. c. an easement appurtenant. d. a prescriptive easement.

a. an easement in gross.

A properly executed quitclaim deed will always convey: a. an existing interest in the property. b. a fee title to the property. c. a first lien on the property. d. an after acquired interest in the property.

a. an existing interest in the property.

The escrow agent represents: a. both buyer and seller. b. the seller only. c. the buyer only. d. the principal broker(s) representing the seller and the buyer.

a. both buyer and seller.

Recording a deed gives: a. constructive notice. b. presumptive notice. c. actual notice. d. private notice.

a. constructive notice.

A buyer assumes an existing loan when purchasing a single-family residence. The loan assumption on the closing statement would be shown as a: a. debit to the seller and credit to the buyer. b. credit to both the buyer and seller. c. credit to the seller. d. debit to the buyer and credit to the seller.

a. debit to the seller and credit to the buyer.

Ownership of real estate is actually transferred from one party to another upon the: a. delivery and acceptance of the deed. b. acknowledgement of the deed by the grantor. c. payment of the stated consideration by the grantee d. signature of the grantee

a. delivery and acceptance of the deed.

An escrow officer is authorized by Oregon laws and regulations to do all of the following EXCEPT: a. disburse funds as authorized by both principals. b. draft legal documents. c. prepare escrow instructions. d. review closing documents to ensure they have been signed by all parties

a. disburse funds as authorized by both principals. NOT

Brian Wong owns two acres of ground with six rental houses on it. He wants to divide the property and sell the houses to the tenants. He must: a. file a subdivision plat. b. sell the houses to the tenants and no formal action by the city or county is required. c. file a major partition. d.obtain a real estate license.

a. file a subdivision plat.

The Oregon Subdivision Law applies to the sale of: a. residential lots only. b. both commercial and residential lots. c. parcels larger than 160 acres. d. apartments.

a. residential lots only.

Dividing a tract of contiguous land under single ownership at the beginning of a year into four or more lots within that year results in a: a. subdivision. b. major partition. c. minor partition. d. final recorded plat.

a. subdivision.

All of the following are co-tenancies EXCEPT: a. tenancy in severalty. b. tenancy in common. c. tenancy by the entirety. d. tenancy created under the Erickson doctrine of survivorship.

a. tenancy in severalty.

All of the following are true when an apartment building is converted to a condominium in Oregon EXCEPT: a. the owner must offer the tenant the unit he is living in at a discount from that offered to the public for that unit. b. the tenant is entitled to a separate notice from the conversion notice if the tenancy is to be terminated. c. the tenant must be notified of the conversion at least 120 days prior to the recording of the declaration, bylaws, and floor plans. d. the tenant is entitled to a sixty-day first right of refusal.

a. the owner must offer the tenant the unit he is living in at a discount from that offered to the public for that unit.

John has made an offer on a parcel of real estate and wants to trace the conveyances and encumbrances that relate to the property. To find this information, John will order a: a. title search. b. cloud search. c. chain of title. d. recordation of title.

a. title search.

Lisa and Beth hold title to their personal residence through a deed which stated "not as tenants in common, but with the right of survivorship." If Lisa dies before Beth, her interest will pass: a. to Beth automatically. b. to her heirs under her will. c. to the state by escheat. d. to her heirs under the laws of distribution.

a. to Beth automatically.

A deed executed and delivered but not recorded is: a. valid. b. void. c. voidable. d. unenforceable.

a. valid.

In Oregon, the time of possession for adverse possession is : a. 5 years. b. 10 years c. 15 years. d. 7 years.

b. 10 years

Co-tenancy can best be described as: A. title vesting in two or more natural persons. B. title vesting in two or more legal persons. C. tenancy in severalty. a. A, B, and C b. A and B only c. A only d. B only

b. A and B only

Which of the following statements concerning a life estate is false? a. A person holding a life estate can sell their life estate. b. A life estate can never extend beyond the life of the life tenant. c. All conveyances for a life estate have to be in writing to be enforceable. d. A life estate is a freehold estate.

b. A life estate can never extend beyond the life of the life tenant.

