Zamnass Quizlet Questions
A client comes to the health care facility reporting flulike symptoms. After a thorough assessment, the client is diagnosed with influenza and is to receive oseltamivir. The nurse understands that this drug has been prescribed because the client been symptomatic for less than: a. 2 days b. 8 days c. 6 days d. 4 days
A
A nurse has an order to administer heparin. Before initiating this therapy, a priority nursing assessment will be the client's: a. aPTT b. sodium and potassium levels c. heart rate and pulse. d. blood glucose level.
A
A nurse is educating a patient with hypertension who is prescribed losartan on the mechanism of action of the drug. Which mode of action helps losartan to bring about its antihypertensive effect? a. By blocking the angiotensin II receptors b. By blocking the aldosterone receptors c. By preventing renin secretion d. By preventing the conversion of angiotensin
A
Dyskinesias are a common side effect of antipsychotic drugs. Nursing interventions for the patient receiving antipsychotic drugs should include which actions? SATA a. Positioning to decrease discomfort of dyskinesias b. Implementing safety measures to prevent injury c. Encouraging the patient to chew tablets to prevent choking d. Careful teaching to alert the patient and family about this adverse effect e. Applying ice to the joints to prevent damage f. Pureeing all food to decrease the risk of aspiration
A, B, D
Warfarin, an oral anticoagulant acts a. to directly prevent the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. b. to decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver. c. as a catalyst in the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. d. immediately, so it is the drug of choice in emergency situations
B
When planning the care of a patient who is to receive an NMJ blocker, the nurse would expect which about the patient? a. Transfer to an intensive care unit would be essential b. Intubation would be necessary to maintain respirations c. He would have no memory of any events d. No adverse effects would occur after the drug is stopped
B
Which is true of warfarin? a. Side effects include increased risk of clotting b. Therapy may take multiple days of dosing to become therapeutic c. It works by inhibiting activation of factor X d. It is only administered IV
B
Which of the following would be an important teaching point for the patient receiving an agent to treat herpes virus or CMV? a. Stop taking the drug as soon as the lesions have disappeared. b. Sexual intercourse is fine—as long as you are taking the drug, you are not contagious. c. Drink plenty of fluids to decrease the drug's toxic effects on the kidneys d. There are few if any associated GI adverse effects.
C
Which would the nurse include when teaching a patient about HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors? a. The patient will not have a heart attack b. The patient will not develop CAD c. The patient might develop cataracts as a result d. The patient might stop absorbing fat-soluble vitamins
C
The provider orders heparin for a 35-year-old female client. The nurse administers the drug only after confirming that the client a. does not have asthma b. does not have a urinary tract infection c. is not hypertensive d. does not have peptic ulcer disease
D
Which would alert the nurse to suspect that a patient receiving HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors is developing rhabdomyolysis? a. Flatulence and abdominal bloating b. Increased bleeding and bruising c. The development of cataracts and blurred vision d. Muscle pain and weakness
D
A nurse is teaching the client about CNS medications and how they are addictive. What is primary reason CNS medications are addictive? a. The medication stimulates the brain's pleasure centers with enhanced neurotransmission of dopamine. b. The medication decreases the amount of dopamine released into the body, causing feelings of euphoria. c. The medication stimulates the brain's sleep centers, so the client can sleep more soundly. d. The medication stimulates the brain's visual centers, so the client sees everything more clearly.
A
An adult client diagnosed with narcolepsy admits being embarrassed to receive this diagnosis and is adamant that no one find out about it. The nurse should respond to the client by explaining what aspect of the etiology? a. "This is the result of neurologic factors over which you have no direct control. b. "In a lot of cases, making improvements to your sleep habits can resolve narcolepsy." c. "This usually stems from suppressed emotions, so counseling usually helps greatly." d. "This is something that runs in certain families, and it's not your fault that this has happened."
A
Haloperidol (Haldol) is a potent antipsychotic that is associated with a. severe extrapyramidal effects. b. severe hyperactivity. c. severe hypotension. d. severe anticholinergic effects.
A
Nursing interventions for the patient receiving antiviral drugs for the treatment of HIV probably would include a. monitoring renal and hepatic function periodically during therapy b. administering the drugs just once a day to increase drug effectiveness c. encouraging the patient to avoid eating if GI upset is severe. d. stopping the drugs and notifying the prescriber if severe rash occurs.
