Chapters 9 and 10 Anatomy Test

Origin on pubic symphysis & margin, inserts on xiphoid process, costal cartilages 5-7

Rectus abdominis

157. Longest muscle in the body

Sartiorius

193. Which of the following muscles does not act in plantar flexion? a. tibialis posterior d. gastrocnemius b. popliteus e. all of these are plantar flexors c. flexor digitorum longus

all of these are plantar flexors

Origin on posterior surface of fibular head & mid 1/3 of tibia, involved in plantar flexion only

soleus

188. Which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over the other while in a sitting position? a. the gastrocnemius d. the quadriceps femoris b. the sartorius e. none of these c. all of the hamstrings

the sartorious

Origin on occipital protuberance, C7-T3 or 4, inserts along acromion, spine of scapula & lateral clavicle

trapezius

101. A sarcomere is the distance between two ________.

Z discs

Origin on zygomatic bone, inserts on superolateral angle of mouth

Zygomaticus Major

24. The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________. a. actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping b. the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past c. actin and myosin shortening but not sliding past each other d. the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments e. all of the above

a. actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping

22. In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ______________. a. changes in length and moves the "load" b. does not change in length but increases tension c. never converts pyruvate to lactate d. rapidly resynthesizes creatin phosphate and ATP e. none of these

a. changes in length and moves the "load"

76. The trapezius muscle adducts the scapula.

True

77. The pectoralis major muscle is an antagonist to the latissimus dorsi muscle.

True

78. Three layers of muscle form the lateral abdominal walls.

True

82. An abductor muscle moves a body part away from the midline.

True

Origin on frontal bone and maxillae, inserts on eyelids, closes eyes

Orbicularis Oculi

Closes & protrudes lips as in kissing

Orbicularis oris

172. Both the gastrocnemius and ________ muscle insert on the heel by way of the calcaneal tendon. a. semimembranosus d. tibialis anterior b. tibialis posterior e. none of these c. soleus

Soleus

Origin on manubrium of sternum & clavicle, inserts on mastoid process

Sternocleidomastoid

44. When there is not enough oxygen to create ATP by aerobic respiration, a muscle fiber can produce ATP by borrowing phosphate groups from a. cyclic adenosine monophosphate. d. cholinesterase b. creatine phosphate. e. creatine kinase c. phospholipids.

b. creatine phosphate.

121. What is the functional role of the T tubules? a. stabilize the G and F actin b. enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction c. hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle d. synthesize ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction e. all of these

b. enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction

119. Curare, a toxin, blocks the acetylcholine receptors on muscle tissue. This would result in: a. increased stimulation of the muscle fiber b. inability of the muscle to respond to motor nerve stimulus c. contraction of the muscle fiber d. excessive contractions and convulsions e. none of these

b. inability of the muscle to respond to motor nerve stimulus

137. The muscles that rotate the radius without producing either flexion or extension of the elbow are the a. brachialis and biceps brachii d. all of the above b. pronator quadratus and supinator e. none of the above c. biceps brachii and triceps brachii

b. pronator quadratus and supinator

33. The outer membrane around the muscle cell is called the ____, while the tunnel-like infoldings of the outer membrane form part of the triad called the ____. a. sarcolemma; terminal cisternae b. sarcolemma; transverse tubules c. transverse tubule; sarcoplasmic reticulum d. transverse tubule; terminal cisternae e. sarcoplasm; transverse tubules

b. sarcolemma; transverse tubules

91. Calcium is stored in the ___________ of a muscle cell. a. sarcoplasm d. transverse tubules b. sarcoplamic reticulum e. none of the above c. sarcomere

b. sarcoplamic reticulum

126. After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction? a. calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae b. the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved c. acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh d. the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules e. all of these

c. acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh

116. This process aids in skeletal muscle relaxation after contraction: a. calcium is released from intracellular storage sites b. motor neurons send electrical signal to muscle c. acetylcholinesterease degrades acetylcholine d. troponin binds calcium e. none of these

c. acetylcholinesterease degrades acetylcholine

37. Of the following, which is the first to occur during muscle contraction? a. actin slides past myosin b. sarcomeres shorten c. crossbridges link thick and thin filaments d. myofibrils shorten and pull on ends of sarcolemma e. these occur at the same time

c. crossbridges link thick and thin filaments

118. Lack of acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft would result in: a. decrease acetylcholine production by the motor neuron b. relaxation of the muscle fiber c. excessive, continuous stimulation of the muscle fiber d. inability of the motor neuron to stimulate the muscle fiber e. none of these

c. excessive, continuous stimulation of the muscle fiber

128. You are looking for the extensor pollicis brevis. This muscle a. extends the thumb briefly. d. extends the great toe and is short. b. extends the index finger and is short. e. extends the ring finger and is short. c. extends the thumb and is short.

c. extends the thumb and is short.