Ownership in severalty can be : A. a married person. B. an unmarried person. C. a corporation. D. an LLC. a. C and D only b. A, B, C, and D c. A and B only d. B only

b. A, B, C, and D

Which of the following statements regarding an easement in gross is NOT TRUE? a. Most easements in gross are usually used by a utility company to install service lines over private property. b. An easement in gross has a dominant estate. c. An easement in gross transfers when an owner of a property sells the property to another. d. An easement in gross does not have a dominant estate.

b. An easement in gross has a dominant estate.

Peter wants to upgrade the electrical panel in his house from a fuse system to a circuit breaker system. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Changing from a fuse system to a circuit breaker requires a permit. b. As the homeowner, Peter can do the electrical work himself without obtaining an electrical permit. c. If Peter obtains a permit, an inspector will inspect the work to ensure compliance with the electrical code. d. A circuit breaker system is superior to a fuse system

b. As the homeowner, Peter can do the electrical work himself without obtaining an electrical permit.

Kirk Evans owns a piece of property that has an easement over an adjoining parcel of land owned by Todd Allen. Which of the following statements is true? a. This type of easement can only be created by prescription. b. If Kirk bought Todd's property, the easement would be eliminated by merging the two properties under one owner. c. Kirk, as holder of the dominant tenement, could use the easement for ingress and egress only, regardless of the type he held. d. The burdened property is owned by Kirk.

b. If Kirk bought Todd's property, the easement would be eliminated by merging the two properties under one owner.

Margaret leased her life estate in the family home to her grandson, Jeff, for six years. Margaret, the governing life of the life estate, died prior to the expiration of the six year lease. Upon Margaret's death, what is the status of Jeff's lease? a. Invalid unless ratified by the administrator of Margaret's estate. b. Invalid because Margaret only had a life estate in the property. c. Still valid until the expiration date, and Jeff will continue to make the lease payments to Margaret's estate d. Still valid until the expiration of date of the lease, but Jeff must begin paying the rent to the remainderman.

b. Invalid because Margaret only had a life estate in the property.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a fee simple estate? a. It must be transferable. b. It must be free of all encumbrances. c. It is of indefinite duration. d. It must be inheritable.

b. It must be free of all encumbrances.

John bought a condominium in the Lakes Condominium complex. John defaulted on his mortgage. What impact does John's mortgage default have on the other condominium owners? a. The remaining owners must initiate a suit to quiet title. b. The remaining owners are not affected by John's default. c. The remaining owners must file suit against John to protect the common property. d. The remaining owners become subject to foreclosure.

b. The remaining owners are not affected by John's default.

The history of the title relating to a specific parcel of real estate, including wills, mortgages, deeds, and all items encumbering, transferring, or affecting title is called: a. opinion of title. b. abstract of title. c. affidavit of title. d. guaranty of title.

b. abstract of title.

Gaining or losing land by any natural or man-made cause is: a. reliction. b. accession. c. avulsion. d. accretion.

b. accession.

In a new subdivision in Oregon, when can the lots be sold under a binding contract? a. when the developer has begun the infrastructure b. after final plat has been recorded c. at any time after the preliminary plat has been submitted. d. after the Real Estate Commissioner issues the public statement.

b. after final plat has been recorded

John owned a property on the Sandy River. A heavy snow occurred and melted in two days, resulting in a major runoff. The runoff was so severe that the river removed fifty feet of John's property, resulting in a loss of 5 feet from the river bank. The process by which John lost five feet of his property is the result of: a. erosion. b. avulsion. c. reliction. d. accretion.

b. avulsion.

When owners of a tenancy by the entirety are divorced, they: a. remain tenants by the entirety b. become tenants in common. c. become tenants at sufferance. d. become tenants with the right of survivorship.

b. become tenants in common.

Jennifer holds a life estate in a parcel of property. Jennifer may do all of the following EXCEPT: a. sell it. b. devise it. c. rent it. d. mortgage it.

b. devise it.

