Immunology (FSU)
A hapten is: A. An epitope B. A paratope C. A small chemical compound which reacts with preformed antibodies but is not immunogen on its own D. A carrier E. An immunogen
C. A small chemical compound which reacts with preformed antibodies but is not immunogen on its own
Which of the following do you expect would be actively functioning in a B cell that had migrated to a germinal center? A. RAG-1 B. Artemis C. AID D. Ku70 E. None of the above
C. AID
Which of the following is an example of cross-presentation? A. An endogenous peptide being presented on MHC class I B. An exogenous peptide being presented on MHC class I C. Recognition of MHC class II by a cytotoxic T cell D. An exogenous peptide being presented on MHC class II E. A B-cell antigen being presented to a T cell
B. An exogenous peptide being presented on MHC class I
Which of the following is a characteristic of follicular dendritic cells in the primary follicles of secondary lymphoid tissues? A. They are bone marrow derived hematopoietic cells. B. They provide a stable depository of intact antigens able to bind to B-cell receptors. C. They internalize immune complexes through CR2 receptor cross-linking. D. They produce cytokines that induce B cells to proliferate and become centroblasts. E. They express large amount of MHC II molecules to present antigens to B-cells
B. They provide a stable depository of intact antigens able to bind to B-cell receptors.
Effector mechanisms of _____ rejection resemble those responsible for type IV hypersensitivity reactions. A. xenogeneic B. acute C. chronic D. hyperacute E. blood transfusion
B. acute
The mode of evolution responsible for the production of recombinant influenza viruses composed of a genome derived from two different influenza variants is called _____. A. gene conversion B. antigenic shift C. latency D. immune evasion E. antigenic drift
B. antigenic shift
B lymphocytes are made in the: A. blood stream. B. bone marrow. C. liver. D. thymus. E. totipotent cell.
B. bone marrow.
Which of the following describes the sequence of events involved in the processing of peptides that will be presented as antigen with MHC class II? A. protease activity → removal of CLIP from MHC class II → binding of peptide to MHC class II → endocytosis → plasma membrane B. endocytosis → protease activity → removal of CLIP from MHC class II → binding of peptide to MHC class II → plasma membrane C. removal of CLIP from MHC class II → binding of peptide to MHC class II → protease activity → endocytosis → plasma membrane D. binding of peptide to MHC class II → endocytosis → removal of CLIP from MHC class II → protease activity → plasma membrane E. plasma membrane → endocytosis → protease activity → removal of CLIP from MHC class II → binding of peptide to MHC class II
B. endocytosis → protease activity → removal of CLIP from MHC class II → binding of peptide to MHC class II → plasma membrane
The reason that vaccines against influenza must be administered annually, unlike vaccines against measles, is _____. A. the antigens that stimulate protection against influenza virus are inside the virion and not on the surface B. influenza is an RNA virus with a higher mutation rate C. influenza stimulates T-independent responses that fail to generate memory cells D. the polysaccharide antigens of influenza stimulate poor immune responses. E. the vaccine against influenza is cheap to make and is re-administered every year to boost the immune system
B. influenza is an RNA virus with a higher mutation rate
Whether an immunoglobulin is secreted or membrane bound is directly determined by: A. the sequence of the DNA in the Ig locus. B. mRNA splicing. C. the kind of B cell is producing it. D. DNA rearrangement. E. GPI anchors.
B. mRNA splicing.
Interferons: A. opsonize viruses B. play a major role in recovery from viral infections C. prevent viral entry into cells D. neutralize intracellular bacteria E. protect against reinfection with the same virus
B. play a major role in recovery from viral infections
Cytokines acting on several cell types and exerting many actions, thus regulating multiple immune processes [i.e. different effects on different cells] are said to be: A. antagonistic. B. pleiotropic. C. cascade inducible. D. redundant. E. synergistic
B. pleiotropic.
Parasitic infections include: A. protozoans. B. protozoans and helminthes. C. prions and viruses. D. prions, viruses, and bacteria. E. protozoans, helminthes, prions, viruses, and bacteria.
B. protozoans and helminthes.
VDJ recombination occurs during which phase of a B cell's development? A. Activated B cell B. Mature B cell C. Naïve B cell D. Pro-B cell E. Immature B cell
D. Pro-B cell
If a double-negative thymocyte has just completed a productive β-chain gene rearrangement, which of the following describes the immediate next step in the development of this thymocyte? a. A pre-T-cell receptor is assembled. b. Rearrangement of γ- and δ-chain genes commences. c. Expression levels of RAG-1 and RAG-2 are elevated. d. The linked δ-chain genes are eliminated. e. This cell will inevitably differentiate into a committed γ:δ T cell.
a. A pre-T-cell receptor is assembled.
Clonal expansion and differentiation of naive T cells to effector T cells depends on the activation of the transcription factor(s) _____ through a ZAP-70-mediated signal transduction pathway. a. AP-1, NF-κB and NFAT b. IL-2 c. TCR, CD28, B7 d. PIP2, PIP3 and IP3 e. Ras
a. AP-1, NF-κB and NFAT
You are a new member of a graduate research lab. Your research is to study the effects of a novel cytokine TNF-mu (TNF-μ). During the course of your research, you discover that TNF-μ induces monocyte maturation, inhibits eosinophil development, and begins a signaling cascade that promotes histamine release. What term best describes the action of TNF-μ on eosinophils? a. Antagonistic b. Cascade inducible c. Pleiotropic d. Redundant e. Synergistic
a. Antagonistic
The classical pathway is initiated by: a. Antibodies b. Properdin c. C1 d. MBL e. MASP-2
a. Antibodies
Which of the following is the general CORRECT sequence of events? a. Antigen uptake > antigen processing > APC migration to lymph nodes > antigen presentation b. APC migration to lymph nodes > antigen uptake > antigen processing > antigen presentation c. APC migration to lymph nodes > antigen presentation > antigen uptake > antigen processing d. Antigen uptake > antigen processing > antigen presentation > APC migration to lymph nodes e. APC migration to lymph nodes > antigen uptake > antigen processing > antigen presentation
a. Antigen uptake > antigen processing > APC migration to lymph nodes > antigen presentation
All of the following are involved in the alternative pathway of complement activation except ________ a. C4 b. Factor B c. Factor D d. Properdin e. C5
a. C4
By definition which of the following molecules would double negative stage 4 T cells fail to express? a. CD4 b. CD3 c. TdT d. ZAP-70 e. All
a. CD4
Whether a B-cell express an IgG or an IgE is directly determined by: a. DNA rearrangement b. the sequence of the DNA in the Ig locus. c. the kind of T cell is producing it. d. mRNA splicing. e. GPI anchors.
a. DNA rearrangement
Naive lymphocytes homing to a lymph node first use _____ to bind to addressins, such as CD34 and GlyCAM-1, on high endothelial venules. a. L-selectin b. BCR c. Complement receptor d. CCL21 e. CD28
a. L-selectin
Expression of IFN-γ is induced in a CD4 TH1 cell under the direction of the transcription factor ______. a. T-bet b. FoxP3 c. AP-1 d. GATA-3 e. NFAT
a. T-bet
_____ decreases the activity of the transcription factor NFAT by inhibiting calcineurin. a. Tacrolimus b. Azathioprine c. Mycophenolic acid d. Corticosteroid e. Rapamycin
a. Tacrolimus
Which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions is associated with IgE? a. Type I hypersensitivity b. Type II hypersensitivity c. Type III hypersensitivity d. Type IV hypersensitivity e. All of the above
a. Type I hypersensitivity
Which of the following is characteristic of a large pre-B cell? a. VDJ is successfully rearranged and μ heavy chain is made. b. V-J is rearranging at the light-chain locus. c. μ heavy chain and λ or κ light chain is made. d. D-J is rearranging at the light-chain locus. e. D-J is rearranging at the heavy-chain locus.
a. VDJ is successfully rearranged and μ heavy chain is made.
Which of the following corresponds to the antigen binding site of immunoglobulins? a. VH:VL b. VH:CH c. VL:CL d. CH:CL e. VH:CL.
a. VH:VL
Which of the following statements regarding CD8 T cells is incorrect? a. When activated, CD8 T cells in turn activate B cells. b. CD8 is also known as the CD8 T-cell co-receptor. c. CD8 binds to MHC molecules at a site distinct from that bound by the T-cell receptor. d. CD8 T cells kill pathogen-infected cells by inducing apoptosis. e. CD8 T cells are MHC class I-restricted.
a. When activated, CD8 T cells in turn activate B cells.
Secretory IgA is best described as _____. a. a non-inflammatory immunoglobulin that restricts the passage of antigens across mucosal surfaces b. a complement-activating immunoglobulin that causes destruction of invasive microflora through the membrane-attack complex c. an opsonizing antibody that facilitates uptake by M cells through Fc receptors d. an inflammatory immunoglobulin that stimulates the chemotaxis of neutrophils into mucosal surfaces e. a monomeric IgA that neutralizes antigen effectively at mucosal surfaces
a. a non-inflammatory immunoglobulin that restricts the passage of antigens across mucosal surfaces
When donor MHC:donor self-peptide complexes activate recipient T cells, _____. a. acute rejection of transplanted organs occurs b. suppression occurs and transplanted organs are tolerated c. hyperacute rejection of transplanted organs occurs d. complement pathways are activated e. an indirect pathway of allorecognition occurs
a. acute rejection of transplanted organs occurs
Unlike the C regions of immunoglobulin heavy-chain loci, the C regions of the T-cell receptor β-chain loci a. are functionally similar b. do not contain D segments c. are encoded on a different chromosome from the variable β-chain gene segments of the T-cell receptor d. do not encode a transmembrane region e. possess non-templated P and N nucleotides
a. are functionally similar
G proteins: a. bind GTP. b. dephosphorylate ITAMs. c. are transcription factors. d. down modulate immune responses. e. are adhesion molecules.
a. bind GTP.
