Chapter 15 prep u Oncology
Which of the following does a nurse thoroughly evaluate before a bone marrow transplant (BMT) procedure? Family history Drug history Blood studies Allergy history
Blood studies Before the BMT procedure, the nurse thoroughly evaluates the patient's physical condition; organ function; nutritional status; complete blood studies, including assessment for past antigen exposure, such as HIV, hepatitis, or cytomegalovirus; and psychosocial status. Before a BMT procedure, the nurse need not evaluate patient's family, drug, or allergy history.
According to the TNM classification system, T0 means there is no evidence of primary tumor. no regional lymph node metastasis. no distant metastasis. distant metastasis.
no evidence of primary tumor. T0 means that there is no evidence of primary tumor. N0 means that there is no regional lymph node metastasis. M0 means that there is no distant metastasis. M1 means that there is distant metastasis.
The nurse is conducting a community education program using the American Cancer Society's colorectal screening and prevention guidelines. The nurse determines that the participants understand the teaching when they identify that people over the age of 50 should have which of the following screening tests every 10 years? Fecal occult blood test Colonoscopy Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) Papanicolaou (Pap)
Colonoscopy Recommendations for screening for colorectal cancer include screening colonoscopies every 10 years. Fecal occult blood tests should be completed annually in people over age 50. PSA tests for prostate-specific antigen is used as a screening tool for prostate cancer. A Pap test is a screening tool for cervical cancer.
x The nurse is working with a patient who has had an allohematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) and notices a diffuse rash and diarrhea. The nurse contacts the physician to report that the patient has symptoms of which of the following? Nadir Graft-versus-host disease Metastasis Acute leukopenia
Graft-versus-host disease Graft-versus-host disease is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in patients who have had allogeneic transplant. Clinical manifestation of the disease include diffuse rash that progresses to blistering and desquamation, and mucosal inflammation of the eyes and the entire GI tract with subsequent diarrhea, abdominal pain, and hepatomegaly.
x Which of the following is a growth-based classification of tumors? Sarcoma Carcinoma Malignant Leukemia
Malignant Tumors that are classified on the basis of the cell or tissue of origin are carcinomas, sarcomas, lymphomas, and leukemias. Tumors classified on the basis of growth are described as benign or malignant.
x Which primary cancer treatment goal is prolonged survival and containment of cancer cell growth? Control Cure Palliation Prevention
Control The range of possible treatment goals may include complete eradication of malignant disease (cure), prolonged survival and containment of cancer cell growth (control), or relief of symptoms associated with the disease (palliation). Prevention is not a treatment goal when the patient has already been diagnosed with cancer. Prevention of metastasis to a secondary site may be a goal.
The nurse performs a breast exam on a client and finds a firm, non-moveable lump in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast that the client reports was not there 3 weeks ago. What does this finding suggest? Normal finding Malignant tumor with metastasis to surrounding tissue Benign fibrocystic disease Malignant tumor
Malignant tumor
A patient with metastatic pancreatic cancer underwent surgery for removal of a malignant tumor in his pancreas. Despite the tumor being removed, the physician informs the patient that he needs to start chemotherapy. Which of the following may be a reason for the physician to opt for chemotherapy? Metastasis Angiogenesis Stomatitis Fatigue
Metastasis Chemotherapy treats systemic and metastatic cancer. It can also be used to reduce tumor size preoperatively, or to destroy any remaining tumor cells postoperatively. Angiogenesis is the growth of new capillaries from the tissue of origin. This process helps malignant cells obtain needed nutrients and oxygen to promote growth. Fatigue and stomatitis are side effects of radiation and chemotherapy.
x In which phase of the cell cycle does cell division occur? Mitosis G1 phase S phase G2 phase
Mitosis Cell division occurs in mitosis. RNA and protein synthesis occurs in the G1 phase. DNA synthesis occurs during the S phase. DNA synthesis is complete, and the mitotic spindle forms in the G2 phase.
x A nurse is teaching a community class about how to decrease the risk of cancer. Which food should the nurse recommend? Low-fat hot dogs Smoked ham Oranges Medium-rare steak
Oranges A diet high in vitamin C and citrus may help reduce the risk of certain cancers, such as stomach and esophageal cancers. Hot dogs and smoked and cured foods are high in nitrates, which may be linked to esophageal and gastric cancers. Steak is a high-fat food that may increase the risk of breast, colon, and prostate cancers.
