Pathophysiology Practice Midterm 2

Which statement is true regarding hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?

ABI incompatibility HDFN is usually less severe than Rh incompatibility The pathophysiologic effects of HDFN are more severe in Rh incompatibility than in ABO incompatibility. The first Rh-incompatible pregnancy usually occurs with no difficulties. Anti-Rh antibodies are formed in response to the presence of incompatible (Rh-positive) erythrocytes in the blood of an Rh-negative mother for many reasons, not just transfusion.

Which statement is true regarding acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

ARDS can trigger severe pulmonary edema The most common cause of ARDS is either sepsis or multiple trauma, which damages the alveolar capillary membrane and results in severe pulmonary edema. Macrophages, neutrophils, complement, and endotoxins are important mediators.

Which form of leukemia is the most commonly observed in children?

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

Platelet activation involves which processes?

Adhesion Aggregation

Which statements are true regarding children's airways?

Airway narrowing significantly affects resistance Airway obstruction occurs earlier in infants than it does in children Children have more cartilage in their airways than do adults Children have a decreased airway diameter Cough is generally not a benign condition

Which blood component is responsible for the critical colloid oncotic pressure?

Albumin Albumin molecules are large and do not freely diffuse through the vascular endothelium, and therefore maintain the critical colloidal osmotic pressure (or oncotic pressure) that regulates the passage of water and solutes into the surrounding tissues. The immunoglobulins, including gamma globulins, are responsible for fighting infection. Clotting factors are responsible for the clotting cascade and the formation of blood clots.

Which statement is true regarding multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?

An uncontrolled inflammatory response can trigger MODS MODS is the progressive dysfunction of two or more organ systems, resulting from uncontrolled inflammatory response, and may occur during sepsis. However, these two terms are not synonymous. The mortality rate for MODS is high.

Which statement regarding anemia is true in children?

Anemia is the most common blood disorder in children Of the options available, anemia is the most common blood disorder in children and the most common cause is iron deficiency. The symptoms of mild anemia—lethargy and listlessness—are usually not present or are inconsequential in infants and young children who are unable to describe these symptoms.

What is the term for a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets?

Aplastic anemia Aplastic anemia occurs with pancytopenia, which is a decrease in all three cell types. Hereditary hemochromatosis (HH) is a common inherited, autosomal recessive disorder of iron metabolism and is characterized by increased gastrointestinal iron absorption with subsequent tissue iron. Myelodysplastic syndrome is a group of disorders that demonstrate hematopoietic stem cell dysfunction. A defect of mitochondrial heme synthesis causes sideroblastic anemia.

Which statements are true regarding hypertension?

Approximately two thirds of Americans older than 60 years of age have hypertension. Hypertension is defined as a diastolic pressure higher than 90 mmHg. Hypertension is a systolic pressure of 140 mmHg or higher. Approximately two thirds of Americans older than 60 years of age have hypertension, and approximately 48% of those have adequately controlled hypertension. Hypertension is defined as a diastolic pressure of 90 mmHg or higher or a systolic pressure of 140 mmHg or higher. Between 25% and 37% of adults in the United States are prehypertensive.

A child who is about to begin school is found to have a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur. This finding supports the presence of which cardiac anomaly?

Atrial Septal Defect An atrial septal defect may exhibit a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur. Mitral valve prolapse is not usually diagnosed in childhood and is identified by an opening click. A ventricular septal defect has a harsh, loud, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill. A child with congestive heart failure may show changes in feeding, respirations, or lung sounds.

Which statement accurately describes blood flow through the heart?

Blood flows from the right atrium through the tricuspid valve to the right ventricle. Blood then travels from the right ventricle through the pulmonic semilunar valve to the pulmonary circulation. Once in the pulmonary circulation, it is oxygenated and travels to the left atrium through the bicuspid valve to the left ventricle. Blood leaves the left ventricle through the aortic valve and enters the systemic circulation.

Which statement is true regarding the constituents of blood?

Blood volume in adults is approximately 6 quarts The adult blood volume is approximately 5.5 L or 6 quarts. Plasma is made up of 8% dissolved substances and 92% water. Plasma accounts for 50% to 55% of blood volume. Plasma differs from serum in that serum is altered in the laboratory by removing fibrinogen and other clotting factors.

