Microbiology questions Quiz 6
23) Side effects that occur in patient's tissues while on antimicrobial drugs include all the following except _______. A) development of resistance to the drug B) hepatotoxicity C) nephrotoxicity D) diarrhea E) deafness
A) development of resistance to the drug
29) Micafungin and caspofungin are antifungal drugs that inhibit cell wall synthesis. They belong to the group of drugs known as _______. A) echinocandins B) macrolide polyenes C) azoles D) allylamines
A) echinocandins
47) An infectious agent that originates from outside the body is called _______. A) exogenous B) an exotoxin C) an enterotoxin D) endogenous E) axenic
A) exogenous
78) An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a _______. A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source
A) fomite
26) Which therapeutic index value would be the drug of choice? A) 20 B) 10 C) 1 D) 0.1 E) Any value would be equally effective.
A) 20
1) Select potential new antimicrobial therapies that are under investigation. A) CRISPR B) Methods that directly interfere with cell respiration in bacteria C) Bacteriophage therapy D) Making use of host and bacterial defense peptides E) RNA interference-directed at bacterial mRNAs F) Interfering with synthesis of bacterial capsules/glycocalyx
A) CRISPR B) Methods that directly interfere with cell respiration in bacteria C) Bacteriophage therapy D) Making use of host and bacterial defense peptides E) RNA interference-directed at bacterial mRNAs
40) Which terminology is not used to describe members of the resident biota? A) Pathogenic biota B) Normal biota C) Indigenous biota D) Normal microbiota E) Commensals
A) Pathogenic biota
50) Once a microbe has entered a host, what process performed by certain white blood cells will attempt to destroy the microbes? A) Phagocytosis B) Adhesion C) Encapsulation D) Margination E) Exocytosis
A) Phagocytosis
79) Which of the following is transmission of disease from mother to fetus? A) Vertical B) Direct C) Vector D) Horizontal E) Fomites
A) Vertical
90) If an infectious disease emerged that was highly contagious and virulent, resulting in certain death with no known cure, epidemiological data would show _______. A) a high incidence and low prevalence B) a low incidence and high prevalence C) both incidence and prevalence to be high D) both incidence and prevalence to be low
A) a high incidence and low prevalence
91) Ninety people developed diarrhea, fever. and abdominal cramps in the aftermath of a wedding. On diagnosis it was determined that they were suffering from salmonella, and after taking their histories, they all reported that they had eaten the chicken at the reception. This is an example of ________. A) a point-source epidemic B) a propagated epidemic C) a pandemic D) an endemic disease
A) a point-source epidemic
89) Tooth decay develops when human saliva and proteins aggregate on the tooth and provide a hospitable surface for a range of microbial species to develop into a biofilm. These organisms ferment carbohydrates and the acid byproducts erode the enamel, forming caries. Tooth decay is therefore considered to be ________. A) a polymicrobial infection B) a state of well-being C) nonharmful D) noninfectious
A) a polymicrobial infection
56) Exotoxins _______. A) are secreted by pathogenic organisms B) are bound to the membrane of pathogenic organisms C) are bound to the cell wall of pathogenic organisms D) cause more damage than endotoxins E) are host specific
A) are secreted by pathogenic organisms
68) A _______ is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood. A) bacteremia B) septicemia C) viremia D) toxemia E) None of the choices are correct.
A) bacteremia
42) The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal biota _______. A) before birth, in utero B) during and immediately after birth C) when a child first goes to school D) when an infant gets its first infectious disease E) during puberty
A) before birth, in utero
14) The drug that can cause injury to red blood cells and white blood cells is _______. A) chloramphenicol B) clindamycin C) ciprofloxacin D) bacitracin E) gentamicin
A) chloramphenicol
86) The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease is the _______ rate. A) morbidity B) mortality C) incidence D) endemic E) pandemic
A) morbidity
22) Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes in the intestines are known as ________. A) prebiotics B) probiotics. C) lantibiotics D) phytobiotics E) riboswitches
A) prebiotics
61) The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches is the _______. A) prodromal stage B) convalescent stage C) incubation period D) acute phase E) None of the choices are correct.
A) prodromal stage
53) Exotoxins are _______. A) proteins B) only released after a cell is damaged or lysed C) antiphagocytic factors D) secretions that always target nervous tissue E) lipopolysaccharides
A) proteins
46) The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the _______. A) respiratory system B) gastrointestinal system C) urinary system D) genital system E) skin
A) respiratory system
27) If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B, then pathogen A will have a(n) _______ zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B. A) smaller B) equal C) larger
A) smaller
10) Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all _______. A) target the cell wall B) have resistance to the action of penicillinase C) are semisynthetic D) have an expanded spectrum of activity E) All of the choices are correct.