A standard title insurance policy does NOT protect against loss resulting from: a. failure to deliver an earlier recorded deed. b. encroachments on the property. c. the grantor's lack of capacity. d. forgery in the chain of title.

b. encroachments on the property.

If Nate and Daniel hold title to real property as tenants in common, they will: a. have equal, undivided interests. b. have equal rights of possession. c. tenancies for identical periods of time. d. have the right of survivorship

b. have equal rights of possession.

Peter rents an apartment under a month-to-month rental agreement. This type of rental agreement is a: a. tenancy at sufferance. b. lease for definite period. c. periodic tenancy. d. life tenancy.

b. lease for definite period.

The best way to make sure there are no undiscovered liens on a piece of real property being purchased is by: a. hiring a lawyer to search the recorded county records. b. ordering a title search from a title insurance company. c. taking out a property insurance policy. d. contacting the county assessor's office.

b. ordering a title search from a title insurance company.

The primary justification for a zoning ordinance is to: a. prevent an over-supply of specified types of business enterprises within a zoned area. b. protect the public health, safety, and general welfare of an area. c. maintain conformity in the physical requirements of a building in a zoned area. d. control the quality of building construction.

b. protect the public health, safety, and general welfare of an area.

The right of survivorship is a feature of: a. tenancy of inheritance. b. tenancy by the entirety. c. tenancy in severalty. d. tenancy in common.

b. tenancy by the entirety.

An undivided interest without the right of survivorship best describes: a. tenancy in severalty. b. tenancy in common. c. tenancy by the entirety. d. joint tenancy.

b. tenancy in common.

Under the Oregon Subdivision and Series Partition Control Law: a. the buyer may waive his five-day right of rescission if he buy a lot for which a public report is required. b. the buyer has a three-day right of rescission if he buys a lot for which a public report is required. c. the buyer may waive his three-day right of rescission if he buys a lot for which a public report is required. d. the buyer has a five-day right of rescission if he buys a lot for which a public report is required.

b. the buyer has a three-day right of rescission if he buys a lot for which a public report is required.

If the buyer in a real estate transaction deposits funds in escrow, the escrow agent can pay out the funds in accordance with the written instructions of: a. the buyer alone in the event the buyer is unable to perform. b. the principals to the escrow transaction. c. the seller alone in the event the buyer is unable to perform. d. the brokers representing the principals to the escrow transaction.

b. the principals to the escrow transaction.

When a seller delivers a deed to escrow: a. A seller does not deliver a deed. The lender delivers the deed. b. title remains with the seller until all escrow conditions are met. c. title transfers to the buyer upon delivery of the deed to escrow. d. the escrow officer must immediately record the deed.

b. title remains with the seller until all escrow conditions are met.

All of the following are duties of an escrow agent EXCEPT: a. to follow the written escrow instructions of the seller and buyer. b. to review legal documents and provide any missing clauses. c. to act as fiduciaries until escrow is closed. d. to act impartially for both the seller and buyer.

b. to review legal documents and provide any missing clauses.

A deed that is not acknowledged is: a. valid between the parties and acceptable for recordation by the county clerk. b. valid between the parties but NOT accepted for recordation by the county clerk. c. invalid

b. valid between the parties but NOT accepted for recordation by the county clerk.

Duncan and Russ formed the Think Big Real Estate Partnership. Over the years they purchased a number of properties in the name of the partnership. If Duncan dies before Russ, Duncan's interest in the properties: a. will pass to the heirs of Duncan. b. will be determined by the partnership agreement between Duncan and Russ. c. will pass under the rules relating to tenancy in common. d. automatically pass to Russ under the rules of joint tenancy.

b. will be determined by the partnership agreement between Duncan and Russ.