Chemical and physical agents that increase mutation rates by damaging DNA and increase the likelihood of developing cancer are known as _____. a. carcinogens b. malignant transformers c. oncogenes d. antitumor suppressor agents e. tumor-associated agents.
a. carcinogens
A(n) _____ is an epitope that is typically not accessible to the immune system but is revealed under inflammatory or infectious states. a. cryptic epitope b. molecular mimic c. regulatory peptide d. carrier e. adjuvant
a. cryptic epitope
Individuals who have two defective alleles of the AIRE gene _____. a. exhibit symptoms of autoimmunity at a young age b. are unable to activate regulatory T cells c. exhibit decreased predisposition to autoimmune disease d. are very effective at inducing anergy of circulating autoreactive B and T cells e. lack NK cells.
a. exhibit symptoms of autoimmunity at a young age
T cells recognize antigen when the antigen a. forms a complex with membrane-bound MHC molecules on another host-derived cell (ex: Dendritic cell) b. is internalized by T cells via phagocytosis and subsequently binds to T-cell receptors in the endoplasmic reticulum c. is presented on the surface of a B cell on membrane-bound immunoglobulins d. forms a complex with membrane-bound MHC molecules on the T cell e. bears epitopes derived from proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids.
a. forms a complex with membrane-bound MHC molecules on another host-derived cell (ex: Dendritic cell)
The first line of defense against microorganisms that infect the body is referred to as _____. a. innate immunity b. opportunistic immunity c. adaptive immunity d. initial immunity e. central immunity
a. innate immunity
Which of the following is the least likely to be utilized in the binding of antibodies to antigens? a. interchain disulfide bonds b. hydrogen bonding c. hydrophobic interactions d. electrostatic forces (salt bridges) e. van der Waals interactions
a. interchain disulfide bonds
A malignant tumor is characterized by which of the following features? a. multiple mutations affecting cell division or survival b. restricted in size c. localized d. encapsulation e. poor vascularization
a. multiple mutations affecting cell division or survival
Which of the following DOES describes a process by which self-reactive lymphocytes are rendered incapable of mounting an autoimmune response? a. negative selection of B lymphocytes in the bone marrow b. expression of AIRE in the bone marrow c. induction of alloreactive responses it the thymus d. somatic hypermutation to an alternative antigen specificity e. absence of thymic epithelial cells
a. negative selection of B lymphocytes in the bone marrow
_______ of thymocytes is necessary to produce a T-cell repertoire capable of interacting with self-MHC molecules. a. positive selection b. negative selection c. apoptosis d. receptor editing e. isotype switching
a. positive selection
Preferred viral targets for HIV therapy include (select 2): a. reverse transcriptase b. matrix protein c. gp120 d. CD4 e. protease.
a. reverse transcriptase e. protease.
The CDR3 loops of the T-cell receptor contact the _______: a. side chains of amino acids in the middle of the peptide b. co-receptors CD4 or CD8 c. membrane-proximal domains of the MHC molecule d. constant regions of antibody molecules e. α helices of the MHC molecule
a. side chains of amino acids in the middle of the peptide
The role of properdin, or factor P, is to _____. a. stabilize the C3 convertase C3bBb and prevent its dissociation b. prevent the recruitment of C9 c. dissociate the components of the alternative C3 convertase d. prevent the attachment of C3b to host cell surfaces e. inhibit the anchoring of C5b, C6, and C7 to host cell surfaces.
a. stabilize the C3 convertase C3bBb and prevent its dissociation
Monoclonal antibodies are used in cancer treatment because of their ability to _____. (Select 3 answers) a. target tumor cells for immune responses such as ADCC or opsonization b. suppress regulatory cells c. deliver radioactive molecules to track the status of metastasis d. enhance expression of tumor-specific antigens e. be conjugated to cytotoxic drugs to kill tumor cells.
a. target tumor cells for immune responses such as ADCC or opsonization c. deliver radioactive molecules to track the status of metastasis e. be conjugated to cytotoxic drugs to kill tumor cells.
All of the following participate in signal transduction when a B cell encounters its antigen except a. terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT) b. Phospholipase C (PLC gamma) c. CD19 d. Igα and Igβ e. Bruton's tyrosine kinase (Btk)
a. terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)
Bare lymphocyte syndrome is due to a defect in a. transcriptional regulators of HLA class II loci b. leukocyte adhesion molecule (LFA-1) c. a TAP peptide transporter d. RAG-1 or RAG-2 e. thymic development.
a. transcriptional regulators of HLA class II loci
How does allelic exclusion prevent multiple heavy-chain rearrangements from occurring in pre-B cells? A. RAG1 and RAG2 are down-regulated, and TdT activity is decreasing so that no additional heavy-chain rearrangements may take place. B. RAG1 is up-regulated while RAG2 and TdT are down-regulated to prevent heavy-chain recombination on the second set of chromosomes. C. RAG1 and RAG2 induce silencing of the second alleles for VH-DJH rearrangement. D. TdT initiates light-chain rearrangement. E. TdT releases a cytokine to trigger apoptosis in the pre-B cell.
A. RAG1 and RAG2 are down-regulated, and TdT activity is decreasing so that no additional heavy-chain rearrangements may take place.
Proliferation of activated T cells: A. is stimulated by a single signal induced by engagement of the TCR B. requires both the TCR engagement signal plus costimulation from B7 C. requires both signals described in B plus interaction between LFA-1 and ICAM-1 D. Requires only mutual binding of LFA-3 and CD2 on the APC and T cell respectively E. Is unaffected by anergy
A. is stimulated by a single signal induced by engagement of the TCR
Primary immunodeficiencies that affect B cells are often characterized by: A. recurring bacterial infections. B. persistent viral infections. C. unresolved inflammatory responses. D. All of the above. E. None of the above.
A. recurring bacterial infections.
Upon entering the thymus, thymocytes are classified as double __________ with regard to coreceptor; before exiting as single-positive, naïve T cells, they pass through a period in which they are double ________. a. positive; negative b. negative; positive c. Both of these are true d. Neither of these are true e. Coreceptor expression state does not change in the thymus
b. negative; positive
Antibodies consist of: a. an alpha chain, a alpha beta chain, a l chain, and a k chain. b. two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains. c. two alpha chains, an alpha chain, and a k chain. d. two beta chains, an alpha chain, and a k chain. e. either an alpha chain or a beta chain, a k chain and a l chain.
b. two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains.
What type of hypersensitivity reaction would result from a mismatched blood transfusion? a. type I b. type II c. type III d. type IV e. Type V
b. type II
All of the following are heavy-chain of isotypes of immunoglobulin except: a. α b. β c. γ d. δ e. ε
b. β
What is the name given to the earliest intracellular vesicle that contains material opsonized by macrophages? a. Opsonome b. Membrane-attack complex c. Phagosome d. Lysosome e. Specific granules
c. Phagosome
Which of these statements is false regarding acute phase proteins a. They are produced by the liver in response to Il-1/Il-6 b. Some of the acute phase proteins can be opsonin c. They are cytokines produced by neutrophils d. Some of the acute phase proteins can activate the complement e. Mannose-binding lectin is an acute phase protein from the collectin family
c. They are cytokines produced by neutrophils
Formation of immune complexes between antibodies and soluble antigens is considered to be which type of hypersensitivity reaction? a. Type I hypersensitivity b. Type II hypersensitivity c. Type III hypersensitivity d. Type IV hypersensitivity e. All of the above
c. Type III hypersensitivity
The latest stages of late pro-B-cell development are recognized by the association of a surrogate light chain with a μ chain. The surrogate light chain is composed of a. E2A and EFB b. Igα and Igβ c. VpreB and λ5 d. RAG-1 and RAG-2 e. Pax-5 and CD19
c. VpreB and λ5
_____ participates in the T-cell cytoskeletal reorganization required for T-cell cytokine production and cell-mediated interactions. [Hint: syndrome and protein have the same name] a. adenosine deaminase (ADA) b. purine nucleotide phosphorylase (PNP) c. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome protein (WASP) d. myeloperoxidase e. Bruton's tyrosine kinase (Btk)
c. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome protein (WASP)
A(n) _____________ is an inactive form of an enzyme that frequently participate in a cascade of enzymatic reactions during complement activation. a. Regulator of complement activation b. Convertase c. Zymogen d. Complement control protein module e. Opsonin
c. Zymogen
Which of the following is the predominant route by which pathogens are brought from a site of infection into a lymph node? a. efferent lymphatics b. artery c. afferent lymphatics d. vein e. high endothelial venule
c. afferent lymphatics
_____ autoantibodies enhance receptor function. a. neutralizing b. opsonizing c. agonist d. complement-fixing e. antagonist
c. agonist
A graft between members (not twins) of the same species is termed an: a. autograft b. isograft c. allograft d. xenograft e. none of the above
c. allograft
_____ are soluble complement fragments that mediate localized and systemic inflammatory responses. a. cryptdins b. defensins c. anaphylatoxins d. selectins e. C-reactive proteins.
c. anaphylatoxins
Cancers develop their own blood supply and become vascularized through _____. a. apoptosis b. neoplasia c. angiogenesis d. metastasis e. malignant transformation.
c. angiogenesis
Primary immunodeficiencies: a. alter the complement pathway. b. are severe. c. are inherited. d. affect a range of cell types. e. are contagious.
c. are inherited.
The large population of microbes that contribute to the gut microbiota and have an important role in food processing are called _____. a. lamina propria b. Peyer's patches c. commensal microorganisms d. microfold cells e. opportunists
c. commensal microorganisms
A major attraction of immune stimulating complexes (ISCOMs) as an adjuvant is that they _____. a. form insoluble particles that resist dispersion and degradation b. enhance uptake by macrophages and delivery of antigen to endosomal compartments c. deliver antigen to the cytosol for presentation by MHC class I d. bind to respiratory epithelium and mimic viral routes of entry e. bind to Toll-like receptors and initiate a state of inflammation.
c. deliver antigen to the cytosol for presentation by MHC class I
Which of the following is required for fusion of the human immunodeficiency viral envelope with the host cell membrane and subsequent internalization? a. reverse transcriptase b. gp120 c. gp41 d. integrase e. protease.
c. gp41
During a typical infection, dendritic cells first encounter pathogen in _____ and then transport the pathogen to _____ where pathogen-derived peptide fragments are presented to _____: a. secondary lymphoid tissue; infected tissue; T cells b. secondary lymphoid tissue; infected tissue; B cells c. infected tissue; secondary lymphoid tissue; T cells d. endocytic vesicles; cell surface; MHC molecules e. infected tissue; secondary lymphoid tissue; B cells
c. infected tissue; secondary lymphoid tissue; T cells
_____ is a second messenger in the T-cell signaling pathway leading to the activation of NFAT. a. Zap-70 b. NFκB c. inositol trisphosphate IP3 d. Fos e. Ras
c. inositol trisphosphate IP3
Why is using an adjuvant in a vaccine preparation advantageous? a. it prevents pain during the injection b. it alleviates the necessity of booster doses of the vaccine c. it enhances the immunogenicity of the antigen d. it helps prevent back-mutations of attenuated microbes
c. it enhances the immunogenicity of the antigen
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a. macrophage: phagocytosis and killing of microorganisms b. natural killer cell: kills virus-infected cells c. lymphocytes: innate immune response d. erythrocyte (red blood cells): oxygen transport e. eosinophil: defense against parasites
c. lymphocytes: innate immune response
Structure based antigen design does not aim at: a. detoxification of antigen b. adding multiple epitopes onto one antigen c. mixing host and pathogen structures d. shifting immunodominance e. a broader immune response
c. mixing host and pathogen structures
Examples of granulocytes include all of the following except: a. neutrophil b. basophil c. monocyte d. eosinophil e. All of the above are examples of granulocytes
c. monocyte
Which of the following cell types is not considered a professional antigen-presenting cell? a. B cell b. macrophage c. neutrophil d. dendritic cell e. all of the above are professional antigen-presenting cells
c. neutrophil
Toll-like receptors are located _____. a. only on the plasma membrane b. on the plasma membrane and the mitochondrial outer membrane c. on the plasma membrane and endosomal membranes d. only in the cytoplasm e. inside inflammasomes.