147. In general, where do the flexors of the wrist originate? a. lateral epicondyle of the humerus d. lesser tubercle of the humerus b. greater trochanter of the humerus e. none of these is correct c. medial epicondyle of the humerus

c. medial epicondyle of the humerus

11 The calcium released from storage in a skeletal muscle cell causes the _________ to move off the active sites. a. actin-myosin complex c. troponin-tropomyosin complex e. none of these b. myosin-troponin complex d. tropomyosin-actin complex

c. troponin-tropomyosin complex

94. The calcium released from storage in a skeletal muscle cell causes the ________ to move off the active site. a. actin-myosin complex c. troponin-tropomyosin complex e. none of these b. myosin-troponin complex d. tropomyosin-actin complex

c. troponin-tropomyosin complex

195. Of the muscles that move the foot and toes, those on the anterior surface are involved in a. plantar flexion d. adduction b. dorsiflexion e. none of these c. abduction

dorsiflexion

39. Muscle contraction is caused by a. actin filaments sliding past each other. b. myelin filaments sliding past each other. c. myosin filaments sliding past each other d. actin filaments sliding past myelin filaments e. actin filaments sliding past myosin filaments

e. actin filaments sliding past myosin filaments

88. The ability of muscle tissue to return to its original shape after contraction or extension is called a. excitability c. flexibility e. none of these b. elasticity d. tetanus

elasticity

28. Thin connective tissue around each muscle cell

endomysium

139. Flexes and abducts hand at the wrist

flexor carpi radialis

Origin on nearly all ribs, draws scapula laterally & forward as in pushing

serrates anterior

112. A muscle fascicle is a: a. bundle of myofibrils b. bundle of connective tissue c. bundle of muscle fibers d. muscle cell e. all of these

bundle of muscle fibers

36. In skeletal muscle, the light bands are called ____ and they contain ________. a. A bands; actin. d. I bands; myosin b. A bands; myosin. e. H zones; actin. c. I bands; actin

c. I bands; actin

125. Muscle tone is ________. a. the ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements b. the feeling of well-being following exercise c. a state of sustained partial contraction d. the condition of athletes after intensive training e. all of these

c. a state of sustained partial contraction

41. Which proteins make up the thin filament? a. myosin, actin, & troponin c. actin, troponin & tropomyosin b. myosin, troponin, & tropomyosin d. actin, myosin & tropomyosin

c. actin, troponin & tropomyosin

89. At rest, active sites on the thin filaments of a muscle fiber are blocked by a. myosin molecules d. troponin molecules b. actin molecules e. none of these c. tropomyosin molecules

c. tropomyosin molecules

142. Extends and adducts the wrist

extensor carpi ulnaris

158. Which of the following flexes the hip? a. vastus laterales d. rectus femoris b. vastus medialis e. biceps femoris c. semimembranosus

rectus femoris

190. Which of the following is not a member of the hamstrings? a. biceps femoris d. rectus femoris b. semitendinosus e. none of these c. semimembranosus

rectus femoris

123. When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods? a.relaxation period b. refractory period c. latent period d. fatigue period e. none of these

refractory period

124. Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except ________. a. secretion b. contractility c. extensibility d. excitability e. all of these

secretion

29. A bundle of muscle cells

Fascicle

Thin

Attaches to the Z disk

27. Cytoplasm of muscle cells

Sacroplasm

13. Calcium in a skeletal muscle is stored in the a. sarcomere c. sarcoplasmic reticulum e. all of these b. sarcolemma d. mitochondria

Sacroplasmic reticulum

Origin on lateral condyle of tibia & shaft of fibula, inserts on toes 2-5

Extensor digitorium longus

81. The scalenes are superficial to the trapezius.

False

73. Severing of the patellar tendon would inactivate the hamstring muscles.

False (quads)

46. Thin filaments change in length when a muscle contracts.

False (they slide)

Origin on spinous processes of T2-T5, inserts on medial border of scapula, retracts scapula, braces shoulder

Rhomboideus major

Origin on spinous processes of C7-T1, nuchal ligament, inserts on medial border of scapula