John Klimp owns an apartment building that he plans to convert to condominiums. How much advance notice must Klimp give to his tenants? a. 90 days b. 60 days c. 120 days d. 180 days

c. 120 days

A standard coverage title policy insures against: A. building code changes. B. unrecorded easements. C. forged recorded deeds. D. lack of capacity of the grantor. a. B only b. A, B, and C only c. C and D only d. A and B only

c. C and D only

Which of the following is a freehold estate? a. Leasehold estate b. Estate at will c. Life estate d. Estate for years

c. Life estate

Matt and Jenifer are a husband and wife. They purchased a small office building during their marriage as tenants in common. What happens if one of them dies? a. The deceased spouses interest will escheat. b. Because Matt and Jenifer were married, the surviving spouse will receive a life estate in the property upon the death of the other spouse. c. The deceased spouse's share will pass as per the deceased spouse's will, or in the absence of a will under Oregon's laws of distribution. d. The deceased spouse's interest will automatically pass to the surviving spouse upon death.

c. The deceased spouse's share will pass as per the deceased spouse's will, or in the absence of a will under Oregon's laws of distribution.

If escrow instructions differ from the purchase and sale agreement, and the escrow instructions have been signed by both the seller and buyer, which of the following is correct? a. There is no transaction due to conflicting instructions. b. A new purchase and sale agreement must be written and signed by seller and buyer to match the escrow instructions. c. The escrow instructions take precedence. d. The original purchase and sale agreement takes precedence.

c. The escrow instructions take precedence.

Mark Rockwell owns fee simple title to a vacant lot that is adjacent to the state university. He decided to make a gift of the lot to the university. He wanted to have some control over the use of the lot, so in the deed to convey ownership of the lot to the university he inserted the following: "I convey ownership in the lot to the university so long as the lot is used for educational purposes". Once the gift to the university has been conveyed, the university owns: a. an easement. b. a license. c. a fee simple determinable estate. d. a fee simple estate.

c. a fee simple determinable estate.

Voluntary alienation refers to: a. adverse possession. b. eminent domain. c. a sale or gift. d. descent.

c. a sale or gift.

Jack Snell owns a mountain cabin on a piece of property which has no access road. An easement that can be created over an adjoining property in order to give Jack access is called: a. an easement by prescription. b. a negative easement. c. an easement by necessity. d. a license.

c. an easement by necessity.

The premium for a title insurance policy purchased by the seller would appear as a: a. credit to the seller on the closing statement. b. debit to the buyer on the closing statement. c. debit to the seller on the closing statement. d. credit to the buyer on the closing statement.

c. debit to the seller on the closing statement.

The term "undivided interest" means: a. each co-owner has the right of survivorship. b. each co-owner has the right to possess a specific portion of the property. c. each co-owner has the right to possession of the entire property. d. when one co-owner dies, the remaining owners acquire his interest.

c. each co-owner has the right to possession of the entire property.

All of the following are non-freehold estates EXCEPT: a. estate at will. b. estate at sufferance. c. estate in appurtenance. d. estate from period to period.

c. estate in appurtenance.

The main purpose of a deed is to: a. provide a written instrument suitable for recordation. b. evidence the terms of a real property transaction. c. evidence the change in title or transfer an interest in real property. d. identify the party to whom the tax statement should be sent.

c. evidence the change in title or transfer an interest in real property.

The ALTA extended title insurance policy would not cover: a. unrecorded homestead rights. b. unrecorded deeds. c. government regulations relating to zoning. d. unrecorded easements.

c. government regulations relating to zoning.

All of the following are true about title insurance in Oregon EXCEPT: a. it protects against forgeries b. it is not required by law. c. it is an annual policy which must be renewed each year by paying an annual premium. d. it is issued to insure the named insured only.

c. it is an annual policy which must be renewed each year by paying an annual premium.

An "estate for years" in real estate can also be called a: a. fee simple determinable. b. fee simple conditional. c. leasehold. d. fee.

c. leasehold.

Jennifer intends to build a 6 foot fence around her property on the property line. She should check: a. she should just build the fence, since it is on her private property. b. only the local building and zoning codes. c. local building and zoning codes, and deed restrictions. d. only the deed restrictions.

c. local building and zoning codes, and deed restrictions.