A
The effects of warfarin (Coumadin) are monitored by what laboratory test(s)? a. PT and INR b. RBC c. Platelet count d. aPTT
A
The nurse is providing education to a client who will be receiving intravenous (IV) morphine. The nurse should teach the client that maximum relief of pain will occur in what time frame? a. 10 to 20 minutes b. Immediately c. 30 to 45 minutes d. 3 to 5 minutes
A
What client is being treated with an atypical antipsychotic? a. A client with schizophrenia who received paliperidone 6 mg PO daily b. An agitated client who was given haloperidol during acute psychosis c. A client who recently began taking ziprasidone d. A client whose thought disorder requires clozapine 25 mg PO b.i.d.
A
While preparing a client for discharge, the nurse teaches about the proper use of warfarin, which has been prescribed by the physician. Which statement by the client indicates that additional teaching is required? a. "I should use aspirin to control my arthritis pain." b. "I should carry a MedicAlert card that indicates I'm taking the medication." c. "I need to control my intake of foods containing vitamin K." d. "I'll need to return periodically for blood tests."
A
The nurse would expect administration of an NMJ blocker as the drug of choice to accomplish which actions? SATA a. Facilitate endotracheal intubation b. Facilitate mechanical ventilation c. Prevent injury during electroconvulsive therapy d. Relieve pain during labor and delivery e. Treat myasthenia gravis f. Treat a patient with a history of malignant hyperthermia
A B C
Evaluating a client who is taking an anticoagulant for blood loss would usually include assessing for which conditions? a. The presence of petechiae b. Bleeding gums while brushing the teeth c. Dark-colored urine d. Yellow color to the sclera or skin e. The presence of ecchymotic areas f. Loss of hair
A B C E F
Teaching a client who is prescribed an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor to treat high cholesterol and high lipid levels should include which information? SATA a. The importance of exercise b. The need for dietary changes to alter cholesterol levels c. That taking a statin will allow a full, unrestricted diet d. That drug therapy is always needed when these levels are elevated e. The importance of controlling blood pressure and blood glucose levels f. That stopping smoking may also help to lower lipid levels
A B E F
Which adverse effect of a neuromuscular junction (NMJ) blocking agent is the highest priority for the nurse to treat? a. Vomiting b. Muscle pain c. Hypotension d. Skin breakdown
C
A 59-year-old client is on warfarin therapy. On follow-up visits to the clinic, the nurse will assess the client's: a. presence of breathing disorders b. intake of vitamin K c. presence of skin-related disorders d. blood glucose level
B
A class of new nursing students is learning how to administer medications to clients. What should the instructor teach the students about giving opiates? a. Delay the ordered dose if respirations are below 15 bpm b. Assess the respiratory rate before giving a dose of opiates c. Assess the client's vital signs hourly. d. Give a dosage only if you think it is necessary.
B
A client taking an ACE inhibitor is scheduled for surgery. Because this medication may be dangerous in the setting of general anesthesia, the nurse should a. stop the drug without discussing with the providers b. alert the provider caring for the patient, and mark the client's chart prominently. c. cancel the surgery and consult with the prescriber d. monitor fluid levels and make sure the fluids are restricted before surgery
B
A client with schizophrenia has been taking haloperidol for several years. The care team and the client have collaborated and chosen to transition the client to an atypical antipsychotic in an effort to reduce adverse effects and maximize therapeutic effects. In order to reduce the client's risk of extrapyramidal effects during the transition from haloperidol to an atypical antipsychotic, the care team should implement which intervention? a. Have a 2- to 3-week "drug holiday" between stopping the haloperidol and starting the atypical antipsychotic b. Gradually taper the dose of haloperidol. c. Administer haloperidol and the atypical antipsychotic drug concurrently for 6 to 8 weeks d. Arrange for weekly electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) during the time of transition
B
A male client's health care provider orders antipsychotic medications for him. He experiences little or no side effects from the medications and is able to function successfully in both his home and work environments. Six weeks later, he is diagnosed with hepatitis B. He begins to experience adverse reactions to his medications. A possible reason for the adverse reactions might be that, in the presence of liver disease, what may happen? a. Metabolism may be accelerated and drug elimination half-lives shortened, causing an increased risk of adverse effects. b. Metabolism may be slowed and drug elimination half-lives prolonged, with resultant accumulation and increased risk of adverse effects. c. Metabolism may be accelerated and drug elimination half-lives prolonged, with resultant accumulation and increased risk of adverse effects. d. Metabolism may be slowed and drug elimination half-lives shortened, with resultant accumulation and increased risk of adverse effects.