Rhomboideus minor

204. Mary's newborn is having trouble suckling. The doctor suggests that it may be a problem with the ______________ muscle. a. orbicularis oris c. masseter e. none of these b. buccinators d. zygomaticus

buccinators

141. Extends and abducts the wrist

extensor carpi radialis longus

Inserts at base of 5th metacarpal, extends & "fixes" wrist

extensor carpi unlaris

143. Prime mover of finger extension

extensor digitorium

140. Flexes and adducts the wrist

flexor carpis ulnaris

144. Flexes phalanges of digit I

flexor pollicis longus

Origin on infraspinous fossa of scapula, inserts on greater tubercle of humerus

infraspinatus

122. During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________. a. a strong base b. stearic acid c. hydrochloric acid d. lactic acid e. all of these

lactic acid

Origin on vertebrae T7-L5, lower 3-4 ribs, iliac crest & thoracolumbar fascia, inserts on sulcus of humerus

latissimus dorsi

127. What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors? a. motor end plate b. end of the muscle fiber c. part adjacent to another muscle cell d. any part of the sarcolemma e. none of these

motor end plate

115. Which of the following does NOT occur in a muscle during contraction: a. thick and thin filaments bind to each other b. muscle fibers stretch c. thick and thin filaments "slide" past each other d. muscle fibers shorten e. none of these

muscle fibers stretch

120. The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________. a. hemoglobin b. ATP c. myoglobin d. immunoglobin e. none of these

myoglobin

92. The head of cross bridges formed during contraction is located on the a. myosin c. troponin e. none of these b. actin d. tropomyosin

myosin

45. The pronator teres and pronator quadratus a. depress the scapula. d. turn the palm upward. b. rotate the scapula. e. none of these c. flex the elbow.

none of these

132. The term "rectus" is used to denote fibers that run ______ to the midline. a. parallel c. perpendicular e. none of these b. diagonally d. vertical

parallel

Origin on ribs 3-5 and inserts on coracoid process of scapula, draws scapula laterally and forward, rotates scapula, depresses shoulder

pectoralis minor

133. The term "transversus" is used to denote fibers that run _________ to the midline. a. parallel c. perpendicular e. none of these b. diagonally d. vertical

perpendicular

169. If the calcaneal (Achilles) tendon was cut, which muscle action would be affected the most? a. dorsiflexion d. eversion b. plantar flexion e. all of these c. adduction

plantar Flexion

173. Of the muscles that move the foot and toes, those on the posterior leg surface are primarily involved in a. dorsiflexion d. adduction b. plantar flexion e. none of these c. abduction

plantar flexion

151. Inserts on medial surface of proximal tibia, flexes knee and hip joints rotates thigh laterally

popliteus

156. Origin on lateral condyle of femur, inserts on posterior tibial surface

popliteus

150. Acts as a synergist to the iliacus muscle in flexion of hip, inserts on lesser trochanter of femur

posas Major

Turns the forearm and hand posteriorly

pronator quadratus

113. The smallest contractile unit of skeletal muscle is a: a. sarcomere b. motor unit c. synapse d. thin filament e. none of these

sarcomere

108. Diffusion across the cell membrane results in depolarization.

sodium-potassium ions

90. At rest, tropomyosin molecules are held in place by a. myosin molecules d. troponin molecules b. actin molecules e. none of these c. ATP molecules

troponin molecules

31. A muscle cell

Muscle fiber

131. In general, where do the extensors of the wrist originate? a. lateral epicondyle of the humerus d. lesser tubercle of the humerus b. greater trochanter of the humerus e. none of these is correct c. medial epicondyle of the humerus

a. lateral epicondyle of the humerus

182. The muscle of the forearm that extends and adducts the wrist is the a. extensor carpi radialis longus c. flexor carpi ulnaris e. none of these b. extensor carpi ulnaris d. flexor carpi radialis

extensor carpi ulnaris

Inserts on olecranon of ulna, extends elbow

Triceps Brachii

45. One motor unit innervates only one skeletal muscle fiber.

True

47. Troponin is part of the thin filament of a sarcomere.

True

48. A contracted muscle cannot relax in the absence of ATP.

True

51. One of the important functions of skeletal muscle contraction is production of heat.

True

52. An increase in the calcium ion level in the sarcoplasm starts the sliding of the thin filaments. When the level of calcium ions declines, sliding stops.

True

53. A resting potential is caused by a difference in the concentration of certain ions inside and outside the cell.

True

26. Contractile unit of a muscle

sacromere

54. The effect of a neurotransmitter on the muscle cell membrane is to temporarily modify its ion permeability.

True

56. A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric.

True

59. One of the important functions of skeletal muscle contraction is production of heat.

True

60. An increase in the calcium ion level in the sarcoplasm starts the sliding of the thin filaments. When the level of calcium ions declines, sliding stops.