A) target the cell wall
80) Healthcare-associated infections involve all the following except _______. A) they are only transmitted by medical personnel B) they often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions C) the patient's resident biota can be the infectious agent D) Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents E) medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence
A) they are only transmitted by medical personnel
31) Direct damage to tissue or an organ due to the effect of an antimicrobial on that tissue or organ is known as drug ________, whereas an inappropriate immune reaction to an antimicrobial is known as drug-induced ________. A) toxicity; allergy B) allergy; toxicity C) resistance; allergy D) superinfection; resistance
A) toxicity; allergy
88) The virus that causes rabies, and the rhinovirus that causes the common cold are both considered true pathogens; the degree of pathogenicity is determined by their _______. A) virulence B) protein coat C) envelope D) infectivity
A) virulence
28) Biofilm infections are harder to treat than the same free-living organisms because _______. A) when part of a biofilm community, the bacterial cells express different genes thus changing their antibiotic susceptibility B) bacteria in a biofilm exist only on synthetic surfaces such as catheters, so they cannot be treated with antibiotics C) the organisms in the biofilm degrade the antibiotics at a much faster rate than their free-living counterparts D) organisms in a biofilm develop antibiotic resistance more rapidly than free-living cells
A) when part of a biofilm community, the bacterial cells express different genes thus changing their antibiotic susceptibility
19) Each of the following result in drug resistance except _______. A) drug pumped out of the cell B) drug used as a nutrient by the cell C) drug binding site altered D) drug inactivated E) drug blocked from entering cell
B) drug used as a nutrient by the cell
4) The use of any chemical in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease is called _______. A) prophylaxis B) chemotherapy C) selective toxicity D) nephrotoxicity E) synergism
B) chemotherapy
84) A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a particular geographic location is ________. A) an epidemic B) endemic C) pandemic D) sporadic E) chronic
B) endemic
17) Antiviral drugs that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat _______. A) influenza A virus B) HIV C) herpes zoster virus D) respiratory syncytial virus E) hepatitis C virus
B) HIV
12) What cell wall inhibiting drug is used in cases of penicillin and methicillin resistance? A) Penicillin G B) Vancomycin C) Tetracycline D) Erythromycin E) Isoniazid
B) Vancomycin
66) A symptom is ________. A) an objective indication of disease B) a subjective indication of disease C) measurable by health care personnel D) temperature E) None of the choices are correct.
B) a subjective indication of disease
73) Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a _______. A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source
B) carrier
55) An endotoxin is _______. A) secreted by pathogenic organisms B) indicative of gram-negative organisms C) indicative of gram-positive organisms D) indicative of fungal infections E) indicative of viral infections
B) indicative of gram-negative organisms
65) Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of _______. A) toxemia B) inflammation C) sequelae D) a syndrome E) latency
B) inflammation
85) The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the _______ rate. A) morbidity B) mortality C) incidence D) endemic E) pandemic
B) mortality
52) Virulence factors include all the following except _______. A) capsules B) ribosomes C) exoenzymes D) endotoxins E) exotoxins
B) ribosomes
71) Long-term or permanent damage to tissues or organs resulting from a specific disease are called _______. A) symptoms B) sequelae C) infections D) latencies E) dormancies
B) sequelae
43) Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are _______. A) in food B) the patient's own normal biota C) on fomites D) in the air E) transmitted from one person to another
B) the patient's own normal biota
54) Enterotoxins are _______. A) virulence factors B) toxins that target the intestines C) proteins D) exotoxins E) All of thechoices are correct.
B) toxins that target the intestines
51) Which of the following is not an antiphagocytic factor? A) Secretion of slime B) Production of leukocidins C) Adhering to the host D) Secretion of a capsule E) Ability to survive intracellularly
C) Adhering to the host
81) When would Koch's postulates be utilized? A) Determination of the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab B) Development of a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab C) Determination of the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab D) Formulation of a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab E) Whenever the scientific method cannot be used to investigate a microbiological problem
C) Determination of the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab
92) Choose the statement that best describes the benefits of microbial antagonism to the human host. A) Microbial antagonism refers to the mechanisms by which a pathogen damages the host. B) Microbial antagonism keeps normal microbiota from colonizing some parts of the human body. C) Microbial antagonism occurs when members of the normal microbiota prevent pathogens from colonizing and becoming established in the body. D) Microbial antagonism refers to the effects that antibiotics have on the normal microbiota. E) Microbial antagonism refers to the effects that the human immune system has on the normal microbiota.
