OB-GYN Penny Book Review Questions

The right ovarian artery branches off of the: A. aorta B. right renal artery C. uterine artery D. internal iliac artery

A

When does the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommend that alcohol-based handrub not be used by the sonographer? A. after a sonogram B. before a sonogram C. when hands are visibly soiled D. between patients

C

All of the following would be relevant lab tests to evaluate before performing a routine pelvic sonogram except: A. HCG B. hematocrit C. WBC D. Lipase

D

Leukocytosis would most likely be associated with: A. multiple degenerating fibroids B. ovarian teratoma C. adenomyosis D. pelvic inflammatory disease

D

The pelvic muscle group that is located between the coccyx and the pubis is the: A. levator ani muscles B. rectus abdominis muscles C. obturator internus muscles D. piriformis muscle

A

The sonographic pelvic examination of a female patient reveals an extensive amount of ascites. In the TRANS plane, you visualize two echogenic structures extending from the side wall of the uterus to the pelvic side walls bilaterally. These structures are most likely the: A. broad ligaments B. cardinal ligaments C. ovarian ligaments D. uterosacral ligaments

A

Which of the following statements would be considered an acceptable disadvantage of TV imaging? A. has a limited field of view B. imaging is reduced compared to transabdominal imaging C. more time consuming than transabdominal imaging D. can be performed only by female sonographers

A

Which of the following would most likely be associated with hirsutism? A. PCOS B. Meigs syndrome C. adenomyosis D. adenomyomatosis

A

A patient presents to the sonography department with a history of uterine prolapse. Which of the following best describes this disorder? A. a condition that results from the weakening of the pelvic diaphragm muscles and allows for the displacement of the uterus, often through the vagina B. a congenital anomaly that results in duplication of the uterus C. a condition that results in the abnormal invasion of the myometrium through the bladder wall leading to hematuria D. an abnormality that describes the inversion of the myometrium and endometrium

A

All of the following are associated with omphalocele except: A. normal cord insertion B. multiple chromosomal abnormalities C. elevated MSAFP D. periumbilical mass

A

All of the following are clinical findings associated with leiomyoma except: A. myometrial cysts B. infertility C. palpable pelvic mass D. menorrhagia

A

All of the following are signs of Arnold-Chiari II malformation except: A. S-shaped spine B. banana sign C. lemon sign D. colpocephaly

A

All of the following are sonographic features of holoprosencephaly except: A. cystic hygroma B. proboscis with cyclopia C. fused thalamus D. monoventricle

A

All of the following are sonographic findings of a tubo-ovarian abscess except: A. presence of 10 or more small cysts along the periphery of the ovaries B. cul-de-sac fluid C. thickened, irregular endometrium D. fusion of the pelvic organs as a conglomerated mass

A

All of the following statements concerning PID are true except: A. PID is typically a unilateral condition B. PID can be caused by douching C. PID can lead to a tubo-ovarian abscess D. dyspareunia is a clinical findings in acute PID

A

All of the following would be an indication for a 3rd trimester sonogram except: A. evaluate NT B. evaluate fetal presentation C. evaluate fetal growth D. evaluate gestational age

A

An absent or hypoplastic nasal bone is most likely associated with: A. trisomy 21 B. trisomy 15 C. trisomy 18 D. turner syndrome

A

An excessive amount of amniotic fluid is termed: A. polyhydramnios B. oligohydramnios C. esophageal atresia D. amniotic fluid index

A

An increase in the number of endometrial cells is termed: A. endometrial hyperplasia B. endometrial atrophy C. endometrial carcinoma D. polyps

A

Asymmetry in fetal weight between twins is indicative of: A. discordant growth B. preeclampsia C. dichorionic diamniotic twinning D. intrauterine infections

A

At what level is the nuchal fold measurement obtained? A. CSP B. occipital horns of the lateral ventricle C. brain stem D. foramen magna

A

Blood accumulation within the uterus is termed: A. hematometra B. hydrometra C. asherman syndrome D. endometrial carcinoma

A

Causes of PMB include all of the following except: A. asherman syndrome B. endometrial atrophy C. endometrial hyperplasia D. intracavitary fibroids

A

Causes of female infertility include all of the following except: A. previous intrauterine device use B. PCOS C. Asherman syndrome D. endometriosis

A

Close-set eyes and a nose with a single nostril is termed: A. cebocephaly B. cyclopia C. ethmocephaly D. epignathus

A

During which phase of the endometrial cycle would the endometrium yield the 3 line sign? A. late proliferative B. early proliferative C. early secretory D. late secretory

A

Echogenic small bowel is most often associated with: A. down syndrome B. edwards syndrome C. patau syndrome D. turner syndrome

A

Endovaginal transducers may be cleaned by submerging in a(n) ________________ based solution. A. glutaraldehyde B. ascites C. formaldehyde D. alcohol

A

Eventration of the diaphragm is best described as: A. a lack of muscle in the dome of the diaphragm B. a defect in the anterior lateral wall of the diaphragm C. a defect in the posterolateral wall of the diaphragm D. congenital absence of the diaphragm

A

Fetal lung maturity can be assessed using the: A. LS ratio B. systolic to diastolic ratio C. estriol to alpha-fetoprotein ratio D. lung size formula

A

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome could be described as: A. clinical findings of GB disease as a result of PID B. the presence of uterine fibroids and adenomyosis in the gravid uterus C. coexisting intrauterine and extrauterine pregnancies D. the presence of pyosalpinx, hydrosalpinx, and endometritis

A

Having more than the normal number of digits is: A. polydactyly B. clinodactyly C. multidigitopia D. sirenomelia

A

Talipes equinovarus is associated with: A. clubfoot B. syndactyly C. rhizomelia D. rockerbottom foot

A

The "keyhole" sign describes the sonographic findings of a(n): A. enlarged bladder and dilated urethra B. bilateral renal agenesis C. unilateral renal agenesis D. dilation of the renal pelvis and proximal ureter

A

The 2 hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland that impact the menstrual cycle are: A. LH and FSH B. LH and estrogen C. progesterone and estrogen D. FSH and progesterone

A

The absence of menstrual bleeding is termed: A. amenorrhea B. dysmenorrhea C. oligomenorrhea D. polymenorrhea

A

The anechoic midline brain structure located between the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles is the: A. CSP B. cavum vergae C. corpus callosum D. fourth ventricle

A

The condition in which there is no nose and proboscis separating two close-set orbits is: A. ethmocephaly B. epignathus C. micrognathia D. cebocephaly

A

The cystic mass commonly noted with a pregnancy is the: A. corpus luteum B. dermoid cyst C. dysgerminoma D. serous cystadenoma

A

The demise of a twin can lead to the development of neurologic complications in the living twin as a result of: A. twin embolization syndrome B. TTTS C. TRAP syndrome D. dichorionicity

A

The development of adhesions between the liver and the diaphragm as a result of PID is termed: A. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Stein-Leventhal syndrome D. Asherman syndrome

A

The dominant follicle prior to ovulation is termed the: A. Graafian follicle B. corpus albicans C. corpus luteum D. medulla

A

The dominant follicle prior to ovulation is termed the: A. graafian follicle B. ovarian hyper follicle C. corpus luteum D. corpus albicans

A

The fingerlike extensions of the Fallopian tubes are called: A. fimbria B. infundibulum C. cilia D. ampulla

A

The first structure noted within the GS is the: A. yolk sac B. embryo C. decidual reaction D. chorionic sac

A

The innominate bones of the pelvic consist of the: A. ischium, ileum, and pubic bones B. ilium, sacrum, and coccyx bones C. sacrum, coccyx, and pubic bones D. sacrum, ischium, and ilium bones

A

The interthalamic adhesion (massa intermedia) passes through the: A. third ventricle B. fourth ventricle C. cisterna magna D. CSP

A

The isolated enlargement of the fetal thyroid is referred to as: A. fetal goiter B. cystic hygroma C. lymphangioma D. cervical teratoma

A

The most common cause of cardiac malposition is: A. diaphragmatic hernia B. omphalocele C. gastroschisis D. pulmonary hypoplasia

A

The most common cause of pelvic pain with pregnancy is: A. ectopic pregnancy B. heterotopic pregnancy C. missed abortion D. molar pregnancy

A

The most common fetal cardiac tumor is the: A. rhabdomyoma B. chordae tendineae C. cardiomyoma D. CAM

A

The most common form of monozygotic twins is: A. monochorionic diamniotic B. dichorionic monoamniotic C. monochorionic monoamniotic D. none of the above

A

The normal umbilical cord insertion point into the placenta is: A. central B. superior margin C. inferior margin D. lateral margin

A

The number of pregnancies is defined as: A. gravidity B. parity C. primigravida D. primiparous

A

The ovarian mass that contains fat, sebum, and feet is the: A. dermoid B. fibroma C. mucinous cystadeoma D. yolk sac tumor

A

The ovarian tumor associated with an elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase is the: A. dysgerminoma B. sertoli-leydig cell tumor C. androblastoma D. mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

A

The placenta releases _____________ to maintain the corpus luteum. A. hCG B. follicle stimulating hormone C. luteinizing hormone D. gonadotropin-stimulating hormone

A

The protein that is produced by the yolk sac, fetal GI tract, and fetal liver is: A. AFP B. hCG C. PAPP-A D. Inhibin A

A

The second phase of the endometrial cycle is the: A. secretory phase B. follicular phase C. luteal phase D. proliferative phase

A

The shunting of blood from one twin to the other is termed: A. TTTS B. twin embolization syndrome C. twin peak sign D. conjoined twins

A

The sonographic "string of pearls" sign is indicative of: A. PCOS B. Tubo-ovarian disease C. PID D. OHS

A

The sonographic findings of an endometrial polyp may include: A. diffuse thickening of the endometrium B. menometrorrhagia C. intermenstrual bleeding D. infertility

A

The triple screen typically includes: A. alpha-fetoprotein, estriol, and hCG B. alpha-fetroprotein, AFI, and hCG C. alpha-fetoproteins, estriol, and PAPP-A D. PAPP-A, inhibin A, and hCG

A

The uterine position in which the corpus tilts forward and comes in contact with the cervix describes: A. anteflexion B. anteversion c. retroflexion D. retroversion

A

Twins that have the threat of being conjoined are: A. monochorionic monoamniotic B. monochorionic diamniotic C. dizygotic D. dichorionic diamniotic

A

Typically, with anencephaly, the MSAFP value will be: A. elevated B. decreased C. this lab is not helpful D. unchanged

A

Typically, with gastroschisis, the MSAFP value will be: A. elevated B. decreased C. this lab is not helpful D. unchanged

A

What form of permanent birth control would be seen as echogenic, linear structures within the lumen of both isthmic portions of the fallopian tubes? A. essure B. paraguard C. lippes loops D. mirena

A

What is defined as the area located posterior to the broad ligaments and adjacent to the uterus, which contains the ovaries and fallopian tubes? A. adnexa B. paraovarian C. pouch of douglas D. space of retzius

A

What is described as the absence of the pulmonary valve, which in turn prohibits blood flow from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery and essentially into the lungs? A. pulmonary atresia B. pulmonary stenosis C. pulmonary sequestration D. pulmonary effusion

A

What is macroglossia most often associated with: A. trisomy 21 B. trisomy 18 C. triploidy D. turner syndrome

A

What is the most common form of GTD? A. complete molar pregnancy B. partial molar pregnancy C. invasive mole D. choriocarcinoma

A

What is the most likely pulse Doppler characteristic of endometrial cancer? A. low-impedance flow B. high-impedance flow C. absent systolic flow D. converse diastolic flow

A

What is the name of the dominant follicle prior to ovulation? A. graafian B. corpus luteum C. morula D. corpus albicans

A

What structure connects the embryo to the yolk sac? A. vitelline duct B. yolk sac C. amnion D. chorionic stalk

A

What structure shunts blood into the IVC from the umbilical vein? A. ductus venosus B. ductus arteriosus C. foramen ovale D. foramen of luschka

A

What term describes the echogenicity of a simple ovarian cyst? A. anechoic B. hypoechoic C. echogenic D. hyperechoic

A

What term is used to describe painful intercourse? A. dyspareunia B. dysuria C. dysmenorrhea D. dysconception

A

Which of the following best describes a choledochal cyst? A. it's the cystic dilatation of the CBD B. it's the herniation of the abdominal contents into the umbilical cord C. it's the congenital absence of the cystic duct D. it's the inflammation of the biliary tree caused by extrinsic obstruction

A

Which of the following could also be described as intermenstrual bleeding? A. metrorrhagia B. polymenorrhea C. menometrorrhagia D. menorrhagia

A

Which of the following fibroid locations would most likely result in abnormal uterine bleeding because of its relationship to the endometrium? A. SM B. IM C. SS D. SS pedunculated

A

Which of the following is most often associated with duodenal atresia? A. trisomy 21 B. trisomy 18 C. trisomy 13 D. triploidy

A

Which of the following is not consistent with the diagnosis of nonimmune hydrops? A. hypoplastic mandible B. pleural effusion C. ascites D. subcutaneous edema

A

Which of the following is not part of the BPP? A. fetal swallowing B. flexion of the limb C. amniotic fluid D. fetal breathing

A

Which of the following is true for the diagnosis of clubfoot? A. the metatarsals and toes lies in the same plane as the tibia and fibula B. the metatarsals are perpendicular to the tibia and fibula C. the carpals and metacarpals lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula D. the tibia, fibula, and patella are perpendicular to the femur

A

Which of the following lab findings would not be consistent with trisomy 21? A. high AFP B. low estriol C. high HCg D. low PAPP-A

A

Which of the following would result in compensatory hypertrophy? A. unilateral renal agenesis B. bilateral renal agenesis C. pelvic kidny D. horseshoe kidney

A

Which protein is not produced by the developing placenta? A. alpha-fetoprotein B. hCG C. estriol D. PAPP-A

A

Which term relates the number of placentas? A. chorionicity B. zygocity C. amnionicity D. cleavage

A

With what structure does the posterior fossa cyst associated with DWM communicate? A. fourth ventricle B. third ventricle c. cerebellar vermis D. cerebral aqueduct