True

61. In a contraction, as the muscle shortens, its insertion moves toward its origin.

True

62. The action of the quadriceps femoris group of muscles is antagonistic to the hamstring group of muscles.

True

63. The muscles of the thigh responsible for extension of the knee are found in the anterior compartment of the thigh.

True

64. The quadriceps femoris muscle has 4 origins on the femur and hipbone but only one insertion

True

66. Of the muscles considered the hamstrings, only the biceps femoris muscle originates on the linea aspera of the femur, the others originate on the os coxae

True

68. Extensor digitorum longus extends toes 2-5.

True

69. The biceps brachii inserts on the radius.

True

70. The soleus is a synergist of the gastrocnemius during plantar flexion.

True

72. The calcaneal tendon (Achilles tendon) is the largest strongest tendon in the body.

True

134. The prime mover(s) in extension of the elbow joint is (are) the a. biceps brachii c. triceps brachii e. none of these b. brachialis d. a & b

triceps brachii

14. When calcium binds to troponin, a. tropomyosin moves off the actin molecules b. active sites on the myosin are exposed c. actin heads bind to myosin d. muscle contraction occurs

tropomyosin moves off the actin molecules

96. When calcium binds to the muscle fiber a. tropomyosin moves off the actin molecules b. active sites on the myosin are exposed c. actin heads bind to myosin d. muscle contraction occurs e. all of the above

tropomyosin moves off the actin molecules

35. In skeletal muscle fibers, calcium binds to a. troponin. d. titin. b. tropomyosin. e. myosin. c. actin.

troponin

93. When a skeletal muscle is stimulated to contract, Ca++ binds to a. myosin c. tropomyosin e. none of these b. actin d. troponin

troponin

Inserts on trapezium & base of 1st metacarpal, abducts thumb

Abductor pollicis longus

15 In a contraction, the cross bridges interact with the active sites on _________. a. myosin filament c. troponin e. c & d b. actin filament d. tropomyosin

Actin filament

16. As a muscle relaxes, calcium is removed by a process called a. passive diffusion. d. osmosis b. facilitated diffusion. e. all of these c. active transport

Active transport

9. Which of the following is involved in skeletal muscle contraction? a. calcium c. actin and myosin e. none of these b. cross-bridge formation d. all of the above

All of the above

136. In general, where do the extensors of the wrist originate? a. lateral epicondyle of the humerus d. lesser tubercle of the humerus b. greater trochanter of the humerus e. none of these c. medial epicondyle of the humerus

a. lateral epicondyle of the humerus

23. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions? a. motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments b. neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke c. muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments d. neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke e. none of the above

a. motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments

42. The head of cross bridges formed during contraction is located on the a. myosin filament c. troponin b. actin filament d. tropomyosin

a. myosin filament

97. Which of the following is involved in skeletal muscle contraction? a. acetylcholine c. actin and myosin e. none of these b. cross-bridge formation d. all of the above

all of the above

135. Which of the following muscles does not originate on the humerus? a. pronator teres d. extensor carpi ulnaris b. brachialis e. all of these originate on the humerus

all of these originate on the humerus

85. Acts to reverse or oppose the action of another muscle.

antagonist

32. In what order would a scalpel first penetrate these layers of connective tissue upon cutting into the biceps brachii muscle; (1) endomysium, (2) epimysium, (3) perimysium? a. 1, 3, 2 d. 3, 2, 1 b. 2, 3, 1 e. none of these c. 2, 1, 3

b. 2, 3, 1

19. What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles? a. Tropomyosin is the name of a contracting unit. b. Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on actin molecules. c. Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on myosin molecules. d. Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter. e. All of these are correct.

b. Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on actin molecules.

117. When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal of the motor neuron: a. calcium is released inside of the muscle fiber b. acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft c. acetylcholinesterease is released into the synaptic cleft d. physical contact between the motor neuron and the muscle fiber occurs e. none of these

b. acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft

179. Which of the following muscles has no attachment to the humerus? a. biceps brachii c. triceps brachii e. none of these b. brachialis d. all of these attach to the humerus

All of these attach to the humerus

98. A sarcomere is a. the functional unit of skeletal muscle b. part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum c. the area between two Z Lines d. both a and c e. all of the above

Both a and c

Origin on alveolar processes of maxilla & mandible, inserts on orbicularis oris

Buccinator

87. A general rule about the difference between an origin and insertion is A. the insertion remains stationary while the origin moves B. each muscle begins and ends at the insertion C. the insertion moves while the origin remains stationary D.each muscle begins and ends at the origin E. none of these