C) Microbial antagonism occurs when members of the normal microbiota prevent pathogens from colonizing and becoming established in the body.
45) Which of the following is not a factor that weakens host defenses against infections? A) Genetic defects in immunity B) Physical and mental stress C) Strong, healthy body D) Chemotherapy E) Old age
C) Strong, healthy body
13) Gram-negative rods are often treated with _________. A) penicillin G B) vancomycin C) aminoglycosides D) synercid E) isoniazid
C) aminoglycosides
30) Streptomycin, tetracycline, clindamycin, and erythromycin are examples of ________. A) aminoglycosides B) antibiotics that inhibit folic acid synthesis C) antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis D) beta-lactamase susceptible antibiotics E) antibiotics that are associated with a high incidence of liver toxicity
C) antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis
15) There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths _______. A) do not cause many human infections B) are not affected by antimicrobials C) are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult D) are parasites found inside human cells E) have cells with fewer target sites compared to bacteria
C) are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult
7) Aminoglycosides _______. A) interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan B) block folic acid synthesis C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis D) damage cell membranes E) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules
C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis
6) Selective toxicity refers to ________. A) damage to pathogenic organisms B) damage to prokaryotic cell membranes C) damage to the target organisms but not host cells D) damage to nucleic acids E) None of the choices are correct.
C) damage to the target organisms but not host cells
18) Acyclovir is used to treat _______. A) influenza A virus B) HIV C) herpes simplex virus D) respiratory syncytial virus E) hepatitis C virus
C) herpes simplex virus
83) The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the ________. A) mortality rate B) morbidity rate C) incidence rate D) prevalence rate E) epidemic rate
C) incidence rate
60) The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the _______. A) prodromal stage B) convalescent stage C) incubation period D) acute phase E) None of the choices are correct.
C) incubation period
49) The minimum amount of microbes in the inoculating dose is the _______. A) virulence factor B) indigenous biota C) infectious dose D) endotoxin E) minimal dose
C) infectious dose
21) Each of the following contributes to emerging drug resistance except _______. A) overuse of antibiotics B) improper use of antibiotics C) multiple drug therapy D) ingestion of antibiotics with animal feed E) addition of antibiotics to common household products
C) multiple drug therapy
8) Each of the following target bacterial ribosomes except _______. A) streptomycin B) gentamycin C) polymyxins D) tetracycline E) erythromycin
C) polymyxins
64) The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed a(n) _______. A) syndrome B) symptom C) sign D) pathology E) inflammation
C) sign
87) All of the following statements are true regarding discoveries made by the Human Microbiome Project except _______. A) the genes coded by our microbiome number in the millions, whereas human cells contain approximately 21,000 genes B) areas of the body once believed to be sterile, are now known to harbor microbes C) the microbiota does not contain pathogens; all of the microbes in our microbiome are non-pathogenic D) the composition of the microbiome has implications for the development of other, non-infectious diseases such as diabetes, obesity and asthma E) bacteria, as well as viruses and fungi, make up the microbiome
C) the microbiota does not contain pathogens; all of the microbes in our microbiome are non-pathogenic
74) An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a _______. A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source
C) vector
20) Each of the following is a mechanism for drug resistance transfer between microorganisms except ________. A) transduction B) R-plasmids C) conjugation D) mutation E) transformation
D) mutation
77) ________ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogens a long time after they have recovered from an infectious disease. A) Asymptomatic B) Passive C) Incubation D) Chronic E) Convalescent
D) Chronic
57) _______ are bacterial enzymes that dissolve fibrin clots. A) Coagulases B) Mucinases C) Keratinases D) Kinases E) Hyaluronidases
D) Kinases
25) A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobials in broth, and then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up? A) Kirby-Bauer B) Antibiogram C) E-test D) MIC E) Therapeutic index (TI)
D) MIC
59) The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity is the _______. A) prodromal stage B) convalescent stage C) incubation period D) acute phase E) None of the choices are correct.
D) acute phase
69) Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called _______. A) syndromes B) malaises C) inflammation D) asymptomatic E) secondary infections
D) asymptomatic
24) A superinfection results from _______. A) buildup of a drug to toxic levels in the patient B) the wrong drug administered to the patient C) an immune system reaction to the drug D) decrease in the microbiota with overgrowth of an unaffected species
D) decrease in the microbiota with overgrowth of an unaffected species
48) An infectious agent already existing on or in the body is called _______. A) exogenous B) an exotoxin C) an enterotoxin D) endogenous E) axenic
D) endogenous
9) Sulfa drugs work on _______. A) nucleic acid biosynthesis B) ribosome biosynthesis C) peptidoglycan biosynthesis D) folic acid biosynthesis E) None of the choices are correct.