c. on the plasma membrane and endosomal membranes
C3b : a. is chemotactic b. is an anaphylatoxin c. opsonizes bacteria d. directly injures bacteria e. is the inactive form of C3
c. opsonizes bacteria
The enzyme that generates diacylglycerol (DAG) and inositol trisphosphate (IP3) from phosphatidylinositol bisphosphate (PIP2) is _____. a. protein kinase C-θ (PKC-θ) b. calcineurin c. phospholipase C-γ (PLC-γ) d. protein tyrosine kinase ZAP-70 e. protein tyrosine kinase Lck
c. phospholipase C-γ (PLC-γ)
Which of the following DOES NOT describe a process by which self-reactive lymphocytes are rendered incapable of mounting an autoimmune response? a. sequestration of autoantigens in immunologically privileged sites b. induction of anergy in peripheral compartments c. positive selection of autoimmune T lymphocytes in secondary lymphoid tissues d. negative selection of T lymphocytes in the thymus e. suppression by regulatory T cells
c. positive selection of autoimmune T lymphocytes in secondary lymphoid tissues
In contrast to immunoglobulins, α:β T-cell receptors recognize epitopes present on _______ antigens: a. carbohydrate b. lipid c. protein d. carbohydrate and lipid e. carbohydrate, lipid, and protein
c. protein
A graft between members of 2 different species is termed: a. autograft b. isograft c. xenograft d. allograft e. none of the above
c. xenograft
How many complementarity-determining regions contribute to the antigen/MHC-binding site in an intact T-cell receptor? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 e. 12
d. 6
The fetus is considered a tolerated graft of which kind: a. Isograft (Syngeneic) b. Autograft (Autogeneic) c. Xenograft (Xenogeneic) d. Allograft (Allogeneic) e. the fetus is not tolerated and expulsed after 9 months
d. Allograft (Allogeneic)
The early events of inflammation are characterized by all of the following except _____________: a. Vasodilation b. Extravasation c. Pain d. Apoptosis e. Chemotaxis
d. Apoptosis
Which of the following acts as a serine protease that, with cofactors, cleaves and inactivate C3b and C4b? a. DAF (CD55) b. Properdin c. Factor H d. Factor I e. MCP (CD46)
d. Factor I
Which of the following statements regarding TLR4 is false? a. The ligand for TLR4 is LPS b. TLR4 homo-dimerized upon binding with its ligand c. TLR4 has an intracellular TIR domain d. TLR4 is an example of a phagocytic receptor e. The extracellular domain of TLR4 associate with MD2
d. TLR4 is an example of a phagocytic receptor
Which of the following would be the MOST likely source of a peptide bound to an MHC class I molecule? a. The Golgi apparatus b. Outside the cell c. The endosome/lysosome d. The cytoplasm e. The chloroplast Hint: MHC class I are loaded with peptides that are transported into the ER.
d. The cytoplasm
Which cell is most often associated with presentation of the antigen to the cells of the adaptive immune response: a. The monocyte b. The macrophage c. The natural killer cell d. The dendritic cell e. The B cell
d. The dendritic cell
Which statement is NOT true regarding antibodies: a. Antibodies can neutralize toxins b. Antibodies can opsonize bacteria and help phagocytosis by macrophages c. Antibodies can opsonize virally-infected cells and help killing by NK cells d. The polymerization of antibodies at the surface of pathogen create a hole in the pathogen membrane called the membrane attack complex e. There is five classes of antibodies
d. The polymerization of antibodies at the surface of pathogen create a hole in the pathogen membrane called the membrane attack complex
In B cells, transport of immunoglobulin to the membrane is dependent on association with two invariant proteins, Igα and Igβ. Which of the following invariant proteins provide this function for the T-cell receptor in T cells? a. CD3γ b. CD3δ c. CD3ε d. ζ e. All of the above
e. All of the above
Signaling through the pre-TCR results in: a. maturation to the DN4 stage. b. suppression of TCR beta-chain rearrangement. c. proliferation. d. TCR alpha-chain rearrangement. e. All of the above
e. All of the above
Central tolerance: a. is the first step of tolerance mechanisms. b. affects both T cells and B cells. c. deletes cells that are autoreactive. d. occurs in the bone marrow and thymus. e. All of the above.
e. All of the above.
_______ occurs when RNA segments are exchanged between viral strains: a. Antigenic drift b. Antigenic mimicry c. Latency d. Antigenic shielding e. Antigenic shift
e. Antigenic shift
A genetic defect in _____ results in the accumulation of toxic levels of nucleotide metabolites and loss of T-cell function. a. NADPH oxidase b. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase c. myeloperoxidase d. SH2D1A e. adenosine deaminase (ADA)
e. adenosine deaminase (ADA)
Why do commensal bacteria not lead to a strong immune response? a. Some commensal bacteria lack virulence factors b. Some commensal bacteria are kept in check by IgA and antimicrobial peptides c. Some commensal bacteria lack some PAMPs d. Some commensal bacteria's antigens are presented to T cells by immature dendritic cells e. all of the above
e. all of the above
When activated phagocytes secrete _____, an inflammatory response ensues. a. lysozyme b. defensins c. lymph d. sebum e. cytokines
e. cytokines
As time progresses following an organ transplant, the alloreactive T-cell response shifts from a(n) _____ pathway to a(n) _____ pathway of allorecognition. a. exogenous; endogenous b. inflammatory; cytotoxic c. hyperacute; suppressive d. autologous; heterologous e. direct; indirect
e. direct; indirect
Naïve lymphocytes failing to encounter specific antigen leave lymph nodes via the _________. a. germinal center b. bloodstream c. high endothelial venules d. afferent lymph e. efferent lymph
e. efferent lymph
Hematopoietic stem cell can give rise to: a. B cells only. b. Red blood cells only. c. myeloid lineage cells only. d. lymphoid and myeloid lineage cells. e. erythroid, lymphoid, and myeloid lineage cells.
e. erythroid, lymphoid, and myeloid lineage cells.
The "MHC _____" refers to the complete set of HLA alleles that a person possesses on a particular chromosome 6. a. isoform b. isotype c. oligomorph d. allotype e. haplotype
e. haplotype
Women who are heterozygous for a defective Bruton's tyrosine kinase (Btk) gene a. are more susceptible to infections caused by extracellular pyogenic bacteria. b. have a 50% chance of having a son with X-linked hyper IgM syndrome. c. mount normal B-cell immune responses despite having lowered levels of serum IgG. d. exhibit X-linked agammaglobulinemia. e. have random X inactivation in their B cells during development.
e. have random X inactivation in their B cells during development.
When the immune system is involved in ________, a recognition of the cancer cells is occurring: a. malignant transformation b. immunosuppression c. antineoplasia d. apoptosis e. immunosurveillance
e. immunosurveillance
The carrier T cell epitope on a thymus-dependent antigen a. behaves like a hapten b. needs to be polymeric c. need NOT to be physically connected to the B cell epitope d. is a carbohydrate e. stimulates help for the B cell response
e. stimulates help for the B cell response
The complementarity-determining region (CDR) 1 and CDR2 loops of the T-cell receptor mostly contact the _______: a. side chains of amino acids in the middle of the peptide b. co-receptors CD4 or CD8 c. membrane-proximal domains of the MHC molecule d. constant regions of antibody molecules e. α helices of the MHC molecule
e. α helices of the MHC molecule
Double-negative thymocytes initiate rearrangement at the _____ locus (loci) before all other T-cell receptor genes. a. γ and δ b. β c. α and β d. α, γ, and δ e. β, γ, and δ
e. β, γ, and δ
B1 cells are: A. B cells which respond to mostly T-dependent antigens B. B cells which predominate in later life C. Plasma cells D. CD5+ B cells E. CD5- B cells
D. CD5+ B cells
In routine blood transfusions, which of the following must be matched correctly? A. A and B antigens and Rhesus D antigen B. O antigens and autoantigens C. immunogens D. MHC class I molecules E. MHC class II molecules
A. A and B antigens and Rhesus D antigen
The major effector molecules involved in type IV hypersensitivity reactions are: A. Cytokines B. Antibodies C. Complement components D. Prostaglandins E. 5-hydroxytryptamines (5-HT)
A. Cytokines
MHC polymorphisms tend to cluster: A. in the peptide-binding groove. B. in the transmembrane domain. C. in the coreceptor contact residues. D. in the framework region. E. All of the above
A. in the peptide-binding groove.
Receptors that are multivalent tend to bind to their ligands more strongly than receptors with a single binding site. What is the term used to describe this phenomenon? A. Avidity B. Valency C. Affinity D. Magnetism E. None of the above
A. Avidity
______ are responsible for recruiting immune cells to a specific location within the body, organ, or tissue. A. Chemokines B. Immunoglobulins C. G proteins D. Receptors E. None of the above
A. Chemokines
An epitope: A. Is the area on an antigen which contacts antibody B. Is the area on an antibody which contacts antigen C. Requires both antigen-binding arms of the antibody molecule for its recognition D. Is usually composed of a linear sequence of amino acids E. Is usually associated with a concave region of the antigen
A. Is the area on an antigen which contacts antibody
Follicular helper T cells are a recent discovery in the Helper T-cell lineage. What is the primary role of TFH cells? A. To help B cell development in germinal centers B. To regulate TREG cell activity C. To stimulate dendritic cell production D. To suppress B-cell activation after pathogen has been cleared E. To suppress TC cells after an infection has been cleared
A. To help B cell development in germinal centers
Which of the following reactions features mast cell degranulation as one of its key features? A. Type I hypersensitivity B. Type II hypersensitivity C. Type III hypersensitivity D. Type IV hypersensitivity E. All of the above
A. Type I hypersensitivity
Protective antibodies generated in response to influenza virus bind to _____ of the viral envelope. A. hemagglutinin and neuraminidase B. polysaccharides C. variable surface glycoproteins D. superantigens E. gp41 and gp120.
A. hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
MHC class II molecules are made up of two chains called _______, whose function if to bind peptides and present them to _______ T cells: A. alpha (α) and beta (β); CD4 B. alpha (α) and beta2-microglobulin (β2m); CD4 C. alpha (α) and beta (β); CD8 D. alpha (α) and beta2-microglobulin (β2m); CD8 E. alpha (α) and beta (β); γ:δT cells
A. alpha (α) and beta (β); CD4
The wheal-and-flare inflammatory reaction is an example of A. an immediate type I allergic response B. a late-phase type I allergic response C. a late-phase type IV allergic response D. an immediate type III allergic response E. a late-phase type III allergic response
A. an immediate type I allergic response
Regions of TCRs and BCRs that are particularly variable in their amino acid sequences are known for: A. binding to antigen. B. sticking to denatured proteins. C. spanning the plasma membrane. D. binding to adaptor proteins. E. becoming phosphorylated.
A. binding to antigen.
The circulatory route through a lymphoid tissue for naive B cells that do not encounter specific antigen is A. bloodstream → HEV of lymphoid cortex → primary lymphoid follicle → efferent lymphatic vessel B. afferent lymphatic vessel → primary lymphoid follicle → HEV of lymphoid cortex → efferent lymphatic vessel C. afferent lymphatic vessel → medullary cords → primary lymphoid follicle → efferent lymphatic vessel D. primary lymphoid follicle → HEV of lymphoid cortex → afferent lymphatic vessel → efferent lymphatic vessel E. bloodstream → afferent lymphatic vessel → HEV of lymphoid cortex → efferent lymphatic vessel
A. bloodstream → HEV of lymphoid cortex → primary lymphoid follicle → efferent lymphatic vessel
Aspirin (acetyl salicylate) inhibits prostaglandin synthesis by binding irreversibly to prostaglandin synthase, the first enzyme in the _____ pathway. A. cyclooxygenase B. carboxypeptidase C. metalloprotease D. oxygenase E. peroxidase.
A. cyclooxygenase
The phenomenon whereby, following successful Ig gene rearrangement, further rearrangement on the sister chromatid is suppressed is called: A. Production rearrangement B. Allelic exclusion C. Class switching D. Clonal selection E. Gene shuffling
B. Allelic exclusion
Which of the following is an example of a passive immunization? A. Heat-killed flu antigen grown in chicken eggs B. Antibodies against rabies given to someone who was bitten by a potentially rabid dog C. Live viral antigen given on a sugar cube to protect against polio D. Both A and B. E. Both B and C.
B. Antibodies against rabies given to someone who was bitten by a potentially rabid dog
Which enzyme cleaves the interstrand hairpin in V(D)J coding regions? A. TdT B. Artemis C. RAG-1/2 D. XRCC4 with DNA ligase IV E. Ku 70 and Ku 80
B. Artemis
In which cells are the Ig loci rearranged by RAG-1/2? A. Developing T cells B. Developing B cells C. Developing neutrophils D. Developing monocytes E. None of the above
B. Developing B cells
Which family of cytokine receptors uses the Janus activated kinase (JAK) family of tyrosine kinases? A. Chemokines family B. Hematopoietin family C. Interferons family D. Interleukin 17 family E. Tumor Necrosis Factor family
B. Hematopoietin family
Portions of the cytoplasmic domains of many immune receptors are targets for phosphorylation. These domains are known as: A. Grb domains. B. ITAMs. C. leucine zipper motifs. D. SOS domains. E. None of the above
B. ITAMs.
Which maternal antigens are protective against diseases such as diphtheria, tetanus, streptococcal infections, and measles? A. IgA and IgE B. IgA and IgG C. IgD and IgE D. IgG and IgM E. All classes of immunoglobulins
B. IgA and IgG
Trypanosoma, protozoans reside in the bloodstream. What is the principle way trypanosomes evade the immune response? A. Antagonistic cytokines are produce by the trypanosome. B. Periodic changes in the surface antigen (VSG) of trypanosomes ensures that at least some cells will survive antibody mediate attacks. C. Trypanosomes are human pathogens and thus immune to human immune responses. D. Trypanosomes invade the brain and red blood cells so that immune effector cells such as macrophages and dendritic cells cannot phagocytize trypanosomes. E. Vaccines are readily available to people in trypanosome infested areas.
B. Periodic changes in the surface antigen (VSG) of trypanosomes ensures that at least some cells will survive antibody mediate attacks.
Which of the following is NOT a means of generating diversity in the variable regions of the T cell receptor genes? A. Cleavage at the coding-heptamer RSS junction by RAG-1/2 B. Somatic hypermutation following activation C. Hairpin cleavage by Artemis to generate P nucleotides D. Addition of N nucleotides by TdT E. All of the above generate diversity in the variable regions of the T-cell receptor genes.
B. Somatic hypermutation following activation
Which type of T helper cell regulates allergic reactions and protects against extracellular pathogens? A. TH1 B. TH2 C. TH17 D. TREG E. TFH
B. TH2
Patients with myasthenia gravis, may be treated with a procedure known as plasmapheresis. During plasmapheresis for these disorders, blood is removed from the patient, and then separated into two fractions, one containing cells, and the other containing the plasma. The plasma is then treated to deplete it of antibodies, and then the cells plus the antibody-depleted plasma are returned to the patient. This cumbersome treatment may be necessary because, for these diseases: A. The disease symptoms are an indirect effect of inflammation induced by the autoantibodies. B. The disease symptoms are a direct effect of autoantibody binding to its target receptor on cells. C. Treatment with anti-inflammatory drugs makes the disease symptoms worsen. D. The depletion of antibodies from the patient's plasma also eliminates all the complement components. E. The leukocytes in the blood are required to bind to antibody-coated target cells, so must be returned to the patient.
B. The disease symptoms are a direct effect of autoantibody binding to its target receptor on cells.
The human MHC locus is one of the most polymorphic regions of the genome. What does this mean? A. It has the most different genes. B. There are many different alleles of these genes. C. Sequence variability is low in this region. D. There are many introns in this region. E. This region is regulated by many different mechanisms.
B. There are many different alleles of these genes.
Rhesus hemolytic disease of the newborn involves: A. IgE B. Soluble immune complexes C. Antibody to cell surface D. Cytokine release from T-cells E. Stimulatory antibodies
C. Antibody to cell surface
Stem cell factor is produced mainly by: A. Stem cells B. Thymic epithelium C. Bone marrow stromal cells D. Megakaryocytes E. The reticuloendothelial system
C. Bone marrow stromal cells
Peptide binding diversity is increased by: A. multiple MHC alleles in the population. B. multiple homologous MHC genes in the genome. C. Both A and B D. None of the above
C. Both A and B
Effector memory T cells can be distinguished from the central memory T cells from which they arise by: Hint: Location, Location, Location A. Their life-span B. CD45RA C. CCR7 D. CD3 E. IL-4 secretion
C. CCR7
AIDS is caused by a human retrovirus that infect and kills A. B lymphocytes. B. common lymphocyte stem cells. C. CD4-positive T lymphocytes. D. CD8-positive T lymphocytes. E. NK cells
C. CD4-positive T lymphocytes.
By definition which of the following molecules would double negative stage 4 T cells fail to express? A. CD3 B. TdT C. CD8 D. ZAP70 E. All of the above
C. CD8
TCR recognition of peptide-MHC class II depends on: A. Covalent binding B. Very high affinity interactions C. CDR-mediated binding D. A minimum of 2 peptides occupying the binding groove of each MHC molecule E. The presence of beta2 microglobulin
C. CDR-mediated binding
_____ express FcεRI and contain granules containing inflammatory mediators A. macrophages and B cells B. eosinophils and neutrophils C. mast cells and basophils D. natural killer cells and NK T cells E. Dendritic cells and cytotoxic T cells
C. mast cells and basophils
Why does active immunity produce long-term immunity better than passive immunity? A. Active immunity always leads to having the illness though in a milder form than an unvaccinated individual. B. Antibodies do not produce long term immunity because they breakdown after two weeks. C. During active immunity, antigens for the disease are presented to the immune system through classical antigen presentation mechanisms, so an active B-cell response and immunologic memory develop. D. Long-term storage of antibodies maintains vaccine integrity however antigens cannot be stored long term. E. Both A and B.
C. During active immunity, antigens for the disease are presented to the immune system through classical antigen presentation mechanisms, so an active B-cell response and immunologic memory develop.
Which of the following cell-surface receptors is MOST closely linked to activating type I hypersensitivity reactions? A. FcδRII B. FcγRIIB C. FcεRI D. LFA-1 E. None of the above
C. FcεRI
Schistomiasis is a debilitating and potentially fatal disease caused by the helminthic parasite Schistosoma. Which antibody is specific for helminth response? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgG E. IgM
C. IgE
A mouse model for multiple sclerosis is induced by immunizing mice with murine central nervous system proteins mixed with an adjuvant. This adjuvant contains components that stimulate both TLR2 and TLR4. The adjuvant is essential to the development of autoimmunity because: A. It induces copious amounts of type I interferons. B. It prevents the differentiation of CD4 TH2 effector cells. C. It activates dendritic cells to up-regulate co-stimulatory molecules. D. It promotes tissue damage that mimics a central nervous system viral infection. E. It prevents the production of TGF-β by astrocytes in the central nervous system.
C. It activates dendritic cells to up-regulate co-stimulatory molecules.
IL-2 acts on several cell types thus regulating multiple immune processes. IL-2 is said to be: A. antagonistic. B. cascade inducible. C. pleiotropic. D. redundant. E. synergistic