A

A patient presents with a history of adenomyosis that was diagnosed via MRI. What are the most likely sonographic findings? A. complex, bilateral adnexal masses B. myometrial cysts with enlargement of the posterior uterine wall C. endometrial thinning and cervical dilation D. uterine atrophy with bilateral ovarian cysts

B

A patient presents with complaints of infertility and painful menstrual cycles. You see a cystic mass on the ovary consisting low-level echoes. What is the diagnosis? A. cystic teratoma B. endometrioma C. PID D. OHS

B

A separate mass of nonfunctioning fetal lung tissue is referred to as: A. pulmonary adenomatoid malformation B. pulmonary sequestration C. CAM D. bat wing sign

B

A simple fluid accumulation within the vagina secondary to an imperforate hymen is: A. hydrometrocolpos B. hydrocolpos C. hematometra D. hematocolpos

B

All of the following adnexal masses may appear sonographically similar to a uterine leiomyoma except: A. theca B. paraovarian cyst C. fibroma D. granulose cell tumor

B

All of the following are associated with gastroschisis except: A. normal cord insertion B. multiple chromosomal abnormalities C. elevated MSAFP D. periumbilical mass

B

All of the following are associated with spina bifida except: A. splaying of the laminae B. enlarged posterior fossa C. lemon sign D. banana sign

B

All of the following are characteristic of spina bifida occulta except: A. closed defect B. elevated MSAFP C. sacral dimple D. hemangioma

B

All of the following are clinical or sonographic findings consistent with LBWC except: A. ventral wall defects B. decreased MSAFP C. marked scoliosis D. shortened umbilical cord

B

All of the following would be associated with oligohydramnios except: A. bilateral MCDK disease B. unilateral renal agenesis C. bilateral renal agenesis D. ARPKD

B

Amenorrhea, hirsutism, and obesity describe the clinical features of: A. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome B. Stein-Leventhal syndrome C. Asherman syndrome D. Endometriosis

B

An absent sacrum and coccyx is referred to as: A. sirenomelia B. caudal regression syndrome C. achondroplasia D. radial ray defect

B

An asymptomatic 65-year-old patient presents for an US with pelvic pain but no vaginal bleeding. Her endometrial thickness should not exceed: A. 6 mm B. 8 mm C. 5 mm D. 3 mm

B

An increase distance between the orbits is referred to as: A. hypotelorism B. hypertelorism C. anophthalmia D. micrognathia

B

PID can lead to all of the following except: A. infertility B. polycystic ovarian disease C. ectopic pregnancy D. scar formation in the fallopian tubes

B

Painful and difficult menstruation is termed: A. menorrhagia B. dysmenorrhea C. metrorrhagia D. amenorrhea

B

Precocious puberty is defined as the development of pubic hair, breasts, and the genitals before the age of: A. 13 B. 8 C. 5 D. 10

B

The "lying down" adrenal sign describes the sonographic findings of: A. enlarged bladder and urethra B. renal agenesis C. MCDK disease D. posterior urethral valves

B

The "sunburst" of the cerebral sulci is a sonographic finding of: A. DWM B. agenesis of the corpus callosum C. colpocephaly D. hydrancephaly

B

The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is referred to as: A. kyphosis B. scoliosis C. splaying D. achondroplasia

B

The abnormal twin in acardiac twinning is also referred to as the: A. pump twin B. parasitic twin C. stuck twin D. vanishing twin

B

The band of tissue that allows communication between the right and left cerebral hemispheres is the: A. falx cerebri B. corpus callosum C. cerebellar vermis D. CSP

B

The bending of the 5th digit toward the 4th digit is called: A. syndactyly B. clinodactyly C. polydactyly D. stabodactyly

B

The blood returning from the lungs through the pulmonary veins enters into the: A. right atrium B. left atrium C. right ventricle D. left ventricle

B

The longest and most tortuous segment of the Fallopian tube is the: A. fimbria B. ampulla C. isthmus D. interstitial

B

The malignant ovarian tumor with GI origin is the: A. brenner tumor B. krukenberg tumor C. yolk sac tumor D. granulose cell tumor

B

The measurement obtained between the lateral wall of the orbits is referred to as the: A. interocular diameter B. binocular diameter C. ocular diameter D. biparietal diameter

B

The most accurate measurement for estimating gestational age is: A. BPD B. HC C. Transcerebellar measurement D. lateral ventricle

B

The most common cause of PMB is: A. endometrial carcinoma B. endometrial atrophy C. endometrial leiomyoma D. cervical carcinoma

B

The narrowing of the aortic arch is indicative of: A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. Coarctation of the aorta C. Ebstein anomaly D. Hypoplastic right heart syndrome

B

The outer membrane of the gestation is referred to as the: A. placenta B. chorion C. amnion D. yolk sac

B

The ovarian cyst associated with gestational trophoblastic disease is the: A. corpus luteum cyst B. theca lutein cyst C. dermoid cyst D. paraovarian cyst

B

The ovary is supplied blood by the: A. ovarian artery B. ovarian artery and uterine artery C. uterine artery D. arcuate artery

B

The pelvic ligament the provides support to the ovary and extends from the ovary to the lateral surface of the uterus is the: A. cardinal ligament B. ovarian ligament C. broad ligament D. suspensory ligament of the ovary

B

The removal of tissue from the endometrium by scraping is termed: A. dilation B. curettage C. sonohysterography D. hysteroscopy

B

The renal cystic disease that results in the development of cysts late in adulthood is: A. multicystic dysplastic renal disease B. autosomal dominant polycystic disease C. autosomal recessive polycystic disease D. obstructive cystic dysplasia

B

The structure created by the union of sperm and egg is the: A. blastocyst B. zygote C. morula D. ampulla

B

The temporary endocrine gland that results from the rupture of the Graafian follicle is the: A. corpus albicans B. corpus luteum C. cumulus oophorus D. trophoblastic cells

B

The thickness of the nuchal fold in the 2nd trimester should not exceed: A. 3 mm B. 6 mm C. 10 mm D. 12 mm

B

The tricuspid valve is located: A. between right atrium and left atrium B. between right ventricle and right atrium C. between left ventricle and left atrium D. between left atrium and aorta

B

The twin that will appear larger in TTTS is the: A. donor B. recipient C. both will be the same D. both will be demised

B

The uterine arteries supply blood to all of the following except: A. fallopian tubes B. rectum C. ovaries D. uterus

B

The visualization of the fetal stomach within the fetal chest is most indicative of: A. pericardial effusion B. pulmonary atresia C. pleural effusion D. endocardial cushion defects

B

Twins that result from the fertilization of two separate ova are called: A. diamniotic B. dizygotic C. monozygotic D. monochorionic

B

Twins whose bodies are connected at some point are said to be: A. fraternal B. conjoined C. identical D. stuck

B

Typically, with a miscarriage, the serum hCG will: A. elevate B. decrease C. be unchanged D. this lab is not helpful

B

Webbed fingers or toes are termed: A. clinodactyly B. syndactyly C. polydactyly D. Whren syndrome

B

What condition is pregnancy-induced maternal high blood pressure and excess protein in the urine after 20 weeks' gestation? A. gestational diabetes B. preeclampsia C. porencephaly D. maternal mirror syndrome

B

What hormone, produced by the corpus luteum, maintains the thickened endometrium? A. estrogen B. progesterone C. hCG D. luteinizing hormone

B

What is a treatment that separates abnormal placental vascular connections between twins that are suffering from TTTS? A. cleavage-laser resection treatment B. endoscopic-guided laser photocoagulation C. endemic translocation of placental vessels D. circumvallate resection of shared placental vasculature

B

What is another name for adhesions within the endometrial cavity? A. endometritis B. synechiae C. septation D. mural nodules

B

What is defined as frequent regular cycles but less than 21 days apart? A. hypomenorrhea B. polymenorrhea C. menorrhagia D. cryptomenorrhea

B

What is described as the number of pregnancies in which the patient has given birth to a fetus or beyond 20 weeks gestational age or an infant weighing more than 500 g? A. gravidity B. parity C. primigravida D. primiparous

B

What is the fetal presentation when the fetal buttocks are closest to the cervix? A. footling breech B. frank breech C. complete breech D. transverse

B

What is the fetal shunt that connects the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch? A. foramen ovale B. ductus arteriosus C. ductus venosis D. foramen of bochdalek

B

What is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in the neonate and the most common form of fetal renal obstruction? A. UVJ obstruction B. UPJ obstruction C. vesicoureteral reflux D. urethral atresia

B

What is the opening located right anteromedially within the diaphragm? A. Foramen of Bochdalek B. Foramen of Morgagni C. Foramen of Monro D. Foramen ovale

B

What is the radiographic procedure used to evaluate the patency of the fallopian tubes? A. sonohysterography B. hysterosalpingography C. hysteroscopy D. hysteroscopic fallopian septoplasty

B

Which of the following could be described as an infection of the female genital tract that may involve the ovaries, uterus, and/or fallopian tubes? A. pseudomyxoma peritonei B. pelvic inflammatory disease C. polycystic ovarian disease D. ovarian torsion

B

Which of the following definition best describes "adnexa"? A. area posterior to the uterus, between uterus and rectum B. area located posterior to the broad ligaments and adjacent to the uterus C. the area anterior to the uterus, between uterus and bladder D. area lateral to the iliac crest and posterior to pubic symphysis

B

Which of the following diagnostic tests is used to evaluate emitted radiation from the patient to assess the function of organs? A. MRI B. Nuclear medicine C. Radiography D. CT

B

Which of the following is a benign congenital neck cysts found most often near than angle of the mandible? A. epignathus B. branchial cleft cyst C. thyroglossal duct cyst D. fetal goiter

B

Which of the following is associated with echogenic bowel? A. fetal anemia B. cystic fibrosis C. radial ray syndrome D. portal hypertension

B

Which of the following is said to be a common cause of DUB? A. hirsutism B. PCOS C. fibroids D. PID

B

Which of the following is the most common malignancy of the ovary? A. cystic teratoma B. serous cystadenocarcinoma C. krukenberg tumor D. sertolid-leydig cell tumor

B

Which of the following should not be included in the correct level for an HC measurement? A. falx cerebri B. fourth ventricle C. thalamus D. CSP

B

Which of the following would increase the likelihood of a fetus developing sirenomelia and caudal regression syndrome? A. previous c-section B. pre-existing maternal diabetes C. previous ectopic pregnancy D. elevated hCG

B

Which of the following would increase the likelihood of developing placenta previa? A. vaginal bleeding B. previous c-section C. corpus albicans D. chorioangioma

B

Which of the following would most likely lead to the development of endometrial adhesions? A. endometrial carcinoma B. D&C C. pregnancy D. adenomyomatosis

B

Which of the following would not be normally located within the midline of the fetal brain? A. CSP B. lobes of the thalamus C. third ventricle D. falx cerebri

B

Which of the following would not typically produce an elevation in hCG? A. down syndrome B. anembryonic pregnancy C. triploidy D. molar pregnancy

B

With a normal pregnancy, the 1st structure noted within the decidualized endometrium is the: A. yolk sac B. chorionic sac C. amniotic cavity D. embryo

B

which of the following would be least likely associated with an elevated MSAFP? A. pentalogy of cantrell B. anorectal atresia C. gastroschisis D. omphalocele

B

A velamentous cord insertion is associated with which of the following? A. placenta increta B. placental abruption C. vasa previa D. circumvallate placenta

C

Absent long bonest with the hands and feet arising from the shoulders and hips describes: A. micromelia B. mesomelia C. phocomelia D. arthrogryposis

C

Acardiac twinning results from: A. poor maternal nutrition B. dizygotic gestations C. abnormal links between the placental vessels D. twin embolization syndrome

C

Advanced maternal age is considered to be: A. > 25 years of age B. > 30 years of age C. > 35 years of age D. > 32 years of age

C

After the Graafian follicle ruptures, the remaining structure is termed the: A. graafian remnant B. corpus albicans C. corpus luteum D. theca lutein cyst

C

All of the following are characteristic sonographic findings of achondrogenesis except: A. micromelia B. absent mineralization of the pelvis C. multiple dislocated joints D. polyhydramnios

C

All of the following are sonographic features of alobar holoprosencephaly except: A. cyclopia B. monoventricle C. dorsal cyst D. fused thalamus

C

All of the following are sonographic findings consistent with ectopic pregnancy except: A. decidual thickening B. complex free fluid within the pelvis C. bilateral, multiloculated cysts D. complex adnexal mass separate from the ipsilateral ovary

C

All of the following are sonographic findings of esophageal atresia except: A. absent stomach B. polyhydramnios C. macrosomia D. intrauterine growth restriction

C

Amenorrhea is defined as: A. the first menstrual cycle B. excessive bleeding after the cycle C. lack of menstrual flow D. painful menstrual flow

C

Bilateral choroid plexus cysts, micrognathia, and rockerbottom feet are sonographic findings of a 27 week fetus with an omphalocele. These findings are most consistent with: A. trisomy 21 B. trisomy 18 C. trisomy 13 D. turner syndrome

C

Bladder exstrophy describes: A. absence of the cloaca B. protrusion of the bladder into the umbilicus C. external position of the bladder D. enlargement of the bladder

C

Cleft lip, hypotelorism, and mircophthalmia are all sonographic features of: A. trisomy 21 B. trisomy 18 C. trisomy 13 D. turner syndrome

C

Cloacal exstrophy is associated with all of the following except: A. omphalocele B. spina bifida C. encephalocele D. imperforate anus

C

Congenital maldevelopment of the proximal portion of the small intestine is termed: A. VACTERL association B. esophageal atresia C. duodenal atresia D. jejunal atresia

C

Congenital malformation of the uterus that results in complete duplication of the genital tract is: A. unicornuate uterus B. bicornis bicollis C. uterus didelphys D. subseptate uterus

C

Cryptorchidism describes: A. bilateral pelvic kidneys B. urethral atresia C. undescended testicles D. ovarian dysgenesis

C

Doppler assessment of the middle cerebral artery: A. helps to determine whether fetal anorexia is occurring B. is valuable in diagnosing the extent of ventriculomegaly C. can evaluate the fetus for hypoxia D. is important to determine whether TORCH complications are present