C. the insertion moves while the origin remains stationary

34. The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores ___ ions. a. calcium d. potassium b. acetylcholine e. none of these c. sodium

Calcium

205. The prime mover(s) of inspiration is (are) the a. diaphragm c. internal intercostals e. none of these b. external intercostals d. abdominal wall muscles

Diaphragm

Two origins; fossa of mandible & mastoid notch of temporal bone,inserts on hyoid

Digastric

Origin on the borders of lower eight ribs (5-12), inserts on anterior iliac crest; abdominal oblique symphysis & superior margin of pubic bone, compresses abdomen, twisting at waist

Eternal abdominal oblique

Extends and radially (laterally) flexes the wrist

Extensor carpi radialis longus

Inserts on distal phalanx I, prime mover of thumb extension & adduction

Extensor pollicis longus

49. Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract.

False

50. A motor neuron and all the muscle cells it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate.

False

55. Troponin is part of the thick filament of a sarcomere.

False

57. During isotonic contraction, the heavier the load, the faster the velocity of contraction.

False

58. During isometric contraction, the energy used appears as movement.

False

65. All three gluteal muscles insert on the greater trochanter of the femur.

False

67. The tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior are synergists in plantar flexion.

False

71. Plantar flexion at the ankle joint is accomplished by the tibialis anterior muscle.

False

74. The extensor digitorum longus is responsible for extension of the thumb.

False

75. The sternocleidomastoid muscle turns the head from side to side and extends the neck.

False

79. The terms biceps and triceps are used to indicate the number of insertions of a muscle.

False

80. The origin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle is the mastoid process of the skull.

False

83. Holds parts of the body in proper position for the action of other muscles.

Fixator

207. The pectoralis major muscle ________ and the latissimus dorsi muscle _______ the upper arm. a. extends, flexes d. abducts, adducts b. adducts, abducts e. none of these c. flexes, extends

Flexes, extends

176. Which of the following muscles is located in the posterior compartment of the leg? a. flexor digitorum longus d. extensor hallucis longus b. tibialis anterior e. all of these

Flexor Digitorium Longus

Inserts at base of metacarpal II and III, acts to flex wrist anteriorly & laterally

Flexor carpi radialis

Origin on medial epicondyle of humerus, olecranon & posterior ulna, flexes wrist carpi ulnaris anteriorly & medially

Flexor carpi ulnaris

148. Inserts on medial surface of tibia, flexes & medially rotates hip

Gracilis

102. The ________ contains only the actin filaments.

I band

Origin on lateral surfaces of lateral pterygoid plate, greater wing of sphenoid bone, inserts on mandible and temporomandibular joint capsule

Lateral petrygoid

103. The thicker filaments are the ________ filaments.

Myosin

12. The head of cross bridges formed during contraction is located on the a. myosin filament c. troponin e. none of these b. actin filament d. tropomyosin

Myosin filament

Flexes phalanges of thumb

None of these

8. Each end of a sarcomere is marked by a. terminal cisternae. d. an A band b. an I band. e. none of these c. an H band

None of these (Z disc to Z disc)

104. Both actin and myosin are found in the ________.

A band

105. The myosin filaments are located in the ________.

A band

10. The energy currency used to produce muscle contraction is a. ADP c. ATP e. none of these b. myoglobin d. glycogen

ATP

Origin on coracoid process, superior glenoid cavity, inserts on radial tuberosity

Biceps brachii

155. Two "headed" muscle, inserts on head of fibula and, flexes knee

Biceps femoris

203. The muscle that is a prime mover for BOTH extension at the hip joint and knee flexion is a. semitendinosus c. quadriceps femoris e. none of these b. biceps femoris d. gastrocnemius

Biceps femoris

Origin on galea aponeurotica, inserts on skin of eyebrows, elevates eyebrows

Frontalis

Superficial muscle, inserts on calcaneus, plantar flexes foot & flexes knee

Gastrocnemius

149. Forms much of the prominence of the buttocks

Gluteus maximus

163. Muscles comprising the quadriceps group include: a. rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, and vastus medialis b. rectus femoris, tibialis anterior, soleus and adductor longus c. peroneus longus, gracilis, adductor magnus, and biceps femoris d. semitendinosus, biceps femoris, rectus femoris and vastus medialis e. none of the above

a. rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, and vastus medialis

40. The distance from one Z disc to the next is called the ____ and it ____ during contraction. a. sarcomere; shortens d. A band; stays the same b. sarcomere; stays the same e. motor unit; lengthens c. I band; shortens