C. pleiotropic.
Which of the following cell types is MOST commonly associated with recognizing antigens found inside of cells? A. Macrophages B. B cells C. Th cells D. Cytotoxic T cell E. Antibodies
D. Cytotoxic T cell
Which of these mechanisms are not used by the influenza virus to escape the immune system? A. NS1 protein prevent recognition of viral RNA by TLRs and RIG-I B. PB1-F2 prevents production of interferon by the infected cells C. Periodic changes in the expression of surface antigen (VSG) to prevent antibody mediated recognition D. Numerous point mutations occurs in the viral genome in region coding for antibody binding sites E. Numerous point mutations occurs in the viral genome in region coding for T cell epitopes
C. Periodic changes in the expression of surface antigen (VSG) to prevent antibody mediated recognition
What determines if a particular cell will be acted up on by a cytokine? A. A high local concentration of the cytokine molecule B. Location of the cell releasing the cytokine C. Presence or absence of a cytokine receptor D. Two different cytokines binding the receiving cell E. Both A and C
C. Presence or absence of a cytokine receptor
Which enzyme introduces single-strand break between V(D)J coding sequence and heptamer RSS? A. TdT B. Artemis C. RAG-1/2 D. XRCC4 with DNA ligase IV E. Ku 70 and Ku 80
C. RAG-1/2
Which of the following diseases has been completely eradicated world-wide? A. measles B. Tuberculosis C. Smallpox D. Cowpox E. Malaria
C. Smallpox
NK cells lack receptors with: A. Specificity for the Fc region of IgG B. Specificity for MHC class I molecules C. Specificity for MHC class II molecules D. C-type lectin domains E. Immunoglobulin-like domains
C. Specificity for MHC class II molecules
With regard to the type of B cell response generated, protein antigens typically provoke which of the following responses? A. T-independent TI-1 B. T-independent TI-2 C. T-dependent D. Both A and B E. None of the above
C. T-dependent
The Arthus reaction is considered to be which of the following hypersensitivity types? A. Type I hypersensitivity B. Type II hypersensitivity C. Type III hypersensitivity D. Type IV hypersensitivity E. All of the above
C. Type III hypersensitivity
_____ involves deliberate stimulation of the immune system and induction of protective immunity to a particular disease-causing pathogen by mimicking infection in the absence of disease. A. Variolation B. Attenuation C. Vaccination D. Conjugation E. Herd immunity
C. Vaccination
The term _____ is used to describe polymorphic antigens that vary between 2 individuals of the same species. A. xenoantigens B. immunoantigens C. alloantigens D. histoantigens E. autoantigens
C. alloantigens
Immunoglobulin domains consist of: A. series of alpha helices bound together by hydrophobic interactions in their side chains. B. alpha helices alternating with parallel beta-pleated sheets. C. anti-parallel beta-pleated sheets folded and stabilized by hydrophobic interactions. D. compact, parallel beta sheets forming a barrel structure. E. alpha helices held together by leucine repeats
C. anti-parallel beta-pleated sheets folded and stabilized by hydrophobic interactions.
A mutation that renders the MHC class II molecule HLA-DM nonfunctional would likely lead to: A. cells unable to synthetize MHC class II molecules. B. cells with no HLA-DO. C. cells with MHC class II molecules only bound with CLIP. D. cells with class II MHC bound with a variety of self-antigens. E. a deficiency in CD8+ T cells.
C. cells with MHC class II molecules only bound with CLIP.
A protein epitope formed as a result of three-dimensional folding of the protein, and which is destroyed if the protein denatures, is called a _______ epitope: A. linear B. multivalent C. conformational D. complementarity E. framework
C. conformational
This type of cell will leave the bone marrow and complete maturation in the spleen. A. Common lymphoid progenitor cell B. hematopoietic stem cell C. immature B cell D. pro-B cell E. pro-T cell
C. immature B cell
The direct pathway of allorecognition involves interaction of _____, whereas the indirect pathway of alloreaction involves interaction of _____. A. donor T cells with allogeneic HLA molecule on recipient dendritic cells; recipient T cells with allogeneic HLA molecules on donor dendritic cells B. recipient T cells with allogeneic HLA molecules on donor dendritic cells; donor T cells with allogeneic HLA molecule on recipient dendritic cells C. recipient T cells with allogeneic HLA molecules on donor dendritic cells; recipient T cells with allogeneic peptides on recipient dendritic cells D. recipient T cells with peptides of allogeneic HLA molecules on recipient dendritic cells; donor T cells with allogeneic peptides on donor dendritic cells
C. recipient T cells with allogeneic HLA molecules on donor dendritic cells; recipient T cells with allogeneic peptides on recipient dendritic cells
High affinity B cell clones in humans are usually generated by: A. expression of high affinity precursors in the naïve B cell population B. class switching C. somatic hypermutation D. apopotosis E. gene conversion
C. somatic hypermutation
Which of the following is the BEST example of MHC restriction of T cells? A. MHC molecules at the surface of a T-cell clone recognize soluble antigens. B. A T-cell clone responds more vigorously to a self-peptide than a foreign peptide. C. A T-cell clone recognizes foreign MHC. D. A T-cell clone only recognizes foreign peptides when presented by self MHC. E. All of the above
D. A T-cell clone only recognizes foreign peptides when presented by self MHC.
A mutation in which part of a viral protein might allow the virus to evade the adaptive immune response because it MHC binding? A. A TCR contact residue B. A residue in the transmembrane domain of an envelope protein C. A residue in the DNA-binding domain D. An anchor residue E. An amino acid on the surface of the virus
D. An anchor residue
Superantigens: A. Do not cause pathology. B. Are not mitogenic for T-cells. C. Bind to MHC class III. D. Bind to all members of a given V-region T cell receptor family. E. Have to be processed before recognition by the T-cell.
D. Bind to all members of a given V-region T cell receptor family.
Which lymphocyte receptor gene possesses a D gene segment? A. Toll like receptor B. MHC I C. Light chain Immunoglobulin D. Heavy chain immunoglobulin E. None of the above Answer D
D. Heavy chain immunoglobulin
At what stage of development does a B cell begin to express a pre-B-cell receptor? A. Pre-pro B cell B. Early pro-B cell C. Late pro-B cell D. Large pre-B cell E. Immature B cell
D. Large pre-B cell
_____ vaccines are the most effective at evoking memory responses against a virus in an immunized host. A. Conjugate B. Subunit C. Killed D. Live-attenuated E. Toxoid
D. Live-attenuated
CD4 positive cells recognize their antigen presented by which molecule: A. TCR B. TCR C. MHC class I D. MHC class II E. CD8
D. MHC class II
Which type of T helper cell inhibits inflammation? A. TH1 B. TH2 C. TH17 D. TREG E. TFH
D. TREG
Systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE) is an autoimmune disease characterized by the development of autoantibodies specific for DNA and other nuclear antigens. Patients with SLE show a wide variety of symptoms that include anemia, skin rashes, joint and muscle pain, heart problems, and kidney damage. This is considered a systemic autoimmune disease because: A. Different patients have different symptoms. B. All patients have damage to more than one organ. C. The majority of patients have kidney damage. D. The autoantigen targeted by the immune system is not-tissue specific. E. Multiple different tissue-specific autoantigens are recognized in a single patient.
D. The autoantigen targeted by the immune system is not-tissue specific.
DiGeorge syndrome results from a defect in: A. Purine nucleoside phosphorylase B. WASP C. DNA repair D. Thymic development E. CD3
D. Thymic development
Which one of the following is a primary lymphoid organ: A. Spleen B. Peyer's patch C. Lymph nodes D. Thymus E. Tonsil
D. Thymus
What is the function of a memory T cell? A. To activate TC and TH cells during an active primary infection B. To avoid autoimmune disorders by producing memory for self-antigens during T-cell development C. To maintain an active T-cell response (TC or TH) after an infection is cleared D. To provide an almost immediate response upon subsequent exposure to a specific pathogen E. To suppress TC activity after a pathogen is cleared
D. To provide an almost immediate response upon subsequent exposure to a specific pathogen
By which mechanisms can bacterial pathogens evade a host immune response? A. Avoiding phagocytosis by the production of a capsule B. Escape of the phagolysosome within phagocytic cells C. Neutralization of digestive enzymes found within phagocytic cells D. Both A and B. E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Which cell type can activate a memory TH cell? A. B cell B. Dendritic cell C. Macrophage D. Both A and B E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Which of the following cell types are targets of the products of mast-cell degranulation, as well as the mediators produced by mast cells following degranulation? A. Smooth muscle B. Nervous tissue C. Hematopoietic cells D. Epithelial cells E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Which of the following cell types would be MOST likely to express MHC class I? A. B cells B. T cells C. Dendritic cells D. Lung epithelial cells E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Which of the following is used to generate diversity in the antibody repertoire? A. Presence of multiple variable gene segments that can be assembled in multiple different combinations B. Addition of N nucleotides that are not encoded in the germ line C. Exonuclease trimming of excess nucleotides at variable segment junctions D. Ability to pair a heavy chain with a different light chain E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Receptors that bind the constant regions of antibodies are known as: A. B-cell receptors. B. T-cell receptors. C. idiotype receptors. D. toll-like receptors. E. Fc receptors.
E. Fc receptors.
At what stage of development does a B cell begin to display an IgM receptor? A. Pre-pro B cell B. Early pro-B cell C. Late pro-B cell D. Large pre-B cell E. Immature B cell
E. Immature B cell
Influenza virus is an annual concern in the United States and worldwide. Each year, millions of people receive the flu vaccine to protect against the influenza virus. What two viral ligands does the flu vaccine produce immunity to [also how viral strains are classified]? A. Hemagglutinin and TNF-α B. Hemagglutinin and N-acetyl glucosamine C. N-acetyl glucosamine and Neuraminidase D. N-acetyl glucosamine and reverse transcriptase E. Neuraminidase and Hemagglutinin
E. Neuraminidase and Hemagglutinin
What is herd immunity? A. A global vaccination day established by the World Health Organization to ensure every person on the planet is vaccinated against a particular pathogen. The last herd immunity day was in the early 1980s with smallpox. B. A vaccination program started by progressive nations to prevent the spread of prion diseases such as Mad Cow (BSE). C. Herd immunity refers to a special vaccination method whereby immunocompromised individuals are given vaccines made only of antibodies. D. Receiving all government recommended vaccines in one day. This produces the strongest immune response possible but frequently leaves the person being vaccine experience malaise (generally feeling bad) and feverish. E. Vaccinating the majority of a population to protect immunocompromised individuals from a particular pathogen.
E. Vaccinating the majority of a population to protect immunocompromised individuals from a particular pathogen.
The antigens that provoke hypersensitivity reactions are referred to as A. T-independent antigens B. superantigens C. subunit vaccines D. attenuated vaccines E. allergens.
E. allergens.
Which part of the immune system is involved in clearing an influenza infection: A. An influenza infection does not induce virus-specific antibodies production, which explain the length of the disease B. An influenza infection is quickly recognized by the immune system and be cleared only with the activation of the innate immune system C. An influenza infection induces a CD4+ T cell response but not a CD8+ T cell response. D. An influenza infection only activate the adaptive immune response not the innate immune response. E. clearing an influenza infection requires the activation of both the innate and the adaptive immune response.
E. clearing an influenza infection requires the activation of both the innate and the adaptive immune response.
An allergic reaction to poison ivy is associated with _____. A. mast-cell activation B. an Arthus reaction C. eosinophil activation D. complement activation E. cytotoxic T-cell activation.
E. cytotoxic T-cell activation.
Modern-day vaccines try to elicit an immune response from [Hint: initial event]: A. memory B cells. B. cytotoxic T cells. C. hematopoietic stem cells. D. innate immune cells. E. naïve B cells and TH cells.
E. naïve B cells and TH cells.
Mature B-2 (or follicular) B cells are most commonly found in the: A. bone marrow. B. lymph node. C. marginal zones of the spleen. D. peritoneal. E. secondary lymphoid organs.