In a subdivision, the units of land are referred to as: a. partitions. b. parcels. c. lots. d. sections.

c. lots.

Zoning regulations frequently limit all of the following EXCEPT: a. height and size of a building. b. type of use for a building. c. number of deed restrictions placed on a property. d. lot size.

c. number of deed restrictions placed on a property.

Ownership in severalty means: a. co-ownership by two or more natural or legal persons. b. ownership by several natural persons. c. ownership by one person. d. joint tenancy.

c. ownership by one person.

Statewide land-use planning in Oregon is administered by: a. the Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ). b. the League of Oregon Cities (LOC). c. the Land Conservation and Development Commission (LCDC). d. local governments.

c. the Land Conservation and Development Commission (LCDC).

All of the following statements regarding an appurtenant easement are true EXCEPT: a. the easement runs with the land. b. there must be at least two tracts of land under separate ownership. c. the dominant tenement must adjoin the servient tenement on at least two boundary lines. d. the dominant tenement benefits by and the servient tenement is burdened by the easement.

c. the dominant tenement must adjoin the servient tenement on at least two boundary lines.

As far as its validity between grantor and grantee is concerned, a deed that is not dated, acknowledged, or recorded is: a. revocable by the grantor. b. invalid because of the omissions. c. valid despite these omissions. d. void.

c. valid despite these omissions.

The lien from a trust deed is removed from the public records: a. by recordation of a deed. b. when final payment has been made by the grantor. c. when a reconveyance deed is recorded. d. by posting a guarantor's bond.

c. when a reconveyance deed is recorded.

If Beth, Jennifer, Sally, and Kellie hold title to real property as tenants in common, they: a. must each own a 25% interest. b. could not transfer their interest without the consent of the others. c. would be unable to determine which portion of the land is theirs. d. would have the right of survivorship.

c. would be unable to determine which portion of the land is theirs.

To obtain an easement by prescription, the use of the property must be in a manner which is: 1. open and notorious 2. hostile to the owner 3. continuous for the statutory period of time 4. with the owners passive consent to use a. 1, 2, 3, and 4 b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 only

d. 1, 2, and 3 only

Which of the following gives a legal right to use land which belongs to someone else? 1. easement appurtenant 2. easement in gross 3. license 4. mortgage a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 only c. 1, 2, 3, and 4 d. 1, 2, and 3 only

d. 1, 2, and 3 only

An owner can defeat a claim of adverse possession by A. Evicting the adverse claimant within the statutory time period B. Resuming actual possession within the statutory time period. C. Claiming consent being given for use, not ownership a. A and B b. A only c. B only d. A, B, C

d. A, B, C

An estate in real property A. can exist simultaneously with another person who holds an estate in the same property. B. can involve a present or future right of possession. C. can be of definite, indefinite, or unlimited duration. a. A only b. A and B only c. A, B, and C d. B and C only

d. B and C only

Five friends purchased a property as tenants in common. Which of the following statements apply to their relationship as tenants in common? A. All of the owners must have equal interests. B. If one of the tenants dies, the remaining tenants automatically receive equal interests of the deceased tenant's share. a. B only b. A only c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B

d. Neither A nor B

Zoning ordinances control the use of private land through several kinds of restrictions. Which of the following is NOT a zoning restriction? a. Building height limitations. b. Designation of maximum structure lot coverage c. Setback requirements for buildings d. Non-conforming use

d. Non-conforming use

James desires to purchase a parcel of real estate. He is concerned that there may be encroachments on the property. What should James do to verify that there are no encroachments? a. Obtain a standard title insurance policy. b. Obtain a warranty deed from the seller. c. Order an abstract. d. Order a survey.

d. Order a survey.

The phrase chain of title refers to: a. the list of the heirs named in a will who inherit the property. b. a certificate of title. c. a term relating to a survey of the property. d. all of the recorded documents affecting the history of title transfers to a property.

d. all of the recorded documents affecting the history of title transfers to a property.