A serum sodium level lower than 110 mEq/L is associated with weight gain. myalgia. anorexia, seizure.
seizure.
A nurse is developing a care plan for bone marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression become noticeable? 24 hours 7 to 14 days 21 to 28 days 2 to 4 days
7 to 14 days
Following surgery for adenocarcinoma, the client learns the tumor stage is T3,N1,M0. What treatment mode will the nurse anticipate? No further treatment is indicated. Adjuvant therapy is likely. Palliative care is likely. Repeat biopsy is needed before treatment begins.
Adjuvant therapy is likely. T3 indicates a large tumor size with N1 indicating regional lymph node involvement. Although M0 suggest no metastasis, following with adjuvant (chemotherapy or radiation therapy) treatment is indicated to prevent the spread of cancer outside the lymph to other organs. The tumor staging of stage IV is indicative of palliative care.
x After cancer chemotherapy, a client experiences nausea and vomiting. The nurse should assign highest priority to which intervention? Serving small portions of bland food Encouraging rhythmic breathing exercises Administering metoclopramide and dexamethasone as ordered Withholding fluids for the first 4 to 6 hours after chemotherapy administration
Administering metoclopramide and dexamethasone as ordered The nurse should assign highest priority to administering an anti , such as metoclopramide, and an anti-inflammatory agent, such as dexamethasone, because it may reduce the severity of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. This intervention, in turn, helps prevent dehydration, a common complication of chemotherapy. Serving small portions of bland food, encouraging rhythmic breathing exercises, and withholding fluids for the first 4 to 6 hours are less likely to achieve this outcome.
The nurse is providing client teaching for a client undergoing chemotherapy. What dietary modifications should the nurse advise? Eat wholesome meals. Avoid spicy and fatty foods. Avoid intake of fluids. Eat warm or hot foods.
Avoid spicy and fatty foods. The nurse advises a client undergoing chemotherapy to avoid hot and very cold liquids and spicy and fatty foods. The nurse also encourages the client to have small meals and appropriate fluid intake.
x The clinic nurse is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with a tumor. The client says to the nurse "The doctor says my tumor is benign. What does that mean?" What is the nurse's best response? "Benign tumors don't usually cause death." "Benign tumors grow very rapidly." "Benign tumors can spread from one place to another." "Benign tumors invade surrounding tissue."
Benign tumors don't usually cause death." Benign tumors remain at their site of development. They may grow large, but their growth rate is slower than that of malignant tumors. They usually do not cause death unless their location impairs the function of a vital organ, such as the brain.
x Which of the following occurs when there is accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space that compresses the heart? Cardiac tamponade Superior Vena Cava Syndrome (SVCS) SIADH DIC
Cardiac tamponade Cardiac tamponade is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space. SVCS occurs when there is a compression or invasion of the superior vena cava by a tumor, enlarged lymph nodes, intraluminal thrombosis that obstructs venous circulation, or drainage of the head, neck, arms, and thorax. SIADH is the continuous, uncontrolled release of ADH. DIC is a complex disorder of coagulation or fibrinolysis which results in thrombosis or bleeding.
x A client undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: TIS, N0, M0. What does this classification mean? No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis Can't assess tumor or regional lymph nodes and no evidence of metastasis Carcinoma in situ, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and ascending degrees of distant metastasis
Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis TIS, N0, M0 denotes carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis is classified as T0, N0, M0. If the tumor and regional lymph nodes can't be assessed and no evidence of metastasis exists, the lesion is classified as TX, NX, M0. A progressive increase in tumor size, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and ascending degrees of distant metastasis is classified as T1, T2, T3, or T4; N0; and M1, M2, or M3.
Based on the understanding of the effects of chemotherapy, the nurse would anticipate which of the following clinical findings in a client 2 weeks post therapy? Ease of bruising Elevated temperature Change in hair color Elevated white blood cells count
Ease of bruising The effects of chemotherapy can include myelo suppression, resulting in anemia or bleeding tendencies, as exhibited in ease in bruising. Elevated temperature and WBCs are signs of infection and are anticipated findings after chemotherapy treatment. Re growth of hair after alopecia can result in change of hair color but not anticipated 2 weeks post treatment.