E. secondary lymphoid organs.
The antibody transported across mucosal epithelia is _____: a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG e. IgM
a. IgA
Which immunoglobulin is transported most efficiently across mucosal epithelium? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG e. IgM
a. IgA
IgG possesses _______ binding sites for antigen, and the T-cell receptor possesses _______ binding sites for antigen: a. 1; 1 b. 2; 1 c. 1; 2 d. 2; 2 e. 2; 4
b. 2; 1
The high concordance rate for monozygotic vs dizygotic twins in type 1 diabetes indicates: a. a strong environmental element b. A strong genetic element c. a major influence of sex d. The influence of HLA only e. That microbial infection cannot be involved
b. A strong genetic element
The co-stimulatory molecule _____ on professional antigen-presenting cells binds _____ on the surface of naive T cells. {Hint: This is important for strengthening of Tcell/APC interaction and for intracellular signaling} a. DC-SIGN; ICAM-3 b. B7; CD28 c. ICAM-1; LFA-1 d. MHC class II; T-cell receptor e. MHC class II; CD4
b. B7; CD28
The first molecule of the complement binding covalently to the pathogen in the lectin and the classical pathway is: a. C3a b. C4b c. C2b d. C5a e. C9
b. C4b
The classical and lectin pathway C3 convertase is: a. Masp-2 b. C4b2a c. Factor D d. Factor H e. C3bBb
b. C4b2a
The T cell ligand binding B7 on a professional Antigen-presenting cell is: a. CD2 b. CD28 c. LFA-1 d. ICAM-1 e. VCAM-1
b. CD28
Defect in phagosome and lysosome fusion is associated with which disease?: a. Chronic granulomatous disease b. Chediak-higashi disease c. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency d. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome e. Hashimoto's disease
b. Chediak-higashi disease
An antimicrobial peptide that protects epithelial surfaces from pathogens is: a. Glycoprotein b. Defensin c. Proteoglycan d. Lysozyme e. Sebum
b. Defensin
Which of the following best describes the movement of a T cell through a lymph node? a. Enters via efferent lymphatics and exits via bloodstream [HEV] b. Enters via bloodstream [HEV] and exits via efferent lymphatics c. Enters via afferent lymphatics and exits via bloodstream [HEV] d. Enters via bloodstream [HEV] and exits via afferent lymphatics e. Enters via bloodstream [HEV] and exits via bloodstream [HEV]
b. Enters via bloodstream [HEV] and exits via efferent lymphatics
Amino acids involved in the paratope of an antibody provide participate equally to the binding to the antigen: a. True b. False
b. False
In celiac disease there is a T cell sensitivity to: a. vitamin B12 b. Gluten c. b-adrenergic receptors d. gastric H+K+ dependent ATPase e. Myelin basic protein
b. Gluten
Which of the following statement regarding the innate immune response is false: a. Innate immune response is rapid b. Innate immune response is based only on cells c. Innate immune response lacks memory d. Dendritic cells of the innate immune response will instruct the adaptive response e. The receptors of the innate immune response recognize patterns found in pathogens
b. Innate immune response is based only on cells
_____ is the term used to describe how pathogen antigens resemble host antigens and can sometimes trigger autoimmune disease. a. intramolecular epitope spreading b. molecular mimicry c. intermolecular epitope spreading d. sympathetic senescence e. linkage equilibrium.
b. molecular mimicry
Which of the following activities are most closely associated with natural killer (NK) cells: a. Production of TNF-alpha b. Lysis of virally infected cells c. Phagocytosis of bacteria d. Destroying extracellular parasites e. Induction of B-cell differentiation
b. Lysis of virally infected cells
For vaccination against mycobacterial diseases such as tuberculosis, the most important facet of the immune response to be stimulated is: a. A high titer of antibody b. Macrophage-activating cell-mediated immunity c. Innate immunity d. Antibody in the gut lumen
b. Macrophage-activating cell-mediated immunity
_____ from a bone marrow transplant facilitate alloreactive responses, causing the condition defined as acute graft-versus-host disease. a. Natural killer cells b. Mature T cells c. Dendritic cells d. Thymocytes e. Mature B cells
b. Mature T cells
Which of the following statements regarding inherited immunodeficiency diseases is correct? a. Affected individuals are less susceptible to infection. b. Mortality rates are reduced by the administration of antibiotics to affected individuals. c. Most deficiency syndromes are caused by dominant gene defects. d. Women are more likely than men to inherit X-linked immunodeficiencies. e. Extracellular bacterial infections are common in deficiency syndromes with T-cell defects.
b. Mortality rates are reduced by the administration of antibiotics to affected individuals.
Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), a condition resulting in chronic bacterial and fungal infections, is caused by one or more defects in _____, compromising the ability of macrophages to _____. a. CD18; produce cell adhesion molecules b. NADPH oxidase; produce superoxide radical (O2-) c. CD40 ligand; produce GM-CSF d. C5-C9; defend against Neisseria e. C3; opsonize capsulated bacteria
b. NADPH oxidase; produce superoxide radical (O2-)
Place the class I processing pathway in the correct order: a. Peptides exported from the ER by TAP > peptides are digested by the proteasome > peptides are loaded onto class I > class I is exported to the cell surface b. Proteins are digested by the proteasome > peptides are imported into the ER by TAP > peptides are loaded onto MHC class I > class I is exported to the cell surface c. MHC class I moves from the cell surface to the lysosome by endocytosis > class I bound peptides are replaced with antigenic peptides in the lysosome > class I returns to the cell surface d. Proteins are degraded by TAP > peptides are imported into the lysosome by the proteasome > peptide-MHC class I complexes are exported to the cell surface e. MHC class I is transported to the ER by TAP > proteins in the ER are degraded into peptides by the proteasome > peptides bind MHC class I in the ER and the complex is exported to the cell surface
b. Proteins are digested by the proteasome > peptides are imported into the ER by TAP > peptides are loaded onto MHC class I > class I is exported to the cell surface
Which of the following describes chemokines? a. Membrane receptors that detect the presence of cytokines b. Soluble proteins that attract specific cells to an area c. Transcription factors that induce the expression of genes involved in cell adhesion d. Adhesion molecules that bind to the inside of blood vessels e. PAMPs found on microorganisms particularly bacteria
b. Soluble proteins that attract specific cells to an area
Which of the following is a protein tyrosine kinase involved in B-cell activation culminating in B-cell proliferation and differentiation? a. LAT b. Syk c. NF-κB d. NFAT e. MyD88
b. Syk
Hypersensitivity reactions to cell surface antigens via IgG or IgM are classified as which type? a. Type I hypersensitivity b. Type II hypersensitivity c. Type III hypersensitivity d. Type IV hypersensitivity e. All of the above
b. Type II hypersensitivity
The immunoglobulin heavy-chain gene consists of _______ gene segments, whereas the immunoglobulin light-chain gene consists of _______ gene segments. a. κ; λ b. VDJ; VJ c. VJ; VDJ d. P; N e. RAG-1; RAG-2
b. VDJ; VJ
Which of the following is a protein tyrosine kinase involved in T-cell activation culminating in T-cell proliferation and differentiation? a. AP-1 b. ZAP-70 c. NF-κB d. NFAT e. MyD88
b. ZAP-70
The primary function of the transcription factor AIRE is to _____. a. facilitate apoptosis of self-reactive B lymphocytes in the bone marrow b. activate the expression of tissue-specific proteins in the thymus c. activate CD4 T cells d. induce a state of nonresponsiveness in self-reactive NK cells e. participate in gene expression events required for positive selection of the developing T-cell repertoire
b. activate the expression of tissue-specific proteins in the thymus
C-reactive protein is a/an: a. chemokine b. acute phase response protein c. cytokine d. surfactant e. cell-adhesion molecule
b. acute phase response protein
Upon activation secondary lymphoid tissues, B cells differentiate into cells secreting antibody; in which location would these Ab-secreting cells NOT re-localize? a. bone marrow b. afferent lymphatic vessels c. medullary cords of lymph nodes d. lamina propria of gut-associated lymphoid tissues e. red pulp of spleen
b. afferent lymphatic vessels
IgM and IgD are co-expressed on naive B cells by a process called a. isotype switching b. alternative mRNA splicing c. somatic hypermutation d. somatic recombination e. affinity maturation
b. alternative mRNA splicing
Peptides that bind to a particular MHC isoform usually have either the same or chemically similar amino acids at two to three key positions that hold the peptide tightly in the peptide-binding groove of the MHC molecule. These amino acids are called _____ and the combination of these key residues is known as its _____. a. alleles; allotypes b. anchor residues; peptide-binding motif c. allotype; haplotypes d. invariant chains; haplotypes e. restriction residues; MHC allotype
b. anchor residues; peptide-binding motif
During infection with HIV, a person is said to undergo seroconversion when a. HIV variants convert from macrophage-tropic to lymphocyte-tropic late in infection. b. anti-HIV antibodies are detectable in their blood serum. c. cellular transcription favors the production of HIV-encoded RNA. d. HIV is transferred from an infected person to an uninfected recipient. e. the initial phase of infection is followed by clinical latency.
b. anti-HIV antibodies are detectable in their blood serum.
A developing B cell unable to generate a productive rearrangement on any of the four light-chain loci will undergo a. self-renewal b. apoptosis c. allelic exclusion d. malignant transformation e. differentiation into a B-1 cell
b. apoptosis
Early in an infection, antigen-presenting cells: a. are less effective at phagocytosis. b. are more effective at antigen processing. c. are less effective at cross presentation. d. recruit more adaptive immune cells than innate immune cells. e. remain at the site of infection.
b. are more effective at antigen processing.
Lectins recognize microbial _____. a. phosphate-containing lipoteichoic acids b. carbohydrates c. nucleic acids d. flagellin e. sulfated proteins
b. carbohydrates
What is the term used to describe the condition of an individual who possesses two sets of hematopoietic cells, one derived from the individual's own bone marrow and one derived from a different source, for example, an organ transplant or blood transfusion that has not been rejected? a. haploidentical b. chimeric c. cross-protected d. dimorphic e. mixed lymphocyte reaction
b. chimeric
Which of the following is not an activity associated with secretory IgA and secretory IgM in mucosal secretions? a. toxin neutralization b. complement fixation c. binds to intracellular antigen during transcytosis d. restricts commensal microorganisms to gut lumen e. limits population size of commensal microorganisms
b. complement fixation
The five isotypes of immunoglobulin differ from each other in their _____: a. light-chain constant regions b. heavy-chain constant regions c. light-chain variable regions d. heavy-chain variable regions e. heavy-chain variable and constant regions
b. heavy-chain constant regions
Select the correct sequence of events following the binding of TLR4 by its ligand (LPS): a. homodimerization of the TLR4s -> phosphorylation and ubiquitination by kinases and ligases -> TIR domains associate -> recruit adaptor molecules -> active form of transcription factors translocate to the nucleus -> upregulation of cytokines and chemokines. b. homodimerization of the TLR4s -> TIR domains associate -> recruit adaptor molecules -> phosphorylation and ubiquitination by kinases and ligases -> active form of transcription factors translocate to the nucleus -> upregulation of cytokines and chemokines. c. homodimerization of the TLR4s -> TIR domains associate -> recruit adaptor molecules -> upregulation of cytokines and chemokines -> phosphorylation and ubiquitination by kinases and ligases -> active form of transcription factors translocate to the nucleus. d. homodimerization of the TLR4s -> active form of transcription factors translocate to the nucleus -> upregulation of cytokines and chemokines -> TIR domains associate -> recruit adaptor molecules -> phosphorylation and ubiquitination by kinases and ligases
b. homodimerization of the TLR4s -> TIR domains associate -> recruit adaptor molecules -> phosphorylation and ubiquitination by kinases and ligases -> active form of transcription factors translocate to the nucleus -> upregulation of cytokines and chemokines.