B
A thrombolytic agent would be most indicated for which circumstance? a. CVA within the last 2 months b. Acute MI within the last 3 hours c. Recent, serious GI bleeding d. Obstetric delivery
B
Adverse effects associated with antipsychotic drugs are related to the drugs' effects on receptor sites and can include a. insomnia and hypertension. b. dry mouth, hypotension, and glaucoma. c. diarrhea and excessive urination. d. increased sexual drive and improved concentration.
B
HIV selectively enters which of the following cells? a. B clones b. Helper T cells c. Suppressor T cells d. Cytotoxic T cells
B
Naloxone (Narcan) will reverse the effects of which drug? a. Warfarin (Coumadin) b. Fentanyl (Duragesic) c. Lorazepam (Ativan) d. Valproic Acid (Depakote)
B
Proper administration of an ordered opioid: a. can lead to addiction b. should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses c. would include holding the drug as long as possible until the patient really needs it. d. should rely on the patient's request for medication.
B
The nurse is providing health education to a client who has recently been diagnosed with HIV and will soon begin antiretroviral therapy. What teaching point should the nurse prioritize? a. The need to report diarrhea or nausea to the provider immediately b. The need to adhere rigidly to the prescribed drug schedule c. The pathophysiology of the human immunodeficiency virus and its link to drug treatment d. The incidence and prevalence of hypersensitivity reactions
B
To compensate for clopidogrel's slow onset of action, the nurse should anticipate implementing which intervention? a. simultaneously administering warfarin and clopidogrel b. administering a one-time loading dose that is higher than the maintenance dose c. administering the first two to three doses of clopidogrel intravenously d. temporarily supplementing the client's medication regimen with low molecular weight heparin
B
Your patient, a 6-year-old boy, is starting a regimen of methylphenidate (Ritalin) to control an attention deficit disorder. Family teaching should include which of the following? a. This drug can be shared with other family members who might seem to need it. b. This drug may cause insomnia, weight loss, and GI upset. c. Do not alert the school nurse to the fact that this drug is being taken because the child could have problems later. d. This drug should not be stopped for any reason for several years.
B
When administering an opioid antagonist drug to a client, the primary goal of the therapy is to provide: a. alertness and improve memory function b. a return to normal respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth. c. management of alcohol withdrawal symptoms. d. a reduction in the client's rating of their pain.
B (Naloxone dummy)
When focusing on the lifestyle of the patient with HIV, what are important teaching considerations? (Select all that apply.) a. No blood test will need to be done while on therapy b. Transmission can occur while on medication c. Advise the patient about the adverse effect of granulocytopenia d. Take drug therapy as prescribed.
B C D
The nurse is caring for a client which has been newly diagnosed with HIV. The client underwent the screening process of testing and is asymptomatic. The provider orders a combination of antiviral medications to prevent progression of the disease to AIDS. What points should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client? Select all that apply a. Reporting nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea immediately b. The schedule for when to take medications c. Scheduling medications to allow for 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep d. Avoiding driving or operating heavy machinery initially e. The importance of seeing the health care provider regularly
B C D E
Opioids are drugs that react with opioid receptors throughout the body. Which conditions would the nurse expect to find when assessing a patient who was taking an opioid? SATA a. Hypnosis b. Sedation c. Analgesia d. Euphoria e. Orthostatic Hypotension f. Increased salivation
B, C, D, E
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors work in the a. process of bile secretion. b. process of cholesterol formation in the cell c. intestinal wall to block fat absorption. d. kidney to block fat excretion.
B?