a. sarcomere; shortens

43. When calcium binds to troponin, a. tropomyosin moves off the actin molecules b. active sites on the myosin are exposed c. actin heads bind to myosin d. muscle contraction occurs e. all of the above

a. tropomyosin moves off the actin molecules

107. A neurotransmitter released at motor end plates by the axon terminals.

acetylcholine

17. The neurotransmitter involved in muscle contraction is a. acteylcholinesterase d. choline b. epinephrine e. none of these c. acetylcholine

acetylcholine

111. Destroys ACh

acetylcholinesterase

95. In a contraction, the cross bridges interact with the active sites on _________. a. actin c. troponin e. none of these b. myosin d. tropomyosin

actin

106. Serves as the actual ʺtriggerʺ for muscle contraction by removing the inhibition of the troponin molecules.

calcium ions

109. Activate synaptic vesicles in axon terminals.

calcium ions

Thick

contains myosin

Origin on coracoid process of scapula, flexes and medially rotates arm minor at shoulder joint

coracobrachalis

138. Responsible for lateral rotation of the forearm and hand

supinator

Turns the forearm and hand to anatomical position

supinator

Origin on supraspinous fossa of scapula; inserts on greater tubercle of humerus

supraspinatus

86. Assists an agonist work efficiently.

synergist

165. Muscles that cause plantar flexion include all but the a. gastrocnemius c. soleus e. none of these b. flexor digitorum longus d. tibialis anterior

tibialis anterior

166. The muscle which dorsiflexes the foot is the a. popliteus d. soleus b. tibialis anterior e. tibialis posterior c. gastrocnemius

tibialis anterior

177. Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint? a. tibialis posterior d. peroneus longus b. extensor digitorum longus e. none of these c. popliteus

tibialis posterior

Origin on temporal line & fossa of cranium; elevates & retracts mandible

Temporalis

25. Connective tissue surrounding a fascicle.

Perimysium

84. Bears the major responsibility for producing a particular movement.

Prime mover (agonist)

18. Myoglobin ______________________ a. breaks down glycogen. b. is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP. c. stores oxygen in muscle cells. d. produces the action potential in a muscle contraction. e. none of these.

Stores oxygen in muscles cells

Origin on subscapular fossa of scapula, inserts on lesser tubercle of humerus

Subscapularis

110. Used to convert ADP to ATP by transfer of a high-energy phosphate group. A reserve high-energy compound.

creatine phosphate

38. Which of the following supports the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction? a. The A band decreases in width during contraction. b. The I band increases in width during contraction. c. The A band increases in width during contraction. d. The distance between the Z lines decreases during contraction. e. The distance between Z lines increase during contraction.

d. The distance between the Z lines decreases during contraction.

130. The principle flexors of the forearm are the a. biceps brachii and coracobrachialis. d. biceps brachii and brachialis b. brachioradialis and brachialis. e. biceps brachii and triceps brachii c. subscapularis and coracobrachialis.

d. biceps brachii and brachialis

146. The principle flexors of the forearm are the a. biceps brachii and coracobrachialis. d. biceps brachii and brachialis b. brachioradialis and brachialis. e. none of these c. subscapularis and coracobrachialis.

d. biceps brachii and brachialis

100. The connective tissue coverings of a skeletal muscle, listed from superficial to deep are a. endomysium, perimysium and epimysium b. endomysium, epimysium and perimysium c. epimysium, endomysium and perimysium d. epimysium, perimysium and endomysium e. none of these

d. epimysium, perimysium and endomysium

21. Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by _______________? a. forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin b. forming a chemical compound with actin c. inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments d. storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to remake ATP e. none of these

d. storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to remake ATP

114. The major regulatory proteins in muscle tissue are: a. myosin and tropomyosin b. myosin and actin c. actin and troponin d. troponin and tropomyosin e. none of these

d. troponin and tropomyosin

129. Which of the following muscles does not originate on the humerus? a. pronator teres d. extensor carpi ulnaris b. brachialis e. all of these originate on the humerus c. flexor carpi ulnaris

e. all of these originate on the humerus

30. Cord-like extension of connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone

tendon

Origin on inferior angle of scapula, inserts on medial sulcus of humeral shaft contributes to arm swinging.

teres major

20. What does oxygen debt represent? a. amount of energy needed for exertion. b. difference between the amount of oxygen needed for aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used. c. the amount of oxygen taken into the body prior to exertion. d. the amount of oxygen taken into the body immediately after the exertion. e. all of these.

the amount of oxygen taken into the body immediately after the exertion.