Which are signs of deterioration in a child experiencing shock?

Bradycardia Prolonged capillary refill

Which statements regarding Burkitt lymphoma are true?

Burkitt lymphoma is a fast-growing tumor of the jaw and facial bones Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the Epstein-Barr virus Burkitt lymphoma is fast growing and primarily involves the jaw and facial bones; it is associated with the Epstein-Barr virus. Burkitt lymphoma is a type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma and most common in children from east-central Africa and New Guinea, although rare in the United States.

Which receptor monitors the pH, partial pressure of CO2 (PaCO2), and the partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) in arterial blood?

Central chemoreceptors Central chemoreceptors indirectly monitor arterial blood by sensing changes in the pH of the cerebral spinal fluid (CSF). Stretch receptors are located in smooth muscle and are sensitive to increases in the size or volume of the lungs. Irritant receptors are found in the epithelium of conducting airways and are sensitive to noxious aerosols, gases, and particles. J-receptors are located near the capillaries in the alveolar septa and are sensitive to increased capillary pressure.

Which statement is true regarding iron deficiency anemia?

Children are at high risk because of their extremely high need of iron for normal growth Iron deficiency anemia is common in children because of their extremely high need of iron for normal growth. The incidence is not related to race but is related to socioeconomic factors (i.e., increased prevalence in the children of single homeless women), which influence nutrition. Iron deficiency anemia is most commonly found in children between the ages of 6 months and 2 years.

Which is a true statement regarding burns in children?

Children have decreased glycogen stores, and meeting metabolic needs is difficult. Children have decreased glycogen stores and thus have difficulty meeting metabolic needs. They are unable to concentrate urine, and this inability places children at increased risk of dehydration. Children may be immunosuppressed for a prolonged period after wound closure is achieved. Children require fluid resuscitation for smaller burns as a result of their limited reserve.

Which term describes a hypersecretion of mucus and chronic productive cough that continues for at least 3 months of the year for a minimum of 2 consecutive years?

Chronic bronchitis The hypersecretion of mucus with a chronic productive cough that lasts for at least 3 months for a minimum of 2 consecutive years characterizes chronic bronchitis. The mucus is thicker and will adhere to embedded bacteria. This condition is increased up to 20 times in smokers.

A child has been noted to have hypertension with decreased pulses in the lower extremities. What is the most likely congenital cause for this finding?

Coarctation of the aorta Coarctation of the aorta is a narrowing of the lumen of the aorta that impedes blood flow. Children may have cool, mottled skin and occasionally leg cramps during exercise. A systolic ejection murmur, heard best at the left interscapular area, is caused by rapid blood flow through the narrowed area, which is often found with hypertension. Children with pulmonary stenosis may have a systolic ejection murmur and possibly exertional dyspnea and fatigability. Atrial septal defects have a murmur. Cyanosis, growth failure, and dyspnea may occur with tricuspid atresia.

Which statements are true regarding congenital heart defects?

Congenital heart disease is the second leading cause of death in infants during the first year of life Incidence of heart defects is high in stillbirths, low-birth-weight babies, and spontaneous abortions Infants with trisomy 21 have a high incidence of congenital heart disease Congenital heart disease is the leading cause of death, excluding prematurity, in infants during the first year of life. The incidence of heart defects also has been found to be high in stillbirths, low-birth-weight or small-for-gestational-age infants, and spontaneous abortions. The use of some drugs during pregnancy is associated with an above-average incidence of congenital heart disease. Examples of these drugs include thalidomide, lithium, phenytoin (Dilantin), and warfarin. The underlying cause of congenital heart disease is known in only 10% of cases. As many as 50% of infants with trisomy 21 have a congenital heart defect, either an atrioventricular (AV) canal defect or a VSD.

Which condition is a complication of hypertension?

Congestive heart failure Cardiovascular complications include left ventricular hypertrophy, angina pectoris, congestive heart failure (left heart failure), coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction (MI), and sudden death.

Which statement is a description for the term anemia?

Decreased erythrocytes in the circulating blood Anemia is a reduction in the total number of erythrocytes in the circulating blood or a decrease in the quality or quantity of hemoglobin. This option is the only one that accurately describes anemia

Which clinical manifestations are characteristic of cardiogenic shock in a child?

