workbook medsurg tra nov2023
the nurse would report which of the following laboratory results as consistent with a diagnosis of primary aldosteronism? a. Serum potassium of 3 mEq/L b. Serum phosphorus of 3 mg/dL c. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L d. Serum Calcium of 12 mg/dL
a. Serum potassium of 3 mEq/L (low potassium levels in primary aldosteronism + high blood pressure)
a patient with Crohn's disease and reports rectal bleeding along with 12 to 20 watery stools per day. Which of the following signs would be indicative of dehydration? a. Sunken eyeballs b. Decreased pulse rate c. Moist skin d. Pitting edema
a. Sunken eyeballs
A client has a sodium level of 130 mEq/L (130 mmol/L). Which of the following is related to this condition? a. The client who is taking diuretics b. The client with hyperaldosteronism c. The client with Cushing's syndrome d. The client who is taking corticosteroids
a. The client who is taking diuretics
a 7 year old child, was rushed to the ER due to abdominal pain. His working diagnosis is appendicitis. You should anticipate which of the following treatments? a. Administration of enemas to clean bowel b. Insertion of a nasogastric tube c. Placement of client on NPO status d. Administration of heat to the abdomen
c. Placement of client on NPO status
You are currently reviewing the chart of client B, a client with multiple comorbidities. Several laboratory tests are prescribed.Which laboratory test results should the nurse NOT report? a. Platelets 35,000 mm3 (35 × 109/L) b. Sodium 150 mEq/L (150 mmol/L) c. Potassium 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L) d. Segmented neutrophils 40% (0.40)
c. Potassium 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L)
A client's serum phosphorus (phosphate) level is 1.8 mg/dL (0.58 mmol/L). Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level? a. Malnutrition b. Renal insufficiency c. Hypoparathyroidism d. Tumor lysis syndrome
a. Malnutrition
A client has a history of heart failure and is due for a morning dose of furosemide. Which serum potassium level, if noted in the client's laboratory report, should be reported before administering the dose of furosemide? a. 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) b. 3.8 mEq/L (3.8 mmol/L) c. 4.2 mEq/L (4.2 mmol/L) d. 4.8 mEq/L (4.8 mmol/L)
a. 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L)
After assessing four clients, which of the following clients is the priority for the nurse to administer care to first? a. A client whose speech is slurred and has hemiparesis b. A client complaining of painful swelling of the hands or feet c. A client who is experiencing pallor, icteric sclera, and fatigue d. After client complaining of abdominal pain after eating a high-fat meal.
a. A client whose speech is slurred and has hemiparesis
Which laboratory test is the most accurate indicator of a client's renal function? a. Creatinine clearance b. Blood urea nitrogen c. Urinalysis d. Serum creatinine
a. Creatinine clearance
Which of the following lab value profiles should the nurse know to be consistent with hemolytic anemia? a. Decreased RBC, increased bilirubin, decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit, increased reticulocytes. b. Increased RBC, decreased bilirubin, decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit, increased reticulocytes. c. Decreased RBC, decreased biliribin, increased hemoglobin and hematocrit, decreased reticulocytes. d. Increased RBC, increased bilirubin, increased hemoglobin and hematocrit, decreased reticulocytes.
a. Decreased RBC, increased bilirubin, decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit, increased reticulocytes.
A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome has histoplasmosis. A nurse assesses the client for which of the following signs and symptoms? a. Dyspnea b. Headache c. Weight gain d. Hypothermia
a. Dyspnea
A client with stones lodged in the ureter will most likely experience pain that is: a. Excruciating, wavelike, and radiating towards the genitalia b. Dull and continuous at the suprapubic area c. Located at the periumbilical area that progresses to the right lower quadrant d. Dull and aching at the costovertebral area
a. Excruciating, wavelike, and radiating towards the genitalia
a client undergoes an abdominal cholecystectomy with common duct exploration. 1 hour post-operatively, which of the following interventions would you do first? a. Irrigating the T tube frequently b. Changing the dressing BID c. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing d. Promoting an adequate fluid intake by mouth
a. Irrigating the T tube frequently
a chronic alcoholic client, came in for severe epigastric pain. Eventually, he was diagnosed with pancreatitis. You explain that pancreatitis is: a. It is due to the auto digestion of the pancreas b. It is due to the defect in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas c. It is caused by a rupture of the ampulla of vater from the pancreas d. It is caused by a decrease in enzymes produced by the pancreas
a. It is due to the auto digestion of the pancreas
A client who is human immunodeficiency virus- positive has had a Mantoux skin test. The nurse notes a 7-mm area of induration at the site of the skin test. The nurse interprets the results as: a. Positive b. Negative c. Inconclusive d. Indicating the need for repeat testing
a. Positive
In assessing clients for pernicious anemia, the nurse should be alert for which of the following risk factors? a. Positive family history. b. Infectious agents or toxins. c. Acute or chronic blood loss. d. Inadequate dietary intake.
a. Positive family history.
Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client scheduled for a bone marrow biopsy? a. Prepare a sedative b. Place the client NPO pre-procedure c. Position the client on the abdomen for 1 hour post-procedure d. Place a light gauze dressing on the insertion site
a. Prepare a sedative
which of the following medications would you anticipate to administer to a patient with diverticulosis? a. Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil) b. Diphenoxylate with atropine sulfate (Lomotil) c. Diazepam (valium) d. Aluminum Hydroxide (Amphojel)
a. Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil)
Which is the most common type of crisis in Sickle cell disease? a. Vasoocclusive crisis b. Splenic sequestration c. Aplastic Crisis d. Hematologic crisis
a. Vasoocclusive crisis
A client returns to the clinic after a procedure complaining of pain in the left lower back. The nurse suspects the client most likely is experiencing: a. a hematoma from a bone marrow biopsy and aspiration performed 2 days ago. b. splenomegaly following a Schilling test. c. viral hepatitis B infection from a blood transfusion. d. folic acid deficiency.
a. a hematoma from a bone marrow biopsy and aspiration performed 2 days ago.
after a parathyroidectomy, hungry bone syndrome is manifested by which sign or symptom? a. carpopedal spasms b. weakness c. back pain d. polyuria
a. carpopedal spasm
The nurse should ask which of the following questions to assess for latex allergy? a. "Have you experienced working in a health care facility?" b. "Do you have allergy to fruits?" c. "What kind of work do you have?" d. "Are you taking any herbal medicines?"
b. "Do you have allergy to fruits?
A nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on assessment of this client? a. Hypocapnia b. A hyperinflated chest noted on the chest x-ray c. Increased oxygen saturation with exercise d. A widened diaphragmnoted on the chest x-ray
b. A hyperinflated chest noted on the chest x-ray
The nurse should monitor a client with blood type A who received a transfusion from a type O donor for which of the following? a. A febrile reaction because of the blood type mismatch b. An expected rise in hemoglobin and hematocrit c. A conversion from Rh negative to Rh positive because of the mismatched blood type d. Fluid overload symptoms
b. An expected rise in hemoglobin and hematocrit
a client is having surgery for cholecystectomy and common bile duct exploration. the patient asks how it will affect his digestion. You answer that: a. Need to take oral bile salts b. Be unable to concentrate bile c. Serum bilirubin level d. White blood cell count
b. Be unable to concentrate bile
Which of the following clinical manifestations is the most indicative of acute pyelonephritis? a. nausea and vomiting b. CVA tenderness c. polyuria d. leucopenia
b. CVA tenderness Pyelonephritis is infection of the kidney and renal pelvis, which is clinically diagnosed with symptoms that include back/flank pain with costovertebral angle tenderness.
The client with acute renal failure complains of tingling of the fingers and toes and muscle twitching. This is caused by: a. Acidosis b. Calcium depletion c. Potassium retention d. Sodium chloride depletion
b. Calcium depletion
One of the manifestations seen in a client diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is edema, commonly seen in the eyes, dependent areas and abdomen. This manifestation primarily resulted from the: a. Inability of the kidneys to excrete protein, resulting to hyperalbuminemia b. Decrease in the oncotic pressure due to hypoalbuminemia c. Fluid moving from the extracellular space to the vascular space d. Stimulation of the renin-angiotensin aldosterone hormonal system inhibiting the release of aldosterone
b. Decrease in the oncotic pressure due to hypoalbuminemia Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by albumin and protein loss via the kidneys. Nephrotic range proteinuria is considered to be the loss of 3.5 or more grams of protein per 24-hour period. Loss of albumin from the intravascular into the extravascular compartments results in hypoalbuminemia. (NCBI, 2022).
a client has type 2 diabetes mellitus and is trying to determine how she can change her lifestyle so as to decrease her serum glucose levels. Which of the following measures would you suggest as an appropriate intervention? a. Get 10 to 12 hours of sleep per day. b. Exercise. c. Undergo gastric bypass surgery. d. Smoke less than 1 pack of cigarette per day.
b. Exercise.