99. The function of the T (transverse) tubules in muscle contraction is to a. make and store glycogen b. release calcium into the cell interior and pick it up again c. transmit the action potential deep into the muscle cells d. form proteins e. none of these

transmit the action potential deep into the muscle cells

Origin on medial supraorbital margin; draws eyebrows medially & downward

Corrugator supercilii

175. Identify the three gluteal muscles. A. gluteus maximus, gluteus intermedius, gluteus minimus B. gluteus maximus, gluteus intermedius, gluteus lateralis C. gluteus femoris, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus D. gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus E.none of these

D. gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus

183. The muscle of the forearm that flexes and adducts the wrist is the a. extensor carpi radialis longus c. flexor carpi ulnaris e. none of these b. extensor carpi ulnaris d. flexor carpi radialis

Flexor carpi ulnaris

186. The muscle that flexes the thumb is the a. flexor carpi radialis c. flexor pollicis longus e. none of these b. extensor pollicis longus a. extensor pollicis brevis

Flexor pollicis longus

162. Identify the three gluteal muscles. A. gluteus maximus, gluteus intermedius, gluteus minimus B .gluteus maximus, gluteus intermedius, gluteus lateralis C. gluteus femoris, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus D. gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus E. none of the above

gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus

187. In general, where do the flexors of the wrist originate? A. lateral epicondyle of the humerus B. greater trochanter of the humerus C. medial epicondyle of the humerus D. lesser tubercle of the humerus E. none of these

medial epicondyle of the humerus

170. Of the muscles that act on the ankle, those on the posterior surface of the leg are involved in a. adduction d. dorsiflexion b. plantar flexion e. none of these c. abduction

Plantar Flexion

199. Of the muscles that move the foot and toes, those on the posterior leg primarily surface are involved in a. dorsiflexion d. adduction b. plantar flexion e. none of these c. abduction

Plantar flexion

Origin on fascia of deltoid & pectoralis major, inserts on mandible

Platysma

185. The muscle primarily responsible for medial rotation of the forearm and hand is the a. flexor carpi radialis c. flexor pollicis longus e. none of these b. pronator quadratus d. supinator

Pronator quadratus

160. Which of the following muscles would be well developed in a football player whose specialty is kicking field goals? a. semitendinosus c. quadriceps femoris e. none of these b. biceps femoris d. gastrocnemius

Quadriceps femoris

Origin on transverse processes of cervical vertebrae C1-C7, inserts on ribs 1-2

Scalenes

Origin on styloid process of temporal bone; draws tongue upward & posteriorly

Styloglossus

180. The muscle of the forearm that acts to laterally rotate the forearm and hand is the a. extensor carpi radialis longus c. flexor carpi ulnaris e. none of theseb. b. pronator quadratus d. supinator

Supinator

189. Which of the following muscles inserts by the calcaneal tendon? a. the semitendinosus d. the gastrocnemius b. the sartorius e. all of these c. the tibialis anterior

The gastrocnemius

161. Crossing your legs while sitting employs mainly a. the sartorius. d. the pectineus. b. the superior gemellus. e. the bulbocavernosus. c. the piriformis.

The sartotius

164. The Achilles or calcaneal tendon serves both the gastrocnemius and a. the tibialis posterior c. the soleus e. none of these b. the extensor digitorum longus d. the popliteus

The soleus

7. In examining a sarcomere, which of the following statements is correct? A. The I band contains both actin and myosin. B. The Z lines establish the boundaries of the sarcomere. C. The H zone contains only actin filaments. D. The I band contains myosin filaments only. E. none of these is correct.

The z lines establish the boundaries of the sarcomere

Dorsiflexes & inverts foot at ankle.

Tibialis anterior

Origin on posterior proximal tibia, fibula, interosseous membrane, inserts on tarsal and metatarsal bones

Tibialis posterior

Composed of gastrocnemius and soleus

Triceps surae

184. The muscle of the forearm that extends and abducts the wrist is the a. extensor carpi radialis longus c. flexor carpi ulnaris e. none of these b. extensor carpi ulnaris d. flexor carpi radialis

a. extensor carpi radialis longus

197. Which are the three hamstring muscles? A. sartorius, semitendinosus, pectineus B. biceps femoris, semitendinosus, sartorius C. rectus femoris, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius D. biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus E. none of these

biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus

208. The rotator cuff muscles associated with the support of the shoulder joint consist of all the following muscles except a. supraspinatus d. teres minor b. infraspinatus e. subscapularis c. deltoid