C

During a 1st trimester sonogram, you see a round, cystic structure within the fetal head. This most likely represents the: A. prosencephalon B. mesencephalon C. rhombencephalon D. proencephalon

C

Enlargement of the frontal horns and narrowing of the occipital horns is termed: A. holoprosencephaly B. DWM C. colpocephaly D. apert syndrome

C

Factors that increase the likelihood of multiple gestations include all of the following except: A. advanced maternal age B. ovulation induction drugs C. poor nutritional state D. maternal predisposition for twins

C

Failure of the kidneys to form is called: A. hydronephrosis B. renal dysplasia C. renal agenesis D. renal ectopia

C

Fertilization typically occurs within _______ after ovulation. A. 40 hours B. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 56 hours

C

Fetal TORCH is frequently associated with: A. maternal hypertension B. twin-twin transfusion syndrome C. intracranial calcifications D. renal cystic disease

C

Fluid surrounding the fetal testicle is referred to as: A. hydroureter B. hydronephrosis C. hydrocele D. hydroscrotum

C

Fusion of the orbits is termed: A. microglossia B. cebocephaly C. cyclopia D. ethmocephaly

C

Hairlike protections within the Fallopian tube are called: A. interstitia B. fimbria C. cilia D. peristalsis

C

Hepatomegaly would be seen in conjunction with: A. down syndrome B. edwards syndrome C. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome D. hirschsprung disease

C

In the TPAL designation, the "L" refers to: A. living children B. lethal anomalies C. live births D. lost pregnancies

C

Increased S\D ratio is associated with all of the following except: A. IUGR B. placental insufficiency C. allantoic cysts D. perinatal mortality

C

Numerous noncommunicating anechoic masses are noted within the left renal fossa of a fetus at 20 weeks gestation. What is the most likely etiology of these masses? A. ARPKD B. ADPKD C. MCDK disease D. Hydronephrosis

C

One of the most common causes of painless vaginal bleeding in the second and third trimesters is: A. spontaneous abortion B. abruptio placentae C. placenta previa D. placenta accrete

C

Ovulation induction drugs not only increase the likelihood of multiple gestations, but also increase the likelihood of: A. maternal diabetes B. ovarian prolapse C. heterotopic pregnancies D. choriocarcinoma

C

PCOS may also be referred to as: A. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome B. Plateau syndrome C. Stein-Leventhal syndrome D. Asherman syndrome

C

Pelvic muscles appear: A. echogenic B. anechoic C. hypoechoic D. complex

C

Rhizomelia denotes: A. long upper extremities B. shortening of an entire limb C. shortening of the proximal segment of a limb D. shortening of the distal segment of a limb

C

Something that is idiopathic is said to be: A. caused by a functional abnormality B. related to fetal development C. from an unknown cause D. found incidentally

C

Sonographically, which of the following would most likely be confused for a pedunculate fibroid tumor because of its solid appearing structure? A. serous cystadenoma B. mucinous cystadenoma C. fibroma D. theca lutein cyst

C

Tamoxifen has been linked with all of the following except: A. endometrial polyps B. endometrial hyperplasia C. endometrial leiomyoma D. endometrial carcinoma

C

The "keyhole" sign would be seen in all of the following situations except: A. urethral atresia B. prune belly syndrome C. autosomal dominant polycystic renal disease D. posterior urethral valves

C

The abnormal lateral ventricle shape in which there is a small frontal horn and enlarged occipital horn is referred to as: A. cebocephaly B. banana sign C. colpocephaly D. cephalocele

C

The anechoic space along the posterior aspect of the fetal neck is the: A. nuchal fold B. nuchal cord C. nuchal translucency D. rhombencephalon

C

The breast cancer treatment drug that may alter the sonographic appearance of the endometrium is: A. progestogen B. estrogenate C. tamxifen D. CA-125

C

The cervix should measure at least _________ in length. A. 4 cm B. 5 cm C. 3 cm D. 8 cm

C

The condition in which the frontal horns are small and the occipital horns are enlarged is referred to as: A. ethmocephaly B. hydrocephalus C. colpocephaly D. encephalitis

C

The congenital maldevelopment of the rectum and absence of anal opening is termed: A. jejunal atresia B. intussusception C. anorectal atresia D. duodenal atresia

C

The development of fluid-filled cleft within the cerebrum is consistent with: A. holoprosencephaly B. lissencephaly C. schizencephaly D. hydrancephaly

C

The earliest invasive fetal karyotyping technique that can be performed is: A. amniocentesis B. cordocentesis C. CVS D. PUBS

C

The fetal gut develops at the end of the 5th menstrual week and can be divided into all of the following except: A. midgut B. foregut C. centralgut D. hindgut

C

The first sonographically identifiable sign of pregnancy is the: A. amnion B. yolk sac C. decidual reaction D. chorionic cavity

C

The fourth ventricle is located: A. posterior to the CSP B. between the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles C. anterior to the cerebellar vermis D. medial to the third ventricle

C

The layer of the endometrium that is significantly altered as a result of hormonal stimulation during the menstrual cycle is the: A. myometrium B. endometrial cavity C. functional layer D. basal layer

C

The measurement of the endometrium during the early proliferative phase ranges from: A. 6-10 mm B. 8-12 mm C. 4-8 mm D. 1-2 mm

C

The mitral valve is located: A. between right atrium and left atrium B. between right ventricle and right atrium C. between left ventricle and left atrium D. between left atrium and aorta

C

The moderator band is located within the: A. right atrium B. left atrium C. right ventricle D. left ventricle

C

The most common cause of hypertelorism is: A. dandy-walker malformation B. anencephaly C. anterior cephalocele D. holoprosencephaly

C

The most common female genital tract malignancy is: A. ovarian carcinoma B. cervical carcinoma C. endometrial carcinoma D. PID

C

The most common initial clinical presentation of PID is: A. endometritis B. tubo-ovarian abscess C. vaginitis D. pyosalpinx

C

The most common placental tumor is the: A. choriocarcinoma B. maternal lake C. chorioangioma D. allantoic cyst

C

The most common sonographic appearance of pulmonary sequestration is a(n): A. dilated pulmonary artery and hypoechoic chest mass B. pleural effusion and ipsilateral hiatal hernia C. triangular, echogenic mass within the chest D. anechoic mass within the chest

C

The muscle located lateral to the ovaries is the: A. iliopsoas muscle B. rectus abdominis muscle C. obturator internus muscle D. piriformis muscle

C

The normal position of the uterus is: A. retroverted B. retroflexed C. anteverted D. dysverted

C

The nuchal fold measurement is typically obtained: A. before 12 weeks 6 days B. between 11 weeks and 13 weeks 6 days C. between 15 weeks and 21 weeks D. after 24 weeks

C

The occurrence of having both intrauterine and extrauterine pregnancies at the same time is termed: A. PID B. ectopic pregnancy C. heterotopic pregnancy D. molar pregnancy

C

The optimal scan plane to visualize micrognathia is: A. transverse B. axial C. sagittal D. coronal

C

The physiologic ovarian cyst that develops after ovulation has occurred is the: A. theca internal cyst B. graafian cyst C. corpus luteum cyst D. cystic teratoma

C

The reduction in blood return to the maternal heart caused by the gravid uterus compressing the maternal IVC describes: A. edwards syndrome B. pulmonary obstructive syndrome C. supine hypotensive syndrome D. recumbent hypotensive syndrome

C

The right ovarian vein drains directly into the: A. right renal vein B. aorta C. IVC D. common iliac vein

C

The sonographic "bat-wing" sign is indicative of: A. pericardial effusion B. pulmonary atresia C. pleural effusion D. endocardial cushion defects

C

The sonographic examination of twins reveals a triangular extension of the placenta at the base of the membrane. This finding is indicative of: A. monochorionic monoamniotic twins B. monochorionic diamniotic twins C. dichorionic diamniotic twins D. monochorionic diamniotic twins

C

The sonographic finding of a tubular, simple-appearing, anechoic structure within the adnexa is most consistent with: A. dyspareunia B. hematometra C. hdyrosalpinx D. endometritis

C

The structure noted within the Graafian follicle containing the developing ovum is the: A. corpus luteum B. corpus albicans C. cumulus oophorus D. theca internal cells

C

Theca lutein cysts would most likely be linked with a molar pregnancy and: A. down syndrome B. intrauterine growth restriction C. triploidy D. monosomy X

C

There is a definite link between microtia and what syndrome? A. rays syndrome B. VACTERL syndrome C. down syndrome D. fitz-hugh-curtis syndrome

C

Twins having two placentas and two amniotic sacs are referred to as: A. monochorionic diamniotic B. biamniotic dichorionic C. dichorionic diamniotic D. dichorionic biamniotic

C

What abnormality results from the ovary twisting on its mesenteric connection? A. pelvic inflammatory disease B. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome C. ovarian torsion D. ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

C

What are the fingerlike projections of gestational tissue that attach to the decidualized endometrium? A. decidua capsularis B. decidua vera C. chorionic villi D. placental substance

C

What chromosomal aberration is most often associated with holoprosencephaly? A. anophthalmia B trisomy 21 C. trisomy 13 D. trisomy 18

C

What chromosomal anomaly is associated with echogenic bowel? A. trisomy 18 B. trisomy 13 C. trisomy 21 D. triploidy

C

What condition is associated with bilateral renal agenesis, oligohydramnios, and fusion of the lower extremities? A. SCT B. caudal displacement syndrome C. Sirenomelia D. Osteogenesis imperfecta

C

What hormone maintains the thickness of the endometrium after ovulations? A. LH B. estrogen C. progesterone D. FSH

C

What hormone plays a major role in the symptoms associated with menopause? A. hCG B. LH C. estrogen D. CA-120

C

What is a gynecologic procedure to remove an endometrial polyp? A. hysterectomy with myomectomy B. histogram with myomectomy C. hysteroscopy with polypectomy D. hysteroscopy with polyp myomectomy

C

What is an opening within the septum that separates the right and the left ventricles? A. endocardial cushion B. tricuspid regurgitation C. VSD D. ASD

C

What is another name for an endometrioma? A. dermoid B. teratoma C. chocolate cyst D. string of pearl

C

What is another name for the most common chromosomal abnormality? A. edwards syndrome B. triploidy C. down syndrome D. turner syndrome

C

What is considered the most dependent part of the peritoneal cavity? A. space of retzius B. anterior cul-de-sac C. pouch of douglas D. rectovessicular pouch

C

What is the maternal dietary supplement that has been shown to significantly reduce the likelihood of the fetus suffering from a neural tube defect? A. AFP B. Estriol C. Folate D. Pregnancy protein A

C

What is the most common fetal renal tumor? A. neuroblastoma B. nephroblastoma C. mesoblastic nephroma D. wilms tumor

C

What is the most common form of endometrial carcinoma? A. cystadenocarcinoma B. krukenberg tumor C. adenocarcinoma D. squamous cell carcinoma

C

What is the normal opening in the lower middle third of the atrial septum? A. foramen of magendie B. foramen of monro C. foramen ovale D. ductus arteriosus

C

What is the term for a smaller than normal ear? A. microphthalmia B. mironatia C. microtia D. micrognathia

C

What structure produces hormones that directly act upon the endometrium to produce varying thickness and sonographic appearances? A. hypothalamus B. adrenal gland C. ovary D. uterus

C

What would be a predisposing condition that would increase the risk for suffering form ovarian torsion? A. hirsutism B. excessive exercise C. ovarian mass D. sonohysterography

C

What would be most likely confused for a uterine leiomyoma? A. placental infarct B. chorioangioma C. myometrial contraction D. placenta previa

C

When the sonographic 3 line sign is present, the functional layer of the endometrium typically appears: A. anechoic B. echogenic C. hypoechoic D. complex

C

Which hormone released by the ovary during the proliferative phase stimulates endometrial thickening? A. FSH B. LH C. estrogen D. progesterone

C

Which of the following best describes the optimal instance to take the femur length measurement? A. when the epiphyseal plates are clearly identified and the shaft is parallel to the sound beam B. when the diaphysis of the femur is parallel to the sound beam C. when the long axis of the femoral shaft is perpendicular to the sound beam D. when the femoral shaft is parallel to the sound beam

C

Which of the following can occur as a result of dizygotic twinning? A. monochorionic diamniotic twins B. monochorionic monoamniotic twins C. dichorionic diamniotic twins D. all of the above

C

Which of the following is a sex chromosome anomaly associated with hypogonadism and subnormal intelligence in males? A. down syndrome B. edwards syndrome C. klinefelter syndrome D. turner syndrome

C

Which of the following would most likely involve the development of a cystic hygroma? A. beckwith-wiedemann syndrome B. hydrancephaly C. turner syndrome D. klinefelter syndrome

C

Which structure remains after to corpus luteum has regressed? A. theca luteal cyst B. corpus luteum of pregnancy C. corpus albicans D. cumulus oophorus

C

Widened pelvic angles and duodenal atresia are most consistent with the sonographic markers for: A. triploidy B. patau syndrome C. down syndrome D. edwards syndrome

C

A cloverleaf skull and hydrocephalus is seen with: A. Achondrogenesis B. Osteogenesis imperfecta C. Sirenomelia D. Thanatophoric dysplasia

D

A cloverleaf-shaped skull is related to: A. trisomy 18 B. meckel-gruber syndrome C. trisomy 13 D. thanatophoric dysplasia

D

A cystic hygroma is the result of: A. alcohol consumption in the first trimester B. an abnormal development of the roof of the fourth ventricle C. occlusion of the internal carotid arteries D. an abnormal accumulation of lymphatic fluid within the soft tissue

D

A female has a history of Clomid treatment. She is complaining of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distension. What circumstance is most likely causing her symptoms? A. Stein-Leventhal syndrome B. PCOS C. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome D. OHS

D

A functional bowel disorder within the fetus that is caused by the absence of intestinal nerves is found in: A. gastroschisis B. beckwith-wiedemann syndrome C. omphalocele D. hisrchsprung disease

D

A group of abnormalities associated with the entrapment of fetal parts and fetal amputations is: A. cystic hygroma B. edwards syndrome C. ethmocephaly D. amniotic band syndrome