Delayed capillary refill Cool extremities Periorbital edema

Which statement is true concerning drug-induced anemia?

Drug-induced anemia is a form of immune hemolytic anemia Drug-induced hemolytic anemia is a form of immune hemolytic anemia from an allergic reaction against foreign antigens (antibiotics). Usually the drug is small molecular weight and functions as a hapten that binds to proteins on the surface of an erythrocyte. Cessation of administration of the drug results in rapid resolution of the anemia. This form of drug-induced anemia occurs 1-2 weeks after exposure to the antibiotic.

What is the appropriate name for the connection between the aorta and the pulmonary artery?

Ductus arteriosus The ductus arteriosus is the communication link between the aorta and the pulmonary artery. Once the ductus venosus closes, its remnants form the ligamentum venosum. The foramen ovale is the flapped orifice that allows right-to-left shunting, which is necessary for fetal circulation. The bulbus cordis is the conal portion of the ventricular septum that separates the aorta artery from the pulmonary artery.

What is the most common complication of acute myocardium infarction (AMI)?

Dysrhythmia Dysrhythmias (arrhythmias), which are disturbances of the cardiac rhythm, are the most common complication of AMI. Although all of these choices are true complications of AMI, dysrhythmias are the most common. Dressler postinfarction syndrome, which is a delayed form of acute pericarditis, can occur from 1 week to several months after AMI. Congestive heart failure can occur with a weakened cardiac muscle.

Which term describes an occlusion in a blood vessel caused by a bolus of circulating matter in the bloodstream?

Embolus An embolus is a bolus of matter that is circulating in the blood. A thrombus is a blood clot that remains attached to the vessel wall. Thrombophlebitis is the inflammation caused by a thrombus. Foam cells are lipid-laden cells that contribute to fatty streaks.

What is the term used to describe a respiratory infection that results in pus in the pleural space?

Empyema Empyema is term used to describe the presence of pus in the pleural space and is a complication of respiratory infection. Abscess is a circumscribed area of suppuration and destruction of lung parenchyma. A consolidation is inflamed lung tissue that causes the alveoli to fill with exudate. Transudate is the presence of fluid with low protein content residing in the pleural space.

Which is likely to occur in infants with left ventricular heart failure?

Failure to thrive Poor feeding or poor sucking is often found in left ventricular failure and leads to failure to thrive. Right ventricular failure is representative of the remaining options.

Which statement regarding fetal and adult hemoglobin is true?

Fetal hemoglobin is composed of two alpha and two gamma chains Fetal hemoglobin is HbF and is composed of two α- and two γ-chains. The adult hemoglobins are HbA and HbA2 and are composed of two α- and two β-chains. The embryonic hemoglobins are Gower 1, 2, and Portland.

Which blood component is responsible for lysis or the breakdown of blood clots?

Fibrinolytic system The fibrinolytic system breaks down blood clots. Nitric oxide causes vasodilation. The extrinsic pathway is activated when tissue factor is released from damaged endothelial cells. Antithrombin III is a circulating plasma protease inhibitor that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.

What are the signs of severe dyspnea?

Flaring of the nostrils Use of accessory muscles of respiration Retraction of the intercostal spaces Sever dyspnea, a subjective sensation of uncomfortable breathing, is characterized by flaring of the nostrils, use of accessory muscles of respiration, and retraction of the intercostal spaces. Hemoptysis is characterized by coughing up blood or bloody secretions.

Which structure allows right-to-left shunting, which is necessary for fetal circulation?

Foramen ovale The foramen ovale is the flapped orifice that allows right-to-left shunting, which is necessary for fetal circulation. Altered development can lead to atrial septal defect. Failure of the septum primum to fuse with the endocardial cushions results in an ostium primum defect. Fenestrations (or openings), which develop in the superior portion of the septum primum, create the ostium secundum. The bulbus cordis is the conal portion of the ventricular septum that separates the aorta from the pulmonary artery.

Which factors determine cardiac output?

Heart Rate and Stroke Volume Cardiac output is directly related to the heart rate and stroke volume. Changes in either variable affect the cardiac output. Preload is the pressure generated in the left ventricle at the end of diastole (end-diastolic volume). Afterload is the resistance or impedance to the ejection of blood from the left ventricle. Although the parasympathetic stimulation has a bradycardic effect and sympathetic nervous system increases the frequency of the cardiac pacemaker and may influence cardiac output, these factors are not used in the cardiac output formula; neither are atrial pressures.