The nurse is caring for a client newly diagnosed with cancer. Which of the following therapies is used to treat something other than cancer? Surgery Radiation therapy Electroconvulsive therapy Chemotherapy
Electroconvulsive therapy Cancer is frequently treated with a combination of therapies using standardized protocols. Three basic methods used to treat cancer are surgery, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a method of treatment for mental distress or illness.
Which statement by a client undergoing external radiation therapy indicates the need for further teaching? "I'll wash my skin with mild soap and water only." "I'll not use my heating pad during my treatment." "I'll wear protective clothing when outside." "I'm worried I'll expose my family members to radiation."
I'm worried I'll expose my family members to radiation." The client undergoing external radiation therapy requires further teaching when he voices a concern that he might expose his family to radiation. Internal radiation, not external radiation, poses a risk to the client's family. The client requires no further teaching if he states that he should wash his skin with mild soap and water, wear protective clothing when outside, and avoid using a heating pad.
Which type of hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) is characterized by cells from a donor other than the patient? Syngeneic Autologous Homogenic Allogeneic
Allogeneic If the source of donor cells is from a donor other than the patient, it is termed allogeneic. Autologous donor cells come from the patient. Syngeneic donor cells are from an identical twin. Homogenic is not a type of stem cell transplant.
Which of the following is a sign or symptoms of septic shock? Altered mental status Hypertension Warm, moist skin Increased urine output
Altered mental status Signs of septic shock include altered mental status, cool and clammy skin, decreased urine output, and hypotension.
A client complains of sporadic epigastric pain, yellow skin, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fatigue. Suspecting gallbladder disease, the physician orders a diagnostic workup, which reveals gallbladder cancer. Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for this client? Anticipatory grieving Impaired swallowing Disturbed body image Chronic low self-esteem
Anticipatory grieving Anticipatory grieving is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client because few clients with gallbladder cancer live more than 1 year after diagnosis. Impaired swallowing isn't associated with gallbladder cancer. Although surgery typically is done to remove the gallbladder and, possibly, a section of the liver, it isn't disfiguring and doesn't cause Disturbed body image. Chronic low self-esteem isn't an appropriate nursing diagnosis at this time because the diagnosis has just been made.
x A client receiving external radiation to the left thorax to treat lung cancer has a nursing diagnosis of Risk for impaired skin integrity. Which intervention should be part of this client's care plan? Avoiding using soap on the irradiated areas Applying talcum powder to the irradiated areas daily after bathing Wearing a lead apron during direct contact with the client Removing thoracic skin markings after each radiation treatment
Avoiding using soap on the irradiated areas Because external radiation commonly causes skin irritation, the nurse should wash the irradiated area with water only and leave the area open to air. No soaps, deodorants, lotions, or powders should be applied. A lead apron is unnecessary because no radiation source is present in the client's body or room. Skin in the area to be irradiated is marked to position the radiation beam as precisely as possible; skin markings must not be removed.
A month following biopsy, a 75-year-old female client returns to the surgeon's office for a report on her diagnostic procedure to determine the cell composition of her abdominal neoplasm. Which of the following terms is significant to indicate the likelihood of the tumor spreading? Benign Neoplasm Primary site Lesion
Benign Tumors also are classified according to their cell of origin and whether their growth is benign, not invasive or spreading, or malignant, invasive and capable of spreading. New growths of abnormal tissue are called neoplasms or tumors. This term may be used in reference to the origins of an initial tumor if metastasis, or the development of a secondary tumor from the primary tumor, occur at a distant location. A lesion generally appears on the skin and looks like a mole.
Which of the following does a nurse thoroughly evaluate before a hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) procedure? Family history Drug history Blood studies Allergy history
Blood studies Before the HSCT procedure, the nurse thoroughly evaluates the patient's physical condition; organ function; nutritional status; complete blood studies, including assessment for past antigen exposure, such as HIV, hepatitis, or cytomegalovirus; and psychosocial status. Before an HSCT procedure, the nurse need not evaluate patient's family, drug, or allergy history.