D

A large space between the first and second toes is termed: A. polydactyly B. clubfoot C. ulnaration D. sandal gap

D

A molar pregnancy, omphalocele, and small, low-set ears are found most often with: A. trisomy 21 B. trisomy 18 C. trisomy 13 D. triploidy

D

A patient presents with a history of chlamydia and suspected PID. Which of the following would be indicative of the typical sonographic findings of PID? A. enlarged cervix, thin endo, and theca lutein cysts B. atrophic uterus, free fluid, and small ovaries C. bilateral, cystic enlargement of the ovaries with no detectable flow D. thickened irregular endo, cul-de-sac fluid, and complex adnexal masses

D

All of the following are associated with duodenal atresia except: A. trisomy 21 B. esophageal atresia C. VACTERL association D. turner syndrome

D

All of the following are associated with esophageal atresia except: A. down syndrome B. VACTERL association C. edwards syndrome D. oligohydramnios

D

All of the following are associated with oligohydramnios except: A. bilateral renal agenesis B. infantile polycystic kidney disease C. premature rupture of membranes D. duodenal atresia

D

All of the following are associated with omphalocele except: A. trisomy 18 B. Pentalogy of Cantrell C. intrauterine growth restriction D. hirschsprung disease

D

All of the following are associated with polyhydramnios except: A. omphalocele B. gastroschisis C. esophageal atresia D. bilateral multicystic dysplastic kidney disease

D

All of the following are characteristic of spina bifida cystica except: A. banana sign B. lemon sign C. enlarged massa intermedia D. normal MSAFP

D

All of the following are clinical features of an ectopic pregnancy except: A. pain B. vaginal bleeding C. shoulder pain D. adnexal ring

D

All of the following are clinical features of placental abruption except: A. vaginal bleeding B. uterine tenderness C. abdominal pain D. funneling of the cervix

D

All of the following are clinical findings consistent with a complete molar pregnancy except: A. vaginal bleeding B. hypertension C. uterine enlargement D. small for dates

D

All of the following are clinical findings with endometrial hyperplasia except: A. obesity B. PCOS C. AUB D. thickened endometrium

D

All of the following are considered risk factors for PID except: A. IUD B. multiple sexual partners C. post childbirth D. uterine leiomyoma

D

All of the following are consistent with a complete hydatidiform mole except: A. heterogenous mass within the endometrium B. bilateral theca lutein cysts C. hyperemesis gravidarum D. low hCG

D

An abnormal connection between the esophagus and trachea is termed: A. esophageal-duodenal herniation B. double bubble sign C. esophageal atresia D. tracheoesophageal fistula

D

Another name for the chorionic sac is the: A. chorionic cavity B. extraembryonic coelom C. amniotic sac D. gestational sac

D

During an 18-week sonogram, multiple cysts of varying sizes are noted within the renal fossa of a male fetus. The other kidney appears to be normal. Which of the following would be an associated finding? A. megacystis B. ovarian dysgenesis C. hypospadias D. normal amniotic fluid level

D

Endometrial polyps are associated with all of the following except: A. intermenstrual bleeding B. tamoxifen therapy C. prolapse through the cervix D. coronary heart disease

D

Excessive hair growth in women in areas where hair growth is normally negligible would be seen with: A. ectopic pregnancy B. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome C. asherman syndrome D. Stein-Leventhal syndrome

D

Following an intracranial hemorrhage, a cyst is noted within the cerebrum that communicates with the lateral ventricle. This is referred to as: A. schizencephaly B. lissencephaly C. holoprosencephaly D. porencephaly

D

IUGR is evident when the EFW is: A. above the 90th percentile B. below the 90th percentile C. above the 10th percentile D. below the 10th percentile

D

In VACTERL association, the letter "C" stands for: A. cerebellar B. C-spine C. crandial D. cardiac

D

LH is produced by the: A. ovary B. endometrium C. hypothalamus D. anterior pituitary gland

D

Leiomyomas that project from a stalk are termed: A. SM B. IM C. SS D. Pedunculated

D

The accumulation of fluid around the lungs is termed: A. ascites B. extracorporeal effusion C. periplerual fluid D. pleural effusion

D

The presence of functional, ectopic endometrial tissue outside of the uterus is termed: A. adenomyosis B. asherman syndrome C. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome D. endometriosis

D

The segment of the fallopian tube where fertilization occurs is the: A. cornu B. fimbria C. interstitial D. ampulla

D

The short and narrow segment of the Fallopian tube distal to the interstitial segment is the: A. ampulla B. fimbria C. infundibulum D. isthmus

D

What is often used to medically treat an ectopic pregnancy? A. dilation and curettage B. dilation and evacuation C. open surgery D. methotrexate

D

What is the anomaly of the spine in which there is absence of all or part of a vertebral body and posterior element? A. Kyphosis B. Scoliosis C. Kyposcholiosis D. Hemivertebra

D

What other term is used to describe the space of Retzius? A. posterior cul-de-sac B. anterior cul-de-sac C. murphy pouch D. retropubic space

D

What ovarian mass is associated with virilization? A. krukenberg tumor B. cystic teratoma C. serous cystadenoma D. sertoli-leydig cell tumor

D

Which of the following is a true statement about the fetal heart? A. the apex of the heart will be angled to the right of the midline B. the apex of the heart is the portion closest to the spine C. the normal fetal heart will fill approximately two third of the fetal chest D. the chamber closest to the fetal spine is the left atrium

D

Which of the following is a tumor of ectopic endometrial tissue? A. brenner tumor B. cystic teratoma C. yolk sac tumor D. endometrioma

D

Which of the following is also referred to as Patau syndrome? A. trisomy 18 B. trisomy 21 C. trisomy 12 D. trisomy 13

D

Which of the following is also referred to as trisomy 21? A. edwards syndrome B. patau syndrome C. meckel-gruber syndrome D. down syndrome

D

Which of the following is associated with enlarged echogenic kidneys and microscopic renal cysts? A. MCDK disease B. obstructive cystic dysplasia C. hydronephrotic syndrome D. ARPKD

D

Which of the following is not a sonographic sign of dichorionic diamniotic gestation? A. twin peak sign B. lambda sign C. delta sign D. T sign

D

Which of the following would be best defined as regularly times menses but light flow? A. menometrorrhagia B. menorrhagia C. metrorrhagia D. hypomenorrhea

D

Which of the following would not be a cause of AUB? A. endometrial hyperplasia B. hypothyroidism C. adenomyosis D. ovarian torsion

D

Which of the following would not be decreased in the presence of Edwards syndrome? A. estriol B. hCG C. AFP D. all would be decreased

D

Which of the following would typically not be associated with amenorrhea? A. asherman syndrome B. PCOS C. pregnancy D. adenomyosis

D

the peripheral arteries of the uterus are the: A. radial arteries B. spiral arteries C. straight arteries D. arcuate arteries

D

All of the following statements are true of endovaginal imaging except: A. endovaginal imaging requires a full bladder B. endovaginal imaging leads to reduced waiting time for the patient and quicker medical management C. endovaginal imaging offers improved resolution of the endometrium, uterus, and ovaries (especially in obese patients) D. endovaginal imaging is contraindicated for pediatric patients and for those whose hymen is intact

A

The paired muscles that are located lateral to the uterus and anterior to the iliac crest are the: A. iliopsoas muscles B. rectus abdominis muscles C. obturator interni muscles D. piriformis muscles

A

The pelvic ligament that extends from the lateral aspect of the uterus to the side wall of the pelvis is the: A. broad ligamnet B. ovarian ligament C. piriformis ligament D. round ligament

A

What artifact could be noted emanating from air or gas within the endometrium in a patient with endometritis? A. ring-down B. mirror image C. posterior enhancement D. dirty transmission

A

The aorta bifurcates into the: A. internal iliac arteries B. common iliac arteries C. ovarian arteries D. external iliac arteries

B

The arteries that directly supply blood to the functional layer of the endometrium are the: A. radial arteries B. spiral arteries C. straight arteries D. arcuate arteries

B

Upon sonographic evaluation of a patient complaining of abnormal distension, you visualize a large, hypoechoic mass distorting the anterior border of the uterus. What is the most likely location of this mass? A. IM B. SS C. SM D. Intracavitary pedunculated

B

What Doppler artifact occurs when the Doppler sampling rate is not high enough to display the Doppler shift frequency? A. doppler noise B. aliasing C. twinkle artifact D. absent Doppler signal

B

Which of the following is best described as an artifact that is produced by a strong reflector and results in a copy of the anatomy being placed deeper than the correct location? A. reverberation B. mirror image C. acoustic shadowing D. comet tail

B

Which of the following is defined as excessive hair growth in women in areas where hair growth is normally negligible? A. dyspareunia B. hirsutism C. Meigs syndrome D. PCOS

B

All of the following are proper techniques for providing patient care for patients during a pelvic sonogram except: A. all transducers and their cords should be cleaned before performing a pelvic sonogram B. endovaginal transducers should be cleaned with a high-level disinfectant C. a probe cover should be placed on the transducer for transabdominal imaging to prevent the spread of infection D. sterile jelly should be used as as lube for TV imaging

C

Difficult of painful intercourse is referred to as: A. dysuria B. dysmenorrhea C. dyspareunia D. hydrocolpos

C

The "S" in the STAR criteria stands for: A. simple B. sound C. smooth walls D. septations

C

All of the following are associated with acute pelvic pain except: A. pelvic inflammatory disease B. ruptured ovarian hemorrhagic cyst C. perforated intrauterine contraceptive device D. asherman syndrome

D

A patient with an ovarian mass presents with an elevated serum AFP. Which of the following would be the most likely? A. ovarian fibroma B. ovarian thecoma C. cystic teratoma D. yolk sac tumor

D

A protein produced by the yolk sac and fetal liver that is found in excess in the maternal circulation in the presence of a neural tube defect is: A. Folate B. hCG C. Estriol D. AFP

D

A reduction in the distance between the orbits is referred to as: A. anophthalmia B. micrognathia C. hypertelorism D. hypotelorism

D

Achondroplasia is associated with all of the following except: A. frontal bossing B. flattened nasal bridge C. trident hand D. absent mineralization of the skull

D

All of the following may be sonographic findings in the presence of an ectopic pregnancy except: A. pseudogestational sac B. corpus luteum cyst C. adnexal ring D. low beta-hCG

D

All of the following may be visualized at the correct level of the head circumference except: A. third ventricle B. thalamus C. cavum septum pellucidum D. falx cerebelli

D

An anechoic mass is noted within the umbilical cord during a routine sonographic examination. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. hemangioma B. vasa previa C. chorioangioma D. allantoic cyst

D

An obstruction at the UVJ would lead to dilation of the: A. bladder and urethra B. bladder, urethra, and ureters C. bladder, urethra, ureters, and renal collecting system D. ureter and renal collecting system

D

An omphalocele is associated with all of the following except: A. pentalogy of cantrell B. trisomy 18 C. patau syndrome D. meconium aspiration syndrome

D

An omphalocele may contain: A. fetal liver B. ascites C. fetal colon D. all of the above

D

An unusual protuberance of the tongue is termed: A. epignathus B. macrognathia C. pharyngoglossia D. macroglossia

D

Assisted reproductive therapy can result in all of the following except: A. heterotopic pregnancy B. multiple gestations C. OHS D. Asherman syndrome

D

BPP scoring is conducted: A. until the fetus cooperates B. 10 minutes C. 45 minutes D. 30 minutes

D

Cessation of menstruation with advanced maternal age is termed: A. asherman disease B. premenopausal syndrome C. perimenopausal syndrome D. menopause

D

During a 12-week sonogram, bilateral echogenic structures are seen within the lateral ventricles of the fetal cranium. What are they? A. cerebral tumors B. cerebral hemorrhage C. anencephalic remnants D. choroid plexus

D

During a pelvic sonogram, you visualize a small cyst located adjacent to the ovary. What is the most likely etiology of this cyst? A. dermoid cyst B. ovarian cyst adenoma C. endometrioma D. paraovarian cyst

D

Fetal meconium typically consists of all of the following except: A. skin B. hair C. bile D. blood

D

Hepatomegaly would least likely be associated with: A. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome B. fetal anemia C. intrauterine infections D. gastroschisis

D

Measurement of the endometrium should include: A. the uterine cavity only B. the deep myometrial echoes and both basal layers C. the distance from basal layer to functional layer D. the measurement from basal layer to basal layer

D

Micrognathia is a condition found in: A. dandy-walker complex B. hydrancephaly C. beckwith-wiedemann syndrome D. trisomy 18

D

Monosomy X refers to: A. edwards syndrome B. patau syndrome C. down syndrome D. turner syndrome

D

Mothers with gestational diabetes run the risk of having fetuses that are considered: A. nutritionally deficient B. acromegalic C. microsomic D. macrosomic

D

NT measures are typically obtained between: A. 1-5 weeks B. 5-8 weeks C. 8-11 weeks D. 11-14 weeks

D

Noniummune hydrops and ovarian dysgenesis are found in fetuses affected by: A. trisomy 21 B. trisomy 18 C. trisomy 13 D. turner syndrome

D

Normally, physiologic bowel herniation resolves by: A. 8 weeks B. 10 weeks C. 24 weeks D. 12 weeks

D

OEIS complex is also referred to as: A. bladder exstrophy B. omphalocele C. potter syndrome D. cloacal exstrophy

D

Obstruction at the level of the UPJ would lead to dilation of the: A. renal pelvis and bladder B. bladder and ureter C. ureter and pelvis D. renal pelvis and calices

D

Painless second-trimester vaginal bleeding is most often associated with: A. placental abruption B. ectopic pregnancy C. miscarraige D. placental previa

D

Peritoneal spaces located posterior to the broad ligament are referred to as the: A. rectouterine spaces B. anterior cul-de-sacs C. lateral cul-de-sacs D. adnexa

D

Pools of maternal blood noted within the placental substance are referred to as: A. accessory lobes B. decidual casts C. chorioangiomas D. maternal lakes