Nurse C is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube that is attached to low suction. The nurse monitors the client for manifestations of which disorder that the client is at risk for? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
in the case of the client with hyperparathyroidism, an associated problem which the nurse should consider in her care plan is: a. Azotemia b. Nephrolithiasis c. Paralysis d. Glomerulonephritis
b. Nephrolithiasis
a client was rushed to the ER after a right lower quadrant pain. However, 2 hours after admission, the pain disappeared and the patient has a rigid abdomen. An emergency surgery for a ruptured appendix has to be done. After assessing that the client is manifesting the symptoms of shock, the nurse should: a. Prepare for blood transfusion b. Notify the physician immediately c. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees d. Increase the liter flow of the O2 being administered
b. Notify the physician immediately
the nurse is caring for a client who is status post-thyroidectomy. The client is exhibiting hyperreflexia, muscle twitching, and spasms. The first action the nurse should perform is to? a. Assess for additional signs of tetany b. Prepare to send a blood sample to the laboratory for a calcium level c. Place the client in Semi-Fowlers Position d. Administer post-op pain medication
b. Prepare to send a blood sample to the laboratory for a calcium level
The admitting nurse is making room assignments for a client admitted with aplastic anemia. The nurse appropriately selects which of the following room assignments for this client? a. Semiprivate room with strict hand washing b. Private room, protective isolation, and HEPAfiltration c. Semiprivate room with no special precautions d. Private room with ECG monitoring on a cardiac care unit
b. Private room, protective isolation, and HEPAfiltration
Haley had just broken up with her boyfriend. She spent most of the day crying and crying when suddenly she felt light-headed and sought consult at the ER. You review the arterial blood gas results of a client and notes the following: pH 7.45, Paco2 of 30 mm Hg (30 mmol/L), and HCO3- of 20 mEq/L (20 mmol/L). a. Metabolic acidosis, compensated b. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated c. Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated d. Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated
b. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated
a client came back to the ER due to sudden abdominal pain. Which of the following signs would suggest perforation of an inflamed diverticula? a. Hyperactive bowel sounds b. Rigid abdominal wall c. Explosive diarrhea d. Excessive flatulence
b. Rigid abdominal wall
A client with Sickle cell disease is assigned to the nurse. The nurse is to give analgesic to the patient and she knows that she must avoid giving Demerol because this may induce: a. Respiratory depression b. Seizures c. Sickle cell crisis d. Hypotension
b. Seizures
The patient is closely monitored for acute exacerbations of the Sickle cell disease. Which of the ff. phases of this disease poses a life- threatening crisis which may lead to hypovolemia and shock? a. Vasoocclusive crisis b. Splenic sequestration c. Aplastic Crisis d. Hematologic crisis
b. Splenic sequestration
which outcome represents the best indication of good overall diabetes control? a. The client reports urine glucose levels indicating no glucosuria b. The client displays a glycosylated hemoglobin level within control range c. The client reports urine ketone levels reflecting no ketonuria d. The client records home glucose test results daily
b. The client displays a glycosylated hemoglobin level within control range
In order to understand fluid balance, the nurse needs to recognize that: a. Glomerular filtration occurs in the glomeruli, which are small arteries in the kidneys b. The high resistance characteristic of the glomerular capillaries tends to increase the glomerular filtration rate c. The volume of urine secreted is regulated mainly by mechanisms that control the glomerular filtration rate d. An increase in the hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule tends to increase the glomerular filtration rate
b. The high resistance characteristic of the glomerular capillaries tends to increase the glomerular filtration rate
signs and symptoms of Cushing's disease include: a. Weight loss b. Thin, fragile skin c. Hypotension d. Abdominal pain
b. Thin, fragile skin
The nurse is to perform a Trendelenburg's test to a client with Varicose veins. A positive result is: a. Veins fill from distal end when the client sits. b. Veins fill from proximal end when the client sits. c. Veins engorge when the client sits. d. No veins are seen when the client sits.
b. Veins fill from proximal end when the client sits.