Which illness is the most common cause of aplastic crisis?

Human parvovirus B19

Which are the trigger for sickling?

Hypoxemia Increased plasma osmolality Dehydration

What is the appropriate first-line treatment for shock?

Identification and treatment of the underlying cause The most important first-line treatment for shock is to identify and treat the underlying cause. After the underlying cause is detected, treatment is supportive.

What are the common causes of anemia?

Impaired production Increased red cell destruction Severe bleeding Chronic blood loss Impaired production of erythrocytes, blood loss (both acute or chronic), increased red cell destruction, or any combination of these can cause anemia.

Which statements regarding Hodgkin lymphoma are true?

Incidence peaks in the early 20s through the 30s and then later in life The number of Reed-Sternberg cells is increased The peak incidence of Hodgkin lymphoma occurs during the early 20s through the 30s and again in the sixth and seventh decades of life. The incidence is greater in whites, and Japan and Australia have the lowest incidence. An increase in Reed-Sternberg cells occurs.

Which physiologic alteration is present in an individual with emphysema?

Increased compliance Emphysema is associated with increased lung compliance and decreased elastic recoil. Airway resistance refers to the opposition to airflow and is determined by the length, radius, and cross-sectional area of the airways. Surfactant affects the surface tension and alveolar ventilation.

Which alterations involved with aging are considered normal?

Increased flow resistance Alterations in gas exchange Loss of recoil Normal alterations involved in aging include increases in flow resistance, alterations in gas exchange, stiffening of the chest wall, and loss of elastic recoil.

What are the possible causes of neutropenia?

Ineffective granulopoiesis Reduced survival Abnormal distribution Severe prolonged infection

Which statement is true regarding the pathophysiologic process of asthma?

Inflammation results in airway hyperresponsiveness Increased bronchial smooth muscle spasm and increased vascular permeability cause asthma. Asthma is an immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated response.

Regarding pernicious anemia, which is a true statement?

Is associated with end-stage type A chronic atrophic gastritis Pernicious anemia is the most common type of megaloblastic anemia and is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, which is often associated with the end-stage type A chronic atrophic (congenital or autoimmune) gastritis. It generally occurs in older adults with a mean age of onset of 60 years.

Which term is used to identify elevated systolic pressure accompanied by normal diastolic pressure (less than 90 mmHg)?

Isolated systolic hypertension Isolated systolic hypertension is an elevated systolic pressure with a normal diastolic pressure. Primary hypertension is the result of extremely complicated interactions of genetics and the environment, mediated by a host of neurohumoral effects. Altered hemodynamics, associated with a primary disease, cause secondary hypertension. Stage 2 hypertension is systolic pressure equal to or greater than 160 mmHg and diastolic pressure equal to or greater than 100 mmHg.

Which cardiac chamber has the thickest wall?

Left Ventricle The atria are approximately 1-2 mm thick. The right ventricle is 4-5 mm thick, and the left ventricle, the most muscular chamber, is approximately 12-15 mm thick.

Which term describes a higher-than-normal white blood cell count?

Leukocytosis Leukocytosis is an increase in the number of leukocytes or white blood cells in the blood. A decrease in the number of white blood cells is termed leukopenia. Granulocytosis is an increase in the number of granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils) in the blood. The neutrophil is the most numerous of the granulocytes, and the term granulocytosis is often used in place of neutrophilia.

Which statements are true regarding lymph nodes?

Lymph nodes collect interstitial fluid Lymph nodes are part of the hematologic and immune system Lymph nodes may enlarge and become tender as a result of infection

Which statement is true regarding lymphoma?

Lymphoma usually starts in the lymph nodes of the stomach or intestines Lymphomas usually start in the lymph node or lymphatic tissue of the stomach or colon. The incidence is greater in whites than it is in blacks, and the rates of lymphoma differ with respect to age, gender, geographic location, and socioeconomic class. Malignancy within the lymphatic tissue in the bone marrow is termed lymphocytic leukemia.

Infiltrative splenomegaly is caused by engorgement of what?