D

Sonographically, you visualize a mass extending from the distal spine of a fetus. This mass could be all of the following except: A. SCT B. Meningocele C. Meningomyelocele D. Phocomeningocele

D

Stein-Lventhal syndrome is related to all of the following except: A. infertility B. anovulatory cycles C. hirsutism D. ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

D

TRAP syndrome may also be referred to as: A. TTRS B. vanishing twin syndrome C. twin embolization syndrome D. acardiac twinning

D

Tetralogy of Fallot consists of all of the following except: A. overriding aortic root B. VSD C. pulmonary stenosis D. left ventricular hypertrophy

D

The "lying down" adrenal sign would be seen in all of the following situations except: A. unilateral renal agenesis B. bilateral renal agenesis C. potter syndrome D. pyelectasis

D

The abdominal circumference should include all of the following except: A. the fetal stomach B. the fetal thoracic spine C. the umbilical vein D. the kidneys

D

The abnormal insertion of the umbilical cord into the membranes beyond the placental edge is termed: A. placenta previa B. placental abruption C. marginal insertion D. velamentous insertion

D

The absence of the eyes is termed: A. agyria B. epignathus C. hypotelorism D. anophthalmia

D

The anterior cul-de-sac is also referred to as the: A. space of retzius B. rectouterine pouch C. pouch of douglas D. vesicouterine pouch

D

The area of attachment of the fallopian tubes to the uterus is the: A. fundus B. corpus C. isthmus D. cornua

D

The arteries within the functional layer of the endometrium that are altered by the hormones of the ovary and are shed with menstruation are the: A. arcuate arteries B. radial arteries C. straight arteries D. spiral arteries

D

The average menstrual cycle lasts: A. 45 days B. 24 days C. 26 days D. 28 days

D

The best description for endometrial polyps is: A. malignant nodules that cause bleeding B. benign lesions associated with cervical stenosis C. malignant nodules that are associated with endometrial atrophy D. benign nodules of hyperplastic endometrial tissue

D

The best way to communicate with a patient who speaks a language other than your own is to: A. use sign language B. use proper body cues C. use an online search engine D. use a trained medical interpreter

D

The bilateral muscles that are located posterior to and extend from the sacrum to the femoral greater trochanter are the: A. levator ani muscles B. rectus abdominis muscles C. obturator internus muscles D. piriformis muscles

D

The birth defect in which the sex of the fetus cannot be determined defines: A. renal agenesis B. ovarian dysgenesis C. clitoromegaly D. ambiguous genitalia

D

The breast cancer drug that inhibits the effects of estrogen in the breast is: A. CA-125 B. Methotrexate C. RA-916 D. Tamoxifen

D

The choroid plexus cyst could be associated with an increase risk of: A. trisomy 13 B. trisomy 14 C. arnold-chiari II malformation D. trisomy 18

D

The cisterna magna should not exceed __________ in the transcerebellar plane. A. 4 mm B. 2 mm C. 8 mm D. 10 mm

D

The fetal contribution of the placenta is the: A. chorionic vera B. decidua vera C. decidua basalis D. chorion frondosum

D

The fetal heart is fully formed by: A. 2 weeks B. 4 weeks C. 8 weeks D. 10 weeks

D

The first menstrual cycle is termed: A. amenorrhea B. metrorrhagia C. mittelschmerz D. menarche

D

The first phase of the endometrial cycle is the: A. secretory phase B. follicular phase C. luteal phase D. proliferative phase

D

The first phase of the ovarian cycle is the: A. luteal phase B. secretory phase C. proliferative phase D. follicular phase

D

The form of inheritance in which at least one parent has to be a carrier of an abnormal gene for it to be passed to the fetus is: A. autosomal recessive B. autosomal dominant C. inherited dominant D. inherited recessive

D

The growth disorder syndrome synonymous with organ, skull, and tongue enlargement is: A. klinefelter syndrome B. apert syndrome C. meckel-gruber syndrome D. beckwith-wiedemann syndrome

D

The herniation of bowel into the base of the umbilical cord before 12 weeks is termed: A. gastroschisis B. omphalocele C. hernia umbilicus D. physiologic herniation

D

The hormone produced by the trophoblastic cells of the early placenta is: A. estrogen B. FSH C. LH D. hCG

D

The invasion of endometrial tissue into the myometrium of the uterus is referred to as: A. amenorrhea B. endometriosis C. adenomyomatosis D. adenomyosis

D

The left ovarian vein drains directly into the: A. right renal vein B. IVC C. Aorta D. left renal vein

D

The location of a fibroid within the myometrium is termed: A. SM B. Intracavitary C. SS D. IM

D

The majority of amniotic fluid is composed of: A. fetal blood B. fetal serous fluid C. maternal serous fluid D. fetal urine

D

The malignant ovarian mass that is associated with pseudomyxoma peritonei is the: A. dysgerminoma B. sertoli-leydig cell tumor C. serous cystadenocarcinoma D. mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

D

The maternal serum screening of a mother with a fetus with trisomy 18 will reveal: A. decreased hCG, elevated alpha-fetoprotein, and normal estriol B. increased hCG, alpha-fetoprotein, and estriol C. increased alpha-fetoprotein, increaed hCG, and decreased estriol D. decreased hCG, alpha-fetoprotein, and estriol

D

The most common abnormality of the fetal liver is: A. gallstones B. hepatocellular lymphadenopathy C. cirrhosis D. hepatomegaly

D

The most common cause of hydrocephalus in utero is: A. cerebral hemorrhage B. holoprosencephaly C. brain tumors D. aqueductal stenosis

D

The most common form of diaphragmatic hernia is the: A. foramen of morgagni B. foramen of magendie C. foramen of luschka D. foramen of bochdalek

D

The most common location of an ectopic pregnancy is the: A. ovary B. interstitial portion of the uterine tube C. cornual portion of the uterine tube D. ampullary portion of the uterine tube

D

The most common malignant adrenal pediatric tumor is the: A. nephroblastoma B. pheochromocytoma C. hepatoblastoma D. neuroblastoma

D

The most common pelvic mass associated with pregnancy is the: A. uterine leiomyoma B. dermoid cyst C. theca luteum cyst D. corpus luteum cyst

D

The most common site of fertilization is within the: A. isthmus of the uterine tube B. uterine fundus C. cornu of the uterine tube D. ampulla of the uterine tube

D

The most distal portion of the fallopian tube is the: A. cornu B. ampulla C. interstitial D. infundibulum

D

The most frequently encountered chromosomal abnormality associated with holoprosencephaly is: A. triploidy B. trisomy 21 C. trisomy 18 D. trisomy 13

D

The most superior and widest portion of the uterus is the: A. corpus B. isthmus C. cervix D. fundus

D

The quadruple screen includes an analysis of all of the following except: A. hCG B. AFP C. Inhibin A D. PAPP-A

D

The sonographic appearance of a 59-year-old woman on HRT is: A. hypoechoic and thickened B. hyperechoic and thickened C. cystic areas within a thickened endometrium D. variable depending upon the menstrual cycle

D

The sonographic evidence of a hyperemic fallopian tube is consistent with: A. Pyosalpinx B. Hydrosalpinx C. endometritis D. salpingitis

D

The space of Retzius is located: A. between the uterus and bladder B. between the bladder and ileum C. along the lateral aspect of the uterus D. between the bladder and pubic bone

D

The term that indicates the presence of two separate amniotic sacs is: A. dichorionic B. bichorionic C. monoamniotic D. diamniotic

D

The thalamic tissue located within the third ventricle of the brain that can become enlarged with Arnold-Chiari II malformation is the: A. corpus callosum B. cerebellar vermis C. cavum septum pellucidum D. massa intermedia

D

The third ventricle communicates with the fourth ventricle at the: A. foramen of magendie B. foramen of luschka C. foramen of monro D. aqueduct of sylvius

D

The trophoblastic cells produce: A. estrogen B. progesterone C. follicle-stimulating hormone D. hCG

D

Twins having one placenta and one amniotic sac are referred to as: A. dichorionic monoamniotic B. dichorionic diamniotic C. monochorionic diamniotic D. monochorionic monoamniotic

D

Twins having two placentas and one amniotic sac are referred to as: A. monochorionic diamniotic B. monoamniotic dichorionic C. dichorionic monoamniotic D. this does not occur

D

Typically, the first sonographic manifestation of TTTS is: A. oligohydramnios B. polyhydramnios C. dichorionic twinning D. discordant fetal growth

D

Unopposed estrogen therapy has been shown to increase the risk for developing: A. alzheimer disease B. colon cancer C. coronary heart disease D. endometrial carcinoma

D

What fetal suture is located within the frontal bone along the midline of the forehead? A. squamosal suture B. sagittal suture C. lambdoidal suture D. metopic suture

D

What hormone maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy? A. estrogen B. progesterone C. FSH D. hCG

D

What is it called when a twin fetus, suffering from TTTS, experiences severe oligohydramnios and becomes closely adhered to the uterine wall? A. acardiac monster B. vanishing twin C. acardiac twin D. stuck twin

D

What is the term for underdevelopment of the lungs? A. pulmonary atresia B. pulmonary stenosis C. pulmonary agenesis D. pulmonary hypoplasia

D

What lab value would be useful to evaluate in a patient with suspected internal hemorrhage? A. WBC B. lactate dehydrogenase C. amylase D. hematocrit

D

What organ(s) produces amniotic fluid after 12 weeks? A. fetal liver and the spleen B. fetal intestines and lungs C. fetal intestines and the liver D. Fetal kidneys

D

What structure within the female pelvis lies posterior the the bladder and anterior to the rectum? A. broad ligament B. rectus abdominis muscle C. space of retzius D. uterus

D

What term relates to the number of pregnancies a patient has had? A. para B. menarche C. menorrhagia D. gravida

D

When the ovary is in the luteal phase, the endometrium is in the: A. early proliferative B. periovulatory C. late proliferative D. secretory

D

When the placenta completely covers the internal os, it's referred to as: A. low-lying previa B. marginal previa C. partial previa D. total previa

D

Which hormone maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy? A. FSH B. LH C. Progesterone D. hCG

D

Which of the following artifacts is produced when the sound beam is barely attenuated through a fluid or a fluid-containing source? A. reverberation artifact B. comet tail artifact C. posterior shadowing D. acoustic enhancement

D

Which of the following findings would not increase the likelihood of an ovarian malignancy? A. separation measuring greater than 3 mm in thickness B. irregular borders C. solid wall nodule D. anechoic components with acoustic enhancement

D

Which of the following is a genetic disorder that includes craniosynostosis, midline facial hypoplasia, and syndactyly? A. lobar holoprosencephaly B. beckwith-wiedemann syndrome C. arnold-chiari II malformation D. apert syndrome

D

Which of the following is a sex chromosome anomaly? A. edwards syndrojme B. trisomy 13 C. down syndrome D. 45,X

D

Complex appearing fluid within the fallopian tubes seen with PID is most likely: A. pyosalpinx B. pyometra C. hydrosalpinx D. hematometra

A

Conjoined twins that are attached at the abdomen are referred to as: A. omphalopagus B. thoracopagus C. ileopagus D. craniopagus

A

Cyclopia would most likely be associated with: A. trisomy 8 B. trisomy 21 C. trisomy 18 D. trisomy 13

A

Dangling choroid sign is associated with: A. ventriculomegaly B. hydrancephaly C. lissencephaly D. meckel-gruber syndrome

A

Doppler sonographic reveals vascular structures coursing over the internal os of the cervix. This finding is indicative of: A. vasa previa B. placenta previa C. placenta increta D. abruptio placentae

A

Facial anomalies, when discovered, should prompt the sonographer to analyze the brain closely for signs of: A. holoprosencephaly B. dandy-walker malformation C. schizencephaly D. hydranencephaly

A

Identical twins result from: A. monozygotic twinning B. dizygotic twinning C. heterotopic pregnancies D. monochorionic pregnancies

A

In VACTERL association, the letter "L" stands for: A. limb B. lung C. liver D. larynx

A

In the 1st trimester, normal hCG levels will: A. double every 48 hours B. triple every 24 hours C. double every 24 hours D. double every 12 hours

A

In the early gestation, where is the secondary yolk sac located? A. chorionic cavity B. base of the umbilical cord C. embryonic cranium D. amniotic cavity

A

Monozygotic twins result from: A. a single zygote that splits B. two zygotes that are fertilized by the same sperm C. two morulla D. a single zygote that is fertilized by two sperm

A

Mothers with pregestational diabetes, as opposed to gestational diabetes, have an increased risk of a fetus with: A. neural tube defects B. proteinuria C. TORCH D. diethylstilbestrol

A

Nonimmune hydrops is associated with all of the following except: A. RH isoimmunization B. pleural effusion C. turner syndrome D. fetal infections

A

Normal diploid cells have: A. 46 chromosomes B. 23 chromosomes C. 21 chromosomes D. 69 chromosomes

A

OHS can cause multiple large follicles to develop on the ovaries termed: A. theca lutein cysts B. chocolate cysts C. corpus luteum cysts D. dermoid cysts

A

Patients with OHS are at increased risk for: A. torsion B. chlamydia C. gonorrhea D. vaginitis

A

Pelvic bones, when visualized on sonography, will produce: A. posterior shadowing B. posterior enhancement C. mirror image artifact D. minimal enhancement

A

Prune belly syndrome is caused by: A. an enlarged bladder B. unilateral renal agenesis C. bilateral renal agenesis D. hypospadias

A

Tamoxifen effects on the endometrium will sonographically appear as: A. cystic changes within a thickened endometrium B. cystic areas within a thin endometrium C. thin endometrium D. no apparent effect on endometrial thickness or appearance

A

The "I" in OEIS complex stands for: A. imperforate anus B. Ilial dysfunction C. irregular bladder enlargement D. iniencephaly

A

The artifact seen posterior to solid structures such as fetal bone is referred to as: A. acoustic shadowing B. posterior enhancement C. reverberation D. edge artifact

A

The clinical manifestation of supine hypotensive syndrome include all of the following except: A. proteinuria B. tachycardia C. nausea D. pallor

A

What is the stage of the conceptus that implants within the decidualized endometrium? A. blastocyst B. morula C. zygote D. ovum