For a client newly diagnosed with radiation-induced thrombocytopenia, the nurse should include which intervention in the care plan? Administering aspirin if the temperature exceeds 102° F (38.8° C) Inspecting the skin for petechiae once every shift Providing for frequent rest periods Placing the client in strict isolation
Inspecting the skin for petechiae once every shift Because thrombocytopenia impairs blood clotting, the nurse should inspect the client regularly for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, purpura, epistaxis, and bleeding gums. The nurse should avoid administering aspirin because it may increase the risk of bleeding. Frequent rest periods are indicated for clients with anemia, not thrombocytopenia. Strict isolation is indicated only for clients who have highly contagious or virulent infections that are spread by air or physical contact.
x What does the nurse understand is the rationale for administering allopurinol for a patient receiving chemotherapy? It stimulates the immune system against the tumor cells. It treats drug-related anemia. It prevents alopecia. It lowers serum and uric acid levels.
It lowers serum and uric acid levels. Adequate hydration, diuresis, alkalinization of the acid crystals, and administration of allopurinol (Zyloprim) may be used to prevent renal toxicity.
The nurse is caring for a patient undergoing an incisional biopsy. Which of the following statements does the nurse understand is true about an incisional biopsy? It is used to remove the cancerous cells using a needle. It removes an entire lesion and surrounding tissue. It removes a wedge of tissue for diagnosis. It treats cancer with lymph node involvement.
It removes a wedge of tissue for diagnosis
x What disadvantages of chemotherapy should the patient be informed about prior to starting the regimen? It attacks cancer cells during their vulnerable phase. It functions against disseminated disease. It causes a systemic reaction. It targets normal body cells as well as cancer cells.
It targets normal body cells as well as cancer cells Chemotherapy agents affect both normal and malignant cells; therefore, their effects are often widespread, affecting many body systems.
x The nurse at the clinic explains to the patient that the surgeon will be removing a mole on the patient's back that has the potential to develop into cancer. The nurse informs the patient that this is what type of procedure? Diagnostic Palliative Prophylactic Reconstructive
Prophylactic Prophylactic surgery involves removing nonvital tissues or organs that are at increased risk of developing cancer. When surgical cure is not possible, the goals of surgical interventions are to relieve symptoms, make the patient as comfortable as possible, and promote quality of life as defined by the patient and family. Palliative surgery and other interventions are performed in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer, such as ulceration, obstruction, hemorrhage, pain, and malignant effusions (Table 15-6). Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery in an attempt to improve function or obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect. Diagnostic surgery, or biopsy, is performed to obtain a tissue sample for histologic analysis of cells suspected to be malignant.
x What should the nurse tell a female client who is about to begin chemotherapy and anxious about losing her hair? She should consider getting a wig or cap before she loses her hair. Alopecia related to chemotherapy is relatively uncommon. Her hair will grow back within 2 months post therapy. Her hair will grow back the same as it was before treatment.
She should consider getting a wig or cap before she loses her hair. If hair loss is anticipated, purchase a wig, cap, or scarf before therapy begins. Alopecia develops because chemotherapy affects rapidly growing cells of the hair follicles. Hair usually begins to grow again within 4 to 6 months after therapy. Clients should know that new growth may have a slightly different color and textures
x A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which assessment finding places the client at the greatest risk for an infection? White blood cell (WBC) count of 9,000 cells/mm3 Stage 3 pressure ulcer on the left heel Temperature of 98.3° F (36.8° C) Ate 75% of all meals during the day
Stage 3 pressure ulcer on the left heel A stage 3 pressure ulcer is a break in the skin's protective barrier, which could lead to infection in a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The WBC count and temperature are within normal limits. Eating 75% of meals is normal and doesn't increase the client's risk for infection. A client who is malnourished is at a greater risk for infection.
x A patient with brain tumor is undergoing radiation and chemotherapy for treatment of cancer. Of late, the patient is complaining of swelling in the gums, tongue, and lips. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these symptoms? Neutropenia Extravasation Nadir Stomatitis
Stomatitis The symptoms of swelling in gums, tongue, and lips indicate stomatitis. This usually occurs 5 to10 days after the administration of certain chemotherapeutic agents or radiation therapy to the head and neck. Chemotherapy and radiation produce chemical toxins that lead to the breakdown of cells in the mucosa of the epithelium, connective tissue, and blood vessels in the oral cavity.
A nurse is administering a chemotherapeutic medication to a client, who reports generalized itching and then chest tightness and shortness of breath. The nurse immediately Stops the chemotherapeutic infusion Administers diphenhydramine Gives prednisolone IV Places the client on oxygen by nasal cannula
Stops the chemotherapeutic infusion The client may be experiencing a type I hypersensitivity reaction, which may progress to systemic anaphylaxis. The most immediate action of the nurse is to discontinue the medication followed by initiating emergency protocols.