Graves' disease causes _____, whereas Hashimoto's disease causes _____. a. hypothyroidism; hyperthyroidism b. hyperthyroidism; hypothyroidism c. hypoglycemia; hyperglycemia d. hyperglycemia; hypoglycemia e. glomerulonephtitis; systemic vasculitis
b. hyperthyroidism; hypothyroidism
Which of the following is not a characteristic of inflammation? a. pain b. inactivation of macrophages c. increased vascular permeability and edema d. vasodilation e. influx of leukocytes
b. inactivation of macrophages
At birth, the size of the repertoire of γ:δ T-cell receptors is _____ its size at adolescence. a. smaller than b. larger than c. about the same as
b. larger than
How do self-antigens that are specific to tissues away from the thymus (like insulin or keratin for example) get in the thymus so that developing T cells that react to them can be deleted? a. Dendritic cells pick them up in the periphery and carry them to the thymus. b. Specialized macrophages in the thymus filter the bloodstream and present antigens found there to developing T cells. c. A transcription factor, AIRE is expressed in thymic medullary epithelial cells, which allows these cells to express proteins normally found in other tissues. d. They do not get to the thymus, all tissue-specific T cells are deleted in the periphery. e. There are special chaperone proteins that bind to peripheral proteins and carry them to the thymus.
c. A transcription factor, AIRE is expressed in thymic medullary epithelial cells, which allows these cells to express proteins normally found in other tissues.
Which of the following accounts for the transition from membrane-bound IgM to secreted IgM upon activation of a B-cell? a. Class switch recombination b. Additional modification of nuclear DNA via RAG-1/2 c. Alternative splicing of pre-m RNA d. Affinity maturation e. None of the above
c. Alternative splicing of pre-m RNA
Which of the following statement is false about antibody? a. Antibodies can neutralize toxins b. Antibodies are composed of two light and two heavy chains c. Antibodies are produced by T-cells d. Antibodies can opsonized pathogens e. Antibodies can activate the complement pathway
c. Antibodies are produced by T-cells
_____ is a second messenger in the T-cell signaling pathway leading to the activation of NFAT. a. MAPK b. NF-κB c. Calcium d. Fos e. Ras
c. Calcium
Which of the following is NOT a postulate of the clonal selection theory regarding the T- and B-cells: a. Only the lymphocyte whose receptor bind strongly to their ligand get activated b. Individual lymphocyte bears only one type of receptor with a unique specificity c. Each lymphocyte bears a B-cell receptor (BCR) and a T-cell receptor (TCR) d. Lymphocytes binding to self molecules are eliminated early on in development e. Activated lymphocytes will expand and all the daughter cells will have the same specificity
c. Each lymphocyte bears a B-cell receptor (BCR) and a T-cell receptor (TCR)
Hematopoietic stem cells will differentiate into common lymphoid progenitor when cultured in the presence of which molecule found on bone marrow stromal cells? a. MHC b. CD8 c. FLT3 ligand d. B7-1 e. Il2
c. FLT3 ligand
Which of the following classes of cell surface receptors are directly encoded in the germline? a. TCR b. BCR c. PRR d. Antibodies e. All of the above
c. PRR
Which of the following statements about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are correct? a. HIV has a DNA genome. b. HIV must synthesize reverse transcriptase immediately after infecting a cell. c. HIV infects cells expressing CD4. d. HIV requires the CCR7 co-receptor for internalization by T cells. e. MyD88 is a transcription factor that facilitates transcription of proviral RNA.
c. HIV infects cells expressing CD4.
Proliferation of Naïve CD4 T cells requires: I. Recognition by the TCR of a peptide presented by MHC II II. Co-Stimulation from B7 ligands III. Interaction between CD4 and MHC II IV. Recognition of PAMPs by T cell a. I only b. I & II c. I, II, & III d. I & III e. IV only
c. I, II, & III
Bonds formed between the T cell and a dendritic cell are relatively weak. Which of the following help to strengthen this association so that a T cell can see which antigen is being presented by a dendritic cell? {Hint: This is important ONLY for the strengthening of the T-cell/APC interaction} a. CD28/LFA-5 b. CD 28 c. ICAM-1/LFA-1 d. IL-2R e. Pattern-recognition molecules
c. ICAM-1/LFA-1
_____ is not an opsonin. a. Mannose-binding lectin b. C-reactive protein c. IFN-alpha d. surfactant protein-A (SP-A) e. surfactant protein-D (SP-D).
c. IFN-alpha
______ forms dimers, whereas _______ forms pentamers: a. IgG; IgD b. IgE; IgM c. IgA; IgM d. IgD; IgM e. IgM; IgG
c. IgA; IgM
Which immunoglobulin's main function is to mediate sensitization of mast cells? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG e. IgM
c. IgE
A circulating B cell that has never before encountered antigen expresses _____ on the cell surface: a. IgM b. IgM and IgG c. IgM and IgD d. IgG e. IgE
c. IgM and IgD
Which of the following statement is false regarding type I IFNs: a. Induce cellular genes that destroy viral RNA b. Inhibit protein synthesis c. Induce lysis of extracellular bacteria d. Protect uninfected neighboring cells e. Activate NK cells
c. Induce lysis of extracellular bacteria
Which of the cell surface receptors are directly encoded in the germline: a. TCR b. BCR c. MHC I d. Antibodies e. All of the above
c. MHC I
Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between natural TREGs and induced TREGs? a. Natural TREGs differentiate into induced TREGs in response to stimulation through the TCR. b. Natural TREGs are derived from memory T cells, and induced TREGs differentiate directly from developing thymocytes. c. Natural TREGs develop in the thymus, and induced TREGs develop in the periphery. d. Natural TREGs have less diverse TCRs than induced TREGs. e. None of the above
c. Natural TREGs develop in the thymus, and induced TREGs develop in the periphery.
Which of the following does NOT occur shortly following oligomerization of the BCR upon antigen binding? a. Positioning of Igα and Igβ to allow for phosphorylation of their ITAM motifs b. Movement of the BCR complex into areas of the membrane called "lipid rafts" c. Positioning of CD3 to allow for phosphorylation if its ITAM motifs d. Formation of microcluster of BCR complex e. All of the above occur
c. Positioning of CD3 to allow for phosphorylation if its ITAM motifs
Which cytokines are associated with tumor-induced suppression of the immune response? a. IL-12 b. IL-2 c. TGF-β d. IL-4 e. IL-8
c. TGF-β
Negative selection of developing B cells ensures that a. there is not an overabundance of circulating B cells that would compete with other important cell types in the circulation b. only antigen-activated B cells leave the bone marrow c. clonal expansion of B cells does not occur in the absence of infection d. B-cell receptors that bind to normal constituents of the body do not emerge e. B cells do not leave secondary lymphoid tissues
d. B-cell receptors that bind to normal constituents of the body do not emerge
Secondary immunodeficiencies: a. can be brought on by multiple factors. b. can be contagious. c. can be inherited. d. Both A and B. e. All of the above.
d. Both A and B.
Activation of resting B cells by T helper cells depends directly upon costimulatory interaction between: a. B7 and CD28 b. B7 and CTLA-4 c. CD4 and MHCI d. CD40 and CD40L e. ICAM-1 and LFA-1
d. CD40 and CD40L
Activated T cells express _____, which binds to B7 with 20 times higher affinity than CD28 and results in _____ of T-cell activity and proliferation. a. high-affinity IL-2 receptor; stimulation b. CD40L; suppression c. VLA-4; stimulation d. CTLA4; suppression
d. CTLA4; suppression
Lymphocytes exit the blood and enter the Peyer's patch by extravasating at the high-endothelial venules (HEVs). Extravasation does NOT require which of the following? a. Homing b. Addressins c. Chemokines d. Dentritic cells e. All of these are required
d. Dendritic cells
Which of the following cell types would be LEAST likely to express MHC class I? a. B cells b. Macrophages c. Dendritic cells d. Erythrocytes e. Lung epithelial cells
d. Erythrocytes
Which of the following cell types would be LEAST likely to express MHC class II? a. B cells b. Macrophage c. Dendritic cells d. Erythrocytes e. Lung epithelial cells
d. Erythrocytes
Lymphocytes in the lamina propria secrete large amounts of: a. IgD b. MHC I c. Complement molecules d. IgA e. Gamma delta TCR
d. IgA
Which of the following immunoglobulin isotypes is the MOST efficient at initiating a complement fixation cascade? a. IgG b. IgE c. IgD d. IgM e. None of the above
d. IgM
A naive B cell that has never before encountered antigen expresses _____ on the cell surface: a. IgM and IgG b. IgM c. IgD d. IgM and IgD e. IgG
d. IgM and IgD
Th1 cells secrete a. CD4 b. Il-4 c. IL-17 d. Interferon-gamma e. IL-10
d. Interferon-gamma
_____ is the vascular addressin found on endothelial cells of intestinal mucosa that binds to integrins of gut-homing effector lymphocytes. a. CCL25 b. C-cadherin c. NOD1 d. MAdCAM-1 e. CCR9
d. MAdCAM-1
The lectin pathway is initiated by: a. Antibodies b. Properdin c. C1 d. MBL e. MASP-2
d. MBL
Antigen processing involves the breakdown of protein antigens and the subsequent association of peptide fragments on the surface of antigen-presenting cells with a. immunoglobulins b. T-cell receptors c. complement proteins d. MHC class I or class II molecules e. CD4
d. MHC class I or class II molecules
Conventional dendritic cells process antigens obtained from different routes for presentation to CD4 and CD8 T cells, which of the following is not a route employed by IDC: a. Receptor-mediated phagocytosis b. Macro-pinocytosis c. Viral infection d. Presentation of unprocessed antigen at the surface e. Cross-presentation after phagocytosis uptake
d. Presentation of unprocessed antigen at the surface
The human MHC locus is polygenic. What does this mean? a. These genes are expressed in many different cell type b. There are many different alleles of these genes c. Sequence variability is low in this region d. Several separate loci encoding proteins of identical function (all are expressed simultaneously by the cell) e. This region is regulated by many different mechanisms
d. Several separate loci encoding proteins of identical function (all are expressed simultaneously by the cell)
If a non-professional antigen-presenting cell that lacks co-stimulatory molecules presents peptide:MHC complexes to a T cell specific for that peptide, then _____. a. the T cell delivers a signal to the non-professional antigen-presenting cell to activate the expression of co-stimulatory molecules. b. the T cell begins to express the α chain of the IL-2 receptor. c. the T cell differentiates into a TH1 cell. d. T-cell tolerance occurs as a result of anergy. e. the T cell is more heavily reliant on signals transmitted through CD4 or CD8 in order to become activated
d. T-cell tolerance occurs as a result of anergy.