A

Which of the following is typically not a clinical complaint of women suffering from adenomyosis? A. amenorrhea B. dysmenorrhea C. dyspareunia D. menometrorrhagia

A

Which of the following is the most common renal anomaly? A. horseshoe kidneys B. pelvic kidneys C. renal agenesis D. duplex collecting system

D

Which of the following is the most likely metastatic location for GTD? A. rectum B. pancreas C. spleen D. lungs

D

Which of the following may also be referred to as turner syndrome? A. down syndrome B. trisomy 15 C. trisomy 13 D. monosomy x

D

With endometrial atrophy, the endometrial thickness should not exceed: A. 6 mm B. 3 mm C. 8 mm D. 5 mm

D

A 22 week fetus with clinodactyly, an echogenic intracardiac focus. and hyperechoic bowel is noted during a screening. These findings are most consistent with: A. trisomy 21 B. trisomy 13 C. monosomy X D. trisomy 18

A

A 34-year-old patient presents with intermenstrual bleeding. The findings show a focal irregularity and enlargement of one area of the endometrium. This most likely is: A. endometrial polyps B. endometrial carcinoma C. endometrial atrophy D. Intramural leiomyoma

A

A 38-year-old female presents to US for a pelvic sonogram with pelvic pain. You see an anechoic mass in the cervix, this is: A. nabothian cyst B. benign follicular cyst C. dermoid cyst D. gartner duct cyst

A

A 55-year-old patient present with a history of pelvic pressure, abdominal swelling, and abnormal uterine bleeding. A large, multi-loculated cystic mass with papillary projections is present, what is the most likely diagnosis? A. serous cystadenocarcinoma B. cystic teratoma C. androblastoma D. dysgerminoma

A

A 60-year-old women presents with sudden onset of vaginal bleeding. Her endometrium measures 4 mm, what's the diagnosis? A. endometrial atrophy B. endometrial carcinoma C. endometrial polyp D. cervical stensosi

A

A malignant form of GTD is: A. choriocarcinoma B. hydatidiform mole C. anembryonic D. hydropic villi

A

A strawberry-shaped skull is associated with: A. edwards syndrome B. turner syndrome C. down syndrome D. patau syndrome

A

Abnormally heavy and prolonged menstrual flow between periods is termed: A. menometrorrhagia B. menarche C. menorrhagia D. dysmenorrhea

A

All of the following are produced by the placenta except: A. AFP B. hCG C. PAPP-A D. Inhibin A

A

An EIF would most likely be associated with: A. trisomy 21 B. trisomy 13 C. trisomy 8 D. turner syndrome

A

Pelvocaliectasis refers to: A. dilation of the renal pelvis and calices B. enlargement of the fetal pelvis C. ectopic location of the kidney within the pelvis D. dilation of the ureter within the pelvis

A

Placenta accrete denotes: A. the abnormal attachment of the placenta to the myometrium B. the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall C. the invasion of the placenta into the myometrium D. the condition of having the fetal vessels rest over the internal os

A

Precocious puberty is best defined as: A. pubertal development before the age of 8 B. pubertal development for the age of 13 C. excessive hair growth in girls in areas where hair growth is normally negligible D. changes within the female that are caused by increased levels of alpha-fetoprotein

A

Pregnancy-induced maternal high blood pressure and excess protein in the urine after 20 weeks gestation is termed: A. preeclampsia B. gestational diabetes C. eclampsia D. gestational trophoblastic disease

A

The largest part of the uterus is the: A. corpus B. isthmus C. cervix D. fundus

A

The lemon sign denotes: A. an abnormal shape of the fetal skull B. a normal shape of the cerebellum C. an abnormal shape of the cerebellum D. a normal shape of the fetal skull

A

The ligament that houses the vasculature of the uterus is the: A. cardinal ligament B. ovarian ligament C. broad ligament D. suspensory ligament of the ovary

A

The measurement that should be carefully scrutinized in cases of IUGR is the: A. AC B. femur length C. biparietal diameter D. head circumference

A

The most common benign ovarian tumor is the: A. cystic teratoma B. mucinous cystadenoma C. fibroma D. sertoli-leydig cell tumor

A

The structure located between the two lobes of the cerebellum is the: A. cerebellar vermis B. cerebellar tonsils C. falx cerebri D. corpus callosum

A

The syndrome associated with an occipital cephalocele, cystic renal disease, and polydactyly is: A. meckel-gruber syndrome B. potter syndrome C. VACTERL syndrome D. sirenomelia syndrome

A

The term for small eyes is: A. microphthalmia B. micrognathia C. microcephaly D. microglossia

A

The term t hat indicates the presence of two separate placentas is: A. dichorionic B. bichorionic C. monoamniotic D. diamniotic

A

The triple screen typically includes an analysis of: A. hCG, AFP, and estriol B. fetal NT, AFP, and inhibin A C. hCG< AFP, and inhibin A D. hCG, AFP, and PAPP-A

A

Which of the following forms of fetal presentation is the most common? A. cephalic B. complete breech C. frank breech D. transverse

A

Which of the following is also referred to as a chocolate cyst? A. endometrioma B. endometroid c. cystic teratoma D. androblastoma

A

Which of the following is also referred to as trisomy 13? A. down syndrome B. edwards syndrome C. turner syndrome D. patau syndrome

A

Which of the following is associated with the "whirlpool sign"? A. ovarian torsion B. hydrosalpinx C. ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome D. ovarian carcinoma

A

Which of the following is best defined as difficult or painful menstruation? A. dysmenorrhea B. dyspareunia C. dysuria D. menorrhagia

A

Which of the following is described as the situation in which the placental edge extends into the LUS but ends more than 2 cm away from the internal os? A. low-lying placenta B. marginal previa C. partial previa D. total previa

A

Which of the following would be describe as functional cysts that are found in the presence of elevated levels of hCG? A. theca lutein cysts B. chocolate cysts C. corpus luteum cysts D. endometrial cysts

A

Which of the following would be most likely associated with an excessive amount of amniotic fluid? A. duodenal atresia B. hepatomegaly C. bilateral renal agenesis D. physiologic bowel herniation

A

Which of the following would be the most likely cause of bilateral, enlarged echogenic fetal kidneys and oligohydramnios? A. ARPKD B. MCKD C. renal cystic dysplasia D. ADPKD

A

A 24-year-old female patient presents to the US department for a pelvic sonogram with an indication of pelvic pain. The sonographer notes an anechoic mass within the vagina. This most likely represents: A. nabothian cyst B. gartner duct cyst C. dandy-walker cyst D. ovarian cyst

B

A change in menstrual bleeding associated with lesions within the uterus relates to: A. DUB B. AUB C. pelvic inflammatory disease C. fibroids

B

A disorder that results in abnormal bone growth and dwarfism is: A. osteogenesis imperfecta B. achondroplasia C. radial ray defect D. caudal regression syndrome

B

A group of anomalies characterized by a small or an absent right ventricle is: A. turner syndrome B. hypoplastic right heart syndrome C. hypoplastic left heart syndrome D. coarctation of the aorta

B

A large, mostly cystic mass containing a thick, midline septation is noted in the cervical spine region of a fetus. This most likely represents a(n): A. sacrococcygeal teratoma B. cystic hygroma C. cephalocele D. anophthalmia

B

A lemon-shaped skull is related to: A. trisomy 2 B. arnold-chiari II malformation C. thanatophoric dysplasia D. beckwith-wiedemann syndrome

B

All of the following are common indicators for a pelvic sonogram except: A. evaluation of congenital anomalies B. evaluation of pelvic anatomy immediately following a motor vehicle accident C. localization of an intrauterine contraceptive device D. postmenopausal bleeding

B

All of the following are sonographic features of pentalogy of Cantrell except: A. omphalocele B. gastroschisis C. cleft sternum D. diaphragmatic defect

B

All of the following complications are associated with multiple gestations except: A. preterm delivery B. high birth weight C. maternal anemia D. maternal preeclampsia

B

All of the following would be associated with a lower-than-normal hCG level except: A. ectopic pregnancy B. molar pregnancy C. blighted ovum D. spontaneous abortion

B

Fetal stool is termed: A. plicae B. meconium C. laguna D. lanugo

B

In what location does gastroschisis occur more often? A. left lateral of the cord insertion B. right lateral of the cord insertion C. just superior to the fetal bladder D. base of the umbilical cord

B

Intrauterine growth restriction is defined as: A. a small-for-dates fetus B. a fetus that falls below the 10th percentile for gestational age C. a fetus that is immunocompromised and has decreased umbilical cord Doppler ratios for gestational age D. a fetus that falls below the 5th percentile for gestational age

B

Malignant ovarian tumors may leak mucinous material, and this condition is known as: A. dandy-walker syndrome B. pseudomyxoma peritonei C. asherman syndrome D. fitz-hugh-curtis syndrome

B

Normal ovarian flow is said to be: A. low resistant during menstruation and high resistant during the proliferative phase B. high resistant during menstruation and low resistant at the time of ovulation C. low resistant D. high resistant

B

Normally, the S\D ratio: A. increases with advancing gestation B. decreases with advancing gestation C. reverses occasionally during a normal pregnancy D. has an absent diastolic component

B

Ovulation typically occurs on day ______ of the menstrual cycle. A. 12 B. 14 C. 16 D. 1

B

The corpus luteum primarily releases: A. estrogen B. progesterone C. LH D. FSH

B

The demise of a twin during the second or third trimester can lead to: A. TTTS B. Twin embolization syndrome C. Twin peak sign D. Acardiac twinning

B

The dilation of the renal collecting system secondary to the obstruction of normal urine flow defines: A. nephrocalcinosis B. hydronephrosis C. renal calculi D. urinary stasis

B

The exaggerated distance between the first toe and the second to is: A. trident toes B. sandal gap C. phocomelia D. mesomelia

B

The fetal lip typically closes by: A. 18 weeks B. 8 weeks C. 13 weeks D. 6 weeks

B

The fetal stomach should be visualized by: A. 6 weeks B. 14 weeks C. 20 weeks D. 18 weeks

B

The hormone that surges at ovulation is: A. GnRH B. LH C. Aldosterone D. Progesterone

B

The inner mucosal lining of the uterus is the: A. myometrium B. endometrium C. serosal layer D. perimetrium

B

The second phase of the ovarian cycle is called the: A. follicular phase B. luteal phase C. secretory phase D. proliferative phase

B

The second trimester typically refers to weeks: A. 12-26 B. 13-26 C. 10-28 D. 26-42

B

The sonographic appearance of an ovarian dermoid tumor in which only the anterior elements of the mass can be seen, while the greater part of the mass is obscured by shadowing is consistent with: A. whirlpool sign B. tip of the iceberg sign C. dermoid mesh sign D. dermoid plug sign

B

The sonographic findings of a fluid-filled cranium with absence of cerebral tissue is consistent with: A. hydrocephalus B. hydrancephaly C. holoprosencephaly D. schizencephaly

B

What is the typical sonographic appearance of the endometrium during the secretory phase? A. anechoic and thin B. hyperechoic and thick C. hypoechoic and thin D. echogenic basil layer and hypoechoic functional layer

B

What section of the uterus is also referred to as the lower uterine segment? A. cervix B. isthmus C. fundus D. cornu

B

What substance does hystersalpingography utilize for visualization of the uterine cavity and Fallopian tubes? A. saline B. radiographic contrast C. water D. betadine

B

What would increase a patient's likelihood of suffering from thromboembolism? A. PCOS B. ERT C. endometrial carcinoma D. endometrial atrophy

B

What's an inherited disorder in which mucus secreting organs such as the lungs, pancreas, and other digestive organs produce thick and sticky secretions instead of normal secretions? A. hirschsprung disease B. cystic fibrosis C. multiple sclerosis D. turner syndrome

B

Which form of monozygotic twinning is least common? A. monochorionic diamniotic B. monochorionic monoamniotic C. dichorionic diamnoinic D. dichorionic biamniotic

B

Which of the following are fetal rhabdomyomas associated with? A. tracheoesophageal fistulas B. tuberous sclerosis C. eventration of the diaphragm D. tuberculosis

B

Which of the following are the paired anterior abdominal muscles that extend from the xiphoid process of the sternum to the pubic bone? A. iliopsoas muscles B. rectus abdominis muscles C. obturator interni muscles D. piriformis muscles

B

Which of the following best describes transposition of the great vessels? A. the aorta arises from the left ventricle, and the pulmonary artery arises from the right ventricle B. The aorta arises from the right ventricle, and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle C. the aortic arch is narrowed and positioned anterior to the pulmonary vein D. the presence of an omphalocele and ectopic cordis

B

Which of the following will also typically be absent with agenesis of the corpus callosum? A. cerebellar vermis B. CSP C. third ventricle D. fourth ventricle

B

Which of the following would a newborn most likely suffer from if he or she were born prior to 32 weeks as a result of multiple gestation complications? A. ascites B. pulmonary hypoplasia C. amnionitis D. preeclampsie

B

Which of the following would be best defined as abnormally heavy menstrual flow? A. menometrorrhagia B. menorrhagia C. metrorrhagia D. hypomenorrhea

B

Which of the following would be least likely associated with an elevation in MSAFP? A. anencephaly B. turner syndrome C. spina bifida D. myelomeningocele

B

Which of the following would be most indicative of a leiomyosarcoma? A. vaginal bleeding B. rapid growth C. dysuria D. large hypoechoic mass

B

A 24-year-old female presents with RLQ pain, nausea, and vomiting. Her ovary is enlarged with no detectable Doppler signal, what is the most likely diagnosis? A. ovarian cystadenocarcinoma B. cystic teratoma C. ovarian torsion D. endometriosis

C

A 25-year-old patient complains of pelvic pain, dyspareunia, and oligomenorrhea. An ovarian mass, thought to be a chocolate cyst, is seen. Which of the following is consistent with the appearance? A. simple-appearing anechoic mass B. echogenic mass with posterior shadowing C. cystic mass with low-level echoes D. anechoic mass with posterior shadowing

C

A 68-year-old patient presents with vaginal bleeding. The most likely cause of her bleeding is: A. endometrial carcinoma B. endometrial polyps C. endometrial atrophy D. endometrial fibroids