After experiencing myocardial infarction, a 55-year-old client has now developed acute renal failure. In explaining this to the family, the nurse responds based on the understanding that the ARF is: a. a result of actual parenchymal damage b. a result of hypoperfusion of the kidney c. a result of an infectious process d. a result of an obstruction distal to the kidneys
b. a result of hypoperfusion of the kidney
A client is admitted for treatment of glomerulonephritis. On initial assessment, the nurse detects one of the classic signs of acute glomerulonephritis of sudden onset. Such signs include: a.polyuria. b. generalized edema, especially of the face and periorbital area. c. moderate to severe hypotension. d. green-tinged urine.
b. generalized edema, especially of the face and periorbital area.
From the peritubular capillaries, the renal blood will flow through: * 1/1 a. arcuate vein --> interlobar vein --> interlobular vein --> renal vein --> inferior vena cava b. interlobular vein --> arcuate vein --> interlobar vein --> renal vein --> inferior vena cava c. renal vein --> interlobar vein --> interlobular vein --> arcuate vein --> inferior vena cava d. renal vein --> interlobar vein --> arcutae vein --> interlobular vein --> inferior vena cava
b. interlobular vein --> arcuate vein --> interlobar vein --> renal vein --> inferior vena cava
A client is admitted for treatment of chronic renal failure (CRF). The nurse knows that this disorder increases the client's risk of: a. an increased serum calcium level secondary to kidney failure. b. water and sodium retention secondary to a severe decrease in the glomerular filtration rate c. metabolic alkalosis secondary to retention of hydrogen ions d. a decreased serum phosphate level secondary to kidney failure.
b. water and sodium retention secondary to a severe decrease in the glomerular filtration rate.
The urinary bladder can hold urine to a maximum amount of: a.500 ml b.1000 ml c.1500 ml d.2000 ml
b.1000 ml
The nurse should instruct a client to lay on the back after a bone marrow biopsy with local anesthesia for how long? a. 5-10 minutes b. 10-15 minutes c. 20-30 minutes d. 30-60 minutes
c. 20-30 minutes
A client with iron deficiency anemia is very pale, has shortness of breath, and records a hemoglobin level of 7.5 grams. Which of the following is a priority for the nurse to implement? a. Administer an iron supplement b. Instruct the client on a diet high in iron c. Administer packed red blood cells d. Instruct the client to conserve energy
c. Administer packed red blood cells
A client experiences difficulty in voiding after an indwelling urinary catheter is removed. This is probably related to: a. Fluid imbalances b. The client's recent sedentary lifestyle c. An interruption in normal voiding habits d. Nervous tension following the procedure
c. An interruption in normal voiding habits
The nurse should monitor a client with end-stage renal disease for the occurrence of: a. Polyuria b. Jaundice c. Azotemia d. Hypotension
c. Azotemia Azotemia is a condition that occurs when your kidneys have been damaged by disease or an injury. You get it when your kidneys are no longer able to get rid of enough nitrogen waste.
which of the following therapeutic classes of drugs is used to treat tachycardia and angina in a client with pheochromocytoma? a. ACE inhibitors b. Calcium channel blocker c. Beta - blockers d. Diuretic
c. Beta - blockers
The nurse is caring for a post-renal transplantation client taking cyclosporine (Sandimmune, Gengraf, Neoral). The nurse notes an increase in one of the client's vital signs and the client is complaining of a headache. What is the vital sign that is most likely increased? a. Pulse b. Respirations c. Blood pressure d. Pulse oximetry
c. Blood pressure
A nurse is caring for a client after a bronchoscopy and biopsy. Which of the following signs, if noted in the client, should be reported immediately to the physician? a. Dry cough b. Hematuria c. Bronchospasm d. Blood-streaked sputum
c. Bronchospasm
In examining a child with suspected anemia the nurse would recognize which of the following as a significant objective finding? a. History of pica b. Daily aspirin therapy c. Cheilosis and glossitis d. Tonsillectomy three days ago
c. Cheilosis and glossitis
Patient A has a history of Crohn's disease is admitted to the hospital with fever, diarrhea, cramping abdominal pain, and weight loss. Which of the following laboratory findings would be anticipated for the client? a. Hyperalbuminemia b. Thrombocytopenia c. Hypokalemia d. Hypercalcemia
c. Hypokalemia
Nurse A is currently reading progress notes in the client's record and reads that the night shift nurse has documented "insensible fluid loss of about 600 mL daily." This occurs in which type of excretion? a. Urinary output b. Wound drainage c. Integumentary output d. The gastrointestinal tract
c. Integumentary output