A 36-year-old man is receiving three different chemotherapeutic agents for Hodgkin's disease. The nurse explains to the client that the three drugs are given over an extended period because: The three drugs can be given at lower doses. The second and third drugs increase the effectiveness of the first drug. The first two drugs are toxic to cancer cells, and the third drug promotes cell growth. The three drugs have a synergistic effect and act on the cancer cells with different mechanisms.
The three drugs have a synergistic effect and act on the cancer cells with different mechanisms. Multiple drug regimens are used because the drugs have a synergistic effect. The drugs have different cell-cycle lysis effects, different mechanisms of action, and different toxic adverse effects. They are usually given in combination to enhance therapy. Dosage is not affected by giving the drugs in combination. The second and third drugs do not increase the effectiveness of the first. It is not true that the first two drugs are toxic to cancer cells while the third drug promotes cell growth.
x The nurse evaluates teaching as effective when a female client states that she will Use sunscreen when outdoors. Decrease tobacco smoking from one pack/day to half a pack/day. Exercise 30 minutes 3 times each week. Obtain a cancer history from her parents.
Use sunscreen when outdoors. Use of sunscreens play a role in the amount of exposure to ultraviolet light. Even decreasing the use of tobacco still exposes a person to risk of cancer. The American Cancer Society recommends adults to engage in at least 30 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity on 5 or more days each week. It is recommended to obtain a cancer history from at least three generations.
When the client complains of increased fatigue following radiotherapy, the nurse knows this is most likely to be related to which factor? The cancer is spreading. The cancer cells are dying in large numbers. Fighting off infection is an exhausting venture. Radiation can result in myelosuppression.
Radiation can result in myelosuppression. Fatigue results from anemia associated with myelo suppression and decreased RBC production. The spreading of cancer can cause many symptoms dependent on location and type of cancer but not a significant factor to support fatigue with radiotherapy. The production of healthy cells can increase metabolic rate, but death of cancer cells does not support fatigue in this case. Fighting infection can cause fatigue, but there is no evidence provided to support presence of infection in this client.
A client has been receiving chemotherapy to treat cancer. Which assessment finding suggests that the client has developed stomatitis? White, cottage cheese-like patches on the tongue Yellow tooth discoloration Red, open sores on the oral mucosa Rust-colored sputum
Red, open sores on the oral mucosa The tissue-destructive effects of cancer chemotherapy typically cause stomatitis, resulting in ulcers on the oral mucosa that appear as red, open sores. White, cottage cheese-like patches on the tongue suggest a candidal infection, another common adverse effect of chemotherapy. Yellow tooth discoloration may result from antibiotic therapy, not cancer chemotherapy. Rust-colored sputum suggests a respiratory disorder, such as pneumonia.
x The nurse is evaluating the client's risk for cancer and recommends changes when the client states she uses the treadmill for 30 minutes on 5 days each week eats red meat such as steaks or hamburgers every day works as a secretary at a medical radiation treatment center drinks 1 glass of wine at dinner each night
eats red meat such as steaks or hamburgers every day Dietary substances such as nitrate-containing, nitrite-containing, and red meats appear to increase the risk of cancer. Exercising 30 minutes on 5 days or more is recommended for adults. Measures are taken to protect those people who work around radiation. It is OK to drink 1 glass of wine per day.
x When caring for a client who is receiving external beam radiation, which is the key point for the nurse to incorporate into the plan of care? Time, distance, and shielding The use of disposable utensils and wash cloths Avoid showering or washing over skin markings. Inspect the skin frequently.
Inspecting the skin frequently will allow early identification and intervention of skin problems associated with external radiation therapy. The external markings should not be removed, but clients may shower and lightly wash over the skin. Time, distance, and shielding are key in the management of sealed, internal radiation therapy and not external beam radiation. The use of disposable utensils and care items would be important when caring for clients following systemic, unsealed, internal radiation therapy.