C

A cisterna magna that measures 15 mm and a normal appearing cerebellum is most likely: A. arnold-chiari II malformation B. schizencephaly C. mega cisterna magna D. DWM

C

A coexisting pericardial effusion and a pleural effusion is consistent with the diagnosis of: A. tetralogy of fallot B. pentalogy of cantrell C. fetal hydrops D. potter syndrome

C

A normal shaped skull is termed: A. dolichocephaly B. brachycephaly C. mesocephaly D. scaphocephaly

C

An 84-year-old patient presents to US with sudden onset of vaginal bleeding. Her endometrium should not exceed: A. 6 mm B. 8 mm C. 5 mm D. 3 mm

C

An abnormal division of the lip is referred to as: A. micrognathia B. cleft lip C. anophthalmia D. cebocephaly

C

An endometrioma most likely appears as a: A. simple, anechoic mass with through transmission B. complex mass with internal shadowing components C. mostly cystic mass with low-level echoes D. solid, hyperechoic shadowing mass

C

Another name for pelvocaliectasis is: A. caliectasis B. hydrocele C. hydronephrosis D. pyonephrosis

C

Another name for the rectouterine pouch is the: A. space of retzius B. pouch of retzius C. pouch of douglas D. anterior cul-de-sac

C

Asherman syndrome is associated with: A. uterine leiomyoma B. endometrial polyps C. endometrial adhesions D. ovarian fibroma

C

Infertility is defined as: A. inability to conceive after 2 years of unprotected intercourse B. inability to conceive after 5 years of unprotected intercourse C. inability to conceive after 1 years of unprotected intercourse D. inability to conceive after 3 months of unprotected intercourse

C

Insertion of the umbilical cord at the edge of the placenta is referred to as: A. velamentous cord insertion B. partial cord insertion C. marginal cord insertion D. nuchal cord insertion

C

Macroglossia is most commonly found with: A. anencephaly B. holoprosencephaly C. beckwith-wiedemann syndrome D. cystic hygroma

C

Nuchal thickening is most commonly associated with: A. patau syndrome B. hydrancephaly C. down syndrome D. cebocephaly

C

The group of fetal head and brain abnormalities that often coexists with spina bifida is referred to as: A. dandy-walker malformation B. budd-chiari syndrome C. anroldi-chiari II malformation D. amniotic band syndrome

C

The hormone of the pituitary gland that stimulates follicular development of the ovary is: A. LH B. estrogen C. FSH D. GnRH

C

The hormone produced by the hypothalamus that controls the release of the hormones for menstruation by the anterior pituitary gland is: A. FSH B. estrogen C. GnRH D. LH

C

The inferior portion of the cervix closest to the vagina is the: A. cornu B. internal os C. external os D. inferior fornix

C

The inner membrane surrounding the fetus is referred to as the: A. placenta B. chorion C. amnion D. yolk sac

C

The maternal contribution to the placenta is the: A. chorionic vera B. decidua vera C. decidua basalis D. chorion frondosum

C

The superior portion of the cervix is the: A. cornu B. corpus C. internal os D. external os

C

The surgical removal of a fibroid is termed: A. hysterosonogram B. total abdominal hysterectomy C. myomectomy D. uterine artery embolization

C

The third ventricle is located: A. anterior to the thalamus B. anterior to the cerebellar vermis C. between the two lobes of the thalamus D. superior to the corpus callosum

C

The true pelvis is delineated from the false pelvis by the: A. space of retzius B. adnexa C. linea terminalis D. iliac crest

C

The type of renal cystic disease associated with adult liver and pancreatic cysts is: A. MCDK B. ARPKD C. ADPKD D. VATER

C

The uterine artery branches off of the: A. aorta B. uterine plexus C. internal iliac artery D. external iliac artery

C

The vagina is located ______ to the uterus. A. anterior B. posterior C. inferior D. medial

C

What is the term for conjoined twins attached at the sacral region? A. sacralpagus B. omphalopagus C. pyopagus D. thoracopagus

C

What is the term for the fetal presentation that is head down? A. breech B. crown C. cephalic D. vertical

C

What is used as a tumor marker for endometrial cancer? A. CR-124 B. CE-125 C. CA-125 D. CA-45

C

What leiomyoma location would have an increased risk to undergo torsion? A. SS B. intracavitary C. pedunculated D. SM

C

What measurement should the renal pelvis not exceed prior to 20 weeks? A. 2 mm B. 10 mm C. 7 mm D. 1.2 cm

C

What ovarian tumor will most likely have a moth-eaten appearance on ultrasound? A. cystic teratoma B. serous cystadenocarcinoma C. krukenberg tumor D. sertolid-leydig cell tumor

C

What structure lies within the extraembryonic coelom? A. gestational sac B. embryo C. yolk sac D. amnion

C

What structure may be noted on the ovary just prior to ovulation? A. corpus albicans B. corpus luteum C. graafian follicle D. blastocyst

C

What term is defined as fusion of the digits? A. Clinodactyly B. Polydactyly C. Syndactyly D. Rhizodactyly

C

Which of the following locations for an ectopic pregnancy would be least likely? A. isthmus of the tube B. ampulla of the tube C. ovary D. interstitial of the tube

C

Which of the following ovarian tumors would be most likely to cause PMB? A. cystic teratoma B. endometrioma C. thecoma D. fibroma

C

Which of the following would be most difficult to detect sonographically? A. cleft lip and cleft palate B. isolated cleft lip C. isolated cleft palate D. isolated median cleft

C

Which of the following would be most likely associated with oligohydramnios? A. duodenal atresia B. hepatomegaly C. bilateral renal agenesis D. physiologic bowel herniation

C

Which of the following would be the least likely indication for a first-trimester sonogram? A. evaluate pelvic pain B. define the cause of vaginal bleeding C. gender identification D. diagnosis of multiple gestations

C

A 13-year-old girl presents to US with a history of cyclic pain, abdominal swelling, and amenorrhea. You see an enlarged uterus and a distended vagina that contains anechoic fluid with debris. What is the diagnosis? A. cervical stenosis B. adenomyosis C. endometriosis D. hematocolpos

D

A 26-year-old patient has a history of infertility and oligomenorrhea. You see both ovaries are enlarged and contain multiple small follicles along the periphery with prominent echogenic stromal elements. What is the diagnosis? A. ovarian torsion B. OHS C. PID D. PCOS

D

A 31-year-old patient presents for a saline infused sonohysterogram complaining of intermenstrual bleeding and infertility. A mass is shown emanating from the myometrium and distorting the endometrial cavity. What is the diagnosis? A. endometrial polyp B. endometrial carcinoma C. endometrial hyperplasia D. submucosal leiomyoma

D

A 67-year-old patient on HRT presents with AUB. The endometrium is diffusely thickened, contains small cystic areas, and measures 9 mm in thickness. The most likely cause of her bleeding is: A. endometrial atrophy B. asherman syndrome C. endometrial thecoma D. endometrial hyperplasia

D

All of the following are contributing factors for an ectopic pregnancy except: A. PID B. associated reproductive therapy C. IUCD D. Advanced paternal age

D

All of the following are observed during a BPP except: A. fetal tone B. thoracic movement C. fetal breathing D. fetal circulation

D

All of the following are sonographic findings consistent with adenomyosis except: A. diffuse, enlarged uterus B. myometrial cysts C. hypoechoic areas adjacent to the endometrium D. complex adnexal mass

D

All of the following are sonographic findings of Arnold-Chiari II malformation except: A. enlarged massa intermedia B. hydrocephalus C. obliteration of the cisterna magna D. strawberry sign

D

An EIF is most often seen within the: A. right atrium B. left atrium C. right ventricle D. left ventricle

D

Fetal presentation is determined by identifying the fetal part that is closest to the: A. placenta B. external os of the cervix C. maternal umbilicus D. internal os of the cervix

D

Fusion of the orbits and holoprosencephaly are associated with: A. edwards syndrome B. turner syndrome C. down syndrome D. patau syndrome

D

Pelvic bones on sonography appear: A. anechoic B. hypoechoic C. dark D. hyperechoic

D

Penetration of the placenta beyond the uterine wall would be referred to as: A. placenta accrete B. placenta increta C. placenta previa D. placenta percreta

D

Pentalogy of Cantrell includes all of the following findings except: A. cardiovascular malformations B. diaphragmatic malformations C. omphalocele D. gastroschisis

D

Possible benefits of ERT include all of the following except: A. reduction in osteoporosis risk B. reduction in colon cancer risk C. reduction in heart disease risk D. reduction in endometrial cancer risk

D

Pseudoprecocious puberty may be associated with all of the following except: A. ovarian tumor B. adrenal tumor C. liver tumor D. brain tumor

D

Sonographic findings of OHS include all of the following except: A. cystic enlargement of the ovaries B. ascites C. pleural effusion D. oliguria

D

Sonographically, you identify a fetus with fusion of the thalami and a monoventricle. Which chromosomal abnormality would be most likely? A. trisomy 8 B. trisomy 21 C. trisomy 18 D. trisomy 13

D

The condition in which the heart is located outside the chest wall is termed: A. CAM B. coarctation of the heart C. cardiac sequestration D. ectopic cordis

D

The congenital absence of part of the esophagus is termed: A. duodenal atresia B. VACTERL association C. down syndrome D. esophageal atresia

D

The development of adhesions within the uterine cavity is termed: A. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome B. Dandy-Walker syndrome C. Stein-Leventhal syndrome D. Asherman syndrome

D

The disorder associated with fetal amputation is: A. Achondroplasia B. Osteogenesis imperfecta C. Thanatophoric dysplasia D. Amniotic band syndrome

D

The double fold of dura mater that divides the cerebral hemispheres is the: A. cerebellum B. CSP C. corpus callosum D. falx cerebri

D

The muscles that may be confused within the ovaries on a pelvic sonogram include the: A. rectus abdominis and obturator internus muscles B. levator ani and coccygeus muscles C. obturator internus and levator ani muscles D. piriformis and iliopsoas muscles

D

The normal GS will grow: A. 2 mm per day B. 3 mm per day C. 1 cm per day D. 1 mm per day

D

The normal heart will fill approximately ___________ of the fetal chest. A. one half B. one fourth C. one fifth D. one third

D

The normal umbilical cord has: A. one vein and one artery B. two veins and two arteries C. two veins and one artery D. two arteries and one vein

D

The outer layer of the endometrium is the: A. myometrium B. endometrial cavity C. functional layer D. basal layer

D

The ovarian cysts that are most often bilateral and are associated with markedly high levels of hCG are the: A. corpus luteum cysts B. paraovarian cysts C. granulosa cell cysts D. theca lutein cysts

D

The paired embryonic ducts that develop into the female urogenital tract are the: A. Fallopian ducts B. Wolffian ducts C. Gartner ducts D. Mullerian ducts

D

The pelvic ligament the provides support to the ovary to the pelvic side of the wall is the: A. cardinal ligament B. ovarian ligament C. broad ligament D. suspensory ligament of the ovary

D

Upon sonographic interrogations of a 28-week pregnancy, you note that when pressure is applied to the fetal skull, the fetal skull can be easily distorted. This is evidence of: A. Arnold-Chiari II malformation B. Achondroplasia C. Thanatophoric dysplasia D. Osteogenesis imperfecta

D

Webbing of the neck and short stature is found in infertile female patients with a history of: A. trisomy 21 B. triploidy C. trisomy 13 D. Turner syndrome

D

What abnormality results in limitation of the fetal limbs as a result of joint contractures? A. acromegaly B. radial ray defect C. achondrogenesis D. arthrogryposis

D

What artifact would be seen posterior to a tooth within a cystic teratoma? A. ring-down B. reverberation C. through transmission D. shadowing

D

What cerebral abnormality are atypical facial features most commonly associated with? A. DWM B. schizencephaly C. lissencephaly D. holoprosencephaly

D

What cerebral malformation is a results of agenesis or hypoplasia of the cerebellar vermis? A. arnold-chiari II malformation B. schizencephaly C. mega cisterna magna D. DWM

D

What congenital malformation of the uterus is common and has a clear association with an increased risk for spontaneous abortion? A. anteflexed uterus B. levoverted uterus C. dextroverted uterus D. septate uterus

D

Which of the following best describe hypospadias? A. OEIS complex in the presence of a hydrocele B. the chronic obstruction of the renal pelvis and urethra C. the underdevelopment of the scrotum in the presence of a hydrocele D. an abnormal ventral curvature of the penis

D

Which of the following can occur as a result of monozygotic twinning? A. monochorionic diamniotic twins B. monochorionic monoamniotic twins C. dichorionic diamniotic twins D. all of the above

D

Which of the following conditions does not affect the orbits? A. cebocephaly B. cyclopia C. ethmocephaly D. epignathus

D

Which of the following doesn't occur as a result of menopause? A. uterine atrophy B. decreased sexual libido C. accumulation of fat in the breasts D. cystic enlargement of the ovaries

D

Which of the following hormones is released by the ovary during the second half of the menstrual cycle? A. LH B. FSH C. hCG D. Progesterone

D

Which of the following would be caused by a large acoustic interface and subsequent production of false echoes? A. posterior shadowing B. acoustic enhancement C. mirror image D. reverberation

D

Which of the following would be considered the most common uterine anomaly? A. bicornuate uterus B. bicornis bicollis C. uterus didelphys D. septate uterus

D

Which of the following would be least likely associated with immune hydrops? A. fetal hepatomegaly B. fetal splenomegaly C. anasarca D. leiomyoma

D

Which of the following would be the least likely clinical finding for a patient with endometriosis? A. pelvic pain B. dysmenorrhea C. painful bowel movements D. hyperandrogenism

D

Which of the following would be the least likely to cause abdominal distension? A. ascites B. multiple leiomyoma C. ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome D. polycystic ovarian disease

D

A myelomeningocele is associated with: A. down syndrome B. spina bifida C. edwards syndrome D. patau syndrome

B

A normal appearing 7 week IUP is seen. Within the adnexa, an ovarian cystic structure with a thick, hyperechoic rim is seen. What does this ovarian mass represent? A. theca lutein cyst B. corpus luteum cyst C. corpus albicans D. ectopic pregnancy