deltoid

Caps the shoulder, flexes, medially rotates arm

deltoid

Thick

does not lie in the I band

196. Which of the following muscles is located in the posterior compartment of the leg? a. flexor digitorum longus d. extensor hallucis longus b. tibialis anterior e. all of these c. extensor digitorum longus

flexor digitorium longus

159.. Which of the following muscles does not flex the hip? a. gluteus maximus c. psoas major e. all of these flex the hip b. sartorius d. iliacus

gluteus maximus

194. Identify the three gluteal muscles. A. gluteus maximus, gluteus intermedius, gluteus minimus B. gluteus maximus, gluteus intermedius, gluteus lateralis C. gluteus femoris, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus D. gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus E. none of these

gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus

154. Along with gluteus medius, origin is on external surface of ilum insertion on greater trochanter of femur

gluteus minimus

192. Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the knee? a. soleus d. hamstring muscles b. gluteal muscles e. none of these c. brachioradialis

hamstring muscles

153. Origin on iliac fossa, inserts on lesser trochanter of femur

iliacus

Origin on iliac crest, thoracolumbar fascia, inguinal ligament, inserts on ribs 10-12, costal cartilages 7-10, pubis

internal abdominal oblique

Origin on transverse process of C1-C4, elevates scapula

levator scapulae

Origin on medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate of sphenoid bone, maxilla & palatine bone

medial petyrgoid

6. The sites where the motor nerve impulse is transmitted from the nerve endings to the skeletal muscle cell membranes are the a. neuromuscular junctions b. Z discs c. sarcomeres d all of these e. myofilaments

neuromuscular junctions

Surface muscle on anterior chest, flexes, adducts and rotates humerus medially

pectoralis major

152. Inserts on tibial tuberosity via patellar ligament, extends knee

quadriceps femoris

202. Which of the following would be well developed in a football player whose specialty is kicking field goals? a. semitendinosus c. quadriceps femoris e. none of these b. biceps femoris d. gastrocnemius

quadriceps femoris

178. All of the following muscles are synergists in flexing the elbow joint except a. the biceps brachii c. the brachioradialis e. none of these b. the brachialis d. all of these flex the elbow

the brachialis

167. Tom is having trouble plantar flexing and inverting his right foot. Which muscle(s) is/are most likely involved in this problem? a. tibialis posterior d. fibularis longus b. flexor digitorum longus e. none of these c. tibialis anterior

tibialis posterior

191. Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint? a. tibialis posterior d. peroneus longus b. extensor digitorum longus e. none of these c. popliteus

tibialis posterior

Origin on iliac crest, inguinal ligament, thoracolumbar fascia, costal cartilages these 7-12, inserts on linea alba, pubis and internal oblique

transverse abdominis

Thin

Contains actin

Thin

Contains troponin

181. The muscle of the forearm that flexes and abducts the hand at the wrist is the a. extensor carpi radialis longus c. flexor carpi ulnaris e. none of these b. extensor carpi ulnaris d. flexor carpi radialis

Flexor carpi radialis

Flexes phalanges of toes II-V

Flexor digitorium longus

206. The coracobrachialis and pectoralis major muscles are ________ of the upper arm. a. flexors d. extensors b. abductors e. none of these c. antagonists

Flexors

201. A prime mover of hip extension is a. rectus femoris c. iliacus e. none of these b. gluteus maximus d. gracilis

Gluteus maximus

174. Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the knee? a. soleus d. hamstring muscles b. gluteal muscles e. none of these c. brachioradialis

Hamstring Muscles

Origin on body & greater horn of hyoid bone, depresses tongue

Hyoglossus

Origin on zygomatic arch, inserts on lateral surface of mandibular angle & ramus

None of these

Origin on nuchal line of occipital bone and temporal bones, retracts scalp

Occipitals

200. Muscles comprising the quadriceps group include: a. rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, and vastus medialis b. rectus femoris, tibialis anterior, soleus and adductor longus c. peroneus longus, gracilis, adductor magnus, and biceps femoris d. biceps femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, and vastus medialis e. none of the above

rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, and vastus medialis

168. Which are the three hamstring muscles? A. sartorius, semitendinosus, pectineus B. biceps femoris, semitendinosus, sartorius C. quadriceps femoris, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius D. semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris E. none of these

semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris

171. Which are the three hamstring muscles? A. sartorius, semitendinosus, pectineus B. biceps femoris, semitendinosus, sartorius C.rectus femoris, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius D. semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris e. none of these

semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris

198. Both the gastrocnemius and ________ muscle insert on the heel by way of the calcaneal tendon. a. semimembranosus d. tibialis anterior b. tibialis posterior e. none of these c. soleus

soleus