A nurse is performing a home visit for a client who received chemotherapy within the past 24 hours. The nurse observes a small child playing in the bathroom, where the toilet lid has been left up. Based on these observations, the nurse modifies the client's teaching plan to include: expected chemotherapy-related adverse effects. chemotherapy exposure and risk factors. signs and symptoms of infection. reinforcement of the client's medication regimen.
chemotherapy exposure and risk factors. The raised toilet lid exposes the child playing in the bathroom to the risk of inhaling or ingesting chemotherapy agents. The nurse should modify her teaching plan to include content related to chemotherapy exposure and its associated risk factors. Because the client has received chemotherapy, the plan should already include information about expected adverse effects, signs and symptoms of infection, and reinforcement of the medication regimen.
x A young female client has received chemotherapeutic medications and asks about any effects the treatments will have related to her sexual health. The most appropriate statement by the nurse is "You will need to practice birth control measures." "You will continue having your menses every month." "You will experience menopause now." "You will be unable to have children."
"You will need to practice birth control measures." Following chemotherapy female clients may experience normal ovulation, early menopause, or permanent sterility. Clients are advised to use reliable methods of birth control until reproductivity is known.
x The nurse is conducting a screening for familial predisposition of cancer. Which of the following should the nurse note as a possible indication of hereditary cancer syndrome? Onset of cancer after age 50 in family member A first cousin diagnosed with cancer A second cousin diagnosed with cancer An aunt and uncle diagnosed with cancer
An aunt and uncle diagnosed with cancer The hallmarks of hereditary cancer syndrome include cancer in two or more first-degree or second-degree relatives, early onset of cancer in family members younger than age 50, same type of cancer in several family members, individual family members with more than one type of cancer, and a rare cancer in one or more family members.
x A client with ovarian cancer is ordered hydroxyurea (Hydrea), an antimetabolite drug. Antimetabolites are a diverse group of antineoplastic agents that interfere with various metabolic actions of the cell. The mechanism of action of antimetabolites interferes with: cell division or mitosis during the M phase of the cell cycle. normal cellular processes during the S phase of the cell cycle. Thea chemical structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and chemical binding between DNA molecules (cell cycle-nonspecific). one or more stages of ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis, DNA synthesis, or both (cell cycle-nonspecific).
normal cellular processes during the S phase of the cell cycle. act during the S phase of the cell cycle, contributing to cell destruction or preventing cell replication. They're most effective against rapidly proliferating cancers. Miotic inhibitors interfere with cell division or mitosis during the M phase of the cell cycle. Alkylating agents affect all rapidly proliferating cells by interfering with DNA; they may kill dividing cells in all phases of the cell cycle and may also kill nondividing cells. Antineoplastic antibiotic agents interfere with one or more stages of the synthesis of RNA, DNA, or both, preventing normal cell growth and reproduction.
The client is receiving a vesicant anti neo plastic for treatment of cancer. Which assessment finding would require the nurse to take immediate action? Extra vasation Stomatitis Nausea and vomiting Bone pain
Extra vasation The nurse needs to monitor IV administration of anti neo plastics (especially vesicants) to prevent tissue necrosis to blood vessels, skin, muscles, and nerves. Stomatitis, nausea/vomiting, and bone pain can be symptoms of the disease process or treatment mode but does not require immediate action.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which nursing action is most appropriate for handling chemotherapeutic agents? Wear disposable gloves and protective clothing. Break needles after the infusion is discontinued. Disconnect I.V. tubing with gloved hands. Throw I.V. tubing in the trash after the infusion is stopped.
Wear disposable gloves and protective clothing. A nurse must wear disposable gloves and protective clothing to prevent skin contact with chemotherapeutic agents. The nurse shouldn't recap or break needles. The nurse should use a sterile gauze pad when priming I.V. tubing, connecting and disconnecting tubing, inserting syringes into vials, breaking glass ampules, or other procedures in which chemotherapeutic agents are being handled. Contaminated needles, syringes, I.V. tubes, and other equipment must be disposed of in a leak-proof, puncture-resistant container.
A cancer client makes the following statement to the nurse: "I guess I will tell my doctor to forego the chemotherapy. I do not want to be throwing up all the time. I would rather die."Which of the following facts supports the use of chemotherapy for this client? Nausea and vomiting are only a factor for the first 24 hours after treatment. Most clients believe the discomfort is well worth the cure for cancer. Chemotherapy treatment can be adjusted to optimize effects while limiting adverse effects. Clinical trials are opening up new cancer treatments all the time.