Macrophages Infiltrative splenomegaly is caused by engorgement by the macrophages with indigestible materials associated with various "storage diseases." Red blood cells are filtered by the spleen. Granulocytes are neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. Histamine is secreted in response to antigens.

What triggers multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?

Maldistribution of blood flow Myocardial depression Supply-dependent oxygen consumption Excessive inflammatory reaction

Which statement is true regarding cellular injury of the myocardium?

Myocardial cells remain viable if blood flow returns within 20 minutes Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions for approximately 20 minutes. ECG changes are visible after 30-60 seconds of hypoxia. After 8-10 seconds of decreased blood flow, the myocardial cells are already cyanotic and cooler. Even if cardiac cells are metabolically altered and are nonfunctional, they can remain viable if blood flow returns within 20 minutes.

Which structures are considered part of the upper airway?

Nasopharynx Oropharynx

What are the possible causes of lymphadenopathy?

Neoplastic disease Inflammatory condition Lipid storage disease Lymphadenopathy may be caused by neoplastic disease, immunologic or inflammatory conditions, lipid storage disease, and endocrine disorders. Cardiac disease and peripheral vascular dysfunction have not been linked to lymphadenopathy.

What is a granulocyte?

Neutrophil Basophil Eosinophil Monocytes and macrophages are agranulocytes.

Regarding normal features of cardiac function in the newborn, which statements are true?

Oxygen consumption doubles By 1 month of age, the newborn's ventricles are approximately equal in weight Oxygen consumption doubles at birth, and the newborn's ventricles are approximately equal in weight by 1 month of age. The newborn heart rate is 100-180 bpm, and cardiac output is high. Unlike the adult heart, the newborn heart has right ventricular (RV) dominance with a thickened RV wall.

Which are the true statements regarding sickle cell disease?

Persons with sickle cell disease have two HbS genes Sickle cell disease is an autosomal recessive disease Sickle cell disease is an autosomal recessive disorder that is most common in Africa, the Arabian peninsula, India, and parts of South and Central America, as well as the Caribbean. Sickle cell trait has one hemoglobin S (HbS) gene and one normal HgA gene. In sickle cell disease, a person has two HbS genes, which represents the homozygous form of this disease.

Which molecular anomaly with acute lymphoblastic leukemia carries the worst prognosis?

Philadelphia chromosome This chromosome is found in 30% of adults with ALL and has the worst prognosis

Which statements are true regarding platelets?

Platelets are disk-shaped cytoplasmic fragments Platelets are formed by clumps of megakaryocytes Platelets are not cells but fragments of cytoplasmic components. They are disk-shaped fragments that form from megakaryocytes. They have no nucleus and cannot divide.

Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension?

Positive family history for HTN High dietary sodium intake Glucose intolerance

Which statement correctly defines preload?

Pressure generated by the end-diastolic volume Preload is the pressure generated in the left ventricle at the end of diastole (end-diastolic volume). Afterload is the resistance or impedance to the ejection of blood from the left ventricle. Wall tension is directly related to the product of the intraventricular pressure and internal radius, and inversely related to the wall thickness (Laplace's law). A tension curve lower than normal is characteristic of congestive heart failure.

A woman with chest pain that occurs at rest is diagnosed as having abnormal vasospasm of her coronary arteries. These symptoms support which medical diagnosis?

Prinzmetal angina Prinzmetal angina is an abnormal vasospasm of the coronary vessels that causes transient ischemia, unpredictably and usually at rest, and is more common in women. Stable angina occurs with activity, is often limited, and resolves with rest. Silent ischemia is poor myocardial perfusion that does not cause angina and may be associated only with nonspecific symptoms such as fatigue, dyspnea, or a feeling of unease. Angina pectoris is typically experienced as transient substernal chest discomfort, ranging from a sensation of heaviness or pressure to moderately severe pain.

Cyanosis, followed by rubor and paraesthesias in the digits, are associated with which condition?

Raynaud phenomenon or disease Attacks of vasospasm in the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers and, less commonly, of the toes, characterize Raynaud phenomenon and Raynaud disease. Symptoms include cold and numb digits. Thromboangiitis obliterans, an inflammatory disease of the peripheral arteries, tends to occur in young men who are heavy smokers. Arteries occlude in the feet and hands. The chief symptoms of thromboangiitis obliterans are pain and tenderness of the affected part. Atherosclerosis is an inflammatory disease and is the major cause of coronary artery disease and stroke. A varicose vein is a superficial vein in which blood has pooled.