B

Fluid noted anterior to the uterus would most likely be located within the: A. pouch of douglas B. vesicouterine pouch C. space of retzius D. rectouterine pouch

B

Fluid noted posterior to the uterus would most likely be located within the: A. space of retzius B. pouch of douglas C. anterior cul-de-sac D. adnexa

B

Fusion of the lower poles of the kidneys describes: A. renal agenesis B. horseshoe kidneys C. moiety D. meckel-gruber syndrome

B

Prolapse of the pelvic organs most often involves the: A. rectus abdominis and obturator internus muscles B. levator ani and coccygeus muscles C. obturator internus and levator ani muscles D. piriformis and iliopsoas muscles

B

Pus within the Fallopian tube is termed: A. hematosalpinx B. pyosalpinx C. hydrosalpinx D. hemosalpinx

B

Rounded head shape is referred to as: A. dolichocephaly B. brachycephaly C. cebocephaly D. craniosynostosis

B

Sonographic findings of the endometrium in a patient with a history of PID, fever, and elevated WBC would include all of the following except: A. ring-down artifact posterior to the endo B. thin, hyperechoic endo C. endometrial fluid D. thickened, irregular endo

B

The "double bubble" sign is indicative of: A. esophageal atresia B. duodenal atresia C. hydrocephalus D. anorectal atresia

B

The condition associated with the absence of the sacrum and coccyx: A. LBWC B. caudal regression syndrome C. thanatophoric dwarfism D. heterozygous achondroplasia

B

The inner layer of the wall of the fallopian tube is the: A. muscular layer B. mucosal layer C. myometrial layer D. serosal layer

B

The lack of sulci within the fetal cerebrum is a reliable indicator of: A. agenesis of the corpus callosum B. lissencephaly C. schizencephaly D. porencephaly

B

The most common location of a cystic hygroma is within the: A. axilla B. neck C. chest D. groin

B

The most common location of an ectopic kidney is within the: A. lower abdomen B. pelvis C. chest D. contralateral quadrant

B

The most common nonlethal skeletal dysplasia is: A. achondrogenesis B. achondroplasia C. thanatophoric dysplasia D. osteogenesis imperfecta

B

The most severe form of holoprosencephaly is: A. lobar B. alobar C. semilobar D. lobular

B

The periovulatory phase may also be referred to as the: A. early secretory phase B. late proliferative phase C. late secretory phase D. early proliferative phase

B

The placenta is considered too thick when it measures: A. >4 mm B. > 4 cm C. >8 mm D. >3.5 cm

B

The premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before the birth of the fetus describes: A. placental previa B. placental abruption C. ectopic cordis D. subchorionic hemorrhage

B

A fetus with a karyotype revealing it has 69 chromosomes and sonographic findings of webbed fingers and intrauterine growth restriction most likely has: A. trisomy 21 B. trisomy 18 C. triploidy D. turner syndrome

C

A group of anomalies characterized by a small or absent left ventricle is: A. turner syndrome B. hypoplastic right heart syndrome C. hypoplastic left heart syndrome D. coarctation of the aorta

C

A sonographic exam was performed on a pregnant patient who complained of vaginal bleeding. Sonographically, you see a crescent-shaped anechoic area noted adjacent to the GS. The GS contains a 6 week single live IUP. What is the diagnosis? A. ectopic pregnancy B. molar pregnancy C. subchorionic hemorrhage D. anembryonic gestation

C

A strawberry-shaped skull is commonly associated with: A. trisomy 21 B. trisomy 15 C. trisomy 18 D. trisomy 13

C

A structural abnormality that results from an abnormal development describes: A. syndrome B. chromosomal deviation C. malformation D. congenital mispresentation

C

A succenturiate lobe of the placenta refers to a: A. bilobed placental lobe B. circumvallate placental lobe C. accessory lobe D. circummarginate placental lobe

C

Absence of menstruation is referred to as: A. dysuria B. dysmenorrhea C. amenorrhea D. menorrhagia

C

Absence of the radiy is referred to as: A. talipes equinovarus B. clubfoot C. radial ray defect D. phocomelia

C

Absence of the skull is: A. hydrancephaly B. schizencephaly C. acrania D. ventriculomegaly

C

All of the following are associated with a thick placenta except: A. fetal infections B. Rh isoimmunization C. placental insufficiency D. multiple gestations

C

All of the following are associated with a thin placenta except: A. preeclampsia B. IUGR C. fetal hydrops D. long-standing diabetes

C

All of the following are sonographic findings of Ebstein anomaly except: A. enlarged right atrium B. fetal hydrops C. narrowing of the aortic arch D. malpositioned tricuspid valve

C

Endometrial hyperplasia may be caused by all of the following except: A. HRT B. ERT C. Endometrial atrophy D. Tamoxifen

C

The recesses of the vagina are the: A. cornu B. isthmi C. fornices D. parity

C

Which of the following artifacts is caused by attenuation of the sound beam? A. reverberation B. comet tail C. posterior shadowing D. posterior enhancement

C

A small mandible is termed: A. macroglossia B. epignathus C. micrognathia D. ethmocephaly

C

With what ovarian tumor is Meigs syndrome most likely associated? A. dysgerminoma B. cystic teratoma C. fibroma D. yolk sac tumor

C

Which of the following is an estrogen-producing ovarian tumor? A. cystic teratoma B. fibroma C. thecoma D. endometrioma

C

Which of the following is considered to be the most common type of colonic atresia? A. duodenal atresia B. jejunal atresia C. anorectal atresia D. intussusception

C

Which of the following is defined as pain during intercourse? A. dysuria B. dysmenorrhea C. dyspareunia D. hirsutism

C

A 35-year-old has a history of tubal ligation and a positive pregnancy test. What condition should be suspected? A. Asherman syndrome B. PCOS C. endometriosis D. ectopic pregnancy

D

A 38 year old pregnant woman presents to US for an obstetric sonogram with abnormal maternal serum screening. Her alpha-fetoprotein and estriol are low, whereas her hCG is elevated. These lab findings are consistent with: A. edwards syndrome B. patau syndrome C. triploidy D. down syndrome

D

A bell-shaped chest and multiple fetal fractures are indicative of: A. thanatophoric dysplasia B. caudal regression syndrome C. achondrogenesis D. osteogenesis imperfecta

D

All of the following are associated with amniotic band syndrome except: A. amputation of fetal parts B. anencephaly C. facial clefting D. synechiae

D

FSH is produced by the: A. ovary B. endometrium C. hypothalamus D. anterior pituitary gland

D

Which of the following is located on both sides of the midline? A. interhemispheric fissures B. third and fourth ventricles C. lateral ventricles D. third ventricle and cerebral aqueduct

C

Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating ovarian volume? A. LxWxH x 0.6243 B. LxWxH x 0.3899 C. LxWxH x 0.5233 D. ovarian volume cannot be calculated

C

With which of the following syndromes is brachycephaly associated most often? A. edwards syndrome B. patau syndrome C. down syndrome D. turner syndrome

C

leiomyosarcoma of the uterus denotes: A. benign invasion of endometrial tissue into the myometrium B. the ectopic location of endometrial tissue in the adnexa C. the malignant counterpart of a fibroid D. an anechoic, simple cyst located within the cervix

C

the rigid region of the uterus located between the vagina and the isthmus is the: A. cornu B. corpus C. cervix D. fundus

C

The bladder, uterus, and ovaries are located within the: A. true pelvis B. false pelvis

A

Sirenomelia is commonly referred to as: A. radial ray defect B. rhizomelia C. mermaid syndrome D. rockerbottom feet

C

Which term relates the number of amniotic sacs? A. chorionicity B. placentation C. amnionicity D. embryology

C

Another name for Patau syndrome is: A. trisomy 21 B. trisomy 16 C. trisomy 18 D. trisomy 13

D

Which of the following is best defined as intermenstrual bleeding? A. dysmenorrhea B. menorrhagia C. menometrorrhagia D. metrorrhagia

D

Which of the following is considered to be the most common cardiac defect? A. hypoplastic right heart syndrome B. transposition of the great vessels C. hypoplastic left heart syndrome D. VSD

D

Which of the following is not a component of prune belly syndrome? A. magacystis B. undescended testicles C. dilated urinary bladder and urethra D. abdominal muscle hypertrophy

D

Which of the following is not a potential cause of PID? A. intrauterine conception use B. postabortion C. chlamydia D. pyelonephritis

D

The embryonic heart begins as: A. two tubes B. four tubes C. eight folds D. one tube

A

Which of the following would be the most likely fetal cranial findings with TORCH infections? A. intracranial calcifications B. cerebral atrophy C. porencephaly D. scaphocephaly

A

Which of the following would cause a bladder outlet obstruction? A. posterior urethral valves B. fetal ovarian cyst C. pelviectasis D. pelvocaliectasis

A

Which of the following would increase the risk of a patient developing endometrial cancer? A. unopposed ERT B. multiparity C. osteoporosis D. endometrial atrophy

A

With Rh isoimmunization, the maternal antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the fetal: A. spleen B. RBC's C. liver D. WBC's

B

Pyelectasis refers to: A. enlargement of the urinary bladder, ureter, and renal calices B. dilation of the ureter C. dilation of the renal pelvis D. enlargement of the ureter only

C

What is the most common fetal abnormality noted during an obstetric sonogram? A. anencephaly B. spina bifida C. cleft lip D. hydronephrosis

D

What is the term for enlargement of the urinary bladder? A. posterior urethral valves B. urethral atresia C. prune belly syndrome D. megacystis

D

Absent nasal bones and an increased nuchal fold measurement are most consistent with: A. trisomy 21 B. trisomy 13 C. triploidy D. trisomy 18

A

Which of the following lab tests may be used as a tumor marker for an ovarian dysgerminoma? A. lactate dehydrogenase B. alpha-fetoprotein C. cancer antigen (CA-125) D. tamoxifen

A

Which of the following lab values would be significant in the detection of an abdominal wall defect? A. MSAFP B. human chorionic gonadotropin C. maternal serum amylase D. estradiol

A

Which of the following most often leads to an elevation of CA-125? A. ovarian carcinoma B. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome C. ovarian torsion D. ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

A

Which of the following would not increase the likelihood of multiple gestations? A. gestational diabetes B. maternal age of > 40 years C. maternal history of twins D. ART

A

Which vessels supply blood to the deeper layers of the myometrium? A. radial arteries B. spiral arteries C. straight arteries D. arcuate arteries

A

A patient presents to US with a fever, chills, and vaginal discharge. Sonographically, what findings would you most likely not encounter? A. cul-de-sac fluid B. uterine adhesions C. dilated uterine tubes D. ill-defined uterine border

B

All of the following are associated with an abnormal NT except: A. trisomy 21 B. trisomy 16 C. trisomy 18 D. Turner syndrome

B

An increased nuchal fold is most likely associated with: A. dandy-walker syndrome B. trisomy 21 C. trisomy 3 D. nuchal cord

B

An oral teratoma is referred to as: A. macroglossia B. epignathus C. micrognathia D. ethmocephaly

B

Anechoic fluid noted distending the uterus and vagina within a pediatric patient is termed: A. hydrocolpos B. hydrometrocolpos C. hydrometra D. hematometrocolpos

B

Before 9 weeks, the fetal kidneys are located within the: A. renal fossae B. pelvis C. chest D. umbilical cord

B

Blood within the Fallopian tube is termed: A. hydrosalpinx B. hematosalpinx C. pyosalpinx D. hemosalpinx

B

Both the straight and spiral arteries are branches of the: A. common iliac artery B. radial artery C. arcuate artery D. external iliac artery

B

Compared with a normal IUP, the ectopic pregnancy will have a: A. high hCG B. low hCG C. markedly elevated hCG D. high AFP

B

Duodenal atresia and esophageal atresia are associated with: A. oligohydramnios B. polyhydramnios C. normal amniotic fluid index D. anhydramnios

B

Ectopic endometrial tissue within the uterus that leads to AUB is termed: A. endometriosis B. adenomyosis C. fibroids D. endometrial hyperplasia

B

Evidence of polyhydramnios should warrant a careful investigation of the fetal: A. genitourinary system B. GI system C. extremities D. cerebrovascular system

B

For the normal BPP, the amniotic fluid pocket should measure: A. greater than 4 cm in 2 perpendicular planes B. at least 1 cm in 2 perpendicular planes C. greater than 5 cm in 2 perpendicular planes D. at least 3 cm in 2 perpendicular planes

B

Fraternal twins result from: A. monozygotic twinning B. dizygotic twinning C. heterotopic pregnancies D. monochorionic pregnancies

B

Having the same echogenicity means: A. anechoic B. isoechoic C. echogenic D. hypoechoic

B

The presence of pus within the uterus defines: A. pyosalpinx B. pyometra C. pyocolpos D. pyomyoma

B

Which statement is true concerning fetal outflow tracts? A. the normal pulmonary artery should be positioned posterior to the aorta and should be visualized passing under it B. the normal pulmonary artery should be positioned anterior to the aorta and should be visualized crossing over it C. the right ventricular outflow tract leads to the aorta D. the left ventricular outflow tract leads to the pulmonary artery

B

With what procedure is placental tissue obtained? A. amniocentesis B. cordocentesis C. CVS D. trophoblastic resection technique

C

Which of the following is not a true statement about the normal fetal heart? A. the ventricular septum should be uninterrupted and of equal thickness to the left ventricular wall B. there is a normal opening within the atrial septum C. between the right ventricle and right atrium, one should visualize the tricuspid valve D. the mitral valve is positioned closer to the cardiac apex than the tricuspid valve

D

Which of the following is not associated with endometrial hyperplasia? A. tamoxifen B. PCOS C. ovarian thecoma D. asherman syndrome

D

Which of the following statements is not true concerning transabdominal pelvic imaging? A. TA imaging of the pelvis provides a global view of the entire pelvis B. TA imaging lacks the detail of TV C. obese patients and patients with a retroverted or retroflexed uterus present a unique challenge to the TA technique D. TA imaging is contraindicated for pediatric patients

D