Chemotherapy treatment can be adjusted to optimize effects while limiting adverse effects. Chemotherapy is not one drug for all clients. The therapy can be specifically designed to optimize effects while limiting adverse effects with supplemental anti emetics to control the nausea and vomiting. It is true that nausea and vomiting are most prevalent in the first 24 hours after each chemotherapy treatment but does not eliminate the fears expressed by this client. No one can state the worth of any treatment, and a cure is never promised. Clinical trials open up new options for treatment, but the process is lengthy and is not a certainty for a client in need of immediate treatment.
You are an oncology nurse caring for a client who tells you that their tastes have changed. They go on to say that "meat tastes bad". What is a nursing intervention to increase protein intake for a client with taste changes? Stay away from protein beverages. Encourage maximum fluid intake. Encourage cheese and sandwiches. Suck on hard candy during treatment.
Encourage cheese and sandwiches. The nurse encourages the clients with taste changes to eat cheese and sandwiches. Encouraging the client to take in the maximum amount of fluids does not increase protein intake. The nurse advises the client to drink protein beverages. Sucking on hard candies during treatment does not increase protein intake.
x The oncology nurse is giving chemotherapy to a client in a short stay area. The client confides that they are very depressed. The nurse recognizes depression as which of the following? A psychiatric diagnosis everyone has at one time or another. A side effect of the neoplastic drugs. A normal reaction to the diagnosis of cancer. An aberrant psychologic reaction to the chemotherapy.
A normal reaction to the diagnosis of cancer Clients have many reactions, ranging from anxiety, fear, and depression to feelings of guilt related to viewing cancer as a punishment for past actions or failure to practice a healthy life-style. They also may express anger related to the diagnosis and their inability to be in control. While depression is a psychiatric diagnosis not everyone has the diagnosis sometime in their life; depression is not a side effect of the neoplastic drugs nor is it an aberrant psychologic reaction to the chemotherapy.
x The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for chemotherapy. Which is the best statement the nurse can make about the client experiencing chemotherapy-induced alopecia? "The hair loss is temporary." "New hair growth will return without any change to color or texture." "Clients with alopecia will have delay in grey hair." "Wigs can be used after the chemotherapy is completed."
Alopecia associated with chemotherapy is usually temporary and will return after the therapy is completed. New hair growth may return unchanged, but there is no guarantee and color, texture, and quality of hair may be changed. There is no correlation between chemotherapy and delay in greying of hair. Use of wigs, scarves, and head coverings can be used by clients at any time during treatment plan.
What intervention should the nurse provide to reduce the incidence of renal damage when a patient is taking a chemotherapy regimen? Encourage fluid intake to dilute the urine. Take measures to acidify the urine and prevent uric acid crystallization. Withhold medication when the blood urea nitrogen level exceeds 20 mg/dL. Limit fluids to 1,000 mL daily to prevent accumulation of the drug's end products after cell lysis.
Encourage fluid intake to dilute the urine. The nurse should ensure adequate fluid hydration before, during, and after drug administration and assess intake and output. Adequate fluid volume dilutes drug levels, which can help prevent renal damage.
x A patient will be having an endoscopic procedure with a diagnostic biopsy. What type of biopsy does the nurse explain will remove an entire piece of suspicious tissue? Excisional biopsy Incisional biopsy Needle biopsy Punch biopsy
Excisional biopsy Excisional biopsy is most frequently used for small, easily accessible tumors of the skin, breast, and upper or lower gastrointestinal and upper respiratory tracts. In many cases, the surgeon can remove the entire tumor as well as the surrounding marginal tissues. The removal of normal tissue beyond the tumor area decreases the possibility that residual microscopic malignant cells may lead to a recurrence of the tumor. Incisional biopsy is performed if the tumor mass is too large to be removed. In this case, a wedge of tissue from the tumor is removed for analysis. Needle biopsy is performed to sample suspicious masses that are easily and safely accessible, such as some masses in the breasts, thyroid, lung, liver, and kidney. A core needle biopsy uses a specially designed needle to obtain a small core of tissue that permits histologic analysis.
A nurse is administering daunorubicin through a peripheral I.V. line when the client complains of burning at the insertion site. The nurse notes no blood return from the catheter and redness at the I.V. site. The client is most likely experiencing which complication? Erythema Flare Extravasation Thrombosis
Extravasation The client is exhibiting signs of extravasation, which occurs when the medication leaks into the surrounding tissues and causes swelling, burning, or pain at the injection site. Erythema is redness of the skin that results from skin irritation. Flare is a spreading of redness that occurs as a result of drawing a pointed instrument across the skin. Thrombosis is the formation of clot within the vascular system.