Before they were married, Nathan and Marcy each owned a house. After they got married, they bought a new house as tenants by the entirety. They kept the houses they owned prior to their marriage, rented them out, and did not change the deeds on either property. Four years after they got married, Marcy died without a will. The house that Marcy owned prior to her marriage will: a. automatically be inherited by Nathan. b. be inherited by Marcy's heirs, excluding Nathan. c. be subject to the rules of escheat. d. be inherited by Marcy's heirs which includes Nathan.

d. be inherited by Marcy's heirs which includes Nathan.

An __________ is a possessory right or ownership interest in real estate. a. ad valorem b. abstract of title c. fief d. estate

d. estate

A factor that distinguishes a license from an easement is that a license: a. must be contained in a deed. b. can be assigned. c. is a permanent right d. is revocable

d. is revocable

A California corporation makes an offer to purchase a property located in Eugene, Oregon. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT: a. it must have authority granted by either the corporation's articles of incorporation, by-laws, or resolution of the board of directors to purchase real property. b. it may hold title to Oregon property in its corporate name. c. it must apply for authority to conduct business within Oregon as a foreign corporation. d. it must become an Oregon domestic corporation prior to title vesting.

d. it must become an Oregon domestic corporation prior to title vesting.

In Oregon, a married couple may hold title to real property they purchase together under all of the following EXCEPT: a. tenancy in partnership. b. tenants in common. c. tenants by the entirety. d. joint tenancy.

d. joint tenancy.

Dedication may be best described as: a. the result of an adverse possession suit to gain title. b. any transfer of land owned by the government to a private party. c. the right of the government to take ownership of privately held property. d. making a voluntary gift of land by a private owner to the public.

d. making a voluntary gift of land by a private owner to the public.

Jenn Hudson willed a piece of property to Willamette University for so long as the property was used for educational purposes. Ten years after Jenn's death and the transfer of the property to the university, the land became very valuable and the university sold the property to a developer who built an arcade on the property. Jenn's heirs challenged the legality of the transfer and sued. As a result, the development company was found to have a. a fee simple interest in the property. b. a reversionary interest in the property. c. a tenancy in common with Hudson's heirs in the property. d. no interest at all in the property.

d. no interest at all in the property.

The escrow agent in a real estate sales transaction: a. is a sub-agent of the brokers. b. serves as an attorney for the parties to the transaction. c. acts only on express written instructions from the brokers. d. protects the interests of each party as a neutral agent.

d. protects the interests of each party as a neutral agent.

A quitclaim deed is most commonly used to: a. deed any future rights in a certain piece of property. b. convey fee simple title. c. give notice to the world that an owner has rights in the property. d. remove any cloud on title

d. remove any cloud on title

The covenant whereby the grantor warrants that he is the owner and the possessor of the property being conveyed is called the covenant of: a. quantum. b. quiet enjoyment. c. habendum. d. seizen.

d. seizen.

In order to transfer title to real estate, a deed must be: a. acknowledged. b. recorded. c. signed by the grantee. d. signed by the grantor.

d. signed by the grantor.

Floyd and Rebecca Wilson, a married couple, moved to Oregon from California and purchased a new home in Bend. At the time of closing, they did not specify how title was to be held. Under these circumstances, Floyd and Rebecca will automatically hold title as: a. joint tenants with rights of survivorship. b. tenants in partnership. c. tenants in common. d. tenants by the entirety.

d. tenants by the entirety.

When an easement appurtenant exists between two parcels of land that are owned by different owners: a. the servient tenement is given the right to cross the land of the dominant tenement. b. the dominant tenement is burdened by the easement. c. the servient tenement can revoke the use of the easement by giving proper notice. d. the dominant tenement is benefited by the easement.

d. the dominant tenement is benefited by the easement.

All of the following instruments transfer title to real property EXCEPT: a. bargain and sale deed. b. warranty deed. c. quitclaim deed. d. trust deed.

d. trust deed.