What process describes the exchange of carbon dioxide (CO2) for oxygen?

Respiration Respiration is the exchange of CO2 for oxygen. Ventilation is the mechanical movement of gas or air into and out of the lungs and is often misnamed respiration. Circulation refers to the actual blood flow and oxygen delivery. Alveolar ventilation refers to the amount of air delivered to the alveoli.

Which statements are true regarding the presentation of shock in children?

Shock in children most often results from severe dehydration, hemorrhage, progressive heart failure, or sepsis In children, shock may be present with normal, high, or low BP Shock in children is most often due to severe dehydration, hemorrhage, heart failure, or sepsis. When systolic blood pressure is adequate for age but there are signs of inadequate tissue perfusion, the child is in compensated shock. Shock may be present with normal, high, or low blood pressure in children. Prolonged capillary refill (greater than 2 seconds) can be a sign of compromised perfusion and the development of shock in children. Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds is an indicator or sign of shock in children.

Which part of the heart is responsible for electrical impulse stimulation?

Sinus node The sinus node, the pacemaker of the heart, is the site of impulse formation. The atrioventricular node is the junction of the electrical transmission between the atria and the ventricles. The impulse then travels to the bundle of His and, finally, to the right and left bundle branches. The terminal branches are the Purkinje fibers.

Which statement is true regarding stridor?

Stridor is high-pitched sounds with inspiration. Stridor is high-pitched sounds with inspiration. A turbulent flow of air through a partially obstructed airway produces stridor, which is a harsh vibratory sound of variable pitch. Inspiratory stridor is generated with obstruction of the extrathoracic airway (above the thoracic inlet). Biphasic stridor typically reflects obstruction at the glottis.

Which statement correctly describes the A wave?

The A wave is generated by atrial contraction The A wave is generated by atrial contraction. The V wave is the early diastolic peak caused by the filling of the atrium. The X descent follows the A wave and is produced because of the descent of the tricuspid valve ring. The Y descent follows the V wave and reflects the rapid flow of blood from the great veins and right atrium into the right ventricle.

Which statements regarding respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn are true?

The major predisposing factor is birth prior to 36 weeks There is increased incidence in American newborns It is more frequently seen in infants of diabetic mothers Birth by elective cesarean section increases risk

Which cardiac anomalies are associated with tetralogy of Fallot?

VSD Pulmonary stenosis Right ventricular hypertrophy Tetralogy of Fallot consists of four defects: (1) a ventricular septal defect (VSD) that is high in the septum and usually large; (2) an aorta that is overriding and straddles the VSD; (3) pulmonary stenosis; and (4) right ventricular hypertrophy. Atrial septal defect may occur as a congenital heart anomaly but is not included in the tetralogy of Fallot. Tricuspid atresia consists of an imperforate tricuspid valve, resulting in no communication between the right atrium and the right ventricle and is not included in the tetralogy of Fallot.

Which steps are involved in the process of gas exchange?

Ventilation Diffusion Perfusion

What is the most common form of autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

Warm antibody Warm antibody is immunoglobulin G (IgG) mediated, is the most common, and occurs in individuals older than 40 years of age. Cold agglutinin is less common, is mediated by immunoglobulin M (IgM), and affects older women. Cold hemolysin is a rare disorder involving IgG and can result in massive intravascular hemolysis. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is another name for the cold hemolysin type of anemia.

Which assessment findings are a sign of atherosclerosis?

Xanthelasmas Arcus senilis Carotid arterial bruits Xanthelasmas are small fat deposits around the eyes. Arcus senilis is a yellow lipid ring around the cornea. Both of these findings suggest dyslipidemia, which is associated with atherosclerosis. Carotid arterial bruit also suggests probable atherosclerotic disease. Cardiac murmurs may indicate acute valvular insufficiency. Extra-rapid heart sounds, such as a left ventricular gallop, indicate impaired left ventricular function during an ischemic attack.

Which is true regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?

Young maternal age increases incidence Infants of mothers younger than 20 years of age are more likely to die of SIDS. The peak age for SIDS is 3-4 months, and the incidence declines after that. There is a higher frequency in winter months. Less prenatal care and poverty are predictive factors.