A nurse has entered a client's room at the beginning of a shift to quickly assess the client's airway, breathing, circulation, and consciousness. The nurse observes that the client is wincing, stating, " Oh, I am in so much pain right now." What initial question should the nurse ask this client? a. "Would you like me to get you something?" b. "When did this pain begin?" c. "Where exactly are you hurting?" d. "In the past, what has helped your pain?"
C
A nurse is caring for a 64-year-old female client who is receiving IV heparin and reports bleeding from her gums. The nurse checks the client's laboratory test results and finds that she has a very high aPTT. The nurse anticipates that which drug may be ordered? a. Alteplase b. Coumadin c. Protamine sulfate d. Ticlopidine
C
A nurse who is providing care on a pediatric client has conducted a medication reconciliation. In light of the fact that the client takes methylphenidate, the nurse is justified in considering a history of what health problem? a. Respiratory depression b. Anxiety c. Hyperactivity d. Obesity
C
A patient who is hypertensive becomes pregnant. Which is the safest medication for this patient? a. An angiotensin II receptor blocker b. An ACE inhibitor c. A beta-blocker d. A calcium-channel blocker
C
A trauma client has been receiving frequent doses of morphine in the 6 days since his accident. This pattern of analgesic administration should prompt the nurse to carefully monitor the client's what? a. urine specific gravity b. skin integrity c. bowel patterns d. core body temperature.
C
ACE inhibitors work on the renin-angiotensin system to prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Because this blocking occurs in the cells in the lung, which is usually the site of this conversion, the use of ACE inhibitors often results in a. spontaneous pneumothorax b. Pneumonia c. unrelenting cough d. respiratory depression
C
Antipsychotic drugs are basically a. serotonin reuptake inhibitors. b. norepinephrine blockers. c. dopamine receptor blockers. d. acetylcholine stimulators.
C
Injecting an opioid into an area of the body that is chilled can be dangerous because a. an abscess will form. b. the injection will be very painful. c. an excessive amount may be absorbed all at once. d. opioids are inactivated in cold temperatures.
C
Losartan focuses on what aspect of the cardiac process to address the pathophysiology of heart failure? a. increasing stroke volume b. increasing heart rate c. lowering blood pressure d. reducing preload
C
The client has had a myocardial infarction. The nurse is administering morphine sulfate for the pain. What vital sign would the nurse monitor that directly relates to the use of this narcotic? a. Temperature b. Heart rate c. Resp Rate d. Pulse
C
The only triptan that has been approved for use in treating cluster headaches as well as migraines is: a. Naratriptan. b. Rizatriptan. c. Sumatriptan. d. Zolmitriptan.
C
What is a priority nursing assessment of a client prescribed oral sumatriptan? a. Head to toe assessment b. Urinary output c. Blood pressure d. Glasgow coma scale
C
A child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder has been receiving methylphenidate for several years. The prescriber has explained a plan to temporarily discontinue the drug. What rationale for this action should the nurse explain? a. The drug likely needs to be switched to another agent that is less toxic b. The risk for cumulative adverse effects is greater if the child doesn't have a break. c. The drug must be occasionally stopped to prevent anticholinergic effects d. It needs to be determined if the child still has symptoms that require treatment.
D
A client has received a narcotic agonist for pain relief. The nurse should monitor the client for what? a. Tachypnea b. Hypertension c. Diarrhea d. pupil constriction
D
An elderly female client is admitted to the medical floor with pustules on her body that travel along the nerve route in her legs and arms. The health care provider prescribes the drug acyclovir (Zovirax). What disease is this client demonstrating? a. Influenza b. CMV c. Herpes simplex d. Shingles
D
Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (the inability to concentrate or focus on an activity) and narcolepsy (sudden episodes of sleep) are both most effectively treated with the use of: a. Neuroinhibitors b. dopamine receptor blockers c. major tranquilizers. d. CNS stimulants.
D
Herpes viruses cause a broad range of conditions but have not been identified as the causative agent in a. cold sores b. Shingles c. genital infections d. Leprosy
D
The client taking antihypertensive medications is taught to notify the healthcare provider when which findings occur? a. Fatigue b. Blood pressure decrease c. Decreased appetite d. Weight gain of five pounds over a 2-day period
D
The low-molecular-weight heparin of choice for preventing DVT after hip replacement therapy is a. Heparin. b. Betrixaban c. Fondaparinux d. Enoxaparin
D