Which of the following is true about a malignant tumor? Demonstrates cells that are well differentiated Gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels Is usually slow growing Grows by expansion
Gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels By gaining access to blood and lymphatic channels, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body. Cells of malignant tumors are undifferentiated. Malignant tumors demonstrate variable rate of growth; however, the more anaplastic the tumor, the faster its growth. A malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.
The nurse working on a bone marrow unit knows that it is a priority to monitor which of the following in a client who has just undergone a stem cell transplant? Monitor the client's toilet patterns. Monitor the client closely to prevent infection. Monitor the client's physical condition. Monitor the client's heart rate.
Monitor the client closely to prevent infection. Until transplanted stem cells begin to produce blood cells, these clients have no physiologic means to fight infection, which makes them very prone to infection. They are at high risk for dying from sepsis and bleeding before engraftment. Therefore, a nurse must closely monitor clients and take measures to prevent infection. Monitoring client's toilet patterns, physical condition, and heart rate does not prevent the possibility of the client getting an infection.
Which type of surgery is utilized in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer? Palliative Prophylactic Reconstructive Salvage
Palliative Palliative surgery is performed to relieve complications of cancer. Prophylactic surgery involves removing non-vital tissues or organs that are likely to develop cancer. Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery and is carried out in an attempt to improve function or obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect. Salvage surgery is an additional treatment option that uses an extensive surgical approach to treat the local recurrence of a cancer after the use of a less extensive primary approach.
x During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? Promotion Initiation Prolongation Progression
Progression is the third step of carcinogenesis, in which cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize. During promotion, repeated exposure to promoting agents causes the expression of abnormal genetic information even after long latency periods. During initiation, initiators such as chemicals, physical factors, and biologic agents, escape normal enzymatic mechanisms and alter the genetic structure of cellular DNA. No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.
During chemotherapy, an oncology client has a nursing diagnosis of Impaired oral mucous membrane related to decreased nutrition and immunosuppression secondary to the cytotoxic effects of chemotherapy. Which nursing intervention is most likely to decrease the pain of stomatitis? Recommending that the client discontinue chemotherapy Providing a solution of viscous lidocaine for use as a mouth rinse Monitoring the client's platelet and leukocyte counts Checking regularly for signs and symptoms of stomatitis
Providing a solution of viscous lidocaine for use as a mouth rinse To decrease the pain of stomatitis, the nurse should provide a solution of hydrogen viscous lidocaine for the client to use as a mouth rinse. (Commercially prepared mouthwashes contain alcohol and may cause dryness and irritation of the oral mucosa.) The nurse also may administer systemic analgesics as ordered. Stomatitis occurs 7 to 10 days after chemotherapy begins; thus, stopping chemotherapy wouldn't be helpful or practical. Instead, the nurse should stay alert for this potential problem to ensure prompt treatment. Monitoring platelet and leukocyte counts may help prevent bleeding and infection but wouldn't decrease pain in this highly susceptible client. Checking for signs and symptoms of stomatitis also wouldn't decrease the pain.
x The nurse is invited to present a teaching program to parents of school-age children. Which topic would be of greatest value for decreasing cancer risks? Pool and water safety Breast and testicular self-exams Hand washing and infection prevention Sun safety and use of sunscreen
Sun safety and use of sunscreen Pool and water safety as well as infection prevention are important teaching topics but will not decrease cancer risk. While performing breast and testicular self-exams may identify cancers in the early stage, this teaching is not usually initiated in school-age children. Severe sunburns that occur in young children can place the child at risk for skin cancers later in life. Because children spend much time out of doors, the use of sunscreen and protective clothing/hats can protect the skin and decrease the risk.
The client has received chemotherapy and 1 week later is at home experiencing nausea and vomiting. The first action of the nurse is to recommend Practicing relaxation techniques Taking prescribed ondansetron (Zofran) Using imagery techniques Obtaining acupressure treatments
Taking prescribed ondansetron (Zofran) Serotonin blockers, such as ondansetron, may decrease nausea and vomiting. Once these symptoms are relieved, the client can use other strategies, such as relaxation, imagery, and acupressure. These strategies, when used with serotonin blockers, provide improved anti-emetic protection.