which nursing intervention should be included in the discharge teaching for a client with hypoparathyroidism? a. Avoiding diuretics to minimize calcium loss b. Using over - the - counter vitamin D preparations c. Supplementing calcium intake d. Avoiding strenuous exercise
c. Supplementing calcium intake
A patient with cystitis will most likely experience pain on which of the following areas? a. Flank b. Costovertebral angle c. Suprapubic area d. Perineum and rectum
c. Suprapubic area
After the nurse explains the diagnostic tests, the client asks which part of the kidney "does the work." Which answer is correct? a. The tubular system b. The glomerulus c. The nephron d. Bowman's capsule
c. The nephron
the primary feature of pheochromocytoma's effect on blood pressure is: a. systolic hypertension b. diastolic hypertension c. hypertension that is resistant treatment with drugs d. widening pulse pressure
c. hypertension that is resistant treatment with drugs
Which of the following laboratory findings should a nurse expect to see on a patient with acute renal failure? a. decreased BUN, decreased creatinine, decreased potassium b. decreased BUN, increased creatinine, decreased potassium c. increased BUN, increased creatinine, increased potassium d. increased BUN, increased creatinine, decreased potassium
c. increased BUN, increased creatinine, increased potassium
A nurse is suctioning fluids from a client via a tracheostomy tube. When suctioning, the nurse must limit the suctioning time to a maximum of: a. 1 minute b. 5 seconds c. 10 seconds d. 30 seconds
d. 10 seconds
Which of the following substances is secreted and synthesized by the kidneys? a. Vitamin D b. Erythropoietin c. Prostaglandin E d. All of the above
d. All of the above
If a client with acute renal failure experiences a continuous increase in serum potassium level, which of the following emergencies should the nurse be prepared for? a. Paralysis of the respiratory muscle b.Hemorrhage c.Pulmonary edema d. Cardiac arrest
d. Cardiac arrest
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute renal failure. The nurse should monitor closely for: a. Lethargy b. Insomnia c. Enuresis d. Drug toxicity
d. Drug toxicity
a patient was admitted to the hospital due to nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The physician is suspecting bowel obstruction. During your assessment, high-pitched tinkling bowel sounds on auscultation and flat sounds on percussion were heard. The flat sounds are caused by: a. Hyperactive peristalsis b. Excessive gas trapped in the intestine c. The presence of a mass or tumor in the bowel d. Fluid trapped in the intestines
d. Fluid trapped in the intestines
a client was admitted for a surgical procedure for cancer of the pancreas that included the removal of the stomach, the head of the pancreas, the distal end of the duodenum, and the spleen, the post op manifestation by the client that would require immediate attention by the nurse would be: a. Jaundice b. Indigestion c. Weight loss d. Hyperglycemia
d. Hyperglycemia
16.Which of the following clinical findings is usually seen in a client with chronic renal failure? a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Hypokalemia c. Polycythemia vera d. Hypertension
d. Hypertension
Renal calculi can be formed anywhere in the urinary tract. What is their most common formation site? a. Bladder b. Ureter c. Urethra d. Kidney
d. Kidney
Nurse B is preparing to care for Client C who had just undergone a renal scan. Which of the following would the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Place the client on radiation precautions for 18 hours. b. Save all urine in a radiation safe container for 18 hours c. Limit contact with the client to 20 minutes per hour d. No special precautions except to wear gloves if in contact with the client's urine.
d. No special precautions except to wear gloves if in contact with the client's urine.
which of the following conditions are associated with impaired glucose tolerance (IGT)? a. Hypotension and hyperlipidemia. b. Hypoglycemia and prostatitis. c. Obesity and hypotension. d. Obesity and syndrome X.
d. Obesity and syndrome X.
11.What is the most common initial manifestation in acute renal failure? a. Diuresis b. Hematuria c. Dysuria d. Oliguria
d. Oliguria
A nurse instructs a client to use the pursed-lip method of breathing and the client asks the nurse about the purpose of this type of breathing. The nurse responds, knowing that the primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing is to: a. Promote oxygen intake. b. Strengthen the diaphragm. c. Strengthen the intercostal muscles. d. Promote carbon dioxide elimination
d. Promote carbon dioxide elimination
Which of the following laboratory values supports a diagnosis of pyelonephritis? a. Low white blood cell (WBC) count b. Ketonuria c. Myoglobinuria d. Pyuria
d. Pyuria presence of pus in the blood.