Which of the following is a characteristic of B-2 cells [aka classical B cells]? a. They are sometimes referred to as CD5 B cells. b. They comprise only 5% of the B-cell repertoire. c. In adults, they are renewed by cell division in the peripheral circulation. d. They are located primarily in secondary lymphoid organs. e. They are not dependent on T helper cells for activation.
d. They are located primarily in secondary lymphoid organs.
Which of the following is TRUE about antigens? a. They are always derived from pathogens. b. They are always proteins. c.. They must be microbial in origin. d. They are recognized by T cells or B cells. e. They usually cause cellular damage.
d. They are recognized by T cells or B cells.
The risk of _____ is the primary complication in bone marrow transplants. a. acute host-versus-graft disease b. hyperacute rejection c. chronic rejection d. acute graft-versus-host disease e. cancer
d. acute graft-versus-host disease
MHC class I molecules are made up of two chains called _______, whose function if to bind peptides and present them to _______ T cells: a. alpha (α) and beta (β); CD4 b. alpha (α) and beta2-microglobulin (β2m); CD4 c. alpha (α) and beta (β); CD8 d. alpha (α) and beta2-microglobulin (β2m); CD8 e. alpha (α) and beta (β); γ:δ T cells
d. alpha (α) and beta2-microglobulin (β2m); CD8
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID): a. is a result of the absence of macrophages or B cells. b. affects only part of the adaptive immune response. c. can be caused by failure of TAP transporters. d. can be caused by failure of VDJ recombination. e. All of the above.
d. can be caused by failure of VDJ recombination.
Another term commonly used to describe hypervariable loops is (Hint: the hypervariable loops are area of high diversity in the amino acid sequence of antibodies): a. multivalency b. framework regions c. hinge region d. complementarity-determining regions e. signal joint
d. complementarity-determining regions
In addition to M cells, _____ can capture pathogens directly from the lumen of the gut. a. intraepithelial lymphocytes b. plasma cells c. Paneth cells d. dendritic cells e. macrophages
d. dendritic cells
Primary lymphoid tissues are the sites where lymphocytes _______, whereas secondary lymphoid tissues are the sites where lymphocytes _______. a. are stimulated; develop and mature b. encounter pathogens; undergo apoptosis c. undergo clonal selection; differentiate from hematopoietic stem cells d. develop and mature; become stimulated e. die; are phagocytosed after death
d. develop and mature; become stimulated
Signaling through the pre-TCR occurs as a result of: a. binding to MHC class I b. binding to MHC class II c. binding to either MHC class I or MHC class II d. successful assembly of the pre-TCR e. expression of CD4
d. successful assembly of the pre-TCR
Which of the following is NOT a postulate of the clonal selection theory regarding the T- and B-cells: a. only the lymphocyte whose receptor bind strongly to their ligand get activated b. individual B cell clone (or T cells) bears only one type of BCR (or TCR) receptor with a unique specificity c. lymphocytes binding to self molecules are eliminated early on in development d. each lymphocyte bears a B-cell receptor (BCR) and a T-cell receptor (TCR) e. activated lymphocytes will expand and all the daughter cells will have the same specificity
d. each lymphocyte bears a B-cell receptor (BCR) and a T-cell receptor (TCR)
In terms of V, D, and J segment arrangement, the T-cell receptor beta-chain locus resembles the immunoglobulin _______ locus, whereas the T-cell receptor alpha-chain locus resembles the immunoglobulin _______ locus: a. λ light chain; κ light chain b. λ light chain; heavy chain c. κ light chain; heavy chain d. heavy chain; λ light chain e. κ light chain; λ light chain.
d. heavy chain; λ light chain
The _______ contribute to antigen specificity of immunoglobulins, and _______ make up the more conservative flanking regions: a. variable gene segments; joining gene segments b. constant domains; variable domains c. heavy chains; light chains d. hypervariable loops; framework regions e. antigenic determinants; complementarity determining regions
d. hypervariable loops; framework regions
A term generally used to describe all white blood cells is: a. Mast cell b. myeloid progenitor c. dendritic cell d. leukocyte e. polymorphonuclear (PMN)
d. leukocyte
Which of the following vaccines is most likely to pose a risk in an individual with a weak immune system? a. DNA b. subunit c. killed d. live-attenuated e. toxoid
d. live-attenuated
Whether a B-cell express an IgD or an IgM is directly determined by: a. DNA rearrangement. b. the sequence of the DNA in the Ig locus. c. the kind of T cell is producing it. d. mRNA splicing. e. GPI anchors.
d. mRNA splicing.
The lectin pathway of complement activation is induced by: a. C-reactive protein b. antibodies bound to pathogens c. C3Bb d. mannose-binding lectin e. terminal components of the complement pathway
d. mannose-binding lectin
Toll-like receptors differ from scavenger receptors in that they _____. a. bind to common repetitive arrays on microbial surfaces b. stimulate a pathway that causes enzymatic degradation of the microbe to which they bind c. are soluble receptors that bind to microbes in extracellular spaces d. mediate signal transduction pathways, causing cytokine production
d. mediate signal transduction pathways, causing cytokine production
The primary focus of B-cell expansion forms in the _____, whereas a secondary focus of B-cell expansion creates the _____. a. T-cell area; medullary cords b. medullary cords; T-cell area c. T-cell area; B-cell area d. medullary cords; germinal center e. light zone; dark zone
d. medullary cords; germinal center
Systemic distribution of cancer cells to other sites of the body through the bloodstream or lymph is a process known as _____. a. apoptosis b. neoplasia c. angiogenesis d. metastasis e. malignant transformation.
d. metastasis
Induction of tolerance by co-stimulatory blockade such as CTL4-Ig fusion or anti-CD40L to prevent graft rejection is aiming at increasing: a. negative selection b. positive selection c. central tolerance d. periphery tolerance e. inhibition of complement fixation
d. periphery tolerance
Effector cells that secrete antibodies are known as _____. a. natural killer cells b. cytotoxic T cells c. helper T cells d. plasma B cells e. M cells
d. plasma B cells
A conjugate vaccine is one that couples _____ to _____ so as to stimulate T-dependent antibody responses. a. adjuvant; toxoids b. a protein carrier; irradiated DNA c. protein carrier; toxoids d. polysaccharide; a protein carrier e. polysaccharide; adjuvant
d. polysaccharide; a protein carrier
Which of the following describes the sequence of events involved in processing of peptides that will be presented as antigen with MHC class I? a. plasma membrane → TAP1/2 → proteasome → MHC class I → endoplasmic reticulum b. TAP1/2 → proteasome → MHC class I → endoplasmic reticulum → plasma membrane c. proteasome → TAP1/2 → MHC class I → endoplasmic reticulum → plasma membrane d. proteasome → TAP1/2 → endoplasmic reticulum → MHC class I → plasma membrane e. endoplasmic reticulum → proteasome → MHC class I → TAP1/2 → plasma membrane
d. proteasome → TAP1/2 → endoplasmic reticulum → MHC class I → plasma membrane
Which feature is NOT associated with cancer cells establishing disease? a. escape apoptosis-inducing signal b. become vascularized by the formation of new blood vessels c. evade recognition by decreasing MHC/costimulatory molecules expression d. recognition of tumor-antigens by CD8 T cells e. inactivation of tumor suppressor genes
d. recognition of tumor-antigens by CD8 T cells
Peripheral tolerance: a. Is caused by costimulation without TcR-MHC+ peptide interaction. b. Is caused by TcR-MHC+ peptide interaction without costimulation. c. Leads to anergy. d. Both A and C. e. Both B and C.
e. Both B and C.
Which transcription factor is characteristic of TREG cells? a. AP-1 b. NFAT c. NFkB d. OCT-1 e. FOXP3
e. FOXP3
Which of the following is the correct relationship? _________ on _________ recognize _________ on _________. a. PRRs : macrophages; PAMPs : neutrophils b. PRRs : pathogen; PAMPs : macrophages c. PAMPs : macrophages; PRRs : pathogens d. PAMPs : neutrophils; PRRs : pathogen e. PRRs : Macrophages; PAMPs : Pathogens
e. PRRs : Macrophages; PAMPs : Pathogens
Which lymphocyte receptor gene possesses a D gene segment? a. Toll like receptor b. TCR alpha chain c. MHC I d. Light chain immunoglobulin e. TCR beta chain
e. TCR beta chain
Which of the following describes myasthenia gravis? a. Ectopic lymphoid tissue forms and impairs endocrine function. b. Disruption of adhesion molecules of cellular junctions. c. Autoimmune response to proteins of anterior chamber of the eye. d. Chronic inflammation of the gut mucosa. e. The neuromuscular junction is compromised.
e. The neuromuscular junction is compromised.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for an individual who lacks CCR5 as a result of a homozygous defect in the CCR5 gene becoming infected with HIV? a. The mutated CCR5 genes reverted to the normal form, rendering macrophages susceptible to macrophage-tropic HIV variants. b. The macrophage-tropic HIV variant entered host cells using CD4 alone. c. The viral nucleic acid alone was taken up by cells, as in cell transformation by bacterial DNA. d. The individual had received a transplant of HIV-infected cells expressing normal CCR5. e. The primary infection involved a lymphocyte-tropic strain of HIV that used CXCR4 as its co-receptor.
e. The primary infection involved a lymphocyte-tropic strain of HIV that used CXCR4 as its co-receptor.
All of the following are correct in reference to type I interferons except _____. a. Type I interferons inhibit the replication of viruses. b. In the presence of type I interferons, virus-infected cells undergo cell-surface changes that render them more susceptible to attack by NK cells. c. Not only can most cells synthesize type I interferons, but they can also respond to them. d. Type I interferons function in autocrine and paracrine fashions. e. The receptor for type I interferons is abundant in the cytosol.
e. The receptor for type I interferons is abundant in the cytosol.