D) folic acid biosynthesis
38) Infection occurs when _______. A) contaminants are present on the skin B) a person swallows microbes in/on food C) a person inhales microbes in the air D) pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues E) All of thechoices are correct.
D) pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues
39) The term infection refers to _______. A) microorganisms colonizing the body B) contact with microorganisms C) contact with pathogens D) pathogens penetrating host defenses E) None of the choices are correct.
D) pathogens penetrating host defenses
5) The use of a drug to prevent a person at risk of an imminent infection is called _______. A) competitive inhibition B) synergism C) prebiotics D) prophylaxis E) lantibiotics
D) prophylaxis
16) Primaquine and chloroquine are drugs used in the treatment of _______. A) gram-positive infections B) gram-negative infections C) fungal infections D) protozoan infections E) viral infections
D) protozoan infections
72) The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the _______. A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source
D) reservoir
44) Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called _______. A) opportunistic pathogens B) normal biota C) indigenous biota D) true pathogens E) micropathogens
D) true pathogens
75) A _______ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans. A) secondary infection B) sequelae C) nosocomialinfection D) zoonosis E) None of the choices are correct.
D) zoonosis
3) Important characteristics of antimicrobial drugs include _______. A) low toxicity for human tissues B) high toxicity against microbial cells C) do not cause serious side effects in humans D) stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids E) All of the choices are correct.
E) All of the choices are correct
41) Resident biota are found in/on the ________. A) skin B) mouth C) nasal passages D) large intestine E) All of the choices are correct.
E) All of the choices are correct
70) Which of the following is not a normal portal of exit for an infectious disease? A) Removal of blood B) Urogenital tract and feces C) Coughing and sneezing D) Skin E) All of these arenormal exit portals.
E) All of these are normal exit portals
67) A sign is _______. A) an objective indication of disease B) a subjective indication of disease C) measurable by health care personnel D) temperature E) Both objective indication of diseaseand measurable by health care personnel are correct.
E) Both objective indication of diseaseand measurable by health care personnel are correct
76) _______ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogens while they are recovering from an infectious disease. A) Asymptomatic B) Passive C) Incubation D) Chronic E) Convalescent
E) Convalescent
11) Which drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis? A) Penicillin G B) Vancomycin C) Tetracycline D) Synercid E) Isoniazid
E) Isoniazid
58) Which of the following is the endotoxin? A) Hemolysin B) Hyaluronidase C) Streptokinase D) Collagenase E) Lipopolysaccharide
E) Lipopolysaccharide
2) Antimicrobials that are effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed _______. A) antibiotics B) narrow-spectrum drugs C) semisynthetic drugs D) synthetic drugs E) broad-spectrum drugs
E) broad-spectrum drugs
82) The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is _______. A) pathology B) clinical microbiology C) medicine D) immunology E) epidemiology
E) epidemiology
36) A narrow-spectrum antimicrobial would be an appropriate choice to treat an abscess caused by several different microbe species, including both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria. ⊚ true ⊚ false
⊚ false
37) Antiprotozoal and antihelminthic drugs are often less toxic to human tissues because of the high degree of similarity between human cells and various pathogenic protozoa and helminths. ⊚ true ⊚ false
⊚ false
94) When an infected person is in the incubation period, that person cannot transmit the pathogen to others. ⊚ true ⊚ false
⊚ false
97) In a comparison of two pathogens, organism A has an infectious dose of 200,000 organisms, whereas organism B has an infectious dose of 15 organisms. This means that organism A is much more pathogenic than organism B. ⊚ true ⊚ false
⊚ false
32) Antimicrobial drugs that inhibit folic acid synthesis work with very few side effects because mammals must get folic acid from their diet. ⊚ true ⊚ false
⊚ true
33) Resistance factor plasmids are transferred to other bacterial cells during transformation, transduction, and conjugation. ⊚ true ⊚ false
⊚ true
34) Bacteria can have a natural resistance to a drug that it has never been exposed to. ⊚ true ⊚ false
⊚ true
35) Indwelling catheter biofilm infections are more resistant to antibiotics than nonbiofilm infections. ⊚ true ⊚ false
⊚ true
93) Under certain circumstances, members of a person's resident biota can become opportunistic pathogens. ⊚ true ⊚ false
⊚ true
95) Latency is a dormant state of an infectious agent. ⊚ true ⊚ false
⊚ true
96) It is important to understand the extent and significance of polymicrobial infections, since treating an infection with a single antibiotic for an assumed causative organism may not adequately eliminate the infection. ⊚ true ⊚ false
⊚ true