A client is admitted to a burn unit with second and third-degree burns over 18% of the body. An inhalation injury is also suspected. The nurse should monitor which of the following to determine the extent of carbon monoxide poisoning? a. Pulse oximetry b. Urine myoglobin c. Arterial blood gases d. Serum carboxyhemoglobin levels
d. Serum carboxyhemoglobin levels
A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client with pulmonary sarcoidosis. The nurse concludes that the client understands the information if the client reports which of the following early signs of exacerbation? a. Fever b. Fatigue c. Weight loss d. Shortness of breath
d. Shortness of breath
a patient calls due to sudden onset of abdominal cramps, vomiting, and watery discharge from her ileostomy. How should the nurse respond to this client? a. Tell the client to come into the clinic for an examination if the symptoms persist for longer than 24 hours b. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake to 3L/day to replace fluid lost through vomiting c. Instruct the client to take 30ml of milk of magnesia to stimulate a bowel movement d. Tell the client that he needs to be examined immediately by the physician
d. Tell the client that he needs to be examined immediately by the physician
Which of the following factors would put the client at increased risk for pyelonephritis? a. History of ureteral reflux b. Intake of large quantity of juice c. History of hypertension d. Fluid intake of 2000 ml/day
a. History of ureteral reflux
If the BUN of a client with acute renal failure is elevated, it indicates that there is: a. Increased protein catabolism b. Decreased erythropoietin production c. Damage of kidney cells d. Decreased protein breakdown
a. Increased protein catabolism
In planning care for a client who has had a splenectomy, the nurse should be aware that this client is most prone to developing: a. Urinary retention. b. Congestive heart failure. c. Infection. d. Viral hepatitis.
c. Infection.
The definitive diagnosis of benign prostatic hypertrophy is arrived at by: a. Rectal examination b. Biopsy of the prostatic tissue c. Pap smear of prostatic fluid d. Serum phosphatase studies
b. Biopsy of the prostatic tissue
A nurse should be aware that benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH): a. Is a congenital abnormality b. Usually becomes malignant c. Predisposes to hydronephrosis d. Causes an elevated acid phosphatase
c. Predisposes to hydronephrosis An enlarged prostate can cause symptoms that may bother you, such as blocking the flow of urine out of the bladder. It also can cause bladder, urinary tract or kidney problems (hydronephrosis) (Mayo Clinic, 2022).
The nurse is reviewing the results of serum laboratory studies drawn on a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome who is receiving didanosine (Videx). The nurse interprets that the client may have the medication discontinued by the physician if which of the following significantly elevated results is noted? a. Serum protein level b. Blood glucose level c. Serum amylase level d. Serum creatinine level
c. Serum amylase level
Client D is currently having an anxiety attack. Recent arterial blood gas values are pH = 7.53, Pao2 = 72 mm (72 mmol/L), and HCO3− = 28 mEq/L (28 mmol/L). Which conclusion about the client should the nurse make? a. The client has acidotic blood. b. The client is probably overreacting. c. The client is fluid volume overloaded. d. The client is probably hyperventilating.
d. The client is probably hyperventilating.
A 40-year-old woman with aplastic anemia is prescribed estrogen with progesterone. The nurse can expect that these medications arte given for which of the following reasons? a. To enhance sodium and potassium absorption. b. To promote utilization and storage of fluids. c. To regulate fluid balance. d. To stimulate bone growth.
d. To stimulate bone growth.
A 50 year old client with chronic kidney disease. While reviewing her labs, you noted that the potassium level is 5.7 mEq/L (5.7 mmol/L). Which patterns would the nurse watch for on the cardiac monitor as a result of the laboratory value? a. ST elevation b. Prominent U wave c. Prolonged ST segment d. Widened QRS complexes
d. Widened QRS complexes
in assessing the client with hyperthyroidism, the most significant serum electrolyte test result that will contribute to its diagnosis is: a. Elevated phosphorous b. Low potassium c. Low sodium d. Elevated calcium
d. elevated calcium
the nurse should include which of the following in the pre-procedure instruction given to the parents of a child scheduled for a thyroid function test? a. NPO after midnight b. A high-carbohydrate meal should be eaten the day before the test c. A concentrated glucose will be given just prior to the test d. It is important that the child remain still during the procedure
d. it is important to remain that the child remains still during